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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [17th June, 2023] – Day 6

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 6 Questions - CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –16th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant Syllabus Prelims – Context: Recently, the Navy carried out a twin Carrier Battle Group (CBG) operation involving both of India’s aircraft carriers INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant. About INS Vikramaditya:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India INS Vikramaditya is the country’s most powerful aircraft carrier. Origin of the name: It has been renamed in honour of Vikramaditya, a legendary emperor of Ujjain, India. Historical Background:- It was converted from the Russian Navy’s decommissioned Admiral Gorshkov/Baku. Admiral Gorshkov/Baku This carrier served with the Soviet Navy and later with the Russian Navy (as Admiral Gorshkov/Baku) before being decommissioned in 1996. Bought by India: 2004. Commissioned by India: in 2013. It is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier. Kiev-class aircraft carrier: it was the first class of fixed-wing aircraft carriers built in the Soviet Union for the Soviet Navy. Features:- Carrying Capacity: It can carry more than 1,600 personnel, including crew. It has the ability to carry over 30 aircraft comprising an assortment of MiG 29K/Sea Harrier, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Sea King, ALH-Dhruv and Chetak helicopters. Displacement: 44,500 Tonnes. Maximum speed: more than 30 knots and can achieve a maximum range of 7,000nmi. Aircraft component: MiG 29K, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Seaking, ALH, Chetak. It can endure up to 45 days at sea. It is powered by 8 new-generation steam boilers. The aircraft carrier can be armed with a wide range of weapons. These include anti-ship missiles, beyond visual range air-to-air missiles, guided bombs, and rockets. The ship is equipped with state-of-the-art launch and recovery systems along with aids to enable the smooth and efficient operation of ship-borne aircraft. INS Vikrant IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS INS Vikrant is the largest warship to be built in India. (UPSC CSE: INS VIKRANT) Origin of the Name:- Vikrant means courageous. It is named after India’s first aircraft carrier, bought from the UK and commissioned in 1961. It is India’s first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy. Aircraft carrier: a large ship that carries military aircraft and has a long, flat surface from where they take off and land. Significance:-  India joins the United States (US), the United Kingdom (UK), France, Russia, Italy, and China, which have similar capabilities. Technologies used: STOBAR (short take-off but assisted recovery). 76% indigenous material was used. Designed by: Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design (DND). Directorate of Naval Design (DND): it is the warship design organization of the Indian Navy which came into being in 1970. Made: at Cochin Shipyard Limited in Kochi. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL): a public sector shipyard under the Ministry of Shipping. Carrier Battle Group (CBG) A Carrier Battle Group is a powerful naval fleet that consists of an aircraft carrier as its centrepiece, accompanied by various escort vessels. Twin Carrier Battle Group operation involved the simultaneous deployment of two aircraft carriers along with a diverse fleet of escort ships, submarines, and aircraft. (UPSC CSE: Ikshak Survey Vessel) Significance of Indian Navy’s twin CBG operation:- It demonstrated the Indian Navy’s capability to effectively coordinate and deploy multiple aircraft carriers along with their accompanying assets. It showcased India’s commitment to maintaining a strong naval presence. It showed India’s ability in ensuring the security and stability of the region. It also marked a significant milestone in the Indian Navy’s efforts to enhance maritime security and project power in the Indian Ocean and beyond. MUST READ: Operation Ganga SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Execution-only platform (EOP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) directed existing Mutual Funds ‘Execution-Only Platforms’ (EOPs)  to obtain registration within three months. About Execution only platform (EOP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Fuste Execution-only platform (EOP) is a digital or online platform which facilitates transactions such as subscription, redemption and switch transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds. Mutual funds: it is a financial vehicle that pools assets from shareholders to invest in securities like stocks, bonds, money market instruments, and other assets. Mutual funds are operated by professional money managers, who allocate the fund’s assets and attempt to produce capital gains or income for the fund’s investors. Historical Background:- Till now, there was no specific framework available for technology/digital platforms to provide execution-only services in direct plans of mutual fund schemes. Current Status:- As per the new SEBI’s new guidelines, no entity would be allowed to operate as an EOP without obtaining registration from SEBI or the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI). AMFI: nodal association of mutual funds across India. Categories of EOP The capital markets regulator has divided EOPs into two categories:- Category 1 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered with AMFI. Under this category, the EOPs would act as an agent of asset management companies (AMCs) and integrate their systems with AMCs and/or Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs) authorized by AMCs to facilitate transactions in mutual funds. These entities may act as an aggregator of the transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds and provide services to investors or other intermediaries. Category 2 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered as a stock broker with SEBI. It can operate as an agent of investors. It can operate only through the platforms provided by the stock exchanges. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) It is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. It was established in 1992. (UPSC CSE: SEBI) Objective: to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra Ministry: Ministry of Finance Historical Background:- Before SEBI came into existence, the Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority. It derived authority from the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947. In 1988 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India under a resolution of the Government of India. Initially SEBI was a non-statutory body. It became autonomous and given statutory powers by SEBI Act 1992. Members:- Chairman: nominated by the Union Government of India. Two members: Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One member: from the Reserve Bank of India. Remaining five members: nominated by the Union Government of India. Out of these at least three shall be whole-time members. Functions of SEBI:- Quasi-legislative: it drafts regulations Quasi-judicial: it passes rulings and orders Quasi-executive: it conducts investigation and enforcement action Powers of SEBI:- To approve by−laws of Securities exchanges. To require the Securities Exchange to amend its by−laws. Inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical returns from recognised Securities exchanges. Inspect the books of accounts of financial intermediaries. Registration of Brokers and sub-brokers. MUST READ: Mutual Funds (MF) Risk-o-meter becomes effective SOURCE: BUISINESSSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Wilful defaulters Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), allowed wilful defaulters involved in frauds to go in for a compromise settlement with respective banks to settle their dues. About Wilful defaulters:- Wilful Defaulter is an entity or a person that has not paid the loan taken back to the bank despite having the ability to repay it. Wilful defaulters are acted against comprehensively. (UPSC CSE: Time for 5th generation banking reforms) As per the RBI a wilful default occurs when:- the unit has defaulted in meeting its payment/repayment obligations to the lender when it has the capacity to honour these commitments. The funds are not utilised for the specific purpose for which finance was availed but rather have been diverted for other purposes. Those that have disposed of or removed movable fixed assets or immovable property given for the purpose of securing a term loan. Reasons for wilful defaults:- Businesses failure. Gaps in Internal audits, controls and procedures. Wrong investment decision. Bank’s failure in identifying such defaulters at an early stage of loan repayment. Steps By Government:- SARFAESI Act (Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002):- Under the provisions of this act many cases involving secured assets have been initiated. SARFAESI Act, 2002: allows banks and other financial institutions for auctioning commercial or residential properties to recover a loan when a borrower fails to repay the loan amount. RBI Instructions:– As per the instructions provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), wilful defaulters are not sanctioned any additional facilities by banks/financial institutions, their unit is debarred from floating new ventures for 5 years. Even criminal proceedings are initiated wherever necessary. SEBI Regulations:- Wilful defaulters and companies who have wilful defaulters as either promoters or directors have been debarred from accessing capital markets to raise funds. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016: it has debarred wilful defaulters from participating in the insolvency resolution process. IBC 2016: it is India’s bankruptcy law which seeks to consolidate the existing framework by creating a single law for insolvency and bankruptcy. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018: the act was enacted for effective action against wilful defaulters who flee Indian jurisdiction. It provides for attachment and confiscation of property of fugitive offenders and to disentitle them from defending any civil claim. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018: it seeks to confiscate the properties of economic offenders who have left the country to avoid facing criminal prosecution or refuse to return to the country to face prosecution. Public Sector Banks (PSB): the government has also advised all PSBs to decide on publishing photographs of all concerned wilful defaulters. It further suggested obtaining a certified copy of the passport of promoters/directors and other authorised signatories of companies availing loans of over ₹50 crores. PSBs:  banks owned or controlled by the government of India, which holds more than 50% of their shares. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) It was established in 1935 by the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934. It is the Central Bank of India. (UPSC CSE: RBI surplus transfer) HQ: Mumbai It plays a multi-facet role by executing multiple functions such as overseeing monetary policy, issuing currency, managing foreign exchange etc. Structure of RBI:- The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. Directors: are appointed/nominated for a period of four years. Functions of the RBI:- It implements and monitors the monetary policy and ensures price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Amendment to RBI Act, 1934, in 2016 Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide for a six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). It is to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target. It regulator and Supervisor of the Financial System. It manages the Foreign Exchange reserves of India. It issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation. Banker to the Government: it performs merchant banking functions for the central and state governments. Banker to banks: it maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks. It also acts as the lender of last resort by providing funds to banks. MUST READ: Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 This is box title Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) announced that the United States will rejoin it after 4 years. About United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO):- IMAGE SOURCE: vividmaps.com It is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN). UN: is an international organization founded in 1945. It works for maintaining international peace and security, protect human rights, deliver humanitarian aid, promote sustainable development and uphold international law. Objective: promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, the sciences, and culture. HQ: Paris, France. Members:- It has 193 member states and 11 associate members, as well as partners in the nongovernmental, intergovernmental, and private sectors. UNESCO member states not UN members: Cook Islands, Niue, and Palestine. UN member states not UNESCO members: Israel, Liechtenstein, United States. It is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG). UNSDG: a coalition of UN agencies and organizations aimed at fulfilling the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Functions of UNESCO:- Ensuring an inclusive and equitable quality education for all. Safeguarding cultural heritage. Advancing scientific research and collaboration. Promoting freedom of expression. Fostering intercultural dialogue. Notable Programs and Activities of UNESCO:- World Heritage Program: Designates and preserves sites of outstanding universal value. Education for All Program: Ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education for all. International Hydrological Program: Promoting sustainable water management and cooperation. Man and the Biosphere Program: Promoting sustainable development and Conservation of natural resources. Intangible Cultural Heritage Program: Safeguarding and promoting intangible cultural heritage. (UPSC MAINS: world heritage sites) Issue of USA Leaving UNESCO In 2011, UNESCO inducted Palestine as a member. This led to the US halting the agency’s funding, worth millions of dollars, under then-President Barack Obama. Reason to stop funding UNESCO:- Israel and the United States termed the inclusion of Palestine and UNESCO’s naming of what Israel claims were ancient Jewish sites as Palestinian heritage sites as examples of anti–Israel bias. US laws, owing to the country’s historical ties with Israel, prohibit funding to any UN agency that implies recognition of the Palestinians’ demands for their own state. Consequently, in 2019 the US and Israel pulled out of UNESCO citing bias in the organisation in the Palestine issue. The US had pulled out of UNESCO once earlier in 1984 and then rejoined in 2003. Recent Developments: it was negotiated recently through an agreement in 2022 that the USA will begin giving UNESCO funds again. Issue of Palestine:- The Palestinians claim the West Bank, east Jerusalem and Gaza Strip territories captured by Israel in the 1967 war for an independent state. Israel disagrees with Palestine’s claims. Palestine is not recognised as a sovereign state by the United Nations. India and UNESCO India has been a founding member of UNESCO. It had ratified UNESCO’s Constitution in 1946, while still under colonial rule. India has been continuously re-elected to the UNESCO Executive Board since 1946. Recently, India won the re-election to the executive board of the UN’s cultural and education organisation for the 2021-25 term. Objectives of UNESCO’s Mission in India:- Attaining quality education for all and lifelong learning. (UPSC CSE: UNESCO fund for languages) Mobilizing science knowledge and policy for sustainable development. Addressing emerging social and ethical challenges. Fostering cultural diversity, intercultural dialogue and a culture of peace. Building inclusive knowledge societies through information and communication. Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO (INCCU) It is a governmental body. Establishment:- Initially set up in 1949, it is a governmental body functioning under the Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Human Resource Development. A permanent Commission was established in 1951. Ministry: Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Education. Objective: to advise the Government in matters relating to UNESCO. President of the Commission: Minister of Human Resource Development. MUST READ: Seabed SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:       Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco. Region along the Persian Gulf and the Horn of Africa. The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas. Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister praised the initiative of the first Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav.  About Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav:- The Inauguration of Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav was done in 2023. The Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav is a collaborative effort between the Odisha Government and the Union Ministry of Culture. The event successfully showcased the talent and competitive spirit of tribal communities. Organized at Khel Mahotsav at KIIT University, Odisha. Objective: to celebrate sports and promote tribal sports and unity. (UPSC CSE: Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development) Significance:- It provided a platform for athletes from diverse backgrounds to showcase their abilities. It fostered a sense of togetherness among the participating states. It celebrated indigenous athletes from across India. Focus areas: sports, culture, and unity. Participants: around 5,000 indigenous athletes from 26 states, representing a variety of tribal cultures, attended the competition. Karnataka: it excelled in the women’s division of Kabaddi, securing the top spot. It also secured first place in both the men’s and women’s categories in volleyball. Jharkhand earned third place. Odisha topped in the men’s division, in Kabaddi. MUST READ: Integrating tribal knowledge systems SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Jellyfish galaxy JO206 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Hubble captured a jellyfish galaxy JO206 lying 700 million light-years away. About jellyfish galaxy JO206:- It is a galaxy located approximately 700 million light-years away from Earth. Galaxy: a large system of stars, stellar remnants, interstellar gas, dust, and other celestial objects bound together by gravity. It showcases a colourful star-forming disk surrounded by a pale, luminous cloud of dust. It is situated in the constellation Aquarius. Constellations: it’s a group of stars that looks like a particular shape in the sky and has been given a name. Origin of the name: “Jellyfish” is given to galaxies that resemble their marine counterparts. This resemblance is evident in the image of JO206. At the bottom right in the image “tentacles” of bright star formation that trails the main disc of the galaxy are visible. The image was taken with the Hubble telescope. Hubble Space Telescope: it is a large, space-based observatory by NASA/ESA. It is deployed since 1990. National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA): is an independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research. European Space Agency(ESA): is an independent space agency. Its mission is to shape the development of Europe’s space capability and ensure that investment in space continues to deliver benefits to the citizens of Europe and the world. Aquarius constellation Aquarius constellation is located in the southern hemisphere. It is one of the 12 zodiac constellations. It belongs to the Zodiac family of constellations, along with Aries, Taurus, Gemini, Cancer, Leo, Virgo, Libra, Scorpius, Sagittarius, Capricornus, and Pisces. Zodiac constellations: the Sun appears to pass through these constellations over the course of a year. Origin of the name: it is  derived from Latin, meaning “the water-bearer” or “cup-bearer.” Aquarius lies in the region of the sky which is sometimes referred to as the Sea, because it contains a number of other constellations with names associated with water like Pisces (the fish), Eridanus (the river), and Cetus (the whale), among others.  Aquarius is the 10th largest constellation. Area: It covers an area of 980 square degrees. Aquarius contains the famous supergiant stars Sadalsuud (Beta Aquarii) and Sadalmelik (Alpha Aquarii). MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line Speed of light is always the same National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking 2023: Is the ranking system of colleges flawed? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking 2023 was announced recently, showcasing the excellence and achievements of various educational institutions in India. About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking: The NIRF is a methodology to rank institutions across the country based on various parameters. NIRF was approved by the Ministry of Education (Erstwhile Ministry of Human Resource Development) and launched on 29th September 2015. It is the first-ever effort by the government to rank Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. Parameters for NIRF Ranking: The weightage for each parameter varies depending on the category of the institution. NIRF ranks institutes by their total score and it uses five indicators to determine this score — ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ (30% weightage); ‘Research and Professional Practice’ (30%); ‘Graduation Outcomes’ (20%); ‘Outreach and Inclusivity’ (10%); and ‘Perception’ (10%). Major Highlights of NIRF Ranking 2023: The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras secured the top spot in the overall ranking for the fifth consecutive year, while the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru was ranked as the best university. Three Distinct Additions of 2023 Edition of India Rankings: Introduction of a new subject namely Agriculture & Allied Sectors Expansion of scope of “Architecture” to “Architecture and Planning” to include institutions imparting courses in Urban and Town Planning. Integration of the “Innovation” ranking previously executed by the Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) into the India Rankings to reduce the burden on institutions of providing similar data to two different agencies. Significance: India specific ranking: India specific ranking system would reduce the dependence on the international agency ranking which does not take exclusivity and gives ranking. Transparency: Verifiable data would help in setting up as transparent ranking system Status of institutions: As it included both public and private institutions it provides the actual status of higher educational institutions in the country so that students could make informed choices. Improve competitiveness: This will help state as well as institutional for self-check and correcting themselves. Thus promoting excellence. It is a step towards bringing the Indian institutes on a global platform. Criticisms of the ranking framework: Insufficient quality parameters: The quality of an institution is a function of several inputs and the above indicators alone may not be sufficient. For example., how can we include the skills that an institution/university imparts to its students as one of the important ingredients? Should the financial health and size of the institution not be a criterion? etc. One-size-fits-all approach: The diversity in the Indian education system is large. There are fresh as well as old institutions offering degrees/diplomas/certifications. There is also technology vs social sciences institutions, multi-disciplinary vs single discipline, private vs public, research-based, innovation-based, language-based or even special-purpose institutions/universities. NIRF seems to be committing the same sin that the global rankings systems were once accused of — a one-size-fits-all approach. Ranking Vs accreditation: Another glaring oversight is the disconnect that exists between the ranking and accreditation. Several universities have earned a National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) A grade but figure poorly in the ranking system. Lack of international faculty: The world over, ranking educational institutes is a matter of debate and research. There are at least 20 global ranking agencies that measure quality on various parameters. Two factors that are absent and differentiate us from the global ranking systems are our lack of international faculty and students and the inadequacy of our research to connect with the industry. Suggestive measures: Normalisation of performance index: Normalisation would help as there is huge resource gap between state funded and private institutions. Separate scheme: A separate scheme for central, state and private institutions might be better, and private industries would be voluntarily made to compete with the state funded institutions. Measures like extensive cross-examination of data, systematic and monitored surveys, inclusion of state representatives in the NIRF team would help obtaining a comprehensive ranking. Way Forward: Thus, no matter how rigorous the methods, university rankings invariably involve some level of ambiguity. The NIRF’s emphasis on rankings can lead to unhealthy competition between universities, fostering a culture that puts metrics in front of the thing they are trying to measure: excellence in education and research. Source:   The Hindu Balasore Train Accident and The Issue of Indian railway safety Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster management) Context: The recent rail accident in Balasore in Odisha, involving the collision of three trains, is a tragic reminder of the challenges that India’s Rail services are facing. According to the National Crime Records Bureau, an average 23,000 people died every year between 2010 and 2021 in railway accidents. About India’s Rail services: The Indian Railways carries nearly 15 million passengers every day now compared to the peak of 23 million a day the year before the COVID-19 pandemic. India has an ambitious plan to improve its rail infrastructure, and in the year 2023-24, Rs. 2.4-lakh crore has been allocated for capital expenditure. In 2021, the Prime Minister announced that 75 new semi-high speed trains labelled Vande Bharat would be started over 75 weeks, and several have been started already. There has been attention on passenger amenities also, but nothing can be more important than safety. Though such deadly train accidents are usually not too frequent, they do recur occasionally. Train Accidents: An Overview Derailments: Derailments have been a major cause of train accidents in India. Lapses in safety protocols, track maintenance, and failure to identify and rectify track defects have resulted in derailments. For example, the derailment of the Puri-Haridwar Utkal Express in 2017, which claimed 23 lives and injured many, was attributed to negligence in track maintenance. Collisions: Train collisions have occurred due to lapses in signalling systems, human errors, and failure to maintain safe distances between trains. One such incident was the collision between the Gorakhdham Express and a halted goods train in Uttar Pradesh, in 2014, resulting in a high number of casualties and injuries. Level crossing accidents: Lapses in ensuring the safety of level crossings have led to accidents involving trains and road vehicles. Failure to eliminate manned level crossings, inadequate warning systems, and negligence in adhering to safety procedures have contributed to such accidents. For instance, in 2011, 38 people have been killed and 17 others injured in a train-bus collision in the Kanshiramnagar district of Uttar Pradesh. Signal failures: Malfunctioning or improper signalling systems have been responsible for train accidents. Inadequate maintenance, faulty equipment, and human errors in signalling operations have resulted in collisions and other mishaps. The collision of two trains in Gaisal, West Bengal (1999), occurred due to a signalling error. Overcrowding and over speeding: Overcrowding of trains beyond their capacity and over speeding have also led to accidents. Lack of proper crowd management and failure to enforce speed limits have been significant safety concerns. 2018 Amritsar train accident, where a train struck a crowd watching a Dussehra event near the railway tracks, causing numerous fatalities, highlighted the risks associated with overcrowding. Challenges and Shortcomings: Capacity Constraints: The high volume of passengers and freight transported daily leads to overcrowding and delays, impacting the efficiency of operations. Safety Concerns: Safety is a significant challenge for Indian Railways. The network has experienced a significant number of accidents and incidents, including train derailments, resulting in fatalities and injuries. Ensuring passenger and crew safety remains a top priority. Infrastructure Upgradation: The existing infrastructure of Indian Railways, including tracks, stations, and signalling systems, requires modernization and upgradation. Aging infrastructure hampers smooth operations and the ability to meet the growing demand for transportation services. Funding Constraints: Indian Railways faces financial challenges in funding infrastructure development and modernization projects. The cost of such projects is substantial, and securing adequate funds is essential. The Railways heavily rely on government funding and internal resources, which may limit the scope of investment. Competition from Other Modes of Transportation: Indian Railways faces competition from alternate modes of transportation, such as roadways and airways. Increasing competition in the freight and passenger transportation sectors poses challenges to maintaining market share and attracting customers. Skilled Human Resources: Indian Railways faces a shortage of skilled human resources, particularly in critical areas such as safety, maintenance, and operations. Filling vacancies with qualified personnel and providing appropriate training are crucial for efficient and safe railway operations. 2021 CAG Report: CAG submitted another report for the year ended March 2021. It observed, “Proper maintenance of the railway track is a pre-requisite for the train operation without accidents.” The main causes were: Poor planning, Idle track machines, Vacancies in the work force and Lack of training of Permanent Way staff. Initiatives taken by the Government Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): The government has allowed FDI in railways-related components, attracting foreign investment to the sector. From April 2000 to March 2020, FDI inflow in railways-related components stood at US$ 1,107.60 million. National Rail Plan: The government is working on a comprehensive “National Rail Plan” that aims to integrate the rail network with other modes of transport and develop a multi-modal transportation system in the country. New Online Vendor Registration System: The Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO), the research arm of Indian Railways, has launched a digital and transparent system called the “New Online Vendor Registration System” to streamline vendor registration processes. Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs): The construction of dedicated freight corridors is underway to increase the proportion of freight traffic and improve the efficiency of goods transportation. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) from Mumbai to Uttar Pradesh and the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) from Dankuni in West Bengal to Ludhiana in Punjab are part of this initiative. Rail Kisan: The “Rail Kisan” initiative aims to boost the transportation of agricultural goods by providing dedicated trains for farmers. Under this program, over 49,000 tonnes of goods have been transported on eight routes, benefiting farmers across the country. Program for the Redevelopment of Station Infrastructure: The government has launched a program to redevelop 400 railway stations across India under a public-private partnership (PPP) model. The aim is to create self-sustainable stations with high standards of safety, comfort, passenger amenities, value-added services, and efficiency. Connecting Mining Districts and the North East: Railway connectivity in the North East region is being improved to promote inclusive development. Broad gauge lines are being extended to connect major cities in the region, and railway connectivity to mining districts is being mapped to enhance transportation. Quest for Self-reliance: As part of the “Atma Nirbhar Bharat” initiative, the railways are implementing various projects. These include the development of the indigenous anti-collision system called “Kavach,” the introduction of highly energy-efficient “Vande Bharat” high-speed trains, and the goal of achieving zero accidents. Way Forward: Accidents per million train kilometre have fallen over the last decade, but poor maintenance of tracks and the rolling stock and overstretched staff are problems that the Railways can no longer camouflage with glitzy facades.  The accident in Balasore should prompt India’s railways development plans onto the right track. Safety measures including anti-collision systems are expanding, but evidently not at an adequate pace. More important will be the corrective measures by the Railways at the operational and planning levels. It will have to find more resources to modernise and rationalise its priorities. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following regarding, INS VIKRANT: It is made at Cochin Shipyard Limited in Kochi. It is India’s first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) Consider the following regarding, Wilful defaulters: They defaulted in meeting their payment obligations to the lender despite having the capacity to honour these commitments. They can participate in the insolvency resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) Consider the following regarding, Galaxy JO206 : It is situated in the constellation Aquarius. It is 700 million light-years away from Earth. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) -d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –15th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) certified Trainers trained in the cluster-based Training of Trainers project under the Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme.  About SANKALP programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. Tenure: 2018-2023.(UPSC CSE: SANKALP Scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives: to improve short-term skill training through strengthening institutions, bringing in better market connectivity and inclusion of marginalised sections of society. Eligible age: candidate needs to be 18 years old. It aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM). It receives loan assistance from the World Bank. (UPSC CSE: World Bank and International Finance Corporation) World Bank: an international organization dedicated to providing financing, advice, and research to developing nations to aid their economic advancement. 3 Key Areas of SANKALP:- Institutional Strengthening at the Central, State and District level. Quality Assurance of skill development programmes. Inclusion of marginalized populations in skill development programmes. National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) It aims to create convergence across various sectors and different States in terms of activities relating to skill training. Launched: 2015. (UPSC CSE: NSDM) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives of NSDM:- to consolidate efforts of skill training and development across sectors and states. to help expedite steps to achieve various skilling efforts at scale at a fast pace. to create an end-to-end framework which promotes sustainable livelihoods for citizens. Institutional mechanisms:- The MSDE has set up institutional mechanisms at three tiers namely:- Governing Council : at the apex level for policy guidance Steering Committee Mission Directorate The Mission Directorate is supported by three additional institutions functioning horizontally. These include:- National Skill Development Agency (NSDA):- NSDA was established to coordinate and harmonize the skill development efforts of the government and the private sector. It focuses on policy research, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):- NSDC is Public Private Partnership (PPP) under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to create training capacity in the country, fund vocational training initiatives and create a market ecosystem for skill development. It overlooks training, and capacity-building aspects of trainers – both public and private, leads the engagement with industries, and drives the sector’s skills councils. Directorate General of Training (DGT):- DGT is the apex organisation for development and coordination at the National level for the programmes relating to vocational training. It maintains the skill training structures of training Institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. MUST READ: Year End Review of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)recently released the Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI),2023. About Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: UNDP The Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) quantifies biases against women. Published by: United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). 1st edition: Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI 2020). Objective: to tackle gender norms which eventually are a broad contributor to gender inequalities. The index captures people’s attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions:- Political Educational (UPSC CSE: Gender gap in education) Economic and Physical integrity The index, covers 85 percent of the global population. Key Findings of GSNI, 2023:- The past decade didn’t see any improvement in the level of prejudice shown against women. Nearly 90% of people still hold at least one bias against women. Around half the world’s population believe that men make better political leaders than women. Two in five believe that men make better business executives than women. A staggering 25 per cent of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife. Women are grossly underrepresented in leadership in conflict-affected countries at the negotiation tables. This can be seen in the recent conflicts: in Ukraine (0 per cent), Yemen (4 per cent) and Afghanistan (10 per cent). Globally, about seven of 10 peace processes did not include any women mediators or women signatories. However, policies aimed at achieving equal participation in education have been effective, with women catching up in education. Higher enrolment and completion are seen at all levels Even in the 59 countries where adult women are more educated than men, the average income gap is 39 per cent. The most significant declines were in Chile, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia and Kyrgyzstan. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) IMAGE SOURCE: HuffPost It is a United Nations(UN) agency. United Nations (UN): is an international organization tasked with maintaining international peace and security. Objective:- assisting nations in eradicating poverty and achieving long-term economic and human development. HQ: New York City. Historical Background:- The Expanded Programme of Technical Assistance and the United Nations Special Fund were merged in 1965. The two institutions were fully integrated into the UNDP in 1971. Structure:- UNDP is an executive body of the United Nations General Assembly. After the Secretary and the Deputy Secretary-General, the UNDP Administrator is the third highest-ranking member of the UN. Funding: it is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member nations. It operates in 177 countries. It works with local governments to meet development challenges and develop local capacity. Functions of UNDP:- Democratic governance: UNDP aids national democratic transitions by providing policy advice and technical assistance, strengthening institutional and individual capacity within countries. Reduction of poverty: UNDP assists nations in developing poverty-fighting strategies. Prevention and recovery from crises: UNDP aims to decrease the risk of armed conflicts and natural catastrophes. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): the UNDP works internationally to help countries achieve the UN-approved SDG (2015-2030). MUST READ: Markets SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (2012) Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level Purchasing power parity at the national level Extent of the budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recent investigations led by the Indian Express have revealed, gaps in the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana in Jharkhand. About Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana:- PMKSY is an umbrella scheme. (UPSC CSE: PMKSY) Launched: 2015. Ministries: Ministries of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare, Water Resources and Rural Development. Historical Background:- It has been formulated amalgamating ongoing schemes Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP):- It was launched in 1996 as a central assistance programme. Implementation: Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation. Objective: Accelerate the implementation of irrigation projects that exceed the resource capabilities of states. Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP):- Launch: 2009-10 Implementation: Department of Land Resources of Ministry of Rural Development. Objective: to restore ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water. On Farm Water Management (OFWM):- Launch: 2002 Implementation: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare. Objective: it focuses primarily on enhancing water use efficiency by promoting efficient on-farm water management technologies and equipment. PMKSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme:- Centre- States will be 75:25 per cent. In the case of the northeastern region and hilly states, it will be 90:10. Centrally Sponsored Scheme: are funded entirely or partly by the central government but implemented by the states. Implementation of PMKSY:- The programme architecture of PMKSY will be to adopt a ‘decentralized State level planning and projected execution’. It will allow States to draw up their own irrigation development plans. The objective of PMKSY:- To achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level. To expand cultivable area under assured irrigation. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water. To enhance the adoption of precision irrigation and other water-saving technologies. Components of PMKSY:- Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) It aims for financial support to irrigation projects. Har Khet Ko Pani (HKKP) It aims for the enhancement of physical access on the farm by:- Creation of new water sources through Minor Irrigation (both surface and groundwater). Repair, restoration and renovation of water bodies. construction of rainwater harvesting structures (Jal Sanchay) Command area development: strengthening and creation of distribution network from source to the farm. Groundwater development in the areas where it is abundant, so that sink is created to store runoff/ flood water during peak rainy season. Improvement in water management and distribution system for water bodies to take advantage of the available source which is not tapped to its fullest capacity (deriving benefits from low-hanging fruits) Creating and rejuvenating traditional water storage systems. Watershed Development It is implemented by the Department of Land Resources. It focuses on the development of rainfed areas. It works towards soil and water conservation, regeneration of groundwater, arresting runoff and promoting extension activities related to water harvesting and management. Per Drop More Crop(PDMC) It is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The dedicated Micro Irrigation Fund(MIF) is with NABARD under PMKSY. MUST READ: Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana for 2021-26 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? (2014) Prevention of soil runoff Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’ Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, lauded the new initiative of celebrating Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana as a ‘God Bharai’ ceremony in Dausa, Rajasthan.  About Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:- IMAGE SOURCE: cm helpline Launched: 2017. (UPSC CSE: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana(PMMVY) ) Historical Background: It was rechristened from the erstwhile Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY). IGMSY was launched in 2010. It is a centrally sponsored scheme. Implementation: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme: Cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and partially compensate for wage loss. Objectives of PMMVY:- By offering financial incentives as a partial replacement for lost wages, the mother will be able to get enough rest before and after giving birth to her first child. The cash incentives provided would lead to improved health-seeking behaviour amongst Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM). Reducing maternal and infant mortality rates. Target Beneficiaries:- All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM). All eligible Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who have their pregnancy on or after 1st January 2017 for the first child in the family. The scheme is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women. It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage loss during childbirth and childcare and provides conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices. Benefits:- Beneficiaries receive a cash benefit of Rs. 5,000 in three instalments on fulfilling the following conditions viz. early registration of pregnancy, ante-natal check-up and registration of the birth of the child and completion of the first cycle of vaccination for the first living child of the family. The eligible beneficiaries also receive cash incentives under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). Janani Suraksha Yojana: it was launched in 2009 Implementation: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: reducing maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women. Exceptions:- It excludes those who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs. It also excludes those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force. Funding:- The scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under which cost sharing ratio between the Centre and the States & UTs with Legislature – 60:40 North-Eastern States & three Himalayan States–90:10. Union Territories without Legislature- 100% Central assistance. Distinctive Feature:- Implementation of the scheme is closely monitored by the central and state governments through the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – Common Application Software (PMMVY-CAS). PMMVY-CAS: is a web-based software application that enables tracking the status of each beneficiary under the scheme, resulting in expedited, accountable and better grievance redressal. MUST READ: PM-CARES for Children scheme SOURCE: PMINDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The second Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20)  was organised in Goa recently. About Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20) :- It is a forum where SAIs from G20 countries can engage with each other to share their experiences and expertise in auditing public policies and governance practices. Objective of the G20 SAI Summit: to promote cooperation among the SAIs in addressing global challenges and fostering accountability in governance. The group meets annually to discuss important issues related to public auditing and to develop joint initiatives to promote good governance and accountability in their respective countries. Chairmanship: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu, the Comptroller & Auditor General of India (CAG) will chair SAI20. (UPSC CSE: CAG and ILO) Top Priority areas for SAI20 deliberations Under India’s presidency Two priority areas have been selected for SAI20 deliberation: Blue Economy It is defined by the World Bank as the Sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ecosystem. Responsible Artificial Intelligence Artificial intelligence (AI): the ability of a computer or a robot controlled by a computer to do tasks that are usually done by humans. Important functions of Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs):- Independent audits: SAIs conduct independent audits of government finances and operations. They ensure that public funds are being used in accordance with the law and that government agencies are operating effectively and efficiently. Promoting transparency and accountability: SAIs promote transparency and accountability by making audit reports publicly available. Improving governance: By identifying weaknesses and inefficiencies in government operations, SAIs can help to improve governance. Supporting the legislative branch: SAIs support the legislative branch by providing information and analysis that can help lawmakers make informed decisions about government programs and policies. Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations: SAIs ensure compliance with laws and regulations by reviewing government operations and financial statements. Fostering international cooperation: SAIs collaborate and share best practices with their counterparts in other countries to promote good governance and accountability globally. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. He is the head of the Indian audit & account department. He is the chief Guardian of the Public purse. Appointment: he is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Tenure: 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Removal: by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution that is the manner same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge. He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/resigns as a CAG. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG:- Article 148: it broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service. Article 149: it deals with the Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. Article 150: it says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe. Article 151: it says that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Article 279:Calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule: Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule: According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. , In addition,n these bodies’ accounts are audited in such manner as CAG may think fit, and the reports relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. MUST READ: Summit SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Anjadip and Sanshodhak Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Two warships Anjadip, and Sanshodhak, were launched recently.  About Anjadip and Sanshodhak:-  Anjadip: It is an anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft vessel built for the Indian Navy. Built by: Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE). Anjadip is the third of the eight ships of the Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project. Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project: the contract that was signed between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, Kolkata and the Ministry of Defence in 2019. Historical significance of the name: – The ship has been named Anjadip to signify the strategic maritime importance accorded to the island of Anjadip, Karnataka. The island close to India’s western coast that is now part of the Indian Naval base INS Kadamba. INS Kadamba: is currently the third-largest Indian naval base. Anjadip offered strong resistance in 1961 when India took back Goa from the Portuguese. The island also has a memorial for the brave Indian marines who were martyred there. The ‘Arnala’ class of ships would replace the current ‘Abhay’ class of Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvettes of the Navy. These are designed to undertake anti-submarine operations in coastal waters Features:- It is powered by water-jet propulsion. Maximum speed: 25 knots (46 km/h). It has an endurance of 1,800 nautical miles (3,300 km) at 14 knots (26 km/h). Crew: 57 members, including seven officers and 50 sailors. It is equipped with an Anti-submarine Combat Suite, potentially the DRDO-developed IAC MOD’C’, a Hull Mounted Sonar, and a Low-frequency Variable depth Sonar. It also features a fire control system (FCS), an integrated Platform Management system, an Atomic Power Management system, and a Battle Damage control system. The ships would have 80 per cent indigenisation. Sanshodhak It is the fourth Survey Vessel Large (SVL) of the Indian Navy. (UPSC CSE: Ikshak Survey Vessel) The ship is named ‘Sanshodhak’, meaning ‘Researcher’. It signifies the primary role of the ship as a Survey Vessel. SVL ships will replace the existing Sandhayak Class survey ships, with new-generation hydrographic equipment. It will help to collect oceanographic data. Features:- They have the capability to carry four Survey Motor Boats and an integral helicopter. The primary role of the ships would be to undertake full-scale coastal and deep-water hydrographic surveys of ports and navigational channels. The ships would also be deployed for collecting oceanographic and geophysical data for defence as well as civil applications. MUST READ: MV Ganga Vilas SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Cancel culture Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society and Social Issues) Context: Recently, the term Cancel culture was in the news due to the debate of its impact on society. About Cancel culture: Cancel culture is a phrase contemporary to the late 2010s and early 2020s used to refer to a culture in which those who are deemed to have acted or spoken in an unacceptable manner are ostracized, boycotted or shunned. This shunning may extend to social or professional circles—whether on social media or in person—with most high-profile incidents involving celebrities. Those subject to this ostracism are said to have been “cancelled”. Significance of Cancel culture: When a large number of people on social media platforms collectively object to any action by a public figure, it leads to calls to ‘cancel’ the person. This cancelling occurs by pressuring the individual’s workplace to fire them, pressuring brands to drop their association with the offending individual, using threats of boycott or engaging in any other action that impacts the individual’s reputation or finances. Demanding accountability from people holding such problematic views is central to cancel culture. Recent examples: In 2020, J.K. Rowling faced a fierce backlash against her controversial tweets about the transgender community. In Bollywood many prominent personalities were cancelled for allegedly promoting nepotism. Donald Trump was ‘cancelled’ because of his racist, inappropriate conduct and words towards women, people of colour and immigrants. #Me too Movement, where many people took to social media to “cancel” or boycott celebrities and public personalities accused of sexual misconduct. Arguments in favour of cancel culture: Cancel culture allows marginalized people to seek accountability where the justice system fails. Cancel culture gives a voice to disenfranchised or less powerful people. Cancel culture is simply a new form of boycott, a cherished tactic in the civil rights movement, to bring about social change. Arguments against cancel culture: Critics argue that Cancel culture is no longer about holding people accountable, and has instead become an online form of vicious mob intimidation. Individuals or organisations are presumed guilty without due process, leading to loss of employment, reputational damage, psychological distress and even legal actions. Cancel culture  affects free speech and often signifies the lack of ability to forgive and move on. The goalposts of cancel culture keep changing, individuals and organisations are selectively targeted and face different degrees of outrage. It has led to people being constantly aggravated and frustrated with each other. They can’t seem to move beyond that, to actually initiate change of the kind they actually want to see. Way Forward: Cancel culture began as a way to correct power imbalances, however it is also being used by those holding positions of power against those it intended to help. Hence for some, it is a form of harassment, mob vigilantism and an act of censorship and for some a form of justice and a way to demand accountability. Source:  The Hindu The Hiroshima AI Process Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance), GS 3 (Science and Technology) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: During the annual Group of Seven (G-7) Summit,  Leaders initiated the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) to regulate Artificial Intelligence (AI). About Hiroshima AI process: It aims at the adoption of international technical standards for trustworthy artificial intelligence (AI). The G7 leaders have agreed to create a ministerial forum known as the “Hiroshima AI Process” that will discuss issues regarding generative AI tools like ChatGPT, such as intellectual property rights and disinformation. It is scheduled to be formed by the end of this year. Significance of Hiroshima AI process: It can help the countries develop a common understanding on some key regulatory issues while ensuring that any disagreement doesn’t result in complete discord. The process can bring greater clarity to the role and scope of the ‘fair use’ doctrine in the use of AI for various purposes. It can also differentiate use for machine-learning per se from other AI-related uses of copyrighted materials. This in turn could affect the global discourse and practice on the issue. About Artificial Intelligence (AI): Artificial intelligence is the simulation of human intelligence processes by machines, especially computer systems. Specific applications of AI include expert systems, natural language processing, speech recognition and machine vision. Examples: Robotics and Automation, Natural Language Processing (NLP), Pattern recognition is a subset of machine learning etc. Applications of Artificial Intelligence (AI): Healthcare Sector: Machine learning is being used for faster, cheaper and more accurate diagnosis and thus improving patient outcomes and reducing costs. For Example, IBM Watson and chatbots are some of such tools. Business Sector: To take care of highly repetitive tasks Robotic process automation is applied which perform faster and effortlessly than humans. Machine learning algorithms are being integrated into analytics and CRM platforms to provide better customer service. Education Sector: AI can make some of the educational processes automated such as grading, rewarding marks etc. therefore giving educators more time. Further, it can assess students and adapt to their needs, helping them work at their own pace. AI may change where and how students learn, perhaps even replacing some teachers. Financial Sector: It can be applied to the personal finance applications and could collect personal data and provide financial advice.  today software trades more than humans on the Wall Street. Legal Sector: Automation can lead to faster resolution of already pending cases by reducing the time taken while analyzing cases thus better use of time and more efficient processes. Manufacturing sector: Robots are being used for manufacturing since a long time now, however, more advanced exponential technologies have emerged such as additive manufacturing (3D Printing) which with the help of AI can revolutionize the entire manufacturing supply chain ecosystem. Intelligent Robots: Robots can perform the tasks given by a human because of sensors to detect physical data from the real world such as light, heat, temperature, movement, sound, bump, and pressure. Moreover, they have efficient processors, multiple sensors and huge memory, to exhibit intelligence. Speech Recognition: There are intelligent systems that are capable of hearing and grasping the language in terms of sentences and their meanings while human talks to it. Cyber Security: In the 20th conference on e-governance in India it was discussed that AI can provide more teeth to cyber security and must be explored. Ethical Use of AI: While AI tools present a range of new functionality for businesses, the use of AI also raises ethical questions because, for better or worse, an AI system will reinforce what it has already learned. This can be problematic because machine learning algorithms, which underpin many of the most advanced AI tools, are only as smart as the data they are given in training. Because a human being selects what data is used to train an AI program, the potential for machine learning bias is inherent and must be monitored closely. AI’s ethical challenges include the following: bias due to improperly trained algorithms and human bias; misuse due to deep fakes and phishing; legal concerns including AI libel and copyright issues; elimination of jobs; and data privacy concerns, particularly in the banking, healthcare and legal fields. Challenges in Artificial Intelligence: Lack of enabling data ecosystems. The low intensity of AI research. Inadequate availability of AI expertise, manpower and skilling opportunities. High resource cost and low awareness for adopting AI in business processes. Unclear privacy, security and ethical regulations. Unattractive Intellectual Property regime to incentivise research and adoption of AI. Only 4% of AI professionals trained in Emerging technologies; low H Index (citation) and Data sets. Government efforts regarding artificial intelligence in India: National Programme on Artificial Intelligence: It was announced in the Interim Budget 2019. The programme would be catalysed by the establishment of the National Centre on Artificial Intelligence as a hub along with 6 centres of excellence. International Centre for Transformative Artificial Intelligence: NITI Aayog and Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) initiated collaboration to set up International Centre for Transformative Artificial Intelligence (ICTAI) to conduct advanced research to incubate AI-led solutions in three important areas– healthcare, agriculture and smart mobility. National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS): It is a programme led by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology to enhance capabilities of cyber-physical systems. Budget 2019 allotted Rs. 5 crore for the mission. AIRAWAT (AI Research, Analytics and Knowledge Assimilation platform): In an attempt to achieve the goal of becoming a $5 Tn economy, the Indian government’s think-tank NITI Aayog recently released an approach paper to set up India’s first AI-specific cloud computing infrastructure called ‘AIRAWAT’ (AI Research, Analytics and Knowledge Assimilation platform). The platform aims to guide the research and development of new and emerging technologies. Way Forward: Artificial intelligence has a lot of potential for India. Nearly 200 Artificial Intelligence start-ups in India are today innovating and creating AI-based solutions for various industries. It can complement Digital India Mission by helping in the big data analysis which is not possible without using AI. A “whole of society” approach to AI governance will enable us to develop broad-based ethical principles, cultures and codes of conduct, to ensure the needed harm-mitigating measures, reviews and audits during design, development and deployment phases, and to inculcate the transparency, accountability, inclusion and societal trust for AI to flourish and bring about the extraordinary breakthroughs it promises. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, consider the following: It can help reduce the maternal mortality rate. It is under the Ministry of Women and Child Empowerment. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Anjadip, consider the following: It is the third of the eight ships of the Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project. It cannot undertake anti-submarine operations in coastal waters Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, consider the following: It is under the Ministry of Urban Development. It was launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [15th June, 2023] – Day 4

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 5 Questions - CLICK HEREP.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –14th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Exercise Ekuverin Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The 12th edition of the joint military exercise Ekuverin commenced at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand recently. About Exercise Ekuverin:- IMAGE SOURCE: Quora It is a joint Military Exercise between India & Maldives. Ekuverin means ‘Friends’ in the Maldivian language. (UPSC MAINS: India’s interests in the Maldives ) Background: India and Maldives have been conducting Exercise Ekuverin since 2009. It focuses on enhancing interoperability between the two forces for carrying out counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in a semi-urban environment under the United Nations mandate and carrying out joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations. 11th edition: was held in Maldives in December 2021. 12th edition: was held in Uttarakhand, India in June 2023. Other important joint military exercises of India: MUST READ: India-Maldives relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Svalbard mission Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Norwegian Ambassador has paid a visit to the ISRO Chairman. The meeting concluded with a mutual agreement on the importance of maintaining a continued partnership and fostering increased engagements between India and Norway in the field of space exploration and technology. About Svalbard mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: gktoday.in This visit offers an occasion to recall the challenging Svalbard mission, which took place 26 years ago at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard. In 1997, under the Savalbard mission, Antrix signed an agreement with the Norwegian Space Centre for the sale of a Rohini RH-300 Mk.II Sounding Rocket. (UPSC CSE: NISAR) Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL): is a marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe). The RH-300 Mk-II was given a new name by the Norwegian Space Centre as Isbjorn-1, which translates literally as ‘Polar Bear-I.’ Challenge: the Rohini rockets had until then flown only in the tropical hot and humid conditions in India. while the Svalbard archipelago’s temperatures were on the extremely low side. ISRO shipped the RH-300 Mk-II to Norway after qualifying it for arctic weather conditions. However, the rocket, unfortunately, did not achieve the predicted height, rising only up to 71 km. Nevertheless, the Norwegian scientists seemed happy with the launch as the data collected during the flight led to some new findings. This launch marked a new era of cooperation between the two countries in space research. RH-300 It is a single-stage sounding rocket. Derived from French Belier rocket engine technology. Launch altitude:100 km. A variant, the RH-300 Mk-II, has a maximum launch altitude of 116 kilometers. Payload: up to 80 kilograms (20 kg of scientific payload). Numerous payloads can be tested in a single flight. ISRO ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 with an expanded role to harness space technology. Department of Space (DOS) was set up and ISRO was brought under DOS in 1972. It is the space agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Vision: to harness space technology for national development, while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Objective: development and application of space technology for various national needs. To fulfil this objective, ISRO has established major space systems for communication, television broadcasting and meteorological services; resources monitoring and management; space-based navigation services. (UPSC CSE: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) Chairman: the activities of ISRO are guided by him. He would be the secretary of the Department of Space. He would also be Chairman of the Space Commission. Space Commission: the apex body that formulates the policies and oversees the implementation of the Indian Space Programme. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. Light always travels in a straight line. Speed of light is always the same. United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Dubai Customs celebrated the graduation of participants from the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme.  About United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) – IMAGE SOURCE: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. HQ: Vienna. Historical Background: It was established in 1997.It was named as a United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) in Funding: UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from Governments. UNODC has 20 field offices covering over 150 countries. (UPSC CSE: World Drug Report and UNODC) UNODC field staff develop and implement drug control and crime prevention programmes tailored to countries’ particular needs. It has approximately 500 staff members worldwide. Functions:- It acts as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division of the United Nations Office in Vienna. It is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism. It is mandated to assist Member States in their struggle against illicit drugs, crime and terrorism. Three pillars of the UNODC work programme are- Field-based technical cooperation projects: to enhance the capacity of Member States to counteract illicit drugs, crime and terrorism. Research and analytical work: to increase knowledge and understanding of drugs and crime issues. To expand the evidence base for policy and operational decisions. Assist States in the ratification and implementation of the relevant international treaties. (UPSC CSE: Synthetic Drugs in East and Southeast Asia: Report by the UNODC released) MUST READ: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. New Development Bank (NDB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Honduras President formally requested the country’s admission to the BRICS-led New Development Bank (NDB). About New Development Bank (NDB):- IMAGE SOURCE: economywatch.com NDB is a multilateral development bank. Founded by: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa (BRICS) countries. It was founded at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014. It was established in (UPSC CSE: NDB) HQ: Shanghai, China. Objective: mobilizing resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs). Members: – the Bank’s membership is open to all the members of the United Nations. Founding Members: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa joined in Bangladesh & UAE joined in Egypt joined in Uruguay is a prospective member. Funding: The Bank had an initial authorized capital of US$ 100 billion. The initial subscribed capital shall be US$ 50 billion, equally shared among founding members. First President: V. Kamath, India. 2018: NDB received observer status in the United Nations General Assembly. Significance: NDB strives to act as a catalyst in bridging the gap between the availability of financial resources and the growing needs of our founding members and EMDCs. (UPSC MAINS: Significance of NDB, AIIB and ADB ) Objectives:- Fostering the development of member countries. Supporting economic growth. Promoting competitiveness and facilitating job creation. Building a knowledge-sharing platform among developing countries.  Focus Areas:- Clean energy and energy efficiency Transport infrastructure Water and sanitation Digital infrastructure Environmental protection Social infrastructure Major Projects Funded by NDB in India:- It has committed funding to a number of major infrastructure projects in India, including:- Mumbai Metro rail, Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System and Many Renewable Energy projects. 2020: India announced a 1 billion USD loan pact with NDB to boost rural employment and infrastructure. Recent Projects in India:- Bihar Rural Road (Phase II):2023 Corridor 4 of Phase II of Chennai Metro Rail Project:2022 Meghalaya Ecotourism Infrastructure Development Project:2022 Assam Bridge-II (Palasbari) Project:2022 Sustainable Low-carbon Rail Infrastructure Program:2022 MUST READ: BRICS SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Global Slavery Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Important Publications Context: The Global Slavery Index 2023 was published recently. About Global Slavery Index 2023:- It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries. Published by: the Walk Free Foundation It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the International Organisation for Migration (IOM). ILO: it is a specialized agency of the United Nations working for social justice and is essential to universal and lasting peace. IOM: it is an intergovernmental organization in the field of migration. The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality). Key Highlights of the Report:- According to the Global Slavery Index 2023, an estimated 50 million people were living in modern slavery on any given day in 2021. It is an increase of 10 million people since 2016. Modern slavery: it encompasses various forms of exploitation, including forced labour, forced marriage, debt bondage, commercial sexual exploitation, human trafficking, slavery-like practices, and the sale and exploitation of children. This means that one in every 160 people in the world is a victim of modern slavery. Countries with the highest prevalence: North Korea (104.6), Eritrea (90.3), and Mauritania (32.0). modern slavery in these is often state-sponsored. Countries with the lowest prevalence: Switzerland (0.5), Norway (0.5), and Germany (0.6). Asia and the Pacific: has the largest number of people in modern slavery. (29.3 million) India: has a prevalence of 8. (Estimated proportion of the population living in modern slavery per thousand people). India, China, Russia, Indonesia, Turkey, and the U.S. are among the top G20 countries with the highest number of forced labourers Countries hosting the maximum number of people living in modern slavery:- India China North Korea MUST READ: World of Work Report SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom. The United States of America. Q.2) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change. Regulation of food prices and food security. Gender parity at the workplace. Menhir and megalithic burial sites Syllabus Prelims –Ancient History Context: Recently, the Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology declared five menhir and megalithic burial sites at Kodumanal in Erode district as protected monuments. About Menhir and megalithic burial sites:- Menhirs are upright stones from the Megalithic period. (UPSC MAINS: Rock cut architecture) They are erected above a burial site or near a burial site as a memorial. Megalith:- Megaliths are large stones that are used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or together with other stones. Megaliths were constructed as either burial sites or commemorative Timeline:- The construction of these structures took place mainly in the Neolithic period. It continued into the Chalcolithic period and the Bronze Age. In India: archaeologists trace the majority of the megaliths to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC), though some sites precede the Iron Age, extending up to 2000 BC. Distribution in India:- Megaliths are spread across the Indian subcontinent. The majority of megalithic sites are found in Peninsular India. It is concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Types of Megalithic Structure:- Stone Circles: Stone circles are commonly called “cromlechs” (a word in the Welsh language). Dolmen: A dolmen is a megalithic structure formed by placing a large capstone on two or more support stones, forming a chamber below, sometimes closed in on three sides. Cist: a small stone-built coffin-like box or ossuary used to hold the bodies of the dead. Monolith: Any single standing stone erected in prehistoric times. Synonymous with “megalith” and “menhir”. Capstone style: Single megaliths placed horizontally, often over burial chambers, without the use of support stones. Recent Findings in Kodumanal:- Potsherds containing names inscribed in Tamil-Brahmi script were found in large numbers. Potsherd= a broken piece of an object made of baked clay, especially one found by an archaeologist Roman silver coins, precious stones and quartz were found. Significance: these findings showed that an industrial and trade Centre had existed here about 2,300 years ago. MUST READ: Necropolis SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelising water into connected reservoirs? (2021) Dholavira Kalibangan Rakhigarhi Ropar Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2019) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Betelgeuse Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, there have been debates regarding explosion of the red giant star, Betelgeuse. About Betelgeuse:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Betelgeuse is a red supergiant star in the constellation Orion. Supergiant star: over 20 times bigger than the Sun. It is one of the largest visible starts to the naked eye. It is the second-brightest in the constellation of Orion. The star is approximately 650 light-years from Earth. Betelgeuse is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It is a distinctly reddish, semiregular variable star whose apparent magnitude, varies between +0.0 and +1.6. At near-infrared wavelengths, Betelgeuse is the brightest star in the night sky. It is known for its periodic dimming and brightening up. In massive stars like Betelgeuse, the carbon-burning stage lasts only up to a few hundred years, after which the star ‘dies’ and collapses into a supernova within a few months. Supernova A supernova is the name given to the explosion of a massive star. They are the largest explosion that takes place in space. A star can go supernova in one of two ways:- Type I supernova: Star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbor until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites. Type II supernova: Star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity. Orion constellation Orion constellation is named after the hunter in Greek mythology. Orion, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world. In total, Orion is home to 10% of the seventy brightest stars, despite covering only 1.4% of the sky. MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Mains Covid Vaccine Intelligence Network (CoWIN) Portal Data Breach Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The CoWIN portal, which is used by most Indians to register for COVID-19 vaccination, has been in the news recently after reports of a data breach by a Telegram bot. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) had been asked to investigate the issue and submit a report. CERT-In, in its initial report, has pointed out that the back-end database for the Telegram bot was not directly accessing the APIs (application programming interfaces) of the CoWIN database. About CoWIN Portal: CoWIN Portal is the digital platform to capture covid-19 vaccination program details. CoWIN connects to various stakeholders, including vaccine manufacturers, administrators, and verifiers, public and private vaccination facilities, and vaccine recipients etc. The CoWIN platform was developed at a record speed with ample consideration to its scalability, modularity and interoperability. CoWIN has been integrated with other government mobile applications such as Aarogya Setu and UMANG. CoWIN provides access to third-party applications that have been authorised by the government to use its APIs (application programming interfaces). APIs are a set of rules that allow two applications to communicate and share data. Data access on the CoWIN portal: At present individual level, vaccinated beneficiary data access on the CoWIN portal is available at three levels. Beneficiary dashboard: The person who has been vaccinated can have an access to the Co-WIN data through use of registered Mobile number with OTP authentication. CoWIN authorized user: The vaccinator with use of authentic login credential provided can access personal level data of vaccinated beneficiaries. But the CoWIN system tracks and keeps record of each time an authorized user accesses the CoWIN system. API based access: The third party applications who have been provided authorised access of Co-WIN APIs can access personal level data of vaccinated beneficiaries only through beneficiary OTP authentication. Implications of this data leak: Identity theft risks: The leaked data exposes individuals to the risk of identity theft, as sensitive information can be misused for fraudulent activities. Targeted frauds and phishing attacks: With access to personal details, scammers may attempt targeted frauds and phishing attacks, leading to financial loss and potential harm to individuals. Loss of trust in government systems: The data breach undermines public trust in the government’s ability to safeguard sensitive information, affecting confidence in the vaccination program and other government initiatives. Reputational damage: The incident could tarnish the reputation of the CoWIN platform and associated government agencies, affecting their credibility in managing sensitive data. Impact on future vaccination drive: Concerns about data security may deter individuals from participating in the vaccination program, slowing down efforts to control the spread of COVID-19. Calls for accountability: The data leak prompts demands for accountability from the responsible government agencies and the implementation of stricter measures to protect citizen data. Need for Data Protection in India: India as a data-driven economy: As per a report by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in 2019, there were 665.31 million internet subscribers in India. This indicates that personal data is becoming available in the public domain due to high mobile internet usage. Younger Generation and Data: Statistics show that 30.5% of Indians are below the age of 25 and extensively use mobile apps to access social media. Therefore, it becomes imperative for the government to protect the personal data of its citizens. Risks to Individual Data: Loss of individual privacy, including the loss of individuals’ control on usage of their personal data, is one of the most significant data risks at present. Financial Losses: Data breaches have become a significant issue in India, resulting in financial losses to individuals. Hackers often target bank account details, credit card information, and other financial identifiers, leading to fraudulent activities and financial harm. Discrimination and Marginalization: Profiling individuals or groups based on their personal data can lead to unfair exclusion, marginalization, or discrimination. Way Forward: Increase awareness among the software community on producing safer software and push organisations to invest in better practices. There is need to invest in cutting-edge defence mechanisms, enact stringent legislation, and foster cross-sector collaboration to counter evolving threats. Source:   Indian Express Minimum Support Prices (MSP) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the increase in Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for all mandated Kharif Crops for 2023-24. About MSP: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season, considering the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The Food Corporation of India (FCI), along with state government agencies (SGAs), procures food grains under MSP. There are two types of systems: centralized procurement system and Decentralized procurement system Centralized procurement system: The procurement of food grains in Central Pool is undertaken by FCI either directly or by State government agencies (SGA). Central pool refers to stocks procured through MSP operations for welfare schemes and calamity relief. Quantity procured by SGAs is handed over to FCI for storage and subsequent issue against GoI (Government of India) allocations in the same State or movement of surplus stocks to other States. The cost of the food grains procured by State agencies is reimbursed by FCI. Decentralized procurement system: The State Government itself undertakes direct purchase of food grains. It also stores and distributes these food grains under NFSA and other welfare schemes. Significance of MSP: Better price for their crops: With the increase in the MSP, farmers will get a better price for their crops and procurement will be done. Promotion to grow oilseeds: As farmers get a secured price for their crops, it will encourage more and more farmers to grow oilseeds as well as prompt them to shift away from grains. Crop Diversification: There are slightly higher increases in the MSP for pulses, oilseeds and coarse cereals, which helps in achieving the motive of diversifying crops. Differential Remuneration and protection to farmers: It helps in diversifying the crops in land use pattern. It protects farmers from the unwarranted fluctuation in prices provoked by the international level price variations. Any sharp fall in the market price of a commodity can be handled as MSP acts as a shock absorber. Mend demand supply imbalance: Concerted efforts were made to realign the MSPs in favor of oilseeds, pulses and coarse cereals. Focus on Nutri-Rich crops: The added focus on nutri-rich nutri-cereals is to incentivize its production in the areas where rice-wheat cannot be grown without long-term adverse implications for groundwater table. Atma-Nirbhar Bharat: To boost pulses and oilseeds production and reduce the country’s dependence on imports, the government increased the support price of tur by Rs. 300 to Rs 6,300 per quintal for the 2021-22 crop year from Rs 6,000 per quintal last year. Issues Associated with India’s MSP Regime: Limited Extent: As against the official announcement of MSP for 23 crops, only two, rice and wheat, are procured as these are distributed in NFSA (National Food Security Act). For the rest, it is mostly ad-hoc and insignificant. Ineffectively Implemented: The Shanta Kumar Committee, in its report in 2015, stated that only 6 % of farmers receive MSP, which means that 94% of the farmers in the country are deprived from the benefit of the MSP. More of a Procurement Price: The current MSP regime is not related to prices in the domestic market. Makes Agriculture Wheat and Paddy Dominated: Skewed MSP dominated system of rice and wheat leads to overproduction of these crops and discourages farmers to grow other crops and horticulture products, which has higher demand and subsequently could lead to increase in farmer’s income. Middlemen-Dependent: The MSP-based procurement system is also dependent on intermediaries, commission agents and APMC officials, which smaller farmers find difficult to get access. Way Forward: The procurement policy of the government needs reforms that are easier to implement. Efforts must be made to balance market price and farmers’ support. Cash transfer gives better choices to farmers than imposing subsidies. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements: It was established by the BRICS countries. Digital infrastructure is one of its focus areas. Its Headquarters is in Beijing. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) With reference to the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), consider the following statements: It is Headquartered in Montreal. It is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to Betelgeuse, consider the following statements: It is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. It lies in the Orion Constellation. It is smaller than the sun. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [14th June, 2023] – Day 3

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 3 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –13th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gilgit Manuscripts Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the National Archives of India organized an exhibition which exhibited the Gilgit Manuscripts.  About Gilgit Manuscripts:- IMAGE SOURCE: slideshare.net Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. . Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE. It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent. It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region. It contains both canonical and non-canonical Jain and Buddhist works that throw light on the evolution of much religious-philosophical literature. (UPSC CSE: Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site) National Archives of India The present building of the National Archives of India was constructed in 1926 following the transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. Historical Background: It was established in 1891 at Kolkata (Calcutta) as the Imperial Record Department. Ministry: Ministry of Culture HQ: New Delhi It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Public Records Act, 1993 and Public Record Rules, 1997. Its repositories are a vast collection of records, which include files, volumes, maps, bills assented to by the President of India, an important collection of Gazettes and Gazetteers, Census records, assembly and parliament debates, proscribed literature, travel accounts, etc. A major chunk of Oriental records is in Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, etc. MUST READ: Palm-Leaf Manuscript Museum SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) ln Which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka? (2019) Kanganahalli Sanchi Shahbazgarhi Sohgaura Anak Krakatau volcano Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Indonesia’s Anak Krakatau volcano erupted recently.  About Anak Krakatau volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: ABC News  It is an island in a caldera situated in the Sunda Strait between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia. Caldera: It is a large depression formed when a volcano erupts and collapses. Origin: Anak Krakatau, which means the child of Krakatau, is the offspring of the famous Krakatau volcano, whose monumental eruption in 1883 triggered a period of global cooling. In 1927, Anak Krakatoa emerged from the caldera formed in 1883 by the explosive volcanic eruption that destroyed the island of Krakatoa. (UPSC CSE: Volcanic eruption at Mount Semeru) It is part of the Ujung Kulon National Park, listed in UNESCO’s World Heritage site.(UPSC CSE: Dholavira: India’s 40th World Heritage Site) Ujung Kulon National Park It is a national park on the island of Java, in the province of Banten, Indonesia. It is best known as the last refuge of the one-horned Javan rhinoceros. A remote area of low hills and plateaus, with small lagoons and coastal dunes, it occupies 475 square miles (1,229 square km) on a peninsula and some islands at the extreme western tip of Java. The park faces the Sunda Strait, separating Java from Sumatra, and includes Panaitan Island, about 6 miles (10 km) northwest of the peninsula. it was set aside as a nature reserve in 1921; the national park was proposed in 1980 and formally established in 1992. The area was designated a World Heritage site in 1991. The park today contains the last remaining low-relief forest on Java; typical trees are of the genera Ficus and Barringtonia. Fewer than 60 Javan, or lesser one-horned, rhinoceroses (Rhinoceros sondaicus) remain alive, although the animals once thrived throughout the islands of Java, Borneo, and Sumatra, the Malay Peninsula, and other areas of Southeast Asia. Poaching and disease are the gravest threats to the remaining Javan rhinoceroses. Additional species in the park include bantengs (a type of wild cattle), Javan gibbons, langurs (leaf monkeys), muntjacs (barking deer), chevrotains (mouse deer), crocodiles, green turtles, green peacocks, and jungle fowl. In the late 20th century Javan tigers, which had inhabited the area, were considered extinct. MUST READ:  Rhinos SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (2021) Brown forest soil Fissure volcanic rock Granite and schist Shale and limestone Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: In the recent aftermath of the escalation of tensions between Kosovo and Serbia, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) sent 700 more of its peacekeeping troops to Kosovo. Kosovo -Serbia Conflict IMAGE SOURCE: THE HINDU Kosovo: is a small, landlocked country in the Balkans. Bordering countries: Albania, North Macedonia, Montenegro and Serbia. Many Serbs consider it the birthplace of their nation Historical Background:- After the break-up of Yugoslavia in the 1990s, Kosovo which was a province of the former country sought independence. Serbia responded with a brutal crackdown against ethnic Albanians seeking independence. This ended in 1999, with a NATO bombing campaign against Serbia. Serbian forces withdrew from Kosovo but for many Kosovo Albanians and Serbs, the conflict has never been resolved. The NATO-led Kosovo Force (KFor) is still based in Kosovo. In 2008, Kosovo unilaterally declared independence. UN Members who recognize Kosovo’s independence:- A total of 99 out of 193 United Nations countries now recognize Kosovo’s independence. These include the US, the UK and 22 out of 27 EU countries. Russia, India & China do not recognize Kosovo as an independent state Current Situation:- The relationship between the Albanian-dominated government and the Serb minority has been strained for years. In 2022, tensions led to civil disobedience. In the summer, ethnic Serbs in the northern region of Kosovo, barricaded roads and some men reportedly fired shots in protest against a new law. EU-mediated talks to resolve the dispute India’s Stand on Kosovo-Serbia Conflict:- India has refused to recognize Kosovo as a separate state since it declared independence from Serbia in 2008. Further, India has, on Serbia’s request, opposed Kosovo’s membership of international bodies, UNESCO, Apostille Convention, Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes, and Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units. India and Serbia are co-founders of the Non-Aligned Movement and have traditionally enjoyed a close partnership for decades. About North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica NATO is a Western defensive military alliance led by the United States. It is also called the Washington Treaty. (UPSC CSE: NATO) Historical Background: It came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts in Europe. Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty in 1949. After the collapse of the USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of the Soviet Union joined NATO. HQ: Brussels, Belgium. Headquarters of Allied Command Operations: Mons, Belgium. NATO Secretary General: Jens Stoltenberg. Funding: The U.S. contributes roughly three-fourths of NATO’s budget. 30 Members: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, the United States, Greece, Turkey, Germany, Spain, Czech, Hungary, Poland, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Albania, Croatia, Montenegro, and North Macedonia. India is not a member of NATO. Objectives of NATO:- To safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military means. Political objectives: NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defense and security-related issues to solve problems. Military Objectives: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes but if diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defense clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organizations. NATO has only once invoked Article 5, in 2001 following the 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Centre in the US. Functions of NATO:- NATO has an integrated military command structure but very few forces or assets are exclusively its own. Most forces remain under full national command and control until member countries agree to undertake NATO-related tasks. All 30 allies have an equal say, the Alliance’s decisions must be unanimous and consensual. Its members must respect the basic values that underpin the Alliance, namely democracy, individual liberty and the rule of law. NATO’s protection does not extend to members’ civil wars or internal coups. MUST READ: Turkey’s Peace with Sweden and Finland Joining NATO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Region often mentioned in the news:   Country (2022) Anatolia        Turkey Amhara       Ethiopia Cabo Delgado        Spain Catalonia       Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen Ram Prasad Bismil Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities/History Context: The birth anniversary of Ram Prasad Bismil was observed recently. About Ram Prasad Bismil:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Better India Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart. Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district to Murlidhar and Moolmati. British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River. He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad. Affiliated Organizations:- He joined Arya Samaj in 1875. (UPSC CSE: Dayanand Saraswati ) He formed the organization Matrivedi with Genda Lal Dixit, a schoolteacher. He formed the Hindustan Republic Association in 1924. Hindustan Republic Association: was a revolutionary party to fight against British colonial rule in India. It was evolved into Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928 by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh and others. (UPSC CSE: Chandra Shekhar Azad) Bhagat Singh: he was a revolutionary hero of the Indian independence movement awarded the death sentence under the Lahore conspiracy case. Works:- He published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyon ke Naam’ and distributed it along with his poem ‘Mainpuri ki Pratigya’ in 1918. He also wrote the cult song “Mera rang de Basanti chola”. Ideology:- His ideals of freedom struggle stood in stark contrast to that of Mahatma Gandhi and he would reportedly say “Independence would not be achieved by means of non-violence”. (UPSC CSE: India and Gandhi ) Mahatma Gandhi: he was a lawyer, nationalist, and anti-colonial activist. He led a non-violent mass movement against British rule in India Major Cases against Bismil Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918:- The police found a few young people including Bismil selling books that were not prescribed by the government. To collect funds for the parties, they looted government coffers. Kakori Conspiracy Case:- In 1925, Bismil and his companions Chandrasekhar Azad and Ashfaqulla Khan looted a train in Kakori near Lucknow. They were arrested alongside a dozen other HRA members within a month of the attack and tried under the Kakori Conspiracy Case. Bismil, Lahiri, Khan and Thakur Roshan Singh were awarded death sentences. MUST READ: Shaheed Bhagat Singh SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Matias Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Central Minister for Shipping (MoS) demanded a CBI probe over the alleged attack on the Matuas. About Matuas:- Matuas are a Scheduled Caste group who trace their ancestry to East Bengal. (UPSC MAINS: Effectiveness of NCSC) Caste: It is a religious sect of Bangladeshi Dalits who predominantly belong to the Namasudra caste. Many of them entered West Bengal after Partition and after the formation of Bangladesh. (UPSC CSE: Importance of Caste Data) Getting citizenship is one of the long-standing demands of this refugee community. Matua Mahasangha is a Hindu reform movement. It has a considerable number of adherents in West Bengal as well as Bangladesh. It believes in Self-Dikshitisation (“Self-realization”). Therefore, anyone who has faith in the Darshan or Philosophy of God Harichand belongs to the Matuamahasanhga. Historical Background:- The Matua Mahasangha, is a religious reforms movement and a sect which was formed by Harichand Thakur in East Bengal in the mid-1800s. Harichand Thakur: he attained Atma darshan at an early age and would subsequently preach his Darshan in Twelve Commandments His teachings of established education as pre-eminently important for the adherent and upliftment of the population, while also providing a formula for ending social conflict. Harichand’s grandson P R Thakur established West Bengal’s Thakurnagar as headquarters of the sect after 1947. Significance: – While no official count is available, community leaders put their population at 3 crores. (UPSC MAINS: Role played by caste-based pressure groups) The Namasudras form one of the largest SCs in Bengal, comprising 17.4 per cent of the population, as per the 2001 Census data. They are a deciding factor in many Lok Sabha seats in West Bengal which assumes a lot of political significance. MUST READ: Reviewing Reservation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                                 State Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur Thang-Ta dance             Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Nutri Garden project Syllabus Prelims – Context: The Nutri Garden project of Lakshadweep has turned out to be a big success. About the Nutri Garden project:- Nutri garden is a method of planting and harvesting nutrient-rich crops in residential houses or in their vicinity to meet the requirements of the family all year round. It is a cost-effective model to grow nutrient-rich crops for personal or community consumption to promote good health and well-being. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development In urban areas: Nutri kitchen gardening can be promoted in the form of rooftop gardening, terrace gardening, vertical gardening and container gardening. (UPSC CSE: Urban farming) In rural areas: Nutri kitchen gardens can be promoted in the backyard of the houses. Benefits of Nutri Garden:- It increases the availability of food and nutrient sources. It can act as a source of supplementary income. The crops harvested are Fresh and Safe (chemical-free). (UPSC CSE: Natural Farming ) It helps tackle both under-nutrition and over-nutrition by adopting a sustainable life cycle approach. Challenges:- Lack of availability of vacant land, water and other necessary infrastructure to create a nutri-garden. Insufficient funds from the administration. MUST READ: Nutrition Smart Village SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2)“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Non-Communicable Diseases Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: For a State which takes immense pride in consistently coming at the top in the health index rankings of NITI Aayog every year, the findings of the ICMR-INDIAB study, which puts Kerala right on top with the worst overall indicators for long-term morbidity and mortality due to non-communicable diseases (NCD), has come a cropper. About Non-Communicable Diseases (NCD): No communicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, tend to be of long duration and are the result of a combination of genetic, physiological, environmental and behavioral factors. The main types of NCD are cardiovascular diseases (such as heart attacks and stroke), cancers, chronic respiratory diseases (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma) and Causes: The rise of NCDs has been driven by tobacco, harmful use of alcohol, unhealthy diet, insufficient physical activity, and overweight/obesity, raised blood pressure, raised blood sugar and raised cholesterol. Consequences: The epidemic of NCDs poses devastating health consequences for individuals, families and communities, and threatens to overwhelm health systems. The socioeconomic costs associated with NCDs make the prevention and control of these diseases a major development imperative for the 21st century. The diseases kill 7 out of 10 people globally from risk factors like tobacco, alcohol, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity and air pollution. Apart from the lives they take, NCDs take a heavy toll on economies, cutting down people in their most productive years. Kerala’s case study: Kerala has known since the mid or late 90s that NCDs are going to be its biggest health challenge. A current diabetes prevalence of nearly 24%, pre-diabetes at 18.1% and hypertension prevalence at a whopping 44%, is certainly not the picture of a healthy State. With more than half the State’s population having high cholesterol levels and abdominal obesity, the incidence of cardiovascular diseases and chronic kidney diseases could skyrocket in the near future and have significant impact on the State’s health expenditure as well as private spending on catastrophic illnesses. Data Analysis for India According to the study report “India: Health of the Nation’s States”- The India State-Level Disease Burden Initiative in 2017 by Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), it is estimated that the proportion of deaths due to Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) in India have increased from 37.9% in 1990 to 61.8% in 2016. The four major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancers, chronic respiratory diseases (CRDs) and diabetes, which share four behavioral risk factors –unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, and use of tobacco and alcohol. Indian initiatives for tackling NCDs: National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) is being implemented under the National Health Mission (NHM). The Central Government is implementing the Strengthening of Tertiary Care Cancer facilities scheme to support the setting up of State Cancer Institutes (SCI) and Tertiary Care Centres (TCCC) in different parts of the country. Oncology in its various aspects has a focus in case of new AIIMS and many upgraded institutions under Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY). Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) Deendayal outlets have been opened at 159 Institutions/Hospitals with an objective to make available Cancer and Cardiovascular Diseases drugs and implants at discounted prices to the patients. Jan Aushadhi stores are set up by the Department of Pharmaceuticals to provide generic medicines at affordable prices. Way Forward: Achieving the SDG target by reducing one-third of premature mortalities due to NCD will make India more resilient to future viral pandemics. Thus, India must strengthen its health infrastructure through the Aatmanirbhar Swasth Bharat programme. Source:   The Hindu Self-reliance in Fertilisers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: “When the world is in crisis, we must pledge — a pledge that is greater than the crisis itself. We must endeavour to make the 21st century, India’s century and the path to achieving this is self-reliance. The above statement of Indian Prime Minister Modi reflects the vision of India for Aatmanirbhar. Fertilizer Consumption in India: India’s fertilizer consumption in FY20 was about 61 million tonnes — of which 55% was urea—and is estimated to have increased by 5 million tonnes in FY21. Since non-urea (MoP, DAP, complex) varieties cost higher, many farmers prefer to use more urea than actually needed. The government has taken a number of measures to reduce urea consumption. It introduced neem-coated urea to reduce illegal diversion of urea for non-agricultural uses. It also stepped up the promotion of organic and zero-budget farming. Currently, the fertilizer production of the country is 42-45 million tonnes, and imports are at around 18 million tonnes. Subsidy on Urea: The Centre pays subsidy on urea to fertilizer manufacturers based on cost of production at each plant and the units are required to sell the fertilizer at the government-set Maximum Retail Price (MRP). Subsidy on Non-Urea Fertilizers: The MRPs of non-urea fertilizers are decontrolled or fixed by the companies. The Centre, however, pays a flat per-tonne subsidy on these nutrients to ensure they are priced at “reasonable levels”. Examples of non-urea fertilizers: Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP), Muriate of Potash (MOP). All Non-Urea based fertilizers are regulated under Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme. Challenges of the sector: High government subsidies such as on Urea and DAP About 73 lakh crore or 5 percent of GDP, the second-highest after food Companies are obliged to sell at MRP, with their higher cost of production or imports being reimbursed as subsidy by the Centre. Small Farmer Inability to derive full benefits: Only 17,500 crores or 35 per cent of total fertilizer subsides reaches small farmers. Heavy Import dependence: Entire potash requirement, about 90 per cent of phosphatic requirement, and 20 per cent urea requirement is met through imports. The use of nitrogen (N), phosphorous (P) and potassium (K) in the country has over the last few years sharply deviated from the ideal NPK use ratio of 4:2:1. This causes worsening of soil quality. Imbalance in application: MOP, which contains 60% K, has a high MRP so farmers have no incentive today to apply the same. Environmental concerns: Nutrient imbalance owing to their use — disproportionate to other, more expensive fertilizers — could have implications for soil health, ultimately affecting crop yields. The India Fertilizers Market is fragmented, with the top five companies occupying 28.93%. Black market and corruption: Urea is highly regulated and is only subsidized for agriculture This creates a black market that burdens small farmers disproportionately; incentivizes production inefficiency, leads to over-use, depleting soil quality and damaging human health. Government Initiatives and Schemes: Neem Coating of Urea: The Department of Fertilizers (DoF) has made it mandatory for all the domestic producers to produce 100% urea as Neem Coated Urea (NCU). The benefits of use of NCU are as under: Improvement in soil health. Reduction in usage of plant protection chemicals. Reduction in pest and disease attack. An increase in yield of paddy, sugarcane, maize, soybean, Tur/Red Gram. Negligible diversion towards non-agricultural purposes. Due to slow release of Nitrogen, Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) of Neem Coated Urea increases resulting in reduced consumption of NCU as compared to normal urea. New Urea Policy (NUP) 2015: Objectives of the policy are To maximize indigenous urea production. To promote energy efficiency in the urea units. To rationalize the subsidy burden on the Government of India. New Investment Policy- 2012: The Government announced New Investment Policy (NIP)-2012 in January 2013 and made amendments in 2014 to facilitate fresh investment in the urea sector and to make India self-sufficient in the urea sector. Policy on Promotion of City Compost: The Government of India approved a policy on promotion of City Compost, notified by the DoF in 2016 granting Market Development Assistance of Rs.1500/- for scaling up production and consumption of city compost. To increase sales volumes, compost manufacturers willing to market city compost were allowed to sell city compost in bulk directly to farmers. Fertilizer companies marketing city compost are covered under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for Fertilizers. Use of Space Technology in Fertilizer Sector: DoF commissioned a three year Pilot Study on “Resource Mapping of Rock Phosphate using Reflectance Spectroscopy and Earth Observations Data” by National Remote Sensing Centre under ISRO, in collaboration with Geological Survey of India (GSI) and the Atomic Mineral Directorate (AMD). The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme: The DoF has implemented it from April 2010. Under NBS, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis, is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers depending on its nutrient content. It aims at ensuring the balanced use of fertilizers, improving agricultural productivity, promoting the growth of the indigenous fertilizers industry and reducing the burden of Subsidy. Way Forward: The Department of Fertilisers has positioned India as a key player in the global fertiliser supply chain. India’s bold move towards self-reliance in fertiliser is a testament to the government’s commitment to ensuring food security for its citizens and fulfilling PM Modi’s vision of an Aatmanirbhar Bharat. Source:  Indian Express The Need for De-globalization Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Governance and International Relations) Context: Worries about the inadequacies of global governance and weakening multilateralism have heightened in recent years. About Globalization and De-globalization: Globalization is the word that describes the growing interdependence of the world’s economies, cultures, and populations, brought about by cross-border trade in goods and services, technology, and flows of investment, people, and information. On the other hand, De-globalization is a movement towards a less connected world, characterized by powerful nation states, local solutions, and border controls rather than global institutions, treaties, and free movement. The Benefits of Globalization: Economic benefits: It fostered as well a rapid global industrial development that allowed the rapid development of many of the technologies and commodities, we have available nowadays. Cultural benefits: The multiplication of economic and financial exchanges has been followed by an increase in human exchanges such as migration, expatriation or traveling. These human exchanges have contributed to the development of cultural exchanges. The Negative Effects of Globalization: Disappearing cultures: Apart from all the benefits globalization has had on allowing cultural exchanges, it also homogenized the world’s cultures. That is why specific cultural characteristics from some countries are disappearing. Rising inequalities: The consequences of globalization are far from homogeneous: income inequalities, disproportional wealth and trades that benefit parties differently. In the end, one of the criticisms is that some actors (countries, companies, individuals) benefit more from the phenomena of globalization, while others are sometimes perceived as the “losers” of globalization. Environmental pollution: Many critics have also pointed out that globalization has negative effects on the environment. Thus, the massive development of transport that has been the basis of globalization is also responsible for serious environmental problems such as greenhouse gas emissions, global warming or air pollution. Reasons for rising tendency towards de-globalisation by some countries: Rise of Asia: Developing nations like India, China and Japan have grown rapidly over the last few decades. The economic power has been shifting from the West to these Asian Nations. Thus, developed nations have started turning inward in order to put a check on the rise of other powers. Protectionism: Although western nations have benefitted immensely from globalization by expanding the reach of their economy and by the acquisition of talented individuals, public support towards it has been waning fast. Developed nations think they have more to lose than to gain. Security concerns: One of perceived consequences of globalization is rising security concerns. Increased exchange and mutual trade between nations have made it increasingly tough to maintain global security. Refugee crisis: Another factor that plays a role in support of de-globalization is the refugee The constant unrest in western Asian nations has caused a severe refugee crisis. Impact of de-globalisation on India: Economic impact: De-globalization will lead to reduction in the rate of economic growth of India. It will lead to protectionism with reduced cooperation among countries that will hurt Indian trade and exports. It may lead to increased import costs due to lesser choice and options and manufacturers and producers would have to pay more for equipment, commodities, and intermediate products from foreign markets. Social impact: It will lead to decrease in standards of living, as it will affect exports and economic growth affecting welfare of poor and their standard of lives. It will lead to rise in conflicts economically and politically. Political impact: It would affect polity leading to instability in political framework of nations due to rise in prices and cost of living may lead to civil Uprisings. Impact on technology: These tendencies limit technological advancement of the world as whole and of developing countries in particular. Limited knowledge-sharing, lack of flow of technology to developing countries limit advancement in science. Impact on Environmental conversation: Due to non-cooperation among nations, it will affect environment conservation efforts in India. It will reduce required funding and would jeopardize efforts to conserve environment and tackle environment change. Impact on women employment: De-globalization would affect women empowerment efforts as it will impact women movements across the globe. Lack of coordination will reduce opportunities for women across the world. Impact on security: Due to lack of coordination among various nations, security around the world along with India would affect. It will not only increase economic risks, but would provide an opportunity for terrorists to carry out violence due to lack of coordination among various law enforcement agencies. Way Forward: When governments pursue more inclusive economic, social, and environmental agendas, they provide a further benefit to the world economy.  Well-governed economies where prosperity is widely shared are more likely to welcome expanded international trade, investment and immigration. As economics teaches, the home economy reaps the bulk of the benefits from openness to the world economy, provided the benefits are distributed equitably. When countries help themselves, they help the global economy. Source:    LM Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements, regarding the Anak Krakatau volcano: It is situated in the Atlantic Ocean. It is the offspring of the famous Krakatau volcano. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q2) Consider the following statements, regarding Ram Prasad Bismil: He published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyon ke Naam’. He was tried for the Lahore Conspiracy Case. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q3) Consider the following statements, regarding the Gilgit manuscripts: It contains canonical and non-canonical only the Buddhist works. It originated in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) -a