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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [13th June, 2023] – Day 2

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 2 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BRICS Syllabus Prelims –Important International Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently discussed cooperation in BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) with the South African President during a telephone conversation. About BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa):- IMAGE SOURCE: PMLiVE BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. (BRICS) Origin: the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term “BRIC” in 2001 to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. BRICS Leaders’ Summit is convened Chairmanship is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. Together, BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world’s population and about 30% of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product), 16% of the global trade. Initiatives: New Development Bank (NDB), Contingent Reserve Arrangement, BRICS Payment System Customs Agreements, Remote Sensing Satellite. New Initiative: BRICS is planning to launch its own “new currency” system, a major step towards de-dollarization. De-dollarization: reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade. First BRIC Summit: the first BRICS Summit took place in 2009 in the Russian Federation. Recent BRIC Summit: the 14th BRICS Summit was convened in 2022 in a virtual format, under the Chairmanship of (UPSC PRELIMS: BRICS – 14th Summit) Objectives:- To deepen, broaden and intensify cooperation within the grouping and among the individual countries for more sustainable, equitable and mutually beneficial development. It takes into consideration each member’s growth, development and poverty objectives. It is emerging as a new and promising political-diplomatic entity with diverse objectives. New Development Bank Origin: During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza ,Brazil.(2014) (UPSC CSE: NDB) HQ: Shanghai Key areas of operation: clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member countries. Membership The Agreement on the New Development Bank entered into force in July 2015, with the official declaration of all five states that have signed it. The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank; however, the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power. According to the Bank’s General Strategy: 2017–2021, the NDB plans to expand membership gradually so as not to overly strain its operational and decision-making capacity. In September 2021, Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates and Uruguay joined the NDB. In December 2021, the NDB admitted Egypt as a new member. BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) It was signed by the BRICS nations in 2014 as part of the Fortaleza Declaration at the Sixth BRICS Summit. Objective: to provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigate the BOP crisis and further strengthen financial stability. The initial total committed resources of the CRA will be 100 billion dollars with individual commitments as follows: China ($41 billion), India ($18 billion), Brazil ($18 billion), Russia ($18 billion) and South Africa ($5 billion). India and BRICS India is a founding member of BRICS. It conducted 13th BRICS Summit in 2021 in New Delhi. Importance of BRICS for India:- Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) membership: India is engaged with the other BRICS countries on its NSG membership. Funds for infrastructure: NDB will help India raise and avail resources for their infrastructure and sustainable development projects. SUMMITS held in India: India hosted the 13th BRICS summit in 2021. An agreement on BRICS Cooperation on Remote Sensing Satellite Constellation was signed. MUST READ: BRICS | The coming together of the powerful five SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) New Development Bank has been set up by APEC. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Kerala State government has recently, nominated the Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) as the State-level nodal agency for Green Hydrogen initiatives. About Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT):- ANERT is the single nodal agency for drafting and publishing the Green Hydrogen policy for the state of Kerala. (UPSC CSE: Green Hydrogen) A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) appointed by the Government heads ANERT. ANERT is also the Nodal Agency for the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sources (MNRE), Govt. of India, to carry out the National Programmes in Kerala. Chairman: Minister for Electricity Supervision: ANERT is guided by a:- Governing Body- chaired by the Minister for Electricity, Kerala and Executive Committee- chaired by the Additional Chief Secretary to Government/ Principal Secretary. Power Department, Government of Kerala provides guidelines for ANERT’s activities in various energy-related areas. Objectives of ANERT:- To identify, formulate, implement and implementation of projects aimed at providing energy requirements of the State of Kerala. Evolving long-term plans based on harnessing solar energy, wind energy, wave energy, biogas, biomass, energy plantations, micro and mini hydel projects, improved chulahs etc. To identify, formulate, implement and support the implementation of a broad-based energy conservation program including the conservation of energy at the source of generation, at the state of distribution and/ or its utilization. To provide technical, financial or other assistance for popularization and creation of awareness on alternative sources of energy, energy conservation and rural technologies. To undertake or sponsor training programs, seminars workshops etc. on non-conventional sources of energy, energy conservation, and rural technology. To sponsor, co-ordinate or promote research programs or projects of a development nature involving the development of prototypes, pilot plant investigation in the area of alternative and new sources of energy and rural technologies, and PROGRAMMES under ANERT:- Solar Photovoltaic Programmes Wind energy Solar Thermal Programme Improved chulhas Training and extension Other programmes Bioenergy Green Hydrogen Green Hydrogen is produced by electrolysis using renewable energy. Electricity splits water into hydrogen and oxygen. By Products: Water, Water Vapor. It is called ‘green hydrogen’ because has no carbon footprint. (UPSC CSE: G) Other Types of hydrogen:- Brown hydrogen: produced using coal where the emissions are released into the air. (UPSC CSE: Coal based Hydrogen) Blue hydrogen: produced from natural gas, where the emissions are captured using carbon capture and storage. Significance of Green Hydrogen for India:- Green hydrogen can drive India’s transition to clean energy and combat climate change. Green hydrogen energy is vital for India to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) Targets. Under the Paris Climate Agreement, India pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its economy by 33-35% from 2005 levels by 2030. It will reduce import dependency on fossil fuels. The localisation of electrolyser production and the development of green hydrogen projects can create a new green technologies market in India worth $18-20 billion and thousands of jobs. Advantages of green hydrogen:- Environment Friendly: Green Hydrogen as an energy source is seen as the next big thing as its usage would lead to zero emissions Potential to decarbonise various sectors: It is a clean burning molecule, which can decarbonise a range of sectors including iron and steel, chemicals, and transportation. Efficient utilization of Renewable Energy: Renewable energy that cannot be stored or used by the grid can be channelled to produce hydrogen. (UPSC CSE: National Green Hydrogen Mission) Applications of green hydrogen:- It can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity, or power and heat. MUST READ: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 French Open Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: In the recently held French Open 2023, Novak Djokovic created history by becoming first man to reach the 23 grand slam title mark. About French Open:- IMAGE SOURCE: sportycious.com The French Open is a major tennis tournament. It is one of the four Grand Slams in Tennis. It is also known as Roland-Garros. The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros. Roland Garros: was a French aviation pioneer and fighter pilot. Scheduled Time: two weeks, beginning in late May each year. Location: the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France The French Open is the premier clay court championship in the world. (UPSC MAINS: Sports and Ethics) The French Open tournaments were not considered a Grand Slam before 1924 – 1925. French Open 2023 winners:- Men’s singles: Novak Djokovic (Serbia) Women’s: Iga Swiatek (Poland) Grand Slam tournaments The Grand Slam tournaments consist of the following:- Australian Open: in mid-January, French Open or Roland Garros: around late May, Wimbledon: in June end, and US Open tennis: at the end of August. The four annual tennis tournaments are collectively called the Grand Slam, also known as majors. Operated by: the International Tennis Federation (ITF). Historical Timeline:- Wimbledon Tennis: is the oldest, founded in US Open: founded in 1881 French Open: founded in 1891 Australian Open: founded in MUST READ: India and France relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started the implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Q.2) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (2018) Amnesty International International Court of Justice The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights World Justice Project India’s Fisheries Sector Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying stressed the need for strengthening marketing in the fisheries sector, by evolving a system similar to that of agriculture marketing. About India’s Fisheries Sector:- India is the third-largest fish producer and the second-largest aquaculture producer The Indian Blue Revolution has led to a major improvement in the fishing and aquaculture industries. Blue Revolution: it refers to the time of intense growth of the worldwide aquaculture industry from the mid-1960s to the present day. It was launched in India during the seventh Five Year Plan (FYP), from 1985 to 1990. These industries are regarded as sunrise sectors and are anticipated to have a big impact on the Indian economy. Sunrise sectors: is a term used for a sector that is just in its infancy but shows promise of a rapid boom. Recent trends in the Fisheries sector:- In the recent past, Indian fisheries have witnessed a paradigm shift from marine-dominated fisheries to inland fisheries, with the latter emerging as a major contributor to fish production from 36% in the mid-1980 to 70% in the recent past. The Fish production reached an all-time high of 16.25 MMT during FY 2021-22. The marine exports touched Rs. 57,586 Crores. (UPSC CSE: Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (Agreement)) Top Fish Producing States:- Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Challenges of the Fisheries Sector:- Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing: it exacerbates overfishing and undermines the sustainability of the sector. IUU fishing involves activities such as fishing without proper licenses, using banned gear, and disregarding catch limits. Inadequate Infrastructure and Technology: Outdated fishing vessels, gear, and processing facilities hinder the efficiency and productivity of the sector. Insufficient cold storage and transportation infrastructure result in post-harvest losses. Climate Change and Environmental Degradation: Rising sea temperatures, ocean acidification, and changing currents have a profound impact on marine ecosystems and fish populations. Socio-Economic Issues: a large number of small-scale and artisanal fishers who face multiple socio-economic challenges characterizes the fisheries sector in India. These challenges include low incomes, lack of access to credit and insurance, inadequate social security measures Gender disparities and the marginalization of women in fisheries also pose challenges. Market Access and Value Chain Inefficiencies: Despite India’s significant fish production, there are challenges in accessing domestic and international markets. MUST READ: Agriculture Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granSted to farmers based on soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Proterozoic Eon Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently discovered molecular fossils from the Proterozoic Eon may open the window to the ‘lost world’ of primordial life. About Proterozoic Eon:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Proterozoic Eon was the last aeon of the Precambrian supereon. Precambrian era: it spans Era (4500–544 Ma) and includes almost 90% of Earth’s history. Eon (or aeon): is a term in Earth science for the longest periods of time. Era: it is a very long span of geologic time; the second longest portion of geological time. It spans from the time of the appearance of oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere to just before the proliferation of complex life (such as corals) on the Earth. Major Events in the Proterozoic Eon:- Bacteria began producing oxygen, leading to the sudden rise of life forms. Eukaryotes (have a nucleus), emerge, including some forms of soft-bodied multicellular. Earlier forms of fungi formed around this time. The early and late phases of this aeon may have undergone Snowball Earth periods. Snowball Earth periods: when Earth suffered below-zero temperatures, extensive glaciation and as a result drop in sea levels. It was a very tectonically active period in the Earth’s history. (UPSC CSE: PLATE TECTONICS) It featured the first definitive supercontinent cycles and modern mountain buildings. (UPSC MAINS: principles of plate tectonics) It is believed that 43% of modern continental crust was formed in the Proterozoic, 39% formed in the Archean and only 18% in the Phanerozoic. In the late Proterozoic (most recent), the dominant supercontinent was Rodinia. MUST READ: Abnormal’ dinosaur egg in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: (2019) Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent the illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently allowed the First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system in the digital lending space. About the First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system:- First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) is also known as default loss guarantee (DLG). FLDG is a lending model between a fintech and a regulated entity. Financial technology (fintech): it is a new technology that seeks to improve and automate the delivery and use of financial services. (UPSC CSE: Fintech Regulation in India) It is a safety-net arrangement among banks, non-banking finance companies (NBFC), and lending service providers (LSPs), popularly known as fintech players) in the digital lending space. NBFC: a company incorporated under the Companies Act 2013 or 1956. (UPSC MAINS: Company’s Act,2013) They offer various banking services but do not have a banking license. Under this, a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default. The fintech originates a loan and promises to compensate the partners up to a pre-decided percentage in case customers fail to repay. Advantages:- The credit risk is borne by the Lending service providers (LSPs) without having to maintain any regulatory capital. The loan portfolio backed by FLDG is akin to the off-balance sheet portfolio of the LSP wherein the nominal loans sit in the books of the lender without having to partake in any lending process. FLDG helps expand the customer base of traditional lenders but relies on the fintech’s underwriting capabilities. Disadvantage:- FLDG costs are often passed on to customers. FinTech The term “FinTech” is a combination of the words “finance” and “technology”. Fintech refers to the integration of technology into offerings by financial services companies to improve their use and delivery to consumers. It primarily works by unbundling offerings by such firms and creating new markets for them. Benefits: Companies in the finance industry that use fintech have expanded financial inclusion and use technology to cut down on operational costs. Challenges: Fintech funding is on the rise, but regulatory problems exist. Fintech applications: robo-advisors, payment apps, peer-to-peer (P2P) lending apps, investment apps, and crypto apps, among others. Lending service providers (LSPs) They are new-age players who use technology platforms in the lending space. They are agents of a bank or NBFC. (UPSC CSE: RBI suggests a tougher regulatory framework for NBFCs) They carry out one or more of a lender’s functions (in part or full) in customer acquisition, underwriting support, pricing support, disbursement, servicing, monitoring, and recovery of specific loans or loan portfolios on behalf of REs as per the outsourcing guidelines of the RBI. MUST READ: Empowering Rural Women FINTECH SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Food Programme (WFP) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, World Food Programme (WFP) suspended food aid to Ethiopia after the diversion of supplies. About World Food Programme (WFP):- It is the leading humanitarian organization saving lives and changing lives, delivering food assistance in emergencies and working with communities to improve nutrition and build resilience. It was founded in 1961. (UPSC CSE: WFP) Founded by: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) HQ: Rome, Italy. Funding: The WFP has no independent source of funds; it is funded entirely by voluntary donations. Its principal donors are It is governed by the WFP Executive Board, which consists of 36 Member States and provides intergovernmental support, direction and supervision of WFP’s activities. Head: an Executive Director, who is appointed jointly by the UN Secretary-General and the Director-General of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. It is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG), UNSDG: a coalition of UN agencies and organizations aimed at fulfilling the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). WFP works in over 120 countries and territories to bring life-saving food to people displaced by conflict and made destitute by disasters. In 2020, it was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace for its efforts to combat hunger, and for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas. It works closely with:- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO): a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. The International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD): a UN-specialized agency which finances projects in poor rural areas. Objectives:- WFP focuses on emergency assistance as well as rehabilitation and development aid. Two-thirds of its work is in conflict-affected countries, where people are three times more likely to be undernourished than elsewhere. To end hunger by protecting access to food. Improving nutrition and achieving food security. Supporting the SDG implementation and partnering for its results. MUST READ: Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen: Its Products include Water, Water Vapor. It has zero carbon footprint. It can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the World Food Programme (WFP ): It’s Headquartered in Rome. It was founded by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) only. In 2020, it was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Proterozoic Eon: Complex form fungi formed around this time. It was a tectonically active period. Bacteria began producing oxygen during this period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [12th June, 2023] – Day 1

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 1 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –9th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) was launched recently to leverage Emerging Technologies in Power Sector. About the Mission of Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR):- It aims to facilitate indigenous research, development and demonstration of the latest and emerging technologies in the power sector. Timeline: It is planned for an initial period of five years from 2023-24 to 2027-28. Ministry: Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy  Objectives of MAHIR:- To identify emerging technologies in the power sector that have the potential for future relevance globally. To serve as a platform for collective brainstorming. To Support pilot projects for indigenous technologies. Leverage foreign alliances to accelerate research and development efforts. To create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in the power sector. Funding and Collaboration:- MAHIR is funded through pooling of resources from the Ministry of Power, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, and Central Public Sector Enterprises under these ministries. Additional funding will be from the budgetary resources of the Government of India. The mission encourages funding by inviting proposals from companies and organizations worldwide. Structure of MAHIR:- MAHIR operates through a two-tier structure comprising a Technical Scoping Committee and an Apex Committee. Led by the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority. Areas Identified for Research:- Alternatives to Lithium-Ion storage batteries Modifying electric cookers/pans to suit Indian cooking methods Carbon capture (UPSC CSE: Decarbonisation of India’s Power Sector) Geothermal energy Solid-state refrigeration. Nanotechnology for EV battery Indigenous CRGO technology Central Electricity Authority (CEA) It is a statutory organization constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, of 1948. It is now under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. As per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members, including its chairperson. Not more than eight shall be full-time members to be appointed by the Central Government. Functions of Central Electricity Authority:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Plan (NEP). It formulates short-term and perspective plans for the development of electricity systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid etc. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors. National Electricity Plan (NEP) The latest draft of the National Electricity Plan (NEP), which covers the period 2022-27. The NEP guides the development of the power sector in India. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) formulates it every five years under the Electricity Act, 2003. The new NEP recognizes the need for additional coal-based capacity, ranging from 17 GW to nearly 28 GW, till 2031-32, over and above the 25 GW of coal-based capacity that is currently under construction. The draft Plan also highlights the need for significant investments in battery storage, with an estimated requirement of between 51 GW to 84 GW by 2031-32. It projects an increase in the Plant Load Factor (PLF) of coal-fired power plants from 55% up to 2026-27 to 62 % in 2031-32. It also emphasizes the challenges posed by the increasing reliance on renewables, which will require careful management and planning in the years ahead. MUST READ: Energy Security SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in (2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Agni Prime Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: India recently conducted a successful flight test of the Agni Prime ballistic missile. About Agni Prime:- IMAGE SOURCE: autojournalism.com Agni Prime is the advanced version of the ‘Agni-1’ missile. (UPSC CSE: New generation ballistic missile ‘Agni P’) It is a short-range ballistic missile. Range: 1000 km to 1500 km It is a two-stage It is the latest and sixth variant of the Agni series missiles. It is under Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) Agni Prime has multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles. It is capable of delivering a number of warheads at separate locations. It can carry warheads up to 1.5 tonnes. It has a dual redundant navigation and guidance system. The Agni-P missile would further strengthen India’s credible deterrence capabilities. Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) It was conceived by Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam to enable India to attain self-sufficiency in the field of missile technology. 5 missiles developed under this program are:- Prithvi: Short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Agni: Ballistic missiles with different ranges. Trishul: Short-range low-level surface-to-air missile. Nag: 3rd generation anti-tank missile. Akash: Medium-range surface-to-air missile. Other Agni Class of Missiles Agni I: Range of 700-800 km. Agni II: Range more than 2000 km. Agni III: Range of more than 2,500 Km Agni IV: Range is more than 3,500 km and can fire from a road-mobile launcher. Agni-V: The longest of the Agni series, an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. MUST READ: Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) Interceptor SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. Shangri-La Dialogue Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The 20th edition of the Shangri-La Dialogue, concluded in Singapore recently. About Shangri-La Dialogue:- IMAGE SOURCE: scholars-stage.org The Shangri-La Dialogue (SLD) is an inter-governmental security forum. Originally known as the Asia Security Summit was initiated in 2002 in response to the evident need for a forum where Asia-Pacific defence ministers could engage in dialogue aimed at building confidence and fostering practical cooperation. It is a Track 1inter-governmental security forum. It is held every year in Singapore since 2002. Organised by: International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS). IISS is a London-based independent think tank. Defence ministers, permanent heads of ministries and military chiefs of 28 Asia-Pacific states attend it. The ministers debate the region’s most pressing security challenges engage in important bilateral talks and come up with fresh approaches together. The forum gets its name from the Shangri-La Hotel in Singapore where it has been held since 2002. It is Asia’s largest annual security forum. ( UPSC CSE: Indo-Pacific Relations ) The 2023 event took place in Australia’s Prime Minister Anthony Albanese delivered the Keynote Address at the Shangri-La Dialogue 2023. (UPSC CSE: Prime Minister’s Key Note Address at Shangri La Dialogue) Different levels of Diplomacy: Track 1 Diplomacy: Official discussions typically involving high-level political and military leaders. Track 2 Diplomacy: Unofficial dialogue and problem-solving activitiesInvolving influential academic, religious, and NGO leaders and other civil society actors who can interact more freely than high-ranking officials can. Track 3 Diplomacy: People-to-people diplomacy undertaken by individuals and private groups. MUST READ: Raisina Dialogue SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Q.2) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (2018) Amnesty International International Court of Justice The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights World Justice Project National food safety index Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Kerala has secured the first position in the recently released national food safety index. About the national food safety index:- The first State Food Safety Index was published in 2018-19. It was announced on the first-ever World Food Safety Day on 7th June 2019. World Food Safety Day: The World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) jointly facilitate the observance of World Food Safety Day. (UPSC CSE: WHO) Objective of Food safety index: creating a competitive and positive change in the food safety ecosystem in the country. Developed by: FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) (UPSC CSE: FSSAI) The Parameters include Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing – Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building and Consumer Empowerment. (UPSC CSE: Food Security) The food safety index, at the national level, is determined based on enforcement activities. These include food safety checks, sample collection, sample examination prosecution cases, number of NABL-recognised food safety labs in the State etc.  Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare Headquarters: Delhi FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. Composition: The FSSAI comprises of a Chairperson and twenty-two members. One-third of the members are to be The Central Government appoints the Chairperson of FSSAI. Functions:- Framing of regulations to lay down the standards and guidelines of food safety. Granting FSSAI food safety license and certification for food businesses. Laying down procedures and guidelines for laboratories in food businesses. To provide suggestions to the government in framing the policies. To collect data regarding contaminants in food products, identification of emerging risks and introduction of the rapid alert system. Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards. MUST READ: FSSAI releases draft notification on a star rating for packaged food SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2018) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) selected new chiefs for General Insurance Corporation of India and National Insurance Company Limited. About Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB):- It was established by passing a resolution by the Cabinet Appointments Committee (ACC) to establish it in place of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB). Composition:- FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee. The board would comprise the Secretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector. Functions:- The FSIB selects the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies. (UPSC CSE: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB)) It has the mandate to issue guidelines and select general managers and directors of state-run non-life insurers, general insurers and Financial Institutions. It works under the Department of Financial Service, Ministry of Finance. It also monitors and assesses the performance of public sector banks, government-owned financial institutions and insurance companies. It is the single entity for making recommendations for appointments of WTD (Whole-time Director) and NEC (Non-executive Chairman) in Public Sector Banks, India Private Limited companies and Financial Institutions. General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) GIC is an Indian nationalised reinsurance company. It was set up by the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, of 1972. It was enacted to nationalise all private companies undertaking general insurance business in India. Four subsidiary companies of GIC are:- National Insurance. New India Assurance. Oriental Insurance. United India Insurance. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 was subsequently amended in 2002 to transfer the control of these four subsidiary companies from GIC to the central government. Since 2000, GIC exclusively undertakes the reinsurance business. National Insurance Company Limited (NIC) It is India’s oldest l Insurance Company. It was s tarted in Kolkata, West Bengal in 1906. 66 years later, after the passing of the General Insurance Business Nationalisation Act in 1972, it was merged along with 21 foreign and 11 Indian companies to form National Insurance Company Limited. It became one of the four subsidiaries of the General Insurance Corporation of India. It is fully owned by Govt. of India. 2002: National insurance was delinked from GIC and formed as an independent insurance company. Products of National Insurance: Personal Line of Insurance Motor Vehicle Insurance. Rural Insurance Industrial & Commercial Insurance. MUST READ: Leadership Development programme SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kilauea Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Kilauea, one of the most active volcanoes in the world, began erupting recently. About Kilauea:-   IMAGE SOURCE: CBC.ca Kilauea volcano is located in Hawaii Volcanoes National Park on the south-eastern part of the island of Hawaii, U.S.A. It is one of the world’s most active volcanoes. It has erupted 34 times since 1952.From 1983 to 2018, it erupted almost continuously. It is an active shield volcano. Shield volcanoes: these are formed where a volcano produces low viscosity, runny lava, spreading far from the source and forming a volcano with gentle slopes. Features of Kilauea volcano:- It has an elongated dome-shaped structure. It has a Caldera: a depression formed after a volcano releases the bulk of its magma in an explosive eruption. It has a lava lake. Lava lake: a lake produced by the build-up of water over the caldera. Its slopes merge with that of the adjacent volcano, Mauna Loa.(UPSC CSE: Mt. Mauna Loa) Volcanoes in India:- Barren Island: Andaman Islands (India’s only active volcano) Narcondam: Andaman Islands Baratang: Andaman Islands Deccan Traps: Maharashtra Dhinodhar Hills: Gujarat Dhosi Hill: Haryana MUST READ: Volcanic Eruption at Mount Semeru SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                          Turkey Amhara                                       Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                Spain Catalonia                                          Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Biparjoy Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, a cyclonic storm Biparjoy formed over the east-central Arabian Sea. About Biparjoy:- IMAGE SOURCE: Swarajya Biparjoy was a deep depression formed over the southeast Arabian Sea, which intensified into a cyclonic storm. The name ‘Biparjoy’ was given by It means ‘calamity’ or ‘disaster’. Naming of Cyclones: In 2000, a group of nations called WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific), which comprised Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, decided to start naming cyclones in the region. The WMO/ESCAP expanded to include five more countries in 2018 — Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates and Yemen. After each country send their suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalises the list of names of Cyclones. The list of 169 cyclone names released by IMD in April 2020 were provided by these countries — 13 suggestions from each of the 13 countries. Guidelines to adopt names of cyclones? The proposed name should be neutral to (a) politics and political figures (b) religious believes, (c) cultures etc. Name should be chosen in such a way that it does not hurt the sentiments of any group of population over the globe. It should not be very rude and cruel in nature It should be short, easy to pronounce. The maximum length of the name will be eight letters. The proposed name should be provided with its pronunciation and voice over. The names of tropical cyclones over the north Indian Ocean will not be repeated. Once used, it will cease to be used again. World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) It is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It is dedicated to meteorology (weather), climatology (climate), operational hydrology (water) and other related geophysical sciences such as oceanography and atmospheric chemistry. International Meteorological Organization (IMO), founded in 1873 was its predecessor organization. Membership: it has 192 Member States and Territories.India is a member of WMO. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland Reports:- Greenhouse Gas Bulletin. Status of the World Climate. MUST READ: More Cyclones in the Arabian Sea SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar? (2017) Sumatra Borneo Java Sri Lanka Mains: Transition to a low-carbon City Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: It has been observed that Cities are critical actors in the energy transition. About Energy-system transitions: An energy-system transition could reduce urban carbon dioxide emissions by around 74%. With rapid advancements in clean energy and related technologies and nosediving prices, we have also crossed the economic and technological barriers to implementing low-carbon solutions. The transition must be implemented on both the demand and the supply sides. Mitigation options on the supply side include phasing out fossil fuels and increasing the share of renewables in the energy mix, and using carbon capture and storage (CCS) technologies. On the demand side, using the ‘avoid, shift, improve’ framework would entail reducing the demand for materials and energy, and substituting the demand for fossil fuels with renewables. Additionally, in order to address residual emissions in the energy sector, we must implement carbon-dioxide removal (CDR) technologies. Role of Cities in energy-system transitions: In 2020, cities dumped a whopping 29 trillion tonnes of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. This carbon dioxide along with other greenhouse gases poses a serious health hazard. It also manifests as extreme weather events, leading to the loss of lives, livelihoods, assets, and social well-being. Therefore, given the significant impact that cities have on the environment, low-carbon cities are crucial to mitigate the effects of climate change. An energy-system transition could reduce urban carbon dioxide emissions by around 74%. Implications of rising CO2 and Need for low-carbon cities/net-zero cities: This may lead to extreme weather events, can lead to the loss of lives and livelihoods, property and resources, and overall social wellbeing. By 2050, seven billion people will be living in cities, and that will accentuate the concerns regarding worsening climate, sustainability. Global warming may have adverse impact on health like damage in lung tissue, heightened complications for asthma patients due to increase the ozone concentration. It may affect food security and can lead to the resource conflicts. This transition to low carbon cities will help to mitigate the effects of climate change. Challenges of Energy Transition: Groups of people or communities of developing economies depends on fossil fuels and has limited access to renewable energy options. Hence, they could be affected disproportionately. For example Nigeria, Angola, and Venezuela. In developed countries, it may lead to inequity due to high-energy costs and associated poverty/low incomes. There is an inherent issue of energy justice and social equity, which has severe implications for -economic well-being of people, livelihoods and economic development. Concerns related to Justice concerns are land evictions for large-scale renewable energy projects, the marginalisation of few communities, increased gender gaps etc., There need to be a focus on energy-transition policies that are socially and environmentally fair. As a city’s requirement is different, spatial form, land-use pattern, level of development etc. to be given a special focus. Government interventions: System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal Air Quality Index: AQI has been developed for eight pollutants viz. PM2.5, PM10, Ammonia, Lead, nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide, ozone, and carbon monoxide. Graded Response Action Plan (for Delhi) For Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure (for Delhi) New Commission for Air Quality Management Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine for reducing stubble burning. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP): Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz. SO2, NO2, PM10, and PM2.5 have been identified for regular monitoring at all locations. Way Forward: Transitioning cities to low-carbon energy systems requires efforts that consider factors such as urbanization, national contexts, and institutional capacities. Hence, it is important to engage multiple stakeholders in energy governance and decision-making processes. Source:  The Hindu BrahMos: 25 Years of the Joint Venture Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: India-Russia defence Joint Venture BrahMos Aerospace has embarked on a glorious milestone as it completed 25 years. About BrahMos: The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarine, ships, aircraft or land. It is a joint venture between the Russian Federation’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM), a subsidiary of the state-owned JSC Tactical Missiles Corporation and India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace. In the joint venture, Indian side holds a share of 50.5% and the Russian side 49.5%. It is based on the Russian P-800 Oniks cruise missile and other similar sea-skimming Russian cruise missile technology. The name BrahMos is a portmanteau formed from the names of two rivers, the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia. With a carrying capacity of 250-300 kgs, the BrahMos missile is capable of carrying a regular warhead as well as a nuclear warhead. Features: Stages: BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then is separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in the cruise phase. Capability: the missile is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea, air against surface and sea-based targets, and has been long inducted by the Indian armed forces. The ship-based version was inducted in the Navy in 2005, the land-based version in the Army in 2007, and the air-launched version was inducted in the Air Force in 2020. Range: The range of the BrahMos was originally limited to 290 km as per obligations of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) of which Russia was a signatory. Following India’s entry into the club in June 2016, plans were announced to extend the range initially to 450 km and subsequently to 600 km. Speed: The BrahMos missile has a speed of 2.8 Mach, which is nearly three times the speed of sound Indigenised: The missiles now contain a high level of indigenised content and several systems have been indigenised to maximise the participation of Indian industry in the development of the ordnance. The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target. Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire. These are in the arsenal of most major militaries in the world. Significance: The Brahmos JV has helped India develop its military-industrial complex. The deal between the Philippines and BrahMos is a milestone in India’s efforts to become one of the largest defence exporters in the world. In addition, it also shows the growing capabilities of India’s public and private defence sectors. It helps the country achieve strategic autonomy in the defence sector, which is important to safeguard the country’s national interests. Additional BrahMos exports could to some extent help in fulfilling Prime Minister vision of ‘Making in India, Making for the world’, achieving the defence hardware export target of US$ 5 billion by 2025. BrahMos missile provides India strategic airpower in the face of 2 inimical neighbours. Challenges and competitors: One of the most prominent cruise missiles in the world is the Tomahawk, developed by the US. Notably, it is subsonic and flies around 0.8 Mach. It has a range of about 1,600 km, much more than the BrahMos, but its speed makes it relatively slow and somewhat easier to intercept. The French Apache series of missiles is also a prominent cruise missile, with a top speed of 1 Mach. This has been inducted by UAE, Greece, Saudi Arabia, the UK and Italy, besides France. The Chinese inducted the YJ-1814 into the PLA in 2014. It has a range of 220–540 km and cruises at subsonic speed before accelerating to supersonic speed in the terminal stage. The Russian P-800 Oniks is a supersonic cruise missile with specifications somewhat similar to BrahMos and flies at a top speed of 2.2 Mach. The BrahMos missile is not significantly different from the P-800 Oniks, it costs twice as much. This can be attributed perhaps to a more developed military industrial base in Russia, which results in a lower cost of production. Possible defence deals are highly competitive, with major players extensively marketing their products. Way Forward: BrahMos has very few competitors in the international market and The 2022 Philippines deal should spur additional exports of the supersonic cruise missile. India needs to develop marketing and promotion networks akin more actively to established players in the global market to promote defence sales. Source: Financial Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements with reference to the Shangri-La Dialogue (SLD): It is held in Singapore. It is organised by International Institute for Strategic Studies. Australia’s Prime Minister Anthony Albanese delivered the Keynote Address in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) With reference to Agni Prime, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? It is a supersonic missile. It is developed in collaboration with Russia. Select the incorrect answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to Tropical Cyclones, which of the following statements is/are correct? Tropical cyclones are called Willy-willies in Western Australia. Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is published by UNEP. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 9th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –8th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Trishul Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, INS Trishul arrived at Durban port in South Africa to commemorate the 130th anniversary of the incident at Pietermaritzburg railway station when Mahatma Gandhi was evicted from a train. About INS Trishul:- It is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. The guided missile frigate joined the arsenal of the Indian Navy in 2003. Built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Pietermaritzburg railway station incident On the night of June 7, 1893, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, then a young lawyer in South Africa was thrown off the train’s first-class compartment at Pietermaritzburg station despite having the ticket. This happened because he refused to give up his seat as ordered after being told that it was for ‘whites-only’. The incident led him to develop his Satyagraha principles of peaceful resistance and mobilize people in South Africa and in India against the discriminatory rules of the British. Satyagraha: the term is derived from ‘satya’ (truth) and ‘agraha’ (insistence or truth-force). Its practitioners are called Satyagrahis MUST READ: India and Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Burial tradition of Homo Naledi Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Recent evidence suggests that Homo Naledi buried their dead. About Homo Naledi:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.com.au Homo naledi is an extinct human species that lived hundreds of thousands of years ago. Homo Nalediis a species of human discovered in the Rising Star cave system, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in South Africa in 2013. Homo naledi exhibits a combination of primitive and modern features and is not a direct ancestor of modern humans. They are believed to have existed between 300,000 to 200,000 years in Southern Africa. (UPSC CSE: Palaeolithic Cave Paintings in NCR) They walked upright. Their shoulders were built for climbing. Their teeth were shaped like that of older primates. One of the most interesting things was that their brain size was between 450 to 600 cubic centimetres (Small brain). It was one-third of that of modern humans. About the Study: Homo Naledi buried their dead, which would challenge existing notions about advanced mortuary behavior. Modern Humans exhibit a unique behavior among primates by burying their dead, which sets them apart from other animals. This behavior is known as Mortuary behavior, characterized by social acts and a complex understanding of death. Previously, the earliest evidence of Mortuary behavior was found among Neanderthals and modern humans, occurring more than 100,000 years after Homo naledi. Homo naledi may have created rock art in Rising Star Cave. This is intriguing because rock art has traditionally been associated with Homo sapiens and other large-brained ancestors. The report describes engravings in the form of deeply impressed cross-hatchings and geometric shapes such as squares, triangles, crosses and X’s. Additionally, a rock-like object found near a Homo naledi body suggests it could be a stone tool.(UPSC MAINS: Cave paintings). Homo naledi used fire strategically for illumination during mortuary and engraving activities in the cave. Burial tradition in India:- It is said that the practice of burying dead people started some 3000 years ago in India. Megaliths or large stones were used to indicate the place where the dead were buried. We still find this practice in various cultures of India. 3000 years ago, people living in southern regions, Kashmir, and the Deccan plateau were involved in such burial practices. The people who died were buried with the help of pots known as Red and Black Ware. Megalith Sites in India Nilaskal – Karnataka Hire Benkal- Kerala Chamber Tomb: Hire Benakal- Karnataka Dolmens: Hire Benakal– Karnataka Hanamsagar– Karnataka Kudakkallu Parambu– Kerala Junapani- Maharashtra MUST READ: Bhimbetka cave SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh Terracotta art Ganeshwar                Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – Lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Price support scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The government recently announced the removal of the procurement ceiling for tur, urad and masur dal under the price support scheme. About the Price support scheme:- The scheme is for procurement, through NAFED.(UPSC CSE: NAFED and APMC) Under PSS, NAFED undertakes procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton when prices fall below the MSP Procurement under PSS is continued until prices stabilize at or above the MSP. Farmers can avail the benefit of the scheme by selling their produce at support price in Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC) centres. The Central Government reimburses the loss incurred by NAFED in undertaking such operations. NAFED:- It was established in 1958. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. It is the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It undertakes the procurement as and when prices fall below the MSP. It is at present, one of the largest procurement as well as marketing agencies for agricultural products in India. Objectives:- To organize, promote and develop marketing, processing, storage of agricultural, horticultural, and forest produce. To distribute agricultural machinery, implements and other inputs. To act and assist for technical advice in agricultural production. Minimum Support Price (MSP) The MSP are announced at the beginning of the sowing season crops based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). CACP: is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare It is at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production incurred by the farmers. Objective: to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs declares MSP. Crops under MSP:- The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 farm commodities based on the CACP’s recommendations. 7 cereals: paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley 5 pulses: chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur 7 oilseeds: rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed 4 commercial crops: cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute Fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane MUST READ: Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for copra season 2023 SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the SAT quashed an order of SEBI, which had earlier cancelled licence of Brickwork Ratings’, a credit rating agency. . About Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):- It is a statutory body created under the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992. It has only one bench, which sits in Jurisdiction: the whole of India Composition of the SAT: It consists of a Presiding Officer and two other members. Appointment of the Presiding Officer: by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India or his nominee. Powers: it has powers similar to a civil court. Appeals from its orders can be challenged in the Supreme Court. Key Functions:- To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) or by an adjudicating authority under the Act. (UPSC CSE: SEBI) To exercise jurisdiction, authority and powers conferred on the SAT by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force. To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). (UPSC CSE: NPS) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):- It is a pension regulatory authority, which was established in 2003. It is a statutory body established under PFRDA Act, 2003. Ministry: Ministry of Finance HQ: New Delhi Function: It promotes old age income security by establishing, developing and regulating pension funds. It protects the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters. To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI). Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. The apex body supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and the Government of India appoints four part-time members.. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) extends trading ban on Agri commodities SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the NHAI started shifting the toll plaza from Jagjitpura to a new location on the Jalandhar-Barnala stretch of the national highway. About the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):- IMAGE SOURCE: 91wheels.com National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was set up under NHAI Act, 1988. It is an autonomous organization that looks after the management of the complete network of National Highways in the country. (UPSC MAINS: Investment model for the highway sector) Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways HQs: New Delhi Composition: Chairman, and not more than five full-time Members and four part-time Members. They are appointed by the Central Government. Functions:- It has been entrusted with the National Highways Development Project (NHDP). NHDP is India’s largest-ever Highways Project in a phased manner. NHAI takes care of other minor projects for development, maintenance and management. NHAI maintains the National Highways network to global standards and cost-effective manner. Collecting fees or tolls on National Highways. (UPSC CSE: Char Dham Highways) Developing and providing consultancy and construction services on a national and international level. Advising the Central government on issues related to National Highways. Formulating and implementing schemes for National Highways development. National Highways Development Programme (NHDP) National Highways Development Programme (NHDP) was launched in 1998 with the objective of developing roads of international standards which facilitate smooth flow of traffic. It envisages creation of roads with enhanced safety features, better riding surface, grade separator and other salient features. The programme is being implemented in the following seven phases; Phase I: Phase I consists of Golden Quadrilateral network comprising a total length of 5,846 km which connects the four major cities of Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai & Kolkata and 981 km of North-South and East-West corridor .NS-EW corridor connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south and Silchar in the east to Porbandar in the west. Phase I also includes improving connectivity to ports. Phase II: Phase II covers 6,161 km of the NS-EW corridor (The total NS-EW corridor consists of 7,142 km) and 486 km of other NHs. Phase III: Four-laning of 12,109 km of high-density national highways connecting state capitals and places of economic, commercial and tourist importance. Phase IV: Upgradation of 20,000 km of single-lane roads to two-lane standards with paved shoulders. Phase V: Six-laning of 6,500 km of four-laned highways. Phase VI: Construction of 1,000 km of expressways connecting major commercial and industrial townships. Phase VII: Construction of ring roads, by-passes, underpasses, flyovers, etc. comprising 700 km of road network MUST READ: Drone Survey Mandatory for All National Highways Projects SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, an RBI-appointed committee has recommended the extension of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) cover to Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders. About Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders:- PPIs are instruments that facilitate the purchase of goods and services. These include financial services, remittance facilities, etc. (UPSC CSE: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)) Prepaid instruments can be issued as smart cards, magnetic stripe cards, internet accounts, internet wallets, mobile accounts, mobile wallets, paper vouchers and any of the instruments used to access the prepaid amount. (UPSC CSE: Non-Bank PSPs to Join Centralised Payment System ) Three types Types of PPIs:- Closed System PPIs: These PPIs are issued by an entity for facilitating the purchase of goods and services from that entity only. They do not permit cash withdrawals. The operation of such instruments does not require approval by the RBI. The most common example of a closed system PPI is a brand-specific gift card. Semi-closed System PPIs: banks (approved by RBI) and non-banks (authorized by RBI) issue these PPIs. They are for the purchase of goods and services at merchant locations, which have a specific contract with the issuer to accept the PPIs as payment instruments. Open System PPIs: These PPIs are issued only by banks (approved by RBI). These are used at any merchant for the purchase of goods and services. Cash withdrawal at ATMs / Points of Sale (PoS) terminals / Business Correspondents (BCs) is allowed through such PPIs. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) The merger of Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. (CGCI) in 1978 resulted in the formation of DICGC. It is a statutory body under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961. It serves as a deposit insurance and credit guarantee for banks in India. It protects deposit accounts up to a INR 5 lakh per bank account holder.If a deposit balance of a bank account holder in a single bank exceeds INR 5 lakh, the DICGC will pay up to INR 5 lakh, comprising interest and principal, if the bank goes bankrupt. It is a fully owned subsidiary of The RBI governs it. Coverage of DGCI:-Banks including regional rural banks, local area banks, foreign banks with branches in India, and cooperative banks, are mandated to take deposit insurance cover with the DICGC. Types of Deposits Covered:-DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring, etc. The following types of deposits are not covered under DICGC:- Deposits of foreign Governments. Deposits of Central/State Governments. Inter-bank deposits. Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative banks. Any amount due on account of any deposit received outside India. Any amount which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of the MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Mahua laddoos Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Mahua ladoos, prepared by Odisha tribal women have showed huge revenue success in recent times. About Mahua ladoos:- The tribal women in Odisha’s Kandhamal district use mahua flowers to prepare various delicious varieties of food. Mahua flowers are mainly used for brewing local liquor, are popular across India Around 120 tribal women members of the state’s Van Dhan Vikas Kendras prepare laddus, cakes, jam, toffees, pickles, squash, pakodas and biscuits using dry mahua flowers, which they supply, in the local market to earn revenues. Mahua laddus are in high demand compared to other products. The laddu is prepared using ingredients such as cashew, rasi, groundnut, jaggery, and mahua flowers. Van Dhan Vikas Kendras: These are set up under the Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY). They aim to promote Minor Forest Products (MFPs) -centric livelihood development of tribal gatherers and artisans. Minor forest produce are economic commodities growing naturally in a forest and sold for purposes other than timber and fuel. Examples include bamboo, wild honey, gum, lac, waxes, resins etc. These Kendras would act as common facility centres for procurement cum value addition to locally available MFPs. Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY):- It was launched in 2018. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. Objective: to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products. It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies. MUST READ: Mahua Tree/Madhuca longifolia SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Manual Scavenging in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Social Issues) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: According to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s recent report, only 66% of districts in a country are free of manual scavenging. About manual scavenging: The Act of Manual Scavenging refers to manually cleaning, carrying, and disposing of, or handling in any manner, human excreta in an insanitary latrine. In 2013, the definition of manual scavengers was also broadened to include people employed to clean septic tanks, ditches, or railway tracks. Status of manual scavenging: As per 2011 Census of India, there were over 740,000 households in the country where manual scavenging was still being practiced. This practice is often associated with the caste system in India, where people from lower castes, such as Dalits, are forced to engage in manual scavenging. According to the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis, a total of 482 manual scavengers died while cleaning sewers and septic tanks across India between 2016 and 2019. The Safai Karamchari Andolan, an advocacy group working to eradicate manual scavenging, estimates that there are still around 1.8 million manual scavengers in India. 233 people died due to accidents while undertaking hazardous cleaning of sewer and septic tanks from 2019 to 2022. Haryana had the highest number of deaths at 13, followed by Maharashtra with 12 and Tamil Nadu with 10. Reasons for the Prevalence of Manual Scavenging: Indifferent Attitude: A number of independent surveys have talked about the continued reluctance on the part of state governments to admit that the practice prevails under their watch. Social Issue: The practice is driven by caste, class and income divides. It is linked to India’s caste system where so-called lower castes are expected to perform this job. In 1993, India banned the employment of people as manual scavengers (The Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act, 1993), however, the stigma and discrimination associated with it still linger on. This makes it difficult for liberated manual scavengers to secure alternative livelihoods. Issues due to Outsourcing: Many times, local bodies outsource sewer-cleaning tasks to private contractors. However, many of them unreliable operators do not maintain proper rolls of sanitation workers. In case after case of workers being asphyxiated to death, these contractors have denied any association with the deceased. Issues associated with manual scavenging: Manual scavenging is a “dehumanizing practice” which has been carried on in the country with a background of historical injustice and indignity suffered by the manual scavengers. It constitutes problems that encompass domains of health and occupation, human rights and social justice, gender and caste, and human dignity. Manual scavenging and deaths of people trapped in flooded sewer lines continue to be a reality though the practice was banned. The workers were made to work in the most hazardous way. There was not enough protective gear and tech support and they continue to do it manually. Other issues are Poverty and Caste-discrimination. Constitutional provisions against manual scavenging in India: Human dignity is an inalienable right, which forms a part of the fundamental right to life (Article 21– Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India) as per the Constitution of India. The following is a list of provisions under the Indian Constitution, which is supposed to cater to the rights of equality, respect, and dignity before the law. Article 14 is about equality before the law, which should not be denied to any individual in India. Article 15 provides that no discrimination be permitted based on the place of birth of a person, race, religion, caste, and sex. Manual scavengers, however, face discrimination because of their caste all their lives. Article 16 of the Indian Constitution, in matters of public employment guarantees equal opportunity to all its citizens. Article 17 has provision for the abolition of untouchability, it is guaranteed under this constitutional provision to all. Article 19(1) (g) gives every citizen the right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business of their choosing. Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to all the citizens living in India. Apart from these, some other rights, which safeguard the manual scavengers as SC or ST, under the Indian Constitution, are Article 46 and Article 338. Supreme Court’s Judgements: The apex court itself had reinforced the prohibition and directed the rehabilitation of people, traditionally and otherwise, employed as manual scavengers in its judgment in Safai Karamchari Andolan and Others vs. Union of India. The judgment had called for their “rehabilitation based on the principles of justice and transformation”. Initiatives taken by the Govt. NAMASTE scheme: The scheme for rehabilitation of manual scavengers has now been merged with the NAMASTE scheme for 100% mechanisation of sewer work. The Union Budget for 2023-24 showed ₹100-crore allocation for the NAMASTE scheme and no allocation for the rehabilitation scheme. Manual scavenging as defined under Section 2 (1) (g) of the “Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (MS Act, 2013)” is prohibited with effect from 6.12.2013. No person or agency can engage or employ any person for manual scavenging from the above date. Any person or agency who engages any person for manual scavenging in violation of the provisions of the MS Act, 2013 is punishable under Section 8 of the above Act, with imprisonment upto 2 years or fine upto Rs. One Lakh or both. Under Swachhta Udyami Yojana of National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation, concessional loans are provided to safai karamcharis, manual scavengers, their dependants, the Urban Local Bodies, and other agencies responsible for cleaning, for procurement of sanitation related instruments/vehicles. A short-duration training programme (RPL) is organised for the sanitation workers wherein they are trained in safe and mechanised cleaning practices. Source:   The Hindu Financial Inclusion in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: In June 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor launched a Financial Inclusion Dashboard, named Antardrishti. About Antardrishti: The dashboard will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters. The dashboard, presently intended for internal use in the RBI, will further facilitate greater financial inclusion through a multi-stakeholder approach. About Financial Inclusion: According to the world bank, financial inclusion means that individuals and businesses have access to affordable financial products and services that meet their needs. Accessibility, affordability and availability of financial services are 3 pillars of financial inclusion. It is a method of offering banking and financial solutions and services to every individual in the society without any form of discrimination. The concept of financial inclusion was first introduced in India officially in 2005 by the Reserve Bank of India. The objectives of financial inclusion are to provide the following: A basic no-frills banking account for making and receiving payments Saving products (including investment and pension) Simple credit products and overdrafts linked with no-frills accounts Remittance, or money transfer facilities Micro insurance (life) and non-micro insurance (life and non-life) Micro pension and Financial Literacy. Significance of Financial Inclusion: Financial inclusion strengthens the availability of economic resources and builds the concept of savings among the poor. Financial inclusion is a major step towards inclusive growth. It helps in the overall economic development of the underprivileged population. In India, effective financial inclusion is needed for the uplift of the poor and disadvantaged people by providing them with the modified financial products and services. Challenges to financial inclusion in India: Socio-economic factors: Financial exclusion is related to the social conditions of low-income households, who are not able to access the available financial products and services. Various constraints such as low income, low savings and generally low levels of awareness hinders financial inclusion. Geographical factors: A review by the Rangarajan Committee shows that financial exclusion is highest among households in the Eastern, North -Eastern and Central areas of the country partly due to poor infrastructure. This coupled with remoteness and less population in some areas resulting is in problems with access. Limited availability of appropriate technology: The key driver of financial inclusion is the proliferation of stable and reliable Information and Communication Technology (ICT). The lack of infrastructure and cost effective technology for facilitating transactions at the doorstep is a hindrance to financial inclusion. Perception of obligation: The financial institutions are reluctant to serve small value and unprofitable customers with irregular income. Banks perceive inclusion as an obligation rather than a business opportunity. This discourages banks from providing financial services to low income individuals. Lack of documents: Another factor preventing them from accessing formal financial institutions are the requirement of various document proof. The poor generally lack documents such as Aadhaar card, income certificate, birth certificate, address proof etc. Financial illiteracy: The absence of basic education prevents people from following even simple information related to financial inclusion. The rural population as a result, relies mostly on the informal sector for availing finance at high rates, which lead to the vicious circle of poverty and debt repayment. Penetration: At present, only about 5% of India’s 6 lakh villages have bank branches. There are 296 under-banked districts in states with below-par banking services. Thus, bank reach is poor in rural areas leading to financial exclusion. Steps taken to achieve Financial Inclusion: Government of India Initiatives: PM Mudra Yojana – for small loans to non-corporate businesses PM Jan Dhan Yojana Insurance scheme – PM Suraksha Bima Yojana and Jeevan Jyoti Beema Yojana Pension Scheme – Atal Pension Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mann Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM) Nandan Nilekani Panel on deepening of Digital Payments Kisan Credit Card Initiatives by the RBI: National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2019-24 Payment Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) ATM infrastructure Project Financial Literacy Way Forward: The availability of banking facilities and strong bank branch network are the major facilitators of developmental activities. A strong and sturdy financial system is a pillar of economic growth, development and progress of an economy. The problem of financial exclusion needs to be tackled if we want our country to grow in an equitable and sustainable manner. Source:  Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana, consider the following statements: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It includes only Major Forest Products. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the National Highways Authority of India, consider the following statements: It is entrusted with collecting fees or tolls on National Highways. NHAI is an executive body. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), consider the following statements: It has only one bench, which sits in Delhi. It can take appeals of SEBI only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 8th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[MOST TRUSTED] TLP (Phase II) – ONLINE FREE Initiative for UPSC Mains 2023 – Daily Mains Answer Writing Programme - Starting from 12th June!

Hello Friends,Do you remember that brilliant six that Virat Kohli hit against Haris Rauf? Wasn’t that surreal? Everything about the shot – Kohli’s stance, back lift, hand eye coordination, and follow through were spot on. It was a picture perfect moment. But any picture of that shot couldn’t capture the process behind the shot. To produce that seemingly effortless shot in the match, Kohli must have practised the same shot hundreds of times in the nets. He has spent years to perfect his fitness and strength to be able to play that spectacular shot. While he is getting all the accolades today, his success is a great example of the significance of process for producing desirable resultsIn the game of UPSC also, particularly the Mains stage, process is crucial. To produce 20 perfect answers in a paper, you have to start the process of mastering the art of answer writing, one that involves commitment, consistency and eagerness to learn from mistakes. You must commit to the process of perfecting your writing game on a consistent basis. This is where IASbaba’s Think, Learn and Perform (TLP) initiative comes into play. Consider TLP as a net practice set up where you will be challenged with all sorts of deliveries in the form of daily questions. Your job is to tackle those with patience, fail in the beginning and learn from your failures in a quest to improve your game. If you make TLP a routine process of your preparation, you will definitely do better in the real test. The philosophy of TLP is simple – make answer writing a small but integral part of your preparation to improve your answer writing skills continuously and consistently over a period of time. IASbaba posts 5 questions on a daily basis based on a micro plan that is shared in advance. You visit IASbaba’s TLP portal, answer the questions in a time-bound manner, share the same with IASbaba and other aspirants on the portal, get access to quality synopsis, receive feedback from IASbaba and peers, learn from your mistakes and move on to the next set of questions the coming day. Now, imagine sticking to this process for a couple of months! We are pretty sure that you will experience a huge improvement in the level of your answers – a fact that has been mentioned by hundreds of toppers who were part of the TLP initiative in the past. Peer feedback is also promoted to have engaging discussions on the questions posted. Peer review is an important practice as when you are reviewing your fellow aspirant’s answer, you have turned the table and you are acting as an evaluator. It is important because, this way you will tend to find the mistakes in the answer which in turn will improve your own answers as you will refrain from committing them. We also provide detailed synopsis to ensure that you get a ready reference to all the questions posted under the TLP initiative. The synopsis that are provided are articulated in such a way that you can prepare an entire topic from them. In short, the features of TLP program are as follows Daily Five Questions: We will be posting daily 5 questions. Mains Rapid Revision Video Classes: The most important events of the year from the mains perspective will be covered in our classes. This will give you in-depth understanding of complex issues, comprehensively cover the syllabus and aid you with rapid revision of the mains syllabus. Synopsis: Detailed synopsis or model answer for each General Studies questions. Evaluation: We would encourage peer reviews. So, friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. The best answer will be pinned as featured comment. Essays: We will be covering every major theme and philosophical essays on every weekend. Current Affairs of last one year: will be covered on a daily basis throug the questions. Download the Schedule - TLP (Phase 2) 2023 This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post.We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Click Here To Register For TLP (P.S: If you have issues regarding login/registering to the program, please mail us on support@iasbaba.com) As you know we put in a lot of effort in every single initiative that we launch. We do not make questions just for the sake of it. Questions are well researched and are on the lines of UPSC pattern. The above testimonials from toppers are a proof of that.Answer writing is an art that can not be learnt in a single day. So don’t get bogged down by strict reviews. You are not on the platform to appease anyone, but to improve every single day. Write the answers everyday and learn from the comments of the IASbaba mentors and the feedback of your peers. We can assure you, by the end of the process, you will internalise the process of answer writing. Not only this, you will develop a muscle memory of several answers that you will find the actual UPSC exam. Many of the questions that we have asked on TLP, have been asked directly by UPSC.On this note, we wish you all the best and hope that the process will help you in becoming a topper.All the Best IASbaba Team