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[MOST AWAITED PROGRAMME] GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ – UPSC/IAS 2024 – ‘A Rigorous, Intensive Tests & Mentorship Based Programme’ That DOUBLES Your Success Rate!

IN INDIA, THE PLACE OF A ‘GURU’ or a mentor and a guide is above all! The Guru – Shishya Parampara has a beautiful history, known to all but practised by none in today’s day and age. The process of this direct dissipation of information from the source not only built a knowledge base but also helped in building a strong character in the students. But when we look around – excessive commercialisation has paved way for only a professional connection between teachers and students. There is a strong lack of connection between the teachers and the students. The fear of asking questions has not helped much in the process of learning as it should have actually happened. The fast-paced lifestyle and accessibility to various resources all at once, have steered many students away from the mentorship that could have served as the single most important starting point for many successes in life. But let us think for a moment….The stories of teachers like Vishvamitra, Sandinapani and Drona and the anecdotes about the brilliance of students like Ram, Krishna and Arjun are an integral part of our life journey. Isn’t it? One fine day, when the team was contemplating how best can we serve the veterans who have been in this game but have not tasted their most awaited success yet…we came up with an idea – we wondered if the parampara could be revived!Click Here To Read The Complete Details

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –2nd June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Finance Banks Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that Small Finance Banks have revolutionised banking services in rural and semi-urban areas. About Small Finance Banks:- IMAGE SOURCE: tnpscthervupettagam.com Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions, which provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked region of the country. They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Minimum paid-up capital– 100 cr. Capital adequacy ratio – 15% of risk-weighted assets. Foreign shareholding capped at 74% of paid capital. Foreign Portfolio investment ( FPIs) cannot be more than 24%. Priority sector lending requirement of 75% of total adjusted net bank credit. (UPSCE MAINS: Micro finance has the ability to unleash rural India’s entrepreneurial zeal.) Eligibility Criteria:- Resident individuals/professionals, having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance can start Small Finance Banks with the approval of RBI. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector. (UPSC CSE: Digital Banks) Indian residents and have a successful record of accomplishment of running their businesses for at least a period of five years must control these. Joint ventures for setting up small finance banks are not permitted. Functions:- Take small deposits and disburse loans. Distribute mutual funds, insurance products and other simple third-party financial products. Lend 75% of their total adjusted net bank credit to priority sector. (Revised Priority Sector Lending Guidelines). Maximum loan size would be 10% of capital funds to single borrower, 15% to a group. Minimum 50% of loans should be up to 25 lakhs. MUST READ: Inclusive Growth SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2020) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2021) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World’s largest grain storage plan Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a programme for “world’s largest grain storage”. About World’s largest grain storage plan:- This scheme intends to construct grain storage facilities in the cooperative sector. Every block will have a dedicated godown with a capacity of 2,000 tonnes. Objective: to revolutionize the storage and distribution of food grains, ensuring their preservation and availability across the country. Supervision of the scheme: an inter-ministerial committee will oversee implementation. Schemes identified for convergence under the Plan:- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare:- Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Ministry of Food Processing Industries:- Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:- Allocation of food grains under the National Food Security Act Procurement operations at Minimum Support Price Benefits:- The plan aims to address not just the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure. (UPSC MAINS: Evaluate the storage mechanism for agricultural produce in India. ) Functioning as Procurement centres for State Agencies/ Food Corporation of India (FCI) Creation of decentralised storage capacity- it would reduce food grain wastage and strengthen the food security of the country. Providing various options to the farmers-, it would prevent the distressed sale of crops, thus enabling the farmers to realise better prices for their produce. Reduce the cost incurred in the transportation of food grains to procurement centres. MUST READ: Free Foodgrain Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Chytridiomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, scientists developed a diagnostic test for Chytridiomycosis. About Chytridiomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESERVE.COM Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease in frog populations. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) It has caused severe declines in over 500 frog species and led to 90 extinctions, making it the deadliest animal disease known. (UPSC CSE: Mucormycosis ) How does it infect? It infects frogs skin. This damages their ability to balance water and salt levels. Origin- the disease originated in Asia. It spread globally through amphibian trade and travel. Mortality rate- extremely high. Natural immunity:- Some amphibian species have some form of natural immune resistance and do not become sick when they carry the fungus. This Immunity might come from anti-microbial chemicals within the skin, symbiotic bacteria on the skin, white blood cells and antibodies in the blood, or combinations of these mechanisms. So far, no clear trend has been found between resistance and immune function. MUST READ: World Health Organization(WHO) releases first-ever list of health-threatening fungi SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Credit Information Bureau India Ltd (CIBIL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Kerala High Court held that an education loan application should not be rejected based on a low Credit Information Bureau India Ltd (CIBIL) score. About Credit Information Bureau India Ltd (CIBIL):- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESHARE.NET Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited is one of the Credit Information Companies in India. It is involved in keeping the documentation of every credit-related action of individuals and companies. Different financial institutions and the banks, submit their individual information to CIBIL. CIBIL provides CIR (Credit Information Report) and the credit scores.(UPSC CSE: Credit Rating agencies) The reports on CIBIL accommodate the information in detail about the credits an individual is taking like car loans, credit cards, home loans, personal loans, etc. Two types of CIBIL reports are available:- CIBIL Report on Company Credit– CIBIL CCR is a record of your company’s credit history. This is created from data submitted to CIBIL by lending institutions across India. The past payment behaviour of a company is a strong indication of its future behaviour Credit Information Report– it is created for individuals and contains in-depth information about credit behaviour in past and a score of CIBIL. Importance of Credit Rating: For Lenders; Better Investment Decision: No bank or money lending companies would like to give money to a risky customer. With credit rating, they get an idea about the creditworthiness of a company (that is borrowing the money) and the risk factor attached with them. By evaluating this, they can make a better investment decision. Safety Assured: High credit rating means an assurance about the safety of money and that it will be paid back with interest on time. For Borrowers; Easy Loan Approval: With a high credit rating, you will be seen as a low/no risk customer. Therefore, banks will approve your loan application easily. Competitive Rate of Interest: You must be aware of the fact that every bank offers loans in a particular range of interest rates. One of the major factors that determine the rate of interest on the loan you take is your credit history. Higher the credit rating, lower the rate of interest. Credit Information Companies (CICs):- At present, there are four CICs. They are provided with a Certificate of Registration. These include Equifax Credit Information Services Private Limited, CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Private Limited, Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited, and Experian Credit Information Company of India Private Limited. Credit Information Companies in India are licensed by the Reserve Bank of India and governed by the Credit Information Companies Regulation Act, 2005. MUST READ: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Himalayan brown bears Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports show that encroachment is pushing Himalayan brown bears into Kashmir’s villages. About Himalayan brown bears:- IMAGE SOURCE: ROUND.GLASS.COM Distribution:Northwestern and central Himalaya, including India, Pakistan, Nepal, the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China and Bhutan. Habitat:High altitude open valleys and pastures. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List- Critically endangered CITES – Appendix I (UPSC CSE: CITES COP 19) Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 – Schedule 1 (UPSC CSE: Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) Food:Omnivorous Threat: Human-animal conflict, rapid habitat loss, poaching for fur, claws and organs and, in some rare cases, bear baiting. MUST READ: Asiatic Black Bear SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2)Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Offer-for-sale Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the shares of Coal India dropped 5% as offer-for-sale kicked off. About Offer-for-sale:- Under the offer-for-sale method, securities are not issued directly to the public but are offered for sale through intermediaries like issuing houses or stockbrokers. The OFS mechanism was originally developed and implemented by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 2012. Objective: to make it simpler for founders of publicly traded firms to reduce their shareholding and conform to the required public shareholding standard. Unique conditions under which an OFS turns out to be a suitable option:- The issued shares are reserved for retail investors in an amount of at least 10%. A minimum of 25% of the available shares are reserved for mutual funds and insurance firms. Sponsors can sell firm shares straightaway through an Offer for Sale rather than being required to pause for an IPO. (UPSC CSE: IPO) Initial Public Offering (IPO): it is issued by a business to raise money from the stock markets, for the inaugural period. (UPSC CSE: FPO) The Offer for Sale is open to shareholders with greater than 10% ownership of a corporate entity. The trading hours, from 15 AM to 3 PM, are available for placing an OFS. Any allocations will not be made if the offer value falls below the prevailing market price. Before the OFS, the organization must notify the stock markets at least 2 days in advance. MUST READ: Open Offer SOURCE: BUSINESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) A share of the household’s financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Asian Development Bank (ADB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) stated that it would contribute to India’s urban-focused flagship programmes and schemes. About Asian Development Bank (ADB):- IMAGE SOURCE: CORPORATEFINANCEINSTITUTE.COM Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank. (UPSC MAINS: Differences between the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank (ADB). ) It was established in First President: Takeshi Watanabe HQ: Manila, Philippines Objective: to promote social and economic development in Asia. (UPSC CSE: Multi-tranche financing facility) Membership:- The bank admits members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries. From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68 members 49 of these are within Asia and the Pacific. Shareholders: Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%). Voting rights: votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions. ADB is official United Nations Observer. Roles and functions:- It is dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration. Key Publications:- ADB Annual Report 2022 Asian Development Outlook April 2023 Asian Economic Integration Report 2023: Trade, Investment, and Climate Change in Asia and the Pacific Key Indicators for Asia and the Pacific 2022 India and ADB India is a founding member of ADB. India is the bank’s fourth largest shareholder. ADB operations promote private sector development, gender empowerment, regional integration, knowledge solutions, and capacity development. ADB supports India’s priorities for robust, climate resilient, and inclusive growth, aligned with ADB’s Strategy 2030 and the forthcoming country partnership strategy, 2023–2027. ADB Projects in India:- Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor Development Program (Tranche 2) Himachal Pradesh Subtropical Horticulture, Irrigation, and Value Addition Project Nhava Sheva Container Terminal Financing Project Strengthening Vocational High Schools in South Asia Olam Global Agri Food Security Support Project Improving Bengaluru’s Livability Through Transit-Oriented Development Proposed projects:- State Road Safety Incentive Program Manipur State Road Connectivity Investment Program Nashik Metro Neo Project Road Sector Development in Tripura Promoting Disaster Risk Insurance MUST READ: Loan Agreements between Govt & Asian Development Bank to Boost the infrastructure sector in India SOURCE: PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: Recusal by Judges Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics – Conflict of Interest) Context: Recently, there have been various instances of judges recusing themselves from hearing cases. About Judge Recusal: When there is a conflict of interest, a judge can withdraw from hearing a case to prevent creating a perception that she carried a bias while deciding the case. The conflict of interest can be in many ways — from holding shares in a company that is a litigant to having a prior or personal association with a party involved in the case. Another instance for recusal is when an appeal is filed in the Supreme Court against a judgement of a High Court that may have been delivered by the SC judge when she was in the HC. The practice stems from the cardinal principle of due process of law that nobody can be a judge in her own case. Rule for Recusal: There are no formal rules governing recusals, although several SC judgments have dealt with the issue. In Ranjit Thakur v Union of India (1987), the SC held that the test of the likelihood of bias is the reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the party. The judge needs to look at the mind of the party before him, and decide that he is biased or not. Causes of Recusal: The decision to recuse generally comes from the judge himself or herself as it rests on the conscience and discretion of the judge to disclose any potential conflict of interest. Conflict of interest could be: Judge’s Interest in the subject matter, or relationship with someone who is interested in it; Judge’s Background or experience, such as the judge’s prior work as a lawyer; Judge’s Personal knowledge about the parties or the facts of the case; Judge’s Ex parte communications with lawyers or non-lawyers; Judge’s Rulings, comments or conduct; In some circumstances, lawyers or parties in the case bring it up before the judge. If a judge recuses, the case is listed before the Chief Justice for allotment to a fresh Bench. Process of Recusal: The decision to recuse generally comes from the judge himself as it rests on the conscience and discretion of the judge to disclose any potential conflict of interest. Some judges orally convey to the lawyers involved in the case their reasons for recusal, many do not. Some explain the reasons in their order. In some circumstances, lawyers or parties in the case bring it up before the judge. Once a request is made for recusal, the decision to recuse or not rests with the judge. While there are some instances where judges have recused even if they do not see a conflict but only because such an apprehension was cast, there have also been several cases where judges have refused to withdraw from a case. If a judge recuses, the case is listed before the Chief Justice for allotment to a fresh Bench. Concerns: Undermining Judicial Independence: It allows litigants to cherry-pick a bench of their choice, which impairs judicial fairness. In addition, the purpose of recusal in these cases undermines both independence and impartiality of the judges. Different Interpretations: As there are no rules to determine when the judges could recuse themselves in these cases, there are different interpretations of the same situation. Delays the Process: Some requests for recusal are made with the intent to intimidate the court or to get better of an ‘inconvenient’ judge or to obfuscate the issues or to cause obstruction and delay the proceedings or in any other way frustrate or obstruct the course of justice. Way Forward: Recusal is also regarded as the abdication of duty. Maintaining institutional civilities are distinct from the fiercely independent role of the judge as an adjudicator. It is the constitutional duty, as reflected in one’s oath, to be transparent and accountable, and hence, a judge is required to indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular case. Source:  The Hindu Renewable Energy in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: The government has recently invited bids for 50 GW of renewable energy capacity annually for the next five years. About Renewable Energy: Renewable energy is energy derived from natural sources that are replenished at a higher rate than they are consumed. Sunlight and wind, for example, are such sources that are constantly being replenished. Renewable energy sources are plentiful and all around us. On the other hand, Fossil fuels – coal, oil and gas, are non-renewable resources that take hundreds of millions of years to form. Fossil fuels, when burned to produce energy, cause harmful greenhouse gas emissions, such as carbon dioxide. Renewable energy capacity in India: Source:  pib India currently has a total renewable energy capacity of 168.96 GW (as on February 28, 2023) with about 82 GW at various stages of implementation and about 41 GW at tendering stage. This includes 64.38 GW Solar Power, 51.79 GW Hydro Power, 42.02 GW Wind Power and 10.77 GW Bio Power. Today, India is the world’s third largest producer of renewable energy, with 40% of its installed electricity capacity coming from non-fossil fuel sources. Advantages of Renewable Energy: A Fuel Supply That Never Runs Out: Renewable energy is created from sources that naturally replenish themselves – such as sunlight, wind, water, biomass, and even geothermal (underground) heat. While fossil fuels are becoming harder and more expensive to source – resulting in the destruction of natural habitats and significant financial losses – renewable energy never runs out. Zero Carbon Emissions There are no greenhouse gasses or other pollutants created during the process. Coal power plants on the other hand create around 2.2 pounds of CO2 for every kilowatt-hour of electricity. As we race to decarbonize our world and embrace energy sources that do not contribute to global warming, renewables are helping to provide us with emission-free energy. Cleaner environment Burning fossil fuels causes global warming and causes pollution. Coal power stations, for example, release high volumes of carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) directly into the atmosphere – two of the most potent greenhouse gasses. On the other hand, renewable energy creates no pollution, waste, or contamination risks to air and water. A Cheaper Form of energy: With the rapid growth of renewable energy over the last ten years, solar and wind power are now the cheapest sources of energy in many parts of the world. In the United Arab Emirates, a new sun farm recently secured the world’s lowest price of solar energy at just 1.35c per kilowatt-hour. Whereas green energy was once a “clean-but-expensive” alternative – it is now helping to reduce energy bills for people in many parts of the world. Renewable Energy Creates New Jobs: With an increasing focus on global warming and many governments, setting ambitious carbon-reduction goals Renewable Energy has quickly become a major source of new job growth. Challenges of Renewable Energy in India: High initial cost of installation: While the development of a coal-based power plant requires around Rs 4 crore per MW, the investment required a wind-based plant, with a capacity utilization of 25%, which requires an investment of Rs 6 crore per MW. Reliability: By their very nature, solar and wind energy are variable in availability both spatially as well as geographically. Hence, they need to be supported by conventional sources of power. Creation of storage infrastructure: To overcome the variable nature of renewable sources of energy, it is vital to invest in affordable batteries of large capacity. Poor DISCOM’s condition: An important challenge for further scaling up renewables in India is the poor financial condition of power distribution companies (discoms), most of which are owned by state governments and are reeling under heavy debts. Low Social acceptance: renewable-based energy system is still not very encouraging in urban India. Despite heavy subsidies being provided by the government for the installation of solar water heaters and lighting systems, its penetration is still very low. Weak domestic manufacturing capability: It is important to set up manufacturing capacity in India to decrease imports and promote Aatmanirbhar Bharat. It would also aid in the creation of multiple manufacturing jobs. Sustainability: that is, how to expand reliable energy access and use while maintaining affordability for consumers and financial stability for the DISCOMs. Integration into the national grid: that is how to integrate increasing shares of renewable energy securely and reliably into the national electricity grid. Govt schemes to promote RE: National Solar Mission (NSM) (Solar energy in India) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM). Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY) Phase-II: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched to illuminate dark regions through establishment of solar street lights. It is a sub scheme under off –grid and decentralized solar application scheme of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Govt. of India. The Phase II is being implemented during 2018-19 and 2019-20. Solar Parks Scheme Way Forward: India’s switch from coal to clean power is a win-win and a promising step towards meeting the country’s net zero emissions target by 2070. Governments and private sector organizations need to collaborate and work together to develop innovative solutions and strategies that can help to overcome these obstacles. India’s energy demand is expected to increase more than that of any other country in the coming decades due to its sheer size and enormous potential for growth and development. Therefore, it is imperative that most of this new energy demand is met by low-carbon, renewable sources. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements about the Asian Development Bank (ADB): China is the largest shareholder in the ADB. The membership of the ADB is open to only poor and least developed countries across Asia and Africa. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2. Consider the following statements about the Himalayan Brown bear: Himalayan Brown bear is Vulnerable as per the IUCN red list. Its distribution is restricted to India, Pakistan, Nepal, the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China and Bhutan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3. Consider the following statements about Primary Agricultural Credit Societies: PACS confer equal rights to all its members without considering their holding of share and their social standing. PACS provides long-term loans to its members. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recent initiatives to refashion Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls into shoes for farmers have been observed. About Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls:- Gongadi is the traditional woollen blanket woven by the indigenous Kuruma communities. It is made from the wool of the indigenous Deccani sheep, which is locally known as Nalla gorrae. Nalla gorrae: it is a breed of sheep found in the Deccan Plateau region. (UPSC MAINS: Landform formation due to volcanic eruptions) The blanket is famous for its durability and versatility. It lasts for more than a decade due to its unique hand weaving. (UPSC CSE: Textile Industry in India) Unique natures of gongadi = it does not fade but grows darker in time. The traditional gongadi is produced organically, without using any dyes either natural or synthetic. Sizing of the strings is done using the paste of soaked and cooked tamarind seeds. MUST READ: Hyderabad lac bangles set to get GI tag SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                                       Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls             Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery             Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris      Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in NorthEast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Tele-Law programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: According to recent reports the Tele-Law programme has achieved a new milestone with 40 lakh beneficiaries across the country. About the Tele-Law programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: CODESSLIDE.IN The Tele-Law programme was launched in (UPSC CSE: Tele-Law) Ministry/ministries: Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: the programme connects the disadvantaged section with a panel of lawyers through an e-interface platform. It uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice. It is to facilitate the delivery of legal advice through a panel of lawyers stationed at the State Legal Services Authorities (SALSA) and CSC (Common service centres). (UPSC CSE: NALSA) The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. For all others, a nominal fee is charged. MUST READ: Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Kanger Valley National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare mouse deer was caught on a camera trap set up at Kanger Valley National Park. About Kanger Valley National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESHARE Kanger valley national park is situated in Jagdalpur, It was established as a national park in the year (UPSC CSE: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) ) It derives its name from the Kanger River that flows through it. The Cuddapah group of rock formations, as well as the Vindhyan group of rock formations, are the most prevalent rock formations in the park. The state bird of Chattisgarh, the Bastar Hill Myna, is the most famous species in this area.It can imitate human voices. Kutumbasar, Kailash, and Dandak are three caves in the park, known for their geological features of stalagmites and stalactites. Fauna: Tigers, Leopards, Mouse Deer, Rhesus Macaque, Sloth Bear, Flying Squirrel, Chital, Sambar, Barking Deer, Pythons, Cobra, Snakes etc. (UPSC CSE: Chhattisgarh’s state animal, Wild buffalo, close to extinction) Flora: Teak, Haldu, Sal, Tendu, Mahua, Saja, Bija, Dhavara, Tinsa, , Mahulbel, Amarbel, Bandha etc. MUST READ: Indravati Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Foucault pendulum Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A Foucault’s Pendulum, was installed in the new Parliament building inaugurated recently. About Foucault’s Pendulum:- IMAGE SOURCE: si.edu The Foucault pendulum is a device that proves the Earth’s rotation. A French scientist, Leon Foucault invented the Foucault pendulum. Historical Context: In 1851, the Foucault pendulum experiment conclusively demonstrated the Earth’s rotation, settling debates about the planet’s movement. (UPSC MAINS: What is Geomagnetism?) Working: The pendulum consists of a heavy iron ball suspended by a steel wire and swings in a plane, mimicking the Earth’s rotation on its axis. A Foucault pendulum always rotates clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. (UPSC CSE: Climate change causing a shift in Earth’s axis) The rate becomes slower as the pendulum’s location approaches the Equator. At the Equator, 0° latitude, a Foucault pendulum does not rotate. In the Southern Hemisphere, rotation is counter-clockwise. MUST READ: NavIC SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. Light always travels in a straight line. Speed of light is always the same. India and Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the government announced dropping the plans to host the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation summit in Delhi. About India and Shanghai Cooperation Organisation:- IMAGE SOURCE: BLOGSPOT.COM The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation. It was created in 2001. (UPSC PRELIMS: Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)) The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003. (UPSC MAINS: What are India’s stakes in the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)) Objectives: It aims to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. SCO’s official languages: Russian and Chinese. India and SCO:- India’s membership in SCO can help in achieving the following goals:- Security:- India through RATS can improve its counterterrorism abilities by working toward intelligence sharing, law enforcement and developing best practices and technologies. It will also help India to work on anti-drug trafficking and small arms proliferation Energy:- SCO can provide India with an opportunity to meet its energy requirements through regional diplomacy. For example, Talks on the construction of stalled pipelines like the TAPI (Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India) pipeline; IPI (Iran-Pakistan-India) pipeline can get a much-needed push through the SCO. Trade:- SCO provides India with direct access to trade in Central Asia. Central Asian countries provide India with a market for its IT, telecommunications, banking, finance and pharmaceutical industries. Geopolitical:- It will India to fulfil its aspiration of playing an active role in its extended neighbourhood as well as checking the ever-growing influence of China in Eurasia. It is also a platform for India to simultaneously engage with its traditional friend Russia as well as its rivals, China and Pakistan. MUST READ: Significance of SCO Summit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement                      set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration             Healthcare of the people Hague Convention                Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue                  Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition                        Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Sabang port Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, India and Indonesia have completed a joint feasibility study on developing the Sabang port. About Sabang Port:- IMAGE SOURCE:BLUEWATERDIVETRAVEL.COM Sabang Port is located in the Aceh Province of Indonesia. (UPSC MAINS: India-Indonesia relationship) It is roughly 700 km from the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Sabang is at the entrance of the Strait of Malacca. Malacca Straits: a narrow stretch of the sea between Indonesia and Malaysia. It is considered a key global choke point. The successful development of this vital port would allow India easier access to the Malacca Straits. It could bolster India’s military position vis-a-vis China in the Indian Ocean. During Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Indonesia in 2018:-Both countries had decided to cooperate in connectivity between Andaman & Nicobar Island and Aceh Province of Indonesia. It was also decided to set up a joint task force for undertaking projects for port-related infrastructure around the Sabang. (UPSC CSE: Indian Ports Association ) MUST READ: Indo-Pacific Relations SOURCE: THE MINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Barents Sea Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, an underwater volcano erupting with mud and fluids from Earth’s interior was discovered in the Barents Sea. About Barents Sea:- IMAGE SOURCE: RCLUTZ.COM The Barents Sea is a marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean. It is located along the northern coasts of Norway and Russia. It borders the Norwegian and Greenland Seas in the west, the Arctic Sea in the north and the Kara Sea in the east. The Barents Sea is divided between Russia and Norway by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). The sea was known to Vikings and medieval Russians as the Murmean Sea. The current name of the sea is after the historical Dutch navigator Willem Barentsz. Boundary with island landforms:- It is bounded by the Svalbard archipelago in the northwest, Franz Josef Land islands in the northeast, the Novaya Zemlya archipelago in the east, the Norwegian Sea and the Greenland Sea in the west, and the Kola Peninsula in the south. (UPSC MAINS: landforms formed by Volcanic eruption) It is separated from the Kara Sea by the Kara Strait and the Novaya Zemlya archipelago. The sea’s deepest point is 600 m at the Bear Island Trench. (UPSC MAINS: What is volcanism) MUST READ: India – Russia Relations SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) Rivers                                Flows into Mekong Andaman Sea Thames Irish Sea Volga Caspian Sea Zambezi Indian Ocean Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only Q.2) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: Toy Industry of India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: India has recently turned a net exporter of toys, during 2020-21 and 2021-22, ending decades of import dominance. Toy Industry in India: Presently, the Indian toy industry is only 5% of the global industry size indicating a large potential growth opportunity. The domestic toy demand forecasted to grow at 10-15% against the global average of 5%. The report ‘State of play: India’s toy story- Unboxing fun and beyond’ said India could also target a 2% share of global exports by 2025. There is high growth potential for India in exports of plastic toys and board games in the US, EU, and the Middle East among other markets. Growth of India’s Toy Industry: Indian Toys Industry is estimated to be US$ 1.5 billion making up 0.5% of global market share. The toy manufacturers in India are mostly located in the NCR, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and clusters across central Indian States. The sector is fragmented with 90% of the market being unorganized and 4,000 toy industry units from the MSME sector. According to a joint report by industry body FICCI and KPMG, the India’s toy industry is expected to double from US$ 1 billion in 2019-20 to US$ 2 billion by 2024-25. A share of 0.5% of the global toy industry shows indicates large potential growth opportunity. The domestic toy demand is forecasted to grow at 10-15% against the global average of 5%. According to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the import of toys into India has declined sharply from US$ 304 million in 2018-19 to US$ 36 million in 2021-22. On the other hand, exports have increased from US$ 109 million in 2018-19 to US$ 177 million in 2021-22. Factors driving growth of India’s Toy Industry: Huge consumer base: India’s population stands at around 1.4 billion, with approximately 26.62% of the population falling into the 0-14 age category. Rising disposable income: India has experienced strong GDP growth rates for the last several years, and the middle-class population has experienced strong growth. Rise in online purchases: Online sales channels have witnessed a boom in India with the evolution of smartphones and other digital media. Shifting preferences: According to the Toy Association report in 2018, parents believe in STEM-focussed toys as their primary way to encourage science and math development in young children. Disincentivising imported toys: The Indian government has increased the basic customs duty on toys from 20% to 60%, reduced availability of imported toys and enhanced demand for the domestic toy industry. Challenges associated with the toy industry: India’s toy industry is minuscule and during the one-and-half decades between 2000 and 2016, industry output was halved in real terms (net of inflation) with job losses. Imports accounted for up to 80% of domestic sales until recently. Between 2000 and 2018-19, imports rose by nearly three times as much as exports. India hardly figures in the global toy trade, with its exports at a mere half a percentage point. Between 2014-19, the Indian toy industry witnessed negative productivity growth. India followed an inward-oriented industrial policy in the Planning era, which sheltered domestic production by providing a “double protection” — by import tariffs and reservation of the product for exclusive production in the small-scale sector — known as the “reservation policy”. Toy manufacturing remained stagnant, archaic, and fragmented, even as imports of modern, safe, and branded toys boomed. The output of the informal or unorganised sector shrank, though it continues to account for the majority of establishments and employment. ‘Make in India’ had a negligible effect on strengthening toy production and exports on a sustained basis. Steps taken by the Government to aid growth of Toy Industry: Call to the Start-ups: The Government has called upon start-up entrepreneurs to explore the toy sector. The Government has also urged industry players to support local toys and reduce reliance on foreign goods. Educational institutions have been asked to organise hackathons for students to innovate in toy technology and design, including online games, to reflect Indian ethos and values. Increase in Custom Duty: The Government has increased basic customs duty from 20% to 60%. It is likely to result in toy importing brands to explore manufacturing in India, especially for the Indian market. It has also increased demand of toys manufactured by domestic toy industry. Mandatory Quality Certification: The Government has made toy quality certification mandatory to revive the indigenous industry. The Government began enforcing quality control for imported toys from September 1, 2020, to ensure that only products conforming to standards enter the country. Programmes Boosting the Toy Industry: The Government has chalked out a plan to promote traditional toys manufactured in the country by creating Toy Labs (a national toy fair for innovative Indian-themed toys). A plan to establish networks of toy labs such as Atal Tinkering Labs is also in the works to provide support for physical toys and for children to learn, play and innovate. Such labs will also be a way of specialised toy marking for quality certification and original design. Source: The Hindu Shrinking of lakes worldwide Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: More than 50 percent of the world’s largest lakes and reservoirs have shrunk over the past three decades primarily due to climate change and human activities, according to a new study. Highlights of the study: From these water bodies, approximately 600 cubic km of water was lost between 1992 and 2020 — an amount equivalent to the total water used in the United States for the entire year of 2015. The researchers found that out of the 1,052 natural lakes that were examined, 457 had significant water losses in the past three decades. They attributed 57 per cent of the net decline in the water quantity in natural lakes to human activities, such as unsustainable consumption of water, and increasing temperature and potential evapotranspiration (PET) with the latter two indicating the role of climate change. Contrary to previous studies, natural lakes located in humid tropics and high altitudes are experiencing water shortages. Two-thirds of all reservoirs across the globe have experienced significant storage declines. Reservoirs, however, showed a net global increase in water levels, owing to 183 recently filled reservoirs. The main reason behind the drop in water levels is sedimentation — the process of particles such as sand and stones settling to the bottom of a body of water. Findings of the Study: The study also pointed out the worst affected largest lakes across the world and why they are shrinking in size. For instance, the Aral Sea in Central Asia, Lake Mar Chiquita in Argentina, the Dead Sea in the Middle East, and the Salton Sea in California have mainly dried due to unsustainable water consumption. Whereas, increasing temperature and (potential evapotranspiration)PET caused the complete disappearance of Lake Gowd-e-Zareh in Afghanistan, Toshka lakes in Egypt, and marked drying of Lake Kara-Bogaz-Gol in Turkmenistan, Lake Khyargas in Mongolia, and Lake Zonag in China. Notably, lakes have shrunk or disappeared completely across 82 percent of the Arctic’s lake-rich regions in the past 20 years. In India, more than half of the reservoirs located in peninsular India have witnessed substantial water storage decline, mainly due to sedimentation. Moreover, among the worst affected natural lakes in the country is Ladakh’s Tso Morari. Reasons for Shrinking of Lakes: Human Activities: 57 percent of the net decline in the water quantity in natural lakes to human activities, such as unsustainable consumption of water. Climate Change: The Arctic lakes have shrunk because of a “combination of changes in precipitation, runoff, temperature, and potential evapotranspiration (PET) — loss of water due to both evaporation and transpiration, which are likely a concurrent result of natural variability and climate change. Sedimentation: The main reason behind the drop in water levels is sedimentation — the process of particles such as sand and stones settling to the bottom of a body of water. Consequences of shrinking lakes: Nearly two billion people, one-quarter of the global population in 2023, will be affected as they live in basins with large water bodies that have witnessed a significant drop in their water levels in the past three decades. Many of these drying lakes have been identified as important sources of water and energy. The reduced size of these lakes not only results in freshwater decline and environmental degradation but also disrupts the water and carbon cycles. Widespread water shortage in these water bodies, “particularly accompanied by rising lake temperatures, could reduce the amount of absorbed carbon dioxide and increase carbon emissions to the atmosphere given that lakes are hotspots of carbon cycling.” Way Forward: There is a need to manage them in an integrated manner. Steps like restrictions on water consumption and climate mitigation to bring down global temperatures are some of the ways to conserve them. This will also help in reducing sedimentation in reservoirs as the rate of sedimentation is linked to climate change — it increases when there is extreme precipitation, as well as land disturbance such as wildfires, landslides and deforestation. Source:  Indian Express ANSWERS FOR 31st May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) -d

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UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Hunger Hotspots Syllabus Prelims : Economics Context:  According to a new report published by United Nations, several parts of the world faces increase in acute food insecurity. India’s neighbors, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Myanmar, are among the hunger hotspots in the world. About Global Hunger Hotspots: Acute food insecurity can potentially increase in magnitude and severity for 18 areas in 22 countries, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Food Programme (WFP). Findings of the report titled “Hunger Hotspots FAO‑WFP early warnings on acute food insecurity”: Highest concern level countries: Afghanistan, Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan, Yemen Haiti, Burkina Faso and Mali. Highest concern level countries have populations facing or projected to face starvation or are at risk of deterioration towards catastrophic conditions, given they already have critical food insecurity and are facing severe aggravating factors. These countries require the most urgent attention. Hotspots with very high concern countries: Pakistan, the Central African Republic, Ethiopia, Kenya, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Syrian Arab Republic and Myanmar. These hotspots have many people facing critical acute food insecurity, coupled with worsening drivers that are expected to intensify life‑threatening conditions in the coming months. Hunger hotspot countries: Lebanon, El Salvador, Nicaragua, Malawi, Guatemala and Honduras.  Major Reasons   Global food crisis Eruption of conflict due to organized violence and armed conflict and these Conflict disrupt livelihoods Economic concerns continue to drive acute food insecurity Weather extremes, such as heavy rains, tropical storms, cyclones, flooding, drought and increased climate variability, remain significant drivers in some countries and regions Recommendations Urgent and scaled-up assistance is required in all hunger hotspots to protect livelihoods and increase access to food. Address existing humanitarian needs and ensure short‑term protective interventions before new needs materialize. Must Read: Food Security in India. SOURCE: Down to Earth PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? (2016) Undernourishment Child stunting Child mortality Select the correct answer using the code given below:  1 only  2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Q2. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts? (2018)  Angola and Zambia  Morocco and Tunisia Venezuela and Colombia  Yemen and South Sudan Ternary Nanoparticles Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: A recent study has shown that new nanostructures system can be used to solve environmental problems and the weakness of renewable energy source. About Ternary Nanoparticles: Ternary nanoparticles are nanoparticles composed of three different types of materials or elements. These nanoparticles consist of a combination of three distinct components, which can be metals, metal oxides, semiconductors, or other materials. The term “ternary” indicates the presence of three components in the nanoparticle’s composition. Properties of Ternary Nanoparticles It exhibit a range of unique properties that arise from the combination of three different materials or elements. Ternary nanoparticles offer the ability to fine-tune the composition by adjusting the relative ratios of the three components. This allows researchers to tailor the properties of the nanoparticles to meet specific requirements Ternary nanoparticles can exhibit improved stability compared to their binary counterparts. Ternary nanoparticles can possess multiple functionalities due to the combination of different materials. Ternary nanoparticles often exhibit interesting optical properties, such as enhanced absorption or emission spectra, due to the interaction between different components. Ternary nanoparticles can be synthesized with precise control over their size, shape, and morphology. Applications Ternary Nanoparticles These are employed as catalysts in various chemical reactions. Ternary nanoparticles are used in energy storage and conversion devices. These with specific optical and electronic properties are utilized in photovoltaic devices such as solar cells also used in light-emitting diodes (LEDs), photodetectors, and displays. It is employed in biomedical imaging techniques, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT), and fluorescence imaging. These are used as carriers for controlled and targeted drug delivery. Ternary nanoparticles are explored for environmental applications, such as water purification and air pollution control. SOURCE: Nature.com PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1.Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 All India Survey of Higher Education Syllabus Prelims :Polity Context:  The All India Survey of Higher Education (AISHE) Survey 2020-21 conducted under the Ministry of Education found that the Muslim community’s enrolment in higher education declined at a time when the enrolment of SCs, STs and OBCs improved. About All India Survey of Higher Education All India Survey of Higher Education is an annual web-based survey, which started in 2010-11 and conducted by Ministry of Education. Various parameters of data collection includes teachers, student enrolment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure. For the first time, the Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) of India have filled their data using an entirely online data collection platformthrough the Web Data Capture Format (Web DCF) developed by the Department of Higher Education and the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Key findings from the report: Gross Enrolment Ratio(GER) for all enrolments (as per 2011 Census) increased by over 2 points to 27.3. The female enrolment in higher educationprogrammes had increased to 49% of total enrolments in 2020-21 compared to 45% in 2019-20. SC: More SC students who were enrolled in 2020-21 compared two lakh to the previous year. ST: The year also saw about three lakh more ST students and six lakh more OBC students being enrolled for higher education. The proportion of Muslim students enrolling for higher education dropped to 4.6% in 2020-21 from 5.5% in 2019-20 During2020-21, the number of universities has increased by 70, and the number of colleges has increased by 1,453. The female per 100 male faculty has improved to 75 in 2020-21 from 74 in 2019-20 and 63 in 2014-15. Other points Be it learning or teaching, the Muslim community is lagging behind all communities, including the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, in higher education Reasons It’s caused partially by the COVID-19 pandemic, points to the relative economic impoverishment of the community, which forces its talented students to pursue earning opportunities after completing schooling rather than enrolling for higher education, beginning at the graduation level. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Consider the following statements: (2018) As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Q2. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the National Education Policy 2020 in India? (2020)  It proposes sweeping changes in the education system from pre-primary to PhD and skill development. It states that universities from among top 100 in the world will be able to set up campuses in India.  It expects that India will achieve 60% GER by 2030.  It suggests NAAC to be merged with UGC and AICTE. Senkaku Islands Syllabus Prelims : Geography Context:  Since March, Chinese Coast Guard (CCG) vessels have been navigating in Japan’s territorial waters around the Senkaku Islands in Ishigaki in Japan’s Okinawa Prefecture. China Coast Guard vessels have been operating automatic identification system (AIS) equipment to announce their presence. About Senkaku Islands: Image Source: News of Asia Senkaku Islands are close to strategically important shipping lanes, offer rich fishing grounds and are thought to contain oil deposits. The Senkakus island chain has been administered by Japan since 1972, but its legal status has remained disputed until now. Both Japan and China claim ownership of these islands. The Senkaku Islands are an uninhabited group of islands situated in the East China Sea, approximately 90 nautical miles north from the Yaeyama Islands in Japan’s Okinawa Prefecture and 120 nautical miles northeast of the island of Taiwan. The islands comprise Uotsuri Island, Kuba Island, Taisho Island (also called Kumeakashima Island), Kitakojima Island, Minamikojima Island, Tobise Island, Okinokitaiwa Island, and Okinominamiiwa Island. The total land area of all the islands is roughly 6.3 square kilometers, with the largest, Uotsuri Island, being some 3.6 square kilometers in size. Before World War II, as a result of development by private citizens, there were people living in the Senkakus, principally on Uotsuri Island and Kuba Island. However, the islands are now uninhabited. Automatic Identification System (AIS); An Automatic Identification System is a radio device that automatically shares and receives information on a vessel’s position, course, and speed and so on. According to the International Convention for the Safety Of Life at Sea (SOLA) , all passenger ships and other vessels engaged in international voyages need to carry this equipment. Radio transmissions are received by surrounding ships and are used to facilitate safe navigation in heavily trafficked sea regions. Must Read: The Senkaku / Diaoyu Islands dispute. SOURCE: The Print PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them. Spear Phishing Syllabus Prelims: Cyber Attacks Context:  A recent report has found that increased remote work makes networks more vulnerable, difficult to respond to threats and hackers can target Indian organisations with spear phishing. About Spear Phishing: Spear phishing is an attempt to trick a particular person/group into giving private information over the internet or by email, especially by sending emails that seem to be from someone they know. Attackers often research their victims on social media and other sites. That way, they can customize their communications and appear more authentic. Spear phishing is often the first step used to penetrate a company’s defenses and carry out a targeted attack. Examples of Spear Phishing; Stealing stacks of details from an organization Stealing product designing procedures from a company Approaches against Cyber-attacks; Cyber Security – Cyber Swachhta Kendra It is the Botnet Cleaning and Malware Analysis Centre under the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The aim of Cyber Swachhta Kendra is to promote awareness among Indian citizens to secure their data in computers, mobile phones, and other electronic devices. Information and Technology Act, 2000: Provide legal recognition to all e-transactions To protect online privacy and curb online crimes Its amended in 2008 and the amendments in the IT Act mentioned: ‘Data Privacy’, Information Security, Definition of Cyber Café, Digital Signature, Recognizing the role of CERT-In, To authorize the inspector to investigate cyber offenses against DSP who was given the charge earlier. SOURCE: The Business Line PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2018) Exoplanets Cryptocurrency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q2.  In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? Service providers Intermediaries Corporate bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Sakhalin-1 Project Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: Recently, India’s state-run Oil and Natural Gas Corp said oil output from the Sakhalin-1 project in Russia is raise to its plateau level of about 200,000 barrels per day (bpd) from zero. About Sakhalin – 1 Project: The Sakhalin-1 oil and gas development project is located in the Okhotsk Sea, off the northeastern coast of Sakhalin Island in the Russian Far East. It comprises three offshore fields namely Chayvo, Odoptu, and Arkutun-Dagi. All the three fields under the Sakhalin-1 project are located in the Okhotsk Sea, off the northeastern coast of Sakhalin Island. The total project area is estimated to be approximately 1,140km2. Sakhalin-1 was a technically challenging project to develop due to the harsh arctic climatic conditions in the Northern Sakhalin region. Exxon Neftegas (ENL), a subsidiary of Exxon Mobil, which holds a 30% participating interest, operates the Sakhalin-1 project. The other partners of the project are the Japanese consortium Sakhalin Oil and Gas Development Company (SODECO, 30%), India’s state-owned ONGC Videsh (20%), and Russian oil company Rosneft (20%). ONGC Videsh Limited; ONGC Videsh Limited is a Miniratna Schedule “A” Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) of the Government of India. It comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is the wholly owned subsidiary and overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC), the flagship national oil company (NOC) of India. The primary business of ONGC Videsh is to prospect for oil and gas acreages outside India, including exploration, development and production of oil and gas. ONGC Videsh owns Participating Interests in 32 oil and gas assets in 15 countries. In terms of reserves and production, ONGC Videsh is the second largest petroleum company of India, next only to its parent ONGC. ONGC Videsh produced about 27.3% of oil and 19.4% of oil and natural gas of India’s domestic production in 2021-22. SOURCE:  The Print Mo Ghara (My Home) Scheme Syllabus Prelims : Government Schemes Context: Odisha Chief Minister recently announced new credit-linked housing scheme for rural poor. About Mo Ghara Scheme: Odisha government announced a new initiative, Mo Ghara (My Home). Mo Ghara is a credit-linked housing scheme for rural poor in the state with an aim to convert all kutcha houses into pucca ones. The scheme will have a financial implication of around Rs.2, 150 crore over a period of two years and it will be fully funded from the state budget. Under the Mo Ghara scheme, a beneficiary can avail housing loan of up to Rs. 3 lakh that can be repaid in 10 years in easy instalments excluding one-year moratorium period. “The state government will release capital subsidy to the loan account of the beneficiaries on completion of the house. There will be four slabs of loan amount. The rates of the subsidy will be Rs 30,000 for a Rs 1 lakh loan, Rs 45,000 for Rs 1.5 lakh loan, and Rs 60,000 for a loan amount of Rs 2 lakh and Rs 3 lakh. The subsidy will be Rs 10,000 more across slabs for those belonging to the SC/ST category and for the differently abled. “The capital subsidy released to the loan accounts of the beneficiaries will result in a significant reduction in EMI for repayment and thus make the repayment more affordable,” A family staying in a kutcha house or one pucca room with a concrete roof is eligible to get the loan under the Mo Ghara scheme. Families that have not availed of any government housing assistance or have availed assistance of below Rs 70,000 in the past with a monthly income below Rs 25,000 will also be eligible under the scheme. Families having four-wheelers or any member in government service or irrigated land of five acres or more will not be eligible for the loan. While banks have been asked not to charge any processing fee from beneficiaries, the Odisha government has also waived off registration fees and stamp duties required during the mortgage of the title deed to further reduce the financial burden for the beneficiaries, said the chief secretary. The state government will start receiving applications from beneficiaries on its dedicated portal from June 16, 2023. SOURCE: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statement in relation to Mo Ghara Scheme: Mo Ghara is a centrally sponsored scheme. It is a credit-linked housing scheme for rural poor in the state with an aim to convert all kutcha houses into pucca ones. The state government will release capital subsidy to the loan account of the beneficiaries on completion of the house. Families having four-wheelers or any member in government service or irrigated land of five acres or more will not be eligible for the loan. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q2. With reference to Ternary nano particles consider the following; Ternary nanoparticles are used in energy storage and conversion devices. It can be employed in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Ternary nano particles can be used to control air pollution. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.  Consider the following statements; Statement: I The Sakhalin-1 project is operated by ONGC Videsh Limited, a subsidiary and overseas arm of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation. Statement: II ONGC Videsh Limited comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[IMPORTANT UPDATE] TLP+ 2023 MAINS TEST SERIES

Dear Students We are getting a lot of requests for TLP+ 2023 Mains Test Series from the students who are expected to clear Prelims. We are going to launch it tomorrow with new exciting and rank-oriented features which will help immensely in Mains Answer Writing. We believe that this will be very helpful for your Holistic Mains Preparation and sail you through the Written Examination. Stay tuned!    

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Model Prisons Act 2023 Syllabus Prelims : Polity Context:  Recently , The Centre has finalised a comprehensive ‘Model Prisons Act, 2023’ to replace the pre-independence era ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ which mainly focused on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons. The Model Prisons Act, 2023, is being introduced following the spate of killings and gang violence within prisons. One such incident was the killing of 33-year-old Tillu Tajpuriya, who was allegedly stabbed to death by members of a  rival gang inside Tihar jail. About Model Prisons Act 2023 The current ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ is almost 130 years old and mainly focuses on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons, with no provision for reform and rehabilitation. MHA assigned the task of revising the Prisons Act, 1894, to the Bureau of Police Research and Development. Under the new Act, prisons will be viewed as reformative and correctional institutions, with a focus on transforming and rehabilitating inmates back into society as law-abiding citizens. The Model Prisons Act, 2023 aims to ; Address the gaps in the existing Prisons Act by providing guidance on the use of technology in prison management. Make provisions for parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. Special provisions for women and transgender inmates. Focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. Features of the new Model Prisons Act; Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act include Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners. Individual sentence planning. Grievance redressal. The establishment of a prison development board. A focus on the physical and mental well-being of prisoners. Use of technology in prison administration, such as video conferencing with courts and scientific and technological interventions in prisons. Punishment of prisoners and jail staff for using prohibited items like mobile phones in jails. New provisions being proposed;  It seeks to create provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. It aims to provide separate accommodation for women and transgender inmates, ensure the physical and mental well-being of prisoners, and focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. It also intends to bring about “attitudinal change towards prisoners” and initiate vocational training and skill development for prisoners for their reintegration into society. It also seeks to bring about “transparency in prison management” . Is the Model Prisons Act, 2023, binding on states? As per the provisions of the Constitution, ‘prisons’ and ‘persons detained therein’ fall under the State List. This means that the responsibility of prison management and administration solely vests with the state government, which alone is competent to make appropriate legislative provisions in this regard. So, the ministry also clarified while announcing the 2023 Act that it “may serve as a guiding document for the States” so that they may benefit from its adoption in their jurisdictions. Prisons Act, of 1894; It defined a “prison” as “any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners”, excluding police custody and subsidiary jails. It demarcated prisoners into three different categories according to the nature of their crimes, such as “criminal prisoner”, “convicted criminal prisoner” and “civil prisoner”. The 1894 Act dealt with provisions for accommodation, food, clothing, bedding segregation, and the discipline of prisoners, including solitary confinement. It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits. Flaws in 1894 Act The act had no provisions for reformation or rehabilitation and permitted “whipping, provided that the number of stripes shall not exceed thirty,” albeit for only male prisoners. This Act did not apply to “civil jails in the State of Bombay, outside the city of Bombay, and those jails administered under the provisions of Sections 9–16 of the Bombay Act, 1874. The Prisoners Act 1900 It was introduced with the objective of consolidating the “several acts relating to prisoners” and replacing the “separate enactments by a single act, expressed more simply and intelligibly.” Presently, the jail manuals of each state also deal with the administration and management of its prisons. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct SOURCE: The Indian Express Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the first of the second-generation satellites for its navigation constellation. The 2,232 kg satellite, the heaviest in the constellation, was launched by a Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) rocket that lifted off from Sriharikota. About Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) NavIC was erstwhile known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). It was developed by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its commercial wing ANTRIX. NavIC consists of 8 satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km and currently, 7 satellites are active. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) 5 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) Objective of the NavIC To provide navigation, timing, and reliable positioning services in and around India. It is being designed to give precise position data service to users located in India and also to users in the area out-spreading up to 1500 Km from India’s boundary. Other Countries with Navigation Satellite System Global Positioning System (GPS)- USA GLONASS – Russia Galileo – European Union BeiDou – Chinese Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) – Japan PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan SOURCE:  Indian Express India and Cambodia Syllabus Prelims : International Relation Context: Cambodian King Norodom Sihamoni  visited India recently. The visit  it marks the culmination of the celebrations of the 70th anniversary of diplomatic relations between India and Cambodia, which were established in 1952. This visit by the Cambodia King is taking place after almost six decades, with the last being that of the current King’s father in 1963. It gives an opportunity to further deepen the civilisational relations between India and Cambodia. About India’s Relation with Cambodia : SOURCE: WorldAtlas.com India assists Cambodia in capacity building and human resource development through training slots under the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Programme and scholarships under the Indian Council for Cultural Relations.  India has also extended grants and concessional loans for developmental projects. Conservation and restoration of ancient temples of Angkor Wat, Ta Prohm and Preah Vihar are also being carried out under the Indian government funding. Angkor Vat Temple Angkor Wat  was originally constructed as a Hindu temple dedicated to the god Vishnu for the Khmer Empire, it was gradually transformed into a Buddhist temple towards the end of the 12th century. It was built by Suryavarman II in the early 12th century in Yasodharapura (present-day Angkor), the capital of the Khmer Empire. Trade between the two countries for FY 2023-23 stood at $366 million and is growing. Indian investments in Cambodia are estimated around $115 million primarily in pharmaceuticals, automobiles and mining. SOURCE : The Hindu Commemorative Coins Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: To mark the inauguration of the new Parliament building, Prime Minister of India released a commemorative coin of Rs 75 denomination on May 28th 2023. About Commemorative coins: A commemorative coin is a coin produced to mark a special occasion, event, or issue. These coins typically have a unique design that reflects the occasion for which they were created. India has been issuing commemorative coins since the 1960s for several reasons such as paying homage to notable personalities, spreading awareness about government schemes, or remembering key historic events. Commemorative coins are not intended for general circulation, so they are not used for transactions. Interested individuals can acquire the commemorative special coins from the website of the Securities of Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL). The country released its first commemorative coin in 1964 in honour of Jawaharlal Nehru, who had passed away that year. Features of the new commemorative coin As per the Ministry of Finance notification, the latest Rs 75 coin is circular in shape with a diameter of 44mm. The composition of the coin is of a quaternary alloy — 50 per cent silver, 40 per cent copper, 5 per cent nickel and 5 per cent zinc. The face of the coin shall bear the Lion Capitol of Ashoka Pillar in the centre, with the legend Satyameva Jayate inscribed below, flanked on the left periphery with the word Bharat in Devnagri script and on the right periphery the word “INDIA” in English. The other side of the coin displays an image of the new parliament building. The inscription “Sansad Sankul” is written in Devanagari script on the upper periphery while the words “Parliament Complex” in English on the lower periphery of the coin. Minting of Comemmorative Coins The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations. In the case of coins, the role of the RBI is limited to the distribution of coins that are supplied by the central government. The central government regularly releases commemorative coins according to its choice, but it also mints such coins at the request of third parties. All coins are minted in the four mints owned by the Government of India in Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Noida. Source: Hindustan Times   Great Himalayan National Park Syllabus Prelims : Environment Context: An Interpretation Centre has been developed in the Sainj valley of the Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) at Sainj Ropa  in Kullu district. The Interpretation Centre gives information about the flora and fauna found in the GHNP. It will focus on orchids and medicinal plants, along with birds and beautiful locations. About Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) It was established in 1984 and in 2014 accorded UNESCO World Heritage site status under the criteria of exceptional natural beauty and conservation of biological diversity. It’s located in Kullu region of Himachal Pradesh state. Species found : Himalayan brown bear, Himalayan tahr, blue sheep, snow leopard, birds and musk deer The vegetation like the lofty pines, spruces and the horse chestnuts of the lower valleys, to the dense cushions and prostrate branches of the alpine herbs and junipers are present here. SOURCE : The Tribune Khelo India Games Syllabus Prelims : Government Schemes Context: Recently, the Prime Minister virtually inaugurated the 3rd edition of Khelo India University Games (KIUG) in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. About Khelo India Games Khelo India Programme is a central sector scheme for the development of sports in India. The government launched the Khelo India scheme in 2018 to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level. It aims to revive the sports culture by building a solid framework for all sports played in India and establishing our country as a sporting nation. It is a national scheme for the development of sports. It aims at mainstreaming sports as a tool for national, economic, community and individual development. The Union Cabinet approved the revamped ‘Khelo India’ program by consolidating the National Sports Talent Search System Programme, Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme and Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan (formerly called the Yuva Krida and Khel Abhiyan). The Khelo India scheme strives to promote ‘Sports for Excellence’ and ‘Sports for All’. This program is implemented by Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Important Features of the Program The most talented young sportspersons will be given scholarships each year across the selected sports disciplines. Each athlete selected under the scheme shall receive an annual scholarship worth Rs. 5.00 lakh for 8 consecutive years. SOURCE: Hindustan Times Mahakaleshwar Temple Syllabus  Prelims: Art and culture Context: Six out of the seven idols of ‘Saptarishis’ installed at the Mahakal Lok corridor, developed on the Mahakaleshwar temple premises in Madhya Pradesh’s Ujjain city, have collapsed and suffered damages due to gusty winds. There are a total of 160 idols installed at the Mahakal Lok corridor. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first phase of the Mahakal Lok corridor project in October last year. About Mahakaleshwar Temple Mahakaleshwar temple is located in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. The temple is believed to be governed by Mahakaleshwar, which means the ‘Lord of time’ i.e., Lord Shiva. As per Hindu mythology, the temple was constructed by Lord Brahma and is presently located alongside the holy river Kshipra. Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga in Ujjain is one of the 12 jyotirlingas considered the most sacred abodes of Shiva. The Mahakal temple finds a mention in several ancient Indian poetic texts. In the early part of the Meghadutam (Purva Megha) composed in the 4th century, Kalidasagives a description of the Mahakal temple. In the 13th century, the temple complex was destroyed by Turk ruler Shams-ud-din Iltutmishduring his raid on Ujjain. The present-day five-storeyed structure was built by the Maratha general Ranoji Shinde in 1734, in the Bhumija, Chalukya and Maratha styles of temple architecture. Prime Minister Narendra Modi had inaugurated the first phase of the Mahakal Lok corridor project in October last year and it was part of Mahakal Maharaj Mandir Parisar Vistar Yojna which is a plan for the expansion, beautification, and decongestion of the Mahakaleshwar temple and its adjoining area in Ujjain district. Source: The Indian Express Chytridiomycosis Syllabus Prelims: Science and Technology Context: Researchers from the CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), in collaboration with researchers in Australia and Panama have established a new test for successful diagnosis of Chytridiomycosis. About Chytridiomycosis Often referred to as the driver of the ‘amphibian apocalypse’, Chytridiomycosis is an infectious disease that has driven more than 90 amphibian species to extinction globally. It is caused by two fungal pathogens: Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd) and Batrachochytrium salamandrivorans (Bsal). It is caused by a fungus that attacks the skin of frogs, toads and other amphibians. As the creatures use their skin to breathe and regulate their bodies’ water levels, the damage caused by the disease eventually leads to heart failure and death. Currently, the disease is most widespread in Latin America and Australia, with trade with Asia—where the fungus originated—blamed for the spread. Recently, the researchers have developed and validated a new marker for the disease which has been published in ‘Transboundary and Emerging Diseases’. The study reported 70% of amphibians with Chytridiomycosis infection, almost eight times higher prevalence than earlier. SOURCE: The New Indian Express 75th anniversary of United Nations peacekeeping missions Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently the United Nations observed the 75th anniversary of its peacekeeping missions. About UN Peace keeping: Source:   The Hindu The International Day of UN Peacekeepers is observed annually on May 29th. It is a day dedicated to honouring the contributions and sacrifices of United Nations (UN) peacekeepers in maintaining peace and security around the world. The day also serves as a tribute to those who have lost their lives in the line of duty. The theme of the 75th anniversary “Peace begins with me” recognizes the service and sacrifice of peacekeepers, past and present, including more than 4200 who have given their lives under the UN flag. It also pays tribute to the resilience of the communities that we serve, who continue to strive for peace despite many obstacles. This campaign also calls on each of us to join the global movement for peace. Alone, we can never succeed. But, together, we can be a strong force for change. Progress till now: For 75 years, UN peacekeepers have saved and changed lives in the world’s most fragile political and security situations. Peacekeeping is flexible and over the past two decades has been deployed in many configurations. Today’s multidimensional peacekeeping operations are called upon not only to maintain peace and security, but also to facilitate the political process, protect civilians, assist in the disarmament, demobilization and reintegration of former combatants; support the organization of elections, protect and promote human rights and assist in restoring the rule of law. Significance of UN peacekeeping missions: Recognizing Peacekeeping Efforts: The day serves as a global recognition of the crucial role played by UN peacekeepers in maintaining peace and security around the world. It acknowledges their commitment and tireless efforts in preventing conflicts, protecting civilians, and promoting stability in areas affected by violence and war. Honouring Fallen Peacekeepers: The International Day of UN Peacekeepers is an occasion to honor and remember those peacekeepers who have lost their lives in the line of duty. It pays tribute to their bravery and sacrifice, emphasizing the profound impact they have made in the pursuit of peace. The day offers an opportunity to express gratitude and support to the families and loved ones of fallen peacekeepers. Promoting Awareness and Understanding: The day raises awareness about the challenges faced by UN peacekeepers and the complex nature of their work. It helps foster understanding and appreciation among the general public, highlighting the significance of peacekeeping operations in resolving conflicts and preventing the escalation of violence. Advocating for Peace and Security: The International Day of UN Peacekeepers serves as a platform for advocating peace and security at the international level. It encourages governments, organizations, and individuals to recommit themselves to the principles of peacekeeping and to strengthen their support for UN peacekeeping missions. Strengthening International Peacekeeping: The day provides an opportunity to reflect on the achievements, challenges, and future directions of UN peacekeeping. It encourages discussions and dialogue on improving the effectiveness and efficiency of peacekeeping operations, including the development of new strategies, technologies, and approaches. The day’s significance lies in its role as a catalyst for advancing the field of international peacekeeping and promoting continuous improvement in peacekeeping practices. Challenges: UN peacekeeping faces increasingly difficult challenges, including attacks against our peacekeepers, complex mandates, and uneven political support. Peacekeeping is essentially a collective endeavour: a partnership. The Charts below show the number of peacekeepers, country-wise, who died due to malicious acts during peacekeeping missions. Way Forward: We require strong, collective action if we are to succeed in addressing the existing challenges. Strengthening peacekeeping means helping countries who provide us with troops and police, including by supporting training needs to ensure we deploy personnel equipped and prepared to accomplish these tasks. Thus, ensuring that all United Nations personnel maintain the highest standards of conduct must be at the heart of our collective efforts. We must continue to work harder and closely with Member States who possess the authority to hold all categories of personnel accountable for criminal conduct. Source:   The Hindu A Way Out of the Coal Trap Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment and Ecology) Context: It seems the government is contemplating a ban on setting up new coal-based power stations. India’s Coal Demand: India’s demand for coal has risen to 784.6 million tonnes for the financial year ending March 2023. However, today, India’s projected annual coal shortage is at 49.3 million tonnes, three times the previous estimates of 17.7 million tonnes. Coal shortage is prompting the government to start developing these coal projects. Significance of the move: It shows India’s commitment to fight climate change and reduce greenhouse gas emissions. India’s proposed coal power capacity is the highest after China. Both India and China account for about 80% of all active coal projects. Aligns with the global trend of phasing out coal and shifting to cleaner sources of energy. Encourages the development of renewable energy (RE) and energy efficiency. The government plans to achieve an installed renewable energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030 and net zero carbon neutrality by 2070. Ban on coal-based power stations vs power demand About the ban: The government may need to rethink upon the ban on setting up new coal-based power stations. Although, the plants which are already under construction will be allowed to continue. Power demand: The government has said that in order to meet the power demand in 2029-30, an additional capacity of about 16,000 MW of coal-based capacity would be required. This would be over and above the capacity of about 27,000 MW already under construction. The need for additional capacity of 16,900 MW has been cited in the report of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) called Optimal Generation Capacity Mix, which was released recently. Ways to reduce coal dependency: Increasing Renewable Energy Capacity: India has set a target of increasing its renewable energy capacity to 500 gigawatts by 2030, which would help reduce the share of coal in the power mix. Renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, hydro and biomass can provide clean, affordable, and reliable electricity for India’s growing population and economy. Improving Energy Efficiency: India can save energy and reduce emissions by improving the efficiency of its power plants, industries, buildings, appliances and vehicles. Energy efficiency measures can also lower electricity bills, create jobs and enhance competitiveness. Phasing out Old and Inefficient Coal Plants: India can retire its old and inefficient coal-fired power plants that are costly to run and maintain and replace them with cleaner and cheaper alternatives. Diversifying Energy Sources: India can reduce its reliance on coal by diversifying its energy sources and increasing the share of natural gas, nuclear and hydro power in its energy mix. These sources can provide flexibility and stability to the grid and complement the variable output of renewable energy. Strengthening Grid Infrastructure: India can improve its grid infrastructure and transmission networks to enable the integration of more renewable energy and reduce losses and outages. India can also invest in smart grids, energy storage and demand response technologies to enhance grid reliability and resilience. Challenges associated with clean and green energy alternatives: The poor financial condition of power distribution companies (DISCOMs), most of which are owned by state governments. DISCOMs are the main buyers of renewable energy, but they often delay payments to generators or curtail their power due to low demand or high costs. This affects the viability and bankability of renewable energy projects. The lack of adequate grid infrastructure and storage capacity to integrate variable renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind, into the power system. This requires investments in transmission lines, substations, smart meters, demand response and battery storage to ensure reliability and stability of supply. The lack of financial intermediaries and instruments to mobilize capital for renewable energy projects, especially from domestic sources. India relies heavily on foreign financing for its renewable energy sector, which exposes it to currency risks and policy uncertainties. The lack of investor understanding and awareness of the opportunities and benefits of renewable energy, especially among small and medium enterprises, households and rural communities. The poor financial condition of power distribution companies (DISCOMs), most of which are owned by state governments. DISCOMs are the main buyers of renewable energy, but they often delay payments to generators or curtail their power due to low demand or high costs. This affects the viability and bankability of renewable energy projects. The lack of adequate grid infrastructure and storage capacity to integrate variable renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind, into the power system. This requires investments in transmission lines, substations, smart meters, demand response and battery storage to ensure reliability and stability of supply. The lack of financial intermediaries and instruments to mobilize capital for renewable energy projects, especially from domestic sources. India relies heavily on foreign financing for its renewable energy sector, which exposes it to currency risks and policy uncertainties. The lack of investor understanding and awareness of the opportunities and benefits of renewable energy, especially among small and medium enterprises, households and rural communities. Way Forward: There is a need to improve information dissemination, capacity building, technical assistance and consumer engagement to increase the adoption and acceptance of renewable energy solutions. Strengthening the grid infrastructure and storage capacity by investing in transmission and distribution networks, enhancing grid flexibility and resilience, and deploying battery storage and pumped hydro storage systems. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Prisoners Act 1894: The term prison was left undefined by the prisoners Act 1894. It demarcated prisoners into three different categories according to the nature of their crimes one of which is civil prisoner. Reform and rehabilitation of prisoners is the major goal of the Act. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only  one Only two  All three  None  Q.2) Consider the following pairs: National Parks                               State Great Himalayan National Park       Uttarakhand Mollen National Park                          Goa Indravati National Park                     Karnataka .Namdapha National  Park                   Assam How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.3) Consider the following countries: Laos Malaysia Thailand Vietnam Myanmar How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Cambodia? Only two Only three Only four All five Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – b