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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) District Legal Services Authority Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: District Legal Services Authority in West Tripura recently organized Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign. About District Legal Services Authority:- Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed in the various states of India under the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987. Objective: to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities. It is organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition. Related Constitutional provision: Article 39-A: Deals with the provision of providing free legal services to the citizens of India. The provision applies to the citizens if they are unable to bear the expenditure of legal services. It also helps the defendant by appointing a lawyer to act for him in legal aspects. Composition of DLSA:- The State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court constitutes it. (UPSC CSE: Judicial appointments) Chairman: District Judge Other members: must have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government. The Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court may nominate these members. The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service and not lower than rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority. Member Secretary of the District Authority: Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District The officers and other employees of the District Authority are entitled to salary and allowances and shall be subject to such other conditions of the services as the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court prescribes. Legal Services Institutions at Various Levels:- The Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987 mandates the establishment of the following at various levels; National Level: National Legal Services Authorities (NALSA) The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. Objective: to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act. Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of India It distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organisations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives. State Level: State Legal Services Authority Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of the State High Court At District Level: District Legal Services Authority. ex-officio Chairman: District Judge of the District At Taluka/Sub-Division Level: Taluka/ Sub-Divisional Legal Services Committee. A senior Civil Judge heads it. Eligibility for free legal service:- Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disasters, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, and industrial disasters. Disabled persons Persons in custody Those persons who have an annual income of less than the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, if the case is before any court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs. 5 Lakhs if the case is before the Supreme Court. Victims of Trafficking in Human beings or begar. Nyaya Bandhu’s (Pro Bono Legal Services) It is a primary initiative to establish a framework for the dispensation of pro bono (free of cost) legal services across the country. Under Nyaya Bandhu, practising advocates, interested to volunteer their time and services, are connected, via mobile technology, with eligible marginalised beneficiaries. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application (Android/IOS) has been developed in collaboration with technical partner Common Services Centres (CSC) e-Governance Pvt. Ltd. Common Services Centres (CSC) are the access points for the delivery of various e-governance and business services to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country. (UPSC MAINS: Risks in e-governance) CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle set up under the Companies Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Electronics & IT Objective: to oversee the implementation of the CSC scheme. It provides a centralized collaborative framework for the delivery of services to citizens through CSCs, besides ensuring the systemic viability and sustainability of the Scheme. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application has been on boarded on the UMANG platform. UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National e-Governance Division (NeGD). MUST READ: Judicial Accountability SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 Syllabus : The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 were released recently.  About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023:-  IMAGE SOURCE: findhow.net The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is a methodology to rank institutions of higher education in India. Ministry: Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) Objective: help universities to improve their performance on various ranking parameters and identify gaps in research and areas of improvement. There are separate rankings for different types of institutions depending on their areas of operation like universities and colleges, engineering institutions, management institutions, pharmacy institutions and architecture institutions. Five broad categories of parameters identified in the NIRF: Teaching, learning and resources (TLR); research and professional practice; graduation outcome; outreach; and inclusivity and perception. Key findings of NIRF 2023:- Indian Institute of Technology Madras: retains its first position in Overall Category and Engineering. Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru: tops the Universities Category and stood first in Research Institutions Category. IIM Ahmedabad: tops in Management subject retaining its first position. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi: top slot in Medical. National Law School of India University, Bengaluru: retains its first position. Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi: takes the top slot in Agriculture and Allied Sectors. Three distinct additions to the 2023 edition of India Rankings are as follows:- Introduction of a new subject namely Agriculture & Allied Sectors. (UPSC CSE: Agriculture Reforms) Integration of the “Innovation” ranking to reduce the burden on institutions of providing similar data to two different agencies. Expansion of scope of “Architecture” to “Architecture and Planning” to include institutions imparting courses in Urban and Town Planning. (UPSC CSE: Transforming Indian Cities) With the addition of these, the existing portfolio of India Rankings has increased to 13 categories and subject domains that have been ranked in India Rankings 2023. It ranks Overall, Universities, Colleges, and Research Institutions & Innovation. It ranks 8 subject domains: Engineering, Management, Pharmacy, Architecture & Planning, Medical, Law, Dental Agriculture and Allied Sectors. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2018) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2018) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Agra Fort Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, debates on who built the Agra Fort has started again. About Agra Fort:- The Agra Fort is a UNESCO World Heritage site that attracts people from all over the world. This fort has been occupied by several dynasties, including the Rajputs, Mughals, Jats, and Marathas. The fort underwent a construction of eight years under the reign of Akbar in 1565. However, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) lacks knowledge about who built the Agra Fort first and what changes it underwent during Akbar’s reign. It is made of red sandstone. It comprises the Jahangir Palace and the Khas Mahal (built by Shah Jahan), Diwan-i-Khas and two very beautiful mosques. It was the main residence of the emperors of the Mughal Dynasty until 1638 when the capital was shifted from Agra to Delhi. It became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983. (UPSC MAINS: Mandate and significance of UNESCO) Important Structures Inside the Agra Fort:- Jahangir’s Hauz: This is a monolithic tank, and was built by Jahangir. The tank was initially used for bathing. It is now a part of Akbar’s Bengali Mahal. Shahjahani Mahal: The Shahjahani Mahal is probably one of the earliest attempts of Emperor Shah Jahan to turn a red sandstone palace into a palace of white marble. Babur’s Baoli (step well): Babur built a stone step well, which took care of the water needs in the ancient fort of Agra. Nagina Masjid: Nagina Masjid is a mosque, which was built by Shah Jahan. The mosque was built using white marble only and was considered a private place of worship. Diwan-I-Am (Hall of Public Audience): This hall was built by Shah Jahan. Interestingly, the hall was first built using red sandstone but was later shell-plastered, giving it a look of white marble. Ghaznin Gate: The Ghaznin Gate actually belongs to the tomb of Mahmud of Ghazni, one of the rulers of the Ghaznavid Empire. Bengali Mahal: This palace was built by Akbar and was later modified by Shah Jahan. Akbar’s Mahal: The ruins of Akbar’s famous palace remain in the fort. (UPSC CSE: Akbar) Akbar breathed his last in this very palace. The entire palace was built using red sandstone. MUST READ: Dholavira: India’s 40th World Heritage Site SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements (2018) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Higgs boson Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) particle-smasher at CERN, in Europe, reported that they had detected a Higgs boson decaying into a Z boson particle and a photon. About Higgs boson:- IMAGE SOURCES: scalarlight.com The Higgs boson is a type of boson, a force-carrying subatomic particle. It carries the force that a particle experiences when it moves through an energy field, called the Higgs field. Higgs field: a field that gives mass to other fundamental particles such as electrons and quarks. It is believed to be present throughout the universe. The Higgs boson is often called “the God particle”because it’s said to be what caused the “Big Bang” that created our universe many years ago. The Higgs boson is an extremely short-lived particle. Characteristic property: It decays rapidly into other particles, making its direct detection challenging. Scientists at the LHC used high-energy particle collisions to produce the Higgs boson and observed its decay products to confirm its existence. The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts.It is 130 times more massive than a proton. It is also chargeless with zero spin. Spin: a quantum mechanical equivalent to angular momentum. The Higgs Boson is the only elementary particle with no spin. It has a short lifespan. It sticks around for merely less than a trillionth of a billionth of a second or, more precisely, 6 x 10-22 seconds. Timeline:- Peter Higgs, François Englert, and four other theorists to explain why certain particles have mass proposed the existence of Higgs boson in 1964. Scientists confirmed its existence in 2012 through experiments at the Large Hadron Collider at CERN in Switzerland. This discovery led to the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics being awarded to Higgs and Englert. Significance:- The Higgs boson can provide significant insights into the nature of our universe. Scientists hope to use the Higgs Boson as a tool to learn more about dark matter. (UPSC CSE: International Space Station (ISS)) Its decay process can help test the predictions of the Standard Model of physics. Standard model of elementary particles: it is a theoretical framework in physics that explains the particles of matter and their interactions. Large Hadron Collider (LHC) The LHC is a huge experiment that collides two beams of particles to study physics at very high energies. It is the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator. It is the largest science experiment in the world. Operated by: CERN (European Organisation for Nuclear Research) CERN: the world is largest nuclear and particle physics laboratory. It is best known as the operator of the Large Hadron Collider. It is based in Geneva on the French-Swiss border. It has 22 member states. India and CERN:- India in 2016 became an associate member of the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN). India’s association with CERN goes back decades with active involvement in the construction of the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). India was inducted as an ‘Observer’ at CERN in 2004. The associate membership would cost India Rs. 78 crores annually though it still would not have voting rights on decisions of the Council.Indian scientists have played a significant role in the Large Ion Collider Experiment (ALICE). MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent reports of the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), parts of New Delhi and South Delhi were worst affected this summer by ground-level ozone pollution.  Ozone Pollution IMAGE SOURCE: Climate Central Ozone occurs both in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (stratosphere) and at ground level (troposphere). It can be good or bad, depending on where it is found. Good Ozone: Ozone occurs naturally in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (Stratosphere). It forms a protective layer that shields from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays. Ozone-depleting gases like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), HCFCs, and halons, destroy this protective shield and causes a hole in the ozone. Bad Ozone: found in the Earth’s lower atmosphere (troposphere) near ground level. It is formed when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources react chemically in the presence of sunlight. It is a harmful air pollutant. (UPSC CSE: Air Pollution) It causes damage to crops and forests. It can increase the risk and susceptibility to pulmonary inflammation like Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). It may reduce lung function and make breathing difficult. About the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE):- It was established in 1980 It is a public-interest research and advocacy organisation. HQ: New Delhi It works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India. It researches into, lobbies for and communicates the urgency of development that is both sustainable and equitable. It creates awareness about problems and proposes sustainable solutions. In 2018, the CSE was awarded Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Consider the following: (2022) Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a 15-year-old tiger died after being found in an injured condition near the Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR), Madhya Pradesh. About Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR):- IMAGE SOURCE: shergarh.com Kanha Tiger Reserve stretches over the two districts: Mandla and Balaghat – of Madhya Pradesh. It is located in the central Indian highlands. The reserve is situated on the Maikal range, which is a part of the Satpura mountain range. Prominent Rivers: Banjar and the Halon Rivers. Kanha National Park was created in 1955. Kanha National Park is the largest National Park in Central India. It was made the Kanha Tiger Reserve in 1973. (UPSC CSE: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) It is the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, “Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”. Fauna: The State animal of Madhya Pradesh – Hard Ground Barasingha (Swamp deer or Rucervus duvaucelii) is found exclusively in Kanha Tiger Reserve. Protection Status of Swamp Deer: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Other Species: Tiger, Leopard, Dhole, Bear, Gaur and Indian Python etc. Flora: It is best known for its evergreen Sal forests (Shorea Robusta). MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous: (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) is investigating the recent Odisha rail accident. About the Commission of Railway Safety (CRS):- The Commission of Railway Safety deals with matters pertaining to the safety of rail travel and trains. Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation HQ: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh The operation is charged with certain statutory functions as laid down in the Railway Act (1989). Its functions are of an inspectorial, investigatory & advisory nature. (UPSC CSE: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC)) Investigating serious train accidents is one of the key responsibilities of the CRS. (UPSC MAINS: Indian railways accidents) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA). The reason or principle behind this, put simply, is to keep the CRS insulated from the influence of the country’s railway establishment and prevent conflicts of interest. MUST READ: Shramik Kalyan Portal SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2016) Resident Indian citizens only. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only. All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004. Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2017) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy. Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018. Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies. Mains: Pulses Production in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: There are two agricultural commodities in which India is significantly import-dependent: Edible oil and pulses. About pulses production in India: Pulses are annual leguminous crops yielding between one and 12 grains or seeds of variable size, shape and colour within a pod, used for both food and feed. Bengal Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi Chana), Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor / Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor), White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown and consumed in India. February 10 is a designated global event to recognize and emphasize the importance of pulses and legumes as a global food. The UN General Assembly adopted 2016 as the International Year of Pulses (IYP). According to the Agriculture Ministry, India’s pulses output has increased from 19.26 MT in 2013-14 to 27.50 MT in 2022-23. The reduction in pulses imports have come essentially on the back of higher domestic production. It can be seen that imports of two items have recorded dramatic drops: Yellow/white peas (matar) and chickpea (chana). Significance of pulses: Pulses are rich in nutritional and protein values and are an important part of a healthy diet. Pulses and legumes (lentils, peas, chickpeas, beans, soybeans, and peanuts) play an equally important role in health maintenance and overall improvement. Pulses also contribute majorly to achieving the goals of the 2030 Agenda of Sustainable Development. Pulses play a critical role in marking challenges of poverty, food chain security, degraded health, and climate change. Pulses and legume crops help in improving the feasibility of agricultural production systems. The nitrogen-fixing properties of pulses improve soil fertility, which increases the productivity and fertility of the farmland. Pulses are important for a healthy diet. Challenges to the Pulse Production: Infrastructure: Poor and inadequate storage facilities Prices: Volatility in the prices due to rainfed dependency of the crops Decrease in the cultivation area, farmers opting Higher Yielding Crops with higher MSP. Inconsistencies in Minimum Support Price (MSP) like the Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission who fixes MSP is by status a department whose recommendations are only advisory. Representation of farmers is minimal. The so-called 50 per cent profit to the farmer is not per the government’s intended formula, and so it is relatively low. The farmers do not even get the declared MSP. The pulses are imported at prices lower than the domestic ones. Vulnerability to pests is also a major hindrance in the production of pulses. Farmers lack crop Insurance and credit facilities. Government of India Initiatives to boost pulses production: National Food Security Mission: Launched by the Government of India during 2007-08 at the beginning of the 11th five-year plan. To expand the area under cultivation of pulses, and; To enhance productivity by bridging the gap between the actual and potential yield. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana programme: It is a continuing scheme under implementation from the 11th Five Year Plan period of National Development Council (NDC). The scheme will incentivize States in enhancing more allocation to Agriculture and Allied Sectors. PM-POSHAN: The Indian government has urged states to procure pulses (for Mid-day meals) under the PM-POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) program from NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.). Way Forward: India is moving closer to AatmaNirbharta on pulses with consistent efforts by the government. It is vital to raise awareness about the benefits of eating pulses that are high in macronutrients for both sustainability and dietary needs. Source:   Indian Express Plastic Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Every year, June 5 is celebrated as World Environment Day. The day called for global solutions to combat the pandemic of plastic pollution. The date was chosen by the UN General Assembly during the historic 1972 Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment – considered to be the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. Over the years, it has grown to become the largest global platform for environmental outreach, with millions of people from across the world engaging to protect the planet. 2023 marks the 50th anniversary of the World Environment Day. #BeatPlasticPollution: Hosted by Côte d’Ivoire and supported by the Netherlands, this year’s World Environment Day campaign is aimed towards discussing and implementing solutions to the problem of plastic pollution. About Plastic Pollution: Plastic refers to a wide range of synthetic or semi-synthetic materials that use polymers as a main ingredient with their defining quality being their plasticity – the ability of a solid material to undergo permanent deformation in response to applied forces. These include Polyethylene terephthalate or PET, High-density polyethylene or HDPE, Polyvinyl chloride or PVC, Low-density polyethylene or LDPE, Polypropylene or PP, and Polystyrene or PS. Each of these have different properties and can be identified by their resin identification code (RIC) denoted by symbols found on plastic products. Plastic pollution occurs when plastic has gathered in an area and has begun to negatively affect the natural environment and create problems for plants, wildlife, and even the human population. This includes killing plant life and posing dangers to local animals. Plastic is an incredibly useful material, but it is not biodegradable. According to UN data, more than 400 million tonnes of plastic is produced every year worldwide, half of which is designed to be used only once. Of that, less than 10 per cent is recycled. Consequently, an estimated 19-23 million tonnes end up in lakes, rivers and seas annually. Around the world, one million plastic bottles are purchased every minute, while up to five trillion plastic bags are used worldwide every year. In total, half of all plastic produced is designed for single-use purposes – used just once and then thrown away. Common sources of Plastic pollution: Merchant ships expel cargo, sewage, used medical equipment, and other types of waste that contain plastic into the ocean. The largest ocean-based source of plastic pollution is discarded fishing gear (including traps and nets). Continental plastic litter such as Food Wrappers and Containers, Bottles and container caps, Plastic bags, Straws etc. enters the ocean largely through storm-water runoff. Issues Associated with Plastic-Waste in India: More Plastic per Person: Like much of the world, India is struggling to dispose of its growing quantities of plastic waste given how ubiquitous it has become- from our toothbrushes to debit cards. A little over 10,000 tonnes a day of plastic waste remains uncollected. Unsustainable Packaging: India’s packaging industry is the biggest consumer of plastics. A 2020 study on packaging in India projects a loss of almost 133 billion dollars’ worth of plastic material value over the next decade due to unsustainable packaging. Unsustainable packaging involves general packaging through single use plastic. Online Delivery: The popularity of online retail and food delivery apps, though restricted to big cities, is contributing to the rise in plastic waste. India’s biggest online delivery startups Swiggy and Zomato are each reportedly delivering about 28 million orders a month. E-commerce companies too have come under fire for excess use of plastic packaging. Upsets the Food Chain: Polluting plastics can affect the world’s tiniest organisms, such as plankton. When these organisms become poisoned due to plastic ingestion, this causes problems for the larger animals that depend on them for food. Larger items, such as plastic bags and straws, can choke and starve marine life, while smaller fragments (microplastics) can cause liver, reproductive, and gastrointestinal damage in animals and it can directly affect the blue economy as well. Impact on Human Health: The World Health Organisation published shocking research in 2018 that exposed the presence of micro plastics in 90% of bottled water. We absorb plastic through our clothes, 70% of which are synthetic and the worst fabric for the skin. We even breathe plastic when due to poor waste management by burning the trash in the open air. Plastic toxicity in humans can lead to hormonal disruption and adverse reproductive and birth outcomes. Govt Initiatives to tackle plastic pollution: National Dashboard on Elimination of Single Use Plastic and Plastic Waste Management: India launched a nationwide awareness campaign on Single Use Plastics on World Environment Day in June 2022. A mobile app for Single Use Plastics Grievance Redressal was also launched to empower citizens to check sale/usage/manufacturing of SUP in their area and tackle the plastic menace. Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2022: It prohibits the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of several single-use plastic items as of July 1, 2022. It has also mandated Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) that incorporates circularity by making manufacturers of products responsible for collecting and processing their products upon the end of the products’ lifetime. India Plastics Pact: It is the first of its kind in Asia. The Plastics Pact is an ambitious and collaborative initiative to bring stakeholders together to reduce, reuse and recycle plastics within the material’s value chain. Mascot ‘Prakriti’: To spread awareness among masses about small changes that can be sustainably adopted in lifestyle for a better environment. Project REPLAN: Project REPLAN (stands for REducing PLastic in Nature) launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) aims to reduce consumption of plastic bags by providing a more sustainable alternative. Way Forward: Adaptation of the 3R’s +E Strategy Reduce: To efficiently reduce plastic pollution, there is an evident need of reducing our usage of plastic. Reuse: Many plastic items can be reused or used for different purposes. Before throwing plastic items, it is important to consider how they can be reused. Recycle: Plastic recycling consists of collecting plastic waste and reprocessing it into new products, to reduce the amount of plastic in the waste stream. Educate: Another crucial solution is education in order to increase awareness and behavioural change. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) With reference to Ozone pollution, consider the following statements. Ozone in the stratosphere is a pollutant. India is a party to the Kigali Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) With reference to the Commission of Railway Safety, consider the following statements. It is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its primary function is to investigate rail accidents. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to the Kanha Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements. Banjar and the Halon rivers flow through it. It passes through the Satpura Hills. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –6th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, about 85 per cent of 11,000 products offered at zero tariffs by India to least developed countries (LDCs) under the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) remains unutilised. About the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD Background: The decision to provide duty-free quota-free (DFQF) access for least developed countries (LDCs) was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005. Least developed countries (LDCs): The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries, which have been designated as such by the United Nations. There are at present 48 LDCs on the UN list. 31 of these are members of the WTO. It requires all developed and developing country members to provide preferential market access for all products originating from all LDCs. India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs in 2008. It provided market access to 85% of India’s total tariff lines. It aimed to integrate LDCs into the global trading system and improve their trading opportunities. The scheme was expanded in 2014 providing preferential market access on about 2% of India’s tariff lines to LDCs. India offers 11,506 preferential tariff lines to LDCs of which 10, 991 are duty-free. Of the duty-free tariff lines, 1,129 are agricultural goods and the remaining 9,862 are non-agricultural goods. Key findings of WTO data for 2020:- 85% of India’s tariff lines show a zero utilisation rate compared to 64% by China. Among the remaining, only 8% demonstrate a utilisation rate of above 95% against 17% by China. Noteworthy amounts of LDC exports are entering under non-preferential (most favoured nation) tariff routes into India even though they are covered by the Indian preference scheme. There is a significant variation between the beneficiary LDCs. Guinea and Bangladesh: show the highest amount of eligible imports Benin: reports a utilisation rate of 98%, the highest of all beneficiary countries. Afghanistan: Fruits and nuts worth $325 million exported were entered under the most-favoured-nation (MFN) despite the preference margin of 28 percentage points being offered under the Indian preference scheme. Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally. Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. If a country grants someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products), they have to do the same for all other WTO members. This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment. Chad: exports of mineral fuels, oils and products, etc, of a value of $48 million are entering India under MFN. The World Trade Organization (WTO):- IMAGE SOURCE: slideserve.com The WTO is the international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all. Objective: to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. WTO agreements are negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. Ministerial Conference: the topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. (UPSCE CSE:12th WTO Ministerial Conference) Historical Background:- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, which established two key institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. An agreement as the GATT signed by 23 countries in Geneva in 1947 came into force on Jan 1, 1948, with the following purposes: To phase out the use of import quotas. to reduce tariffs on merchandise trade. Uruguay Round (1987-1994): culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which established the World Trade Organization (WTO). The WTO incorporates the principles of the GATT and provides a more enduring institutional framework for implementing and extending them. The GATT 1994 is an international treaty binding upon all WTO Members. It is only concerned with trade in goods. Members: it has had 164 members since 2016. India is a founding member of WTO. (UPSC CSE: Moratorium on e-commerce trade) WTO is not an UN-specialized agency. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It is a forum for governments to negotiate trade agreements. It is a place for them to settle trade disputes. It is a place where member governments try to sort out the trade problems they face with each other. MUST READ: Reviving WTO SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gulf of Mannar Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Gulf of Mannar became the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in the South East Asia. About the Gulf of Mannar:- IMAGE SOURCE: casmbenvis. nic. in Gulf of Mannar is an inlet of the Indian Ocean, between south-eastern India and western Sri Lanka. It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island. The gulf receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka). The port of Tuticorin is on the coast. It has been renowned for its highly productive pearl banks and religious significance. The Government of India designated it as the country’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Gulf of Mannar National Park has also been identified as the important Bird Area by BNHS-Birdlife International because of its rich avian fauna. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been identified as an Important Marine Mammals Area of the World by IUCN due to its dugong population and other marine mammals presence. Key life forms found in the Gulf of Mannar:- Dugong (Sea cow): also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s first dugong conservation reserve) Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Sea turtles: Four of the seven species of sea turtles found worldwide are reported to occur in the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve. These are:- Olive ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea): IUCN status (Vulnerable) They are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary: It is the world’s largest nesting beach for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Green (Cheloniamydas) Hawksbill (Eretmochelys imbricata) Leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea) All four species of sea turtles that occur in these coastal waters are protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act (1972), as well as listed in Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Lobsters: Stock enhancement and fattening of lobsters Panulirus homarus and P. polyphagous in this region are important for the livelihood of coastal fishermen. Crabs: Of the 11 important commercial crabs in India, six crab species occur Sea snakes: A total of 12 species of sea snakes have been reported in the Gulf of Mannar region. Coastal Birds: 187 species of birds were reported from the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park. Coral reef ecosystem:- Corals and coral reefs of the Gulf of Mannar National Park form an essential ecosystem, which supports a variety of ecologically and economically important marine life. (UPSC CSE: Coral Reefs) The islands in the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park are divided into three groups namely, the Mandapam group (seven Islands), the Keelakarai group (7 Islands) and the Tuticorin group (7 Islands). MUST READ: Development of Great Nicobar SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Development of building materials using plant residues Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Necrophilia Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Karnataka High Court observed that “necrophilia” is an erotic attraction to corpses. About Necrophilia:- It is a psychosexual disorder, classified under the DSM-IV, among a group of disorders, called “paraphilias”. Paraphilias: include disorders like paedophilia, exhibitionism, and sexual masochism. Necrophilia could be the result of rage, experimentation, or lust rather than sexual necessity or habit. As of date, the IPC does not list “necrophilia” as a specific offence under sexual offences mentioned in the code. The court mentioned that it could be brought under Section 297 as causing “indignity to any human corpse” if someone trespasses into a place for performing funeral rites or a depository for the remains of the dead. Section 297 of IPC:- The knowledge that any person’s feelings are likely to be wounded or their religion is likely to be insulted by such an act will make it an offence under Section 297. The ruling of Karnataka High Court in Rangaraju @Vajapeyi vs State of Karnataka” case:- It held that having sexual intercourse with a woman’s dead body would not attract the offence of rape, punishable under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code, as there is no provision in the IPC for it. (UPSC CSE: Rape and sexual crimes law in India) The provisions of Sections 375 and 377 of the Indian Penal Code make it clear that the dead body cannot be called a human or person. Thereby, these provisions of the IPC would not apply. The court clarified that sexual intercourse on a dead body is nothing but necrophilia. Hence, it is not a punishable offence under Section 376 (punishment for rape). National Human Rights Commission’s advisory, on “Upholding the Dignity and Protecting the Rights of the Dead: The court invoked the 2021 advisory of NHRC, which states that there cannot be any physical exploitation or discrimination in the treatment of the body. It also mentions the right to a decent and timely burial. It also asked the Centre to amend the law. Recommendation of Karnataka High Court to the centre:- To amend Section 377 of IPC To include dead bodies of men, women, and animals. To protect the dignity of the dead. Criminalising necrophilia: It also offered an alternative that the Centre brings in a separate penal provision to criminalise necrophilia with life imprisonment up to 10 years with a fine. The ruling of Supreme Court in Parmanand Katara, Advocate vs Union of India (1989):- The court relied on and held that the dignity of a dead body must be maintained. It established a corresponding duty on the state to ensure decent cremation is served to the person. The right to dignity and fair treatment under Article 21 of the Constitution of India is not only available to a living man but also to his body after his death. Countries that prohibit necrophilia:- The United Kingdom’s Sexual Offences Act, 2003, includes necrophilia as an offence under Section 70, which makes “sexual penetration of a corpse” an offence punishable with six months to two years imprisonment. Canada, New Zealand, and South Africa, too, prohibit necrophilia under different laws. Status in India:- India does not have any specific provision punishing necrophilia. The Karnataka High Court made recommendations to the Central government for including it under Section 377 of the IPC or as a new provision. MUST READ: Marital Rape SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Salt caverns Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, a Government-owned engineering firm studied the prospects of developing petroleum reserves in Rajasthan’s salt caverns. About salt caverns:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Salt caverns are created by dissolving salt deposits with water, and then pumping out the brine (salt water) to create a hollow space. This process is much faster and cheaper than excavating rock caverns and can be done in flat or low-lying areas where salt deposits are found. Rock caverns: created by excavating hard rock formations, such as granite or basalt, using explosives or mechanical methods. Advantages:- Salt caverns are naturally well sealed. The salt lining acts as a natural barrier against liquid and gas migration, preventing oil from escaping or contaminating groundwater. (UPSC CSE: Groundwater Mapping ) They have low oil absorbency, which prevents leakage and contamination of the stored oil. They are relatively easy and cheap to create and operate. The process of solution mining is faster and simpler than excavating rock caverns, which requires more time, labour, and equipment. They are suitable for storing natural gas, compressed air and hydrogen. (UPSC CSE: LNG & its climate impact) Salt caverns can also be located closer to the surface than rock caverns, which reduces the drilling costs and the risk of leakage. Salt caverns can withstand high pressure and temperature variations, allowing for faster filling and emptying of oil. This makes them ideal for emergencies or market fluctuations when the oil needs to be released or stored quickly. Disadvantages:- Salt caverns require a large amount of water. The water used for solution mining has to be treated to prevent corrosion and bacterial growth, which adds to the operational costs. The water also has to be disposed of safely after extracting the brine (water with dissolved salt), which can pose environmental challenges. The brine can contain harmful substances such as heavy metals or radioactive elements, which have to be removed before discharging into surface water or injecting into deep wells. Salt caverns are limited by the availability and quality of salt deposits. MUST READ: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) SOURCE: THE INDIN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020) Cassava Damaged wheat grains Groundnut seeds Horse gram Rotten potatoes Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 5 and 6 only 1, 3, 4 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Indian Army generated a unique ecosystem for peaceful co-existence with wild elephants in Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary, Assam. About Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net The Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located on the eastern fringe of Guwahati, Assam. It comprises three Reserve forests:- Khanapara Amchang, and South Amchang It stretches from the Brahmaputra River in the north to the hilly forests of Meghalaya in the south, forming a continuous forest belt through Meghalaya’s Maradakdola Reserve Forests. (UPSC MAINS: Monitoring China’s Moves on the Brahmaputra) It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 2004 by the government of Assam. (UPSC MAINS: Human-wildlife conflict) Flora: Khasi Hill Sal Forests, East Himalayan Mixed Deciduous Forest, Eastern Alluvial Secondary Semi-Evergreen Forests and East Himalayan Sal Forests. Fauna: It is home to Mammals (Flying Fox, Assamese Macaque, Slow Loris, etc.), Birds (Lesser and Greater Adjutant, White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture), Reptiles (Python, Monitor Lizard, Indian Cobra etc.). Tree yellow butterflies (banana harina): found at the Amchang wildlife sanctuary, which are indigenous to Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore and northeast India. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Abaucin Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Scientists recently, found a potential new antibiotic named Abaucin, with the help of machine learning. About Abaucin:- This antibiotic compromises the normal function of a protein called CCR2. It was originally been developed to treat diabetes. It appears to work by disrupting lipoprotein trafficking in baumannii. Working: Based on genetic studies, the researchers believe that abduction could be preventing lipoprotein produced inside the bacteria from moving to the outer membrane. Abaucin is also a “species-selective” antibiotic. It only disrupts the growth of A. baumannii, not other Gram-negative bacteria. Acinetobacter baumanni It is a Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria: it has a protective outer membrane that allows it to resist antibiotics. It has been associated with hospital-acquired infections in India. It was acknowledged to be a “red alert” pathogen because of its exceptional ability to develop resistance to all currently available antibiotics. (UPSC CSE: Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)) MUST READ: World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC+) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The OPEC+ agreed on a new oil output deal recently. About (OPEC+):- IMAGE SOURCE: watchers. ie The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization. It was created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960. Founding members: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Objective: to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market, in order to avoid fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries. HQ: Vienna, Austria. Membership: OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization. It has 14 members: Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, and Venezuela (1960), Qatar (1961), Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), Abu Dhabi (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), Ecuador (1973), Angola (2007), Equatorial Guinea (2017), and the Republic of the Congo (2018). OPEC’s 14 members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies and 82 per cent of proven reserves. With the addition of the 10 Non-OPEC nations, notable among them Russia, Mexico and Kazakhstan, those shares increase to 55 per cent and 90 per cent respectively. (UPSC CSE: OPEC) OPEC+ OPEC+ includes the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and its allies. It pumps around 40% of the world’s crude. OPEC-plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan. MUST READ: Oil for Emergencies SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Mains: Adverse Possession in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: As per the recent report by 22nd Law Commission there is no justification for introducing any change in the law relating to adverse possession. About adverse possession: Adverse possession essentially means when a tenant possesses the property of the owner when they are not legally entitled to do the same overtlye., without any attempt regarding the concealment from the owner. In such a situation, if they continue to hold the property unlawfully for more than 12 years and the owner, despite having the same, does not take any action over these years, they would lose their right to claim the property by filing a suit in the court of law upon the expiration of this term. The concept originally dates back to 2000 BC, finding its roots in the Hammurabi Code, but the historical basis of “title by adverse possession” is the development of the statutes of limitation on actions for recovery of land in England. The first such statute was the Statute of Westminster, 1275. However, it was the Property Limitation Act, 1874, that set the period of limitation at twelve years from when the cause of action first arose, which laid the groundwork for the limitations model inherited by colonial India. Act XIV of 1859 regulated the limitation of civil suits in British India. After the passage of the Limitation Act in 1963, the law on adverse possession underwent significant changes. Arguments in favour of adverse possession: To avoid long disputes: The real aim of law is to neither punish the one nor reward the other. However, a society should not be bothered with disputes for eternity. Therefore, the law puts a limit of twelve years for such quarrels and disputes before which the title must be settled. Land should be put to a judicious use: The concept of adverse possession stems from the idea that land must not be left vacant but instead, be put to judicious use. Essentially, adverse possession refers to the hostile possession of property, which must be continuous, uninterrupted, and peaceful. According to the Law Commission, the rationale behind this comes from considerations that the “title to land should not long be in doubt”, “society will benefit from someone making use of land the owner leaves idle,” and “persons who come to regard the occupant as owner may be protected.” Original titleholder neglected his rights: The maxim that the law does not help those who sleep over their rights is invoked in support of adverse possession. Argument against adverse possession: Harsh for true owner: The law as it exists is extremely harsh for the true owner and a windfall for a dishonest person who has illegally taken possession of the property. Avoidable and expensive litigation: True owners have been subjected to, such as “avoidable and expensive litigation” by unscrupulous persons” who are acquainted with fraud, the already overburdened machinery of the courts is further saddled with avoidable work, much to the misery of the litigants. Struck off law will not harm anybody: lf the law of adverse possession is struck off from the Limitation Act it will not hinder anybody’s right nor will it cause any neglect of land resources. Promotes false claims: The fact that land prices are skyrocketing in both rural and urban areas defeated the Commission’s argument that land is not put to proper use. In an over-populous country like India where land is scarce, the law of adverse possession only promotes false claims under the colour of adverse possession, which ultimately does not stand judicial scrutiny. Different laws for state and private individuals: If in a welfare state and under law, state and common person have same rights and same Acts being applicable, then why is there a different time window for the adverse possession over Government land. SC Rulings: In the 2004, Karnataka Board of Wakf v Government of India, the apex court held “A person who claims adverse possession should show: on what date he came into possession, what was the nature of his possession, whether the factum of possession was known to the other party, how long his possession has continued, and His possession was open and undisturbed.” In 2008, HemajiWaghaji Jat v. BhikhabhaiKhengarbhai Harijan and Others, the court ruled that Article 65 “ousts an owner on the basis of inaction within limitation” and is “irrational, illogical, and wholly disproportionate” and recommended the government “to seriously consider and make suitable changes in the law of adverse possession”. Owing to the importance of the subject, coupled with the fact that the reference had been pending since 2008, the present Law Commission found it “expedient to deliberate afresh over the subject.” Way Forward: Parliament might simply require the adverse possession claimants to possess the property in question for a period of 30 to 50 years, rather than a mere 12. A longer statutory period would also decrease the frequency of adverse possession suits and ensure that only those claimants most intimately connected with the land acquire it, while only the most passive and unprotected owners lose title. Source:    Indian Express Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs) Ban Issue Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Health Ministry has published a gazette notification banning 14 Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) drugs citing lack of therapeutic justification and an expert committee’s recommendation for their prohibition. About Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs: Combination products or fixed dose drug combinations (FDCs) consist of two or more active drugs in a single dosage form. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the USA defines a combination product as a product composed of a drug and a device, a biological product and a device, a drug and a biological product, or a drug, device, and a biological product. It is widely accepted that most drugs should be formulated as single compounds. Examples: Phenytoin + Phenobarbitone Sodium, Chlorpheniramine + Codeine Phosphate + Menthol Syrup, Salbutamol + Bromhexine, Paracetamol + Bromhexine + Phenylephrine + Chlorpheniramine + Guaiphenesin etc Justification for Ban: The ban, which comes into effect immediately, follows recommendations of the Expert Committee formed to examine the efficacy of these drug combinations and the Drugs Technical Advisory Board. The expert committee recommended, “there is no therapeutic justification for these FDCs and the FDCs may involve risk to human beings”. Advantages of FDC Drugs: Complementary Mechanism of Action: FDC formulations combine drugs with complementary mechanisms of action, which can enhance the therapeutic effectiveness of the treatment. The combined action of multiple drugs in a single dosage form can target different aspects of a disease or provide a more comprehensive treatment approach. Synergistic Effects: FDCs can exhibit synergistic effects, where the combined action of the drugs produces a greater therapeutic effect compared to individual drugs used alone. This can result in improved efficacy and better treatment outcomes for patients. Better Tolerability: In some cases, combining drugs in an FDC can help reduce side effects or improve tolerability. The interaction between the drugs can minimize adverse reactions, making the treatment more manageable for patients. Elongated Product Life-Cycle Management: FDC formulations can extend the life cycle of a product by combining drugs that have already been individually approved. This allows pharmaceutical companies to innovate and offer new treatment options without going through the lengthy process of developing and gaining approval for completely new drugs. Cost Savings: FDCs can lead to cost savings for both patients and healthcare systems. By combining multiple drugs into a single formulation, the overall cost of treatment may be reduced. This can make the medication more affordable and accessible, particularly in resource-constrained settings. Minimized Pill-Burden: Using FDCs reduces the number of pills a patient needs to take. This can simplify treatment regimens and improve patient adherence to medication schedules, especially for individuals who need to take multiple drugs regularly. Disadvantages of FDCs: There may not be an FDC available with the appropriate drugs and/or in the most appropriate respective strength(s) for a given patient, which can lead to some patients getting too much of an ingredient and others getting too little. Thus, FDCs “limit clinicians’ ability to customize dosing regimens.” If an adverse drug reaction occurs from using an FDC, it becomes difficult to identify the active ingredient responsible for causing the reaction. Scientists face challenges in the development stages of multi-drug formulations such as compatibility issues among active ingredients and excipients affecting solubility and dissolution. If one drug is contraindicated for a patient, whole FDC cannot be prescribed. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to OPEC, consider the following statements: OPEC’s members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies. OPEC has 15 members who have 82 per cent of the proven reserves of oil in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2. Consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of Abaucin vaccines. Abaucin is a species-selective antibiotic. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3. Consider the following statements: Necrophilia is an erotic attraction to corpses. Necrophilia is a punishable offence under the IPC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) -c

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What is the recipe for success? Is it just one element? Or a combination of many ingredients? At the same time, we can also agree to the fact that while some ingredients might get added or reduced at certain times, there are some which are mandatory to go in. If we talk in the context of being successful in cracking the Civil Services Examination of India, there’s more than one which is critical for success. Don’t you agree? Let us also pay attention to the famous and unescapable 80:20 Rule: 80% of your success depends on 20% of your efforts We will add FOUR more points to it: Put in the right direction.Doing the right thingsAt the right timeWith the right guidance/mentorship! This brings us to the core ingredients that we want to talk to you about, that will help you reap rich dividends if applied effectively – The Importance of Practicing + The Magic of Mentorship Imagine… The streets of Mukherjee Nagar. The streets of Rajinder Nager. In fact all the streets where CSE aspirants can be found strolling. Do you think they are not enrolled in multiple test series? But are they paying attention? Difficult question to answer. But the results are visible. We know that you know the obvious. As your well-wishers and guide, we just wanted to remind you of what you already know. This is to make sure that you act upon it and not commit the same mistake again and again. There’s absolutely no escaping from practicing. 20% of your daily time towards practicing answer writing will contribute 80% towards your final success in the examination. So, where do you reckon your focus should be? PRACTICING, YES! Like those net practices of our cricketers. They are all amazing cricketers but they show up daily to become better than they were yesterday.  Brace up! Your journey is going to be no different! Do we have this Net-Practicing facility at IASbaba? Yes! (Should you even ask?!!)  So, there are two latest grounds that we have created for your Net-Practicing: GROUND 1: TLP CONNECT 2024 (Prelims + Mains + Interview) INTEGRATED Mentorship Based Programme GROUND 2: TLP PLUS(+) 2024 MAINS Mentorship Based Programme (OFFLINE and ONLINE)Click Here To Read Complete Details Of The Programme

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –5th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) KAVACH Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The recent train tragedy in Odisha has brought to the surface the need for KAVACH in preventing rail accidents. Kavach was not available on this route. About KAVACH:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It is developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working of KAVACH:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (UPSC CSE: RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (UPSC MAINS: KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH is the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. Initial development of Kavach started in 2012 under the name Train Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) and completed development on 2022. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. The Budget of 2022-23 had proposed rollout of Kavach in 2000 kms. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (UPSC CSE: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System. MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Pet coke Syllabus Prelims –Geography, Environment and Ecology Context: The Government recently, permitted the import of pet coke as a raw material for lithium-ion batteries. About Pet Coke:- IMAGE SOURCE: bulkcarrierguide.com Pet Coke is one of the industrial by-products produced during oil refining. It is dark solid carbon material. It is used as a source of energy and carbon for various industrial applications. It is abundantly used in India in several manufacturing industries such as cement, steel and textile. It is significantly cheaper than coal, has high calorific value and is easier to transport and store. There are two kinds of pet coke produced during oil refining viz. Fuel-grade pet coke (80%) and Calcined pet coke (20%). India is the world’s biggest consumer of pet coke. (UPSC CSE: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) ) Local producers: Indian Oil Corp, Reliance Industries and Bharat Petroleum Corp. Cement companies in India account for about three-fourths of the country’s pet coke use. Environment and Health Hazards of Pet Coke:- Pet coke is a much more potent pollutant than coal. It contains a whopping 74,000 PPM of sulphur content, which is released into the atmosphere as emissions, which is much higher than vehicular emissions. It is also a source of fine dust, which can get through the filtering process of the human airway and lodge in the lungs, which can cause serious health problems. It releases sulphur, nitrous oxide, mercury, arsenic, chromium, nickel, and hydrogen chloride, which contribute to global warming. (UPSC CSE: COP 27). Lithium It is a soft, silvery-white metal. It is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It has the highest specific heat capacity of any solid element. It is a good conductor of electricity. It is flammable and can even explode when exposed to air and water. Lithium is a crucial building block of the lithium-ion rechargeable batteries. Currently, India is heavily dependent on import of these cells and the move to ink sourcing pacts for lithium is seen as a move to reduce its dependency on China, which is a key source of both the raw material and cell. Lithium-ion batteries A lithium-ion battery or Li-ion battery is a type of rechargeable battery. Working: Li-ion batteries use an intercalated (Intercalation is the reversible inclusion or insertion of a molecule into materials with layered structures) lithium compound as one electrode material. The battery consists of electrolyte, which allows for ionic movement, and the two electrodes are the constituent components of a lithium-ion battery cell. Lithium ions move from the negative electrode to the positive electrode during discharge and back when charging. Applications:- Power electric vehicles (EVs), laptops and mobile phones. Applications in electronic gadgets, Telecommunication, Aerospace, Industries. Power source for electric and hybrid electric vehicles. Advantages of Li-Ion battery:- It is light weighted and is one-third the weight of lead acid batteries. It is nearly 100% efficient in both charging and discharging as compared to lead battery, which has 70% efficiency. It completely discharges i.e. 100% as compared to 80% for lead acid. It has life cycle of 5000 times or more compared to just 400-500 cycles in lead acid. It also maintains constant voltage throughout entire discharge cycle whereas voltage in lead acid battery drops consistently throughout its discharge cycle. It is much cleaner technology and is safer for environment. It can be wireless. Disadvantages of Li-ion Batteries:- Long charging times. Safety issues: instances of batteries catching fires have been there. Expensive to manufacture MUST READ: Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Countries SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) Centres have spread the message on LiFE during the World Environment Day celebrations held recently. About The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP):- IMAGE SOURCE: nbrienvis.nic.in It is a Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. . (UPSC CSE: EIACP) Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) In 2023, The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) was renamed EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme). ENVIS: came into existence as in 1983. The focus of ENVIS was to provide environmental information to decision-makers, policy planners, scientists and engineers, research workers, etc. all over the country. EIACP is being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. (UPSC CSE: LIFE – LIfestyle for Environment) Objective: it serves as a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation on various facets of the environment and facilitation of alternate livelihoods through green skilling. 60 EIACP Centres are actively engaged in promoting awareness about sustainable actions that individuals can undertake. Environment Education Programme (EEP) It is a Central Sector sub-scheme. Objective: for imparting non-formal environment education through inter alia initiatives for strengthening Eco-club activities in schools and colleges. Sharing the common goal of promoting a sustainable lifestyle. Implementation: It is implemented in full alignment with Mission LiFE, through State/UT-level Implementing Agencies. Implementing Agencies of EEP have organized some unique and eco-friendly initiatives like nature camps, eco-art workshops, clay & pottery workshop, promotion of eco-friendly green wedding ideas, awareness campaigns on medicinal plants, campaigns in marketplaces against single-use plastics etc. Eco-clubs are used as an effective medium to spread messages on LiFE. Mission LIfestyle for Environment (Life):- Background: At the 2021 UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP26), Hon’ble Prime Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi announced Mission LiFE. Aim: to bring individual behaviours at the forefront of the global climate action LiFE envisions replacing the prevalent ‘use-and-dispose’ economy with a circular economy, which would be defined by mindful and deliberate utilisation. Approach:- Focus on Individual Behaviours: Make Life a mass movement (Jan Andolan) by focusing on behaviours and attitudes of individuals and communities. Co-create Globally: Crowdsource empirical and scalable ideas from the best minds of the world, through top universities, think tanks and international organisations. Leverage Local Cultures: Leverage climate-friendly social norms, beliefs and daily household practices of different cultures worldwide to drive the campaign. Objectives :- It aims to promote an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on ‘mindful and deliberate utilisation’ instead of ‘mindless and wasteful consumption’. It aims to utilise the power of collective action. It aims to nudge individuals across the world to undertake simple climate-friendly actions in their daily lives. It aims to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People’ (P3). Pro-Planet People’ (P3): to have a shared commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles. It seeks to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding climate. MUST READ: National Clean Air Programme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Iran and Afghanistan’s water conflict Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The long-standing issue of Iran and Afghanistan’s water conflict arose again as clashes broke out along the border recently. About Iran and Afghanistan’s water conflict:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Background:- Afghanistan and Iran signed the Helmand River Treaty in 1973. Objective: to regulate the allocation of river water. However, the accord was neither ratified nor fully implemented, causing disagreements and tensions to persist. Disagreements:- Iran accuses Afghanistan of violating water rights: Iran has consistently accused Afghanistan of infringing upon its water rights, claiming that it receives significantly less water than agreed upon in the 1973 treaty. Afghanistan blames climatic factors for reduced water flow: Afghanistan has refuted Iran’s allegations, citing climatic factors such as reduced rainfall and diminished river water volumes as the primary causes of the current situation. Concerns over Afghanistan’s dam and irrigation projects: Iran expresses concerns over Afghanistan’s construction of dams, reservoirs, and irrigation systems along the Helmand River, fearing that these initiatives negatively affect water flow into Iran. Current situation:- Water shortages and other problems: Sistan-Baluchistan region of Iran faces severe water shortages, contributing to economic and social difficulties in one of Iran’s poorest areas. Setting up an inquiry commission: to address the recent border clash, Iran and Afghanistan have agreed to establish a commission of inquiry to investigate the incident. Short-term focus on internal problems: Both Iran and the Taliban prioritize short-term solutions and focus on internal issues rather than actively resolving the water dispute. Both Iran and the Taliban show little interest in addressing the mismanagement of water resources and environmental challenges in the region. River Hirmand/Helmand The Helmand is Afghanistan’s longest river. Origin: near Kabul (Afghanistan) in the western Hindu Kush mountain range. (UPSC CSE: India-Afghanistan) Drainage: It flows in a south-westerly direction through desert areas. It empties into Lake Hamun, which straddles the Afghanistan-Iran border. Lake Hamun is the largest freshwater lake in Iran. (UPSC CSE: Chabahar port) The Lake has experienced a drastic decline in water levels, attributed to factors such as drought and the construction of dams. Economic Importance: Lake Hamun supports agricultural activities, livelihoods, and economic sectors in the surrounding areas. MUST READ: India, Iran and Afghanistan SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                            Turkey Amhara                                           Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                   Spain Catalonia                                            Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Moss Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A recent global study on moss reveals that they are far more vital to Earth’s ecosystems than previously known. About Moss:- IMAGE SOURCE: Flickr Mosses are small, soft, flowerless Plants. Scientific Classification:- Kingdom – Plantae Division – Bryophyta They have Stomata. Stomata: cells specialized for photosynthetic gas exchange. They are some of the oldest land plants and existed as early as the Permian Period (299 to 251 million years ago). Unlike most other plants, mosses do not have roots. Instead, they have rhizoids, which are small hair like structures. Distribution: They are found all over the world, from lush tropical rainforests to the driest deserts. They are found growing in cracks along roads and pathways, on the trunks of trees, on rocks and buildings, and importantly, on the They are found even in Salient Features:- Non-Vascular Plants: Mosses lack a Vascular system i.e. xylem and phloem. Habitat Indicators: Mosses can also be extremely useful as Habitat Indicators. Ability to revive with very Less Water: Mosses are an amazingly resilient and versatile group of Plants. Absence of Flowers and Seeds: They do not have flowers or seeds. Presence of Multicellular Rhizoid: Mosses are the only Plants that have a Multicellular Rhizoid. Rhizoid: a root-like subterranean tissue that absorbs water and nutrients from the soil. Radial Symmetry: if they are cut down, the long axis of an individual gives two similar halves. Tendency to grow in Clusters: They commonly grow close together in clumps or mats. Importance of Mosses: Mosses function like sponges, using their capillary spaces to hang on to water. They help to soak up rainfall, maintain moisture in the soil below and keep conditions around them humid. This enables other plants around them thrive, such as in habitats like marshes and woodland. Mosses also play a vital role in the development of new ecosystems. They are among the first plant colonisers of disturbed sites, such as when an area is deforested or affected by forest fires. They stabilise the soil surface and retain water, helping new plants to grow. Mosses can affect the temperature of the soil, both warming it up and cooling it down depending on the environment. In hot places, they can protect tree roots by shading and insulating the soil from high temperatures. In the Arctic, they have an opposite effect on temperature. They can prevent the warmth of the sun from reaching the ground and reduce the speed at which ice thaws, keeping it cooler for longer. Some mosses are luminous. Some mosses have adapted to low light conditions and are even found growing in caves. One of the most well-known cave mosses is Schistostega pennata, also known as dragon’s gold, which shines an emerald green colour. MUST READ: New genus of parasitic flowering plant SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: (2022) It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 3, 5 and 6 only 2, 4, 5 and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 National Statistical Office Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the National Statistical Office released provisional estimates of national income. About National Statistical Office:- The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) merged with the Central Statistical Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) in 2019. National Sample Survey Office (NSSO): formerly called the National Sample Survey Organisation was the largest organization in India conducting periodic socio-economic surveys. Central Statistics Organisation of India: was responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in India, and evolving and maintaining statistical standards. NSO is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). Functions:- Acts as the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in the country. Lays down and maintain norms and standards in the field of statistics. Coordinates the statistical work in respect of the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India. Prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national products, Government and Private final consumption expenditure, Capital Formation, Savings, etc. Compiles and releases Consumer Price Index (CPI). (UPSC CSE: CPI) Maintains liaison with International Statistical Organizations. Compiles and brings out reports as per international/regional commitments. Compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month. (UPSC CSE: IIP) Provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector. MUST READ: National Statistical Commission (NSC) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) . Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Seaweed Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Clusters of brown Sargassum seaweed reported to be infested by flesh-eating bacteria were found awash in Florida recently. About Seaweed:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com They are primitive, marine non-flowering marine algae. They are without root, stem and leaves. They generally grow in shallow waters in the tidal zone. Some seaweeds are microscopic, such as the phytoplankton that live suspended in the water column. They contribute to about 50% of all photosynthesis in the world. Some are enormous, like the giant kelp that grow in abundant “forests” from their roots at the bottom. Kelp forests: formed by large seaweeds form dense underwater forests. They act as underwater nurseries for fish, snails and sea urchins. Benefits of Seaweed:- Nutritional purpose:- Seaweed is a source of vitamins, minerals, and fiber, and can be tasty. Medicinal Purpose:- Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial agents. Certain seaweeds possess powerful cancer-fighting agents. Economical purpose:- Among their many uses in manufacturing, they are effective binding agents (emulsifiers) in such commercial goods as toothpaste and fruit jelly. They are also popular softeners (emollients) in organic cosmetics and skin-care products. Bioindicators:-. Seaweeds absorb the excess nutrients and balance out the ecosystem. Iron Sequestrator:- These aquatic organisms heavily rely on iron for photosynthesis. When the quantity of this mineral exceeds healthy levels and becomes dangerous to marine life, seaweeds trap it and prevent damage. Similarly, most heavy metals found in marine ecosystems are trapped and removed by seaweeds. Oxygen and Nutrient Supplier:- They release oxygen through every part of their bodies. They also supply organic nutrients to other marine life forms. Aquaculture: – At present, seaweed account for 30% of world aquaculture production. Industries:- They are used for the production of phytochemicals namely agar, carrageenan, and alginate. These phytochemicals are widely used as gelling, stabilizing, and thickening agents in food, confectionery, pharmaceutical They are used for the production of Seaweed has wide range of application in the fields of food, textile, cosmetic, pharmaceuticals, fodder, and fertilisers. Provide occupation for the coastal people. Provide continuous supply of raw material for seaweed-based industry. It is a major tool to treat coastal pollution in the sea & reduce CO2 in global warming. MUST READ: Seaweeds SOURCE:HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) Copepods Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following animals (2022) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Mains: Practice of Forum Shopping Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics – ethical concerns and dilemmas on govt institutions) Context: Recently, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) DY Chandrachud condemned the practice of ‘forum shopping’. About Forum shopping: When litigants or lawyers attempt to deliberately move their case to a particular judge or Court where they think the judgment could be more favourable, they are said to be “forum shopping.” This practice involves choosing a court that is likely to provide the most favourable outcome, rather than following the standard legal process. Lawyers think about which is the right forum to approach as part of their litigation strategy. For example, one could directly approach the Supreme Court via a public interest litigation case instead of the concerned High Court because the issue could get more eyeballs. Advantages: It can permit offended parties to look for equity and remuneration in a court that is more thoughtful to their cases or interests. It has the potential to boost efficiency and quality of service among courts and judges by encouraging competition and new ideas. Challenges posed by forum shopping: It creates uncertainty and confusion among litigants and lawyers about the proper jurisdiction and venue for their cases. It erodes public confidence and trust in the judiciary, as it creates an impression that justice is not based on merit but on manipulation. Wasting time and resources of the courts and the litigants by causing duplication, delay and confusion. Creating conflicting or inconsistent judgments on the same or similar issues, leading to legal uncertainty and chaos. Eroding the credibility and impartiality of the judiciary, as well as the trust and respect of the public and the legal profession. Encouraging forum shopping by other litigants or lawyers creates a vicious cycle of abuse and corruption. Supreme Court’s View on Forum Shopping: Dr. Khair-Un-Nisa and Ors vs. UT of Jammu and Kashmir and Ors 2023: The Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh High Court imposed costs worth one-lakh rupees on the petitioners for indulging in forum shopping by filing multiple petitions before different wings of the court, despite having the same cause of action. Vijay Kumar Ghai vs. State of W.B. 2022: The SC termed forum shopping as a “disreputable practice by the courts” that “has no sanction and paramountcy in law”. Dhanwantri Institute of Medical Science vs. the State of Rajasthan 2022: The Rajasthan High Court upheld an order imposing costs worth 10 lakh rupees on a party for engaging in forum shopping. Kamini Jaiswal vs. Union of India 2017: The SC said that “unscrupulous elements” are always on the hunt to find a court or forum of their choice but are not permitted to do so by law. Way Forward: Thus, Forum shopping is a serious challenge that threatens the quality and legitimacy of justice delivery. It requires concerted efforts from all stakeholders to address it effectively and efficiently. By doing so, we can ensure that justice is not only done but also seen to be done. Source:      Indian Express India and Drug Abuse Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Internal Security -Linkages of Organized Crime with Terrorism) Context: The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) Chandigarh Zone recently detained an alleged drug trafficker, who is reportedly operating in Una district in Himachal Pradesh. About Drug trafficking: Drug trafficking is a global illicit trade involving the cultivation, manufacture, distribution and sale of substances which are subject to drug prohibition laws. United Nation Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is continuously monitoring and researching global illicit drug markets in order to gain a more comprehensive understanding of their dynamics. India and Drug Abuse: According to a report by the United Nation Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), India is one of the major hubs of illicit drug trade ranging from age-old cannabis to newer prescription drugs like tramadol, and designer drugs like methamphetamine. The money from the drug trade is used to finance terrorism, human trafficking, illegal businesses etc. India lies in the middle of two major illicit opium production regions in the world, the Golden Crescent in the west and the Golden Triangle in the east that makes it a viable hub of the illicit drug trade. Golden Triangle: It includes the regions of Myanmar, Laos, and Thailand and is Southeast Asia’s main opium-producing region and one of the oldest narcotics supply routes to Europe and North America. Golden Crescent: It includes Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan and is a principal global site for opium production and distribution. China Factor: These heroin and methamphetamine-producing areas have porous borders and are, reportedly, under the control of rebel groups, indirectly supported by the Chinese. Illicit arms are manufactured here and supplied to underground groups active in India. Reasons behind Drug trafficking in India: There are several reasons behind drug trafficking in India, some of which are: Geographical location: India’s location between the “Golden Crescent” and “Golden Triangle” regions, which are major drug-producing areas, makes it vulnerable to drug trafficking. Drugs like heroin, opium, and hashish are produced in the Golden Crescent, which includes Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan, and are smuggled into India through the northwest border. Porous borders: India shares borders with several countries that are known for drug production and trafficking, and these borders are often poorly guarded and easily penetrated by smugglers. For instance, the North-East States that share borders with Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, China, and Bhutan are the hot spots for drug smuggling. High demand: India has a large population, and there is a high demand for drugs, both for recreational and medicinal purposes. For example, drugs like marijuana and cocaine are in high demand in metropolitan cities like Mumbai and Delhi. Lack of awareness: There is a lack of awareness among people about the dangers of drug abuse, and many people do not know how to identify drug abuse or how to get help. For example, young people who are not educated about the risks of drug abuse are particularly vulnerable to falling prey to drug traffickers. Corruption: Corruption among law enforcement agencies and government officials allows drug traffickers to operate with impunity. Challenges in tackling Drug Trafficking in India: Dark Net: Dark net markets are difficult to trace because of their anonymity and low risks. Studies reveal that 62% of the dark net is being used for illicit drug trafficking. The success rate in catching traffickers using the dark net has been very low the world over. Transactions in Cryptocurrency: Cryptocurrency payments and doorstep deliveries, through courier services, have made dark net transactions attractive. Traffickers have become Creative and Tech Savvy: The traffickers have adopted to new age technologies such as supplying drug and guns through drones in Punjab, which have posed new challenges before the security forces. Using more Safe and Anonymous methods: The drug traffickers have started relying more upon courier/parcel/post after the restrictions imposed on vehicular/ship/airline movement during Covid-19 pandemic. Nexus between Drugs Lords and NRIs: Recent investigations have revealed the connection of the drug cartels with NRIs based in Canada, Australia, Singapore, Hong Kong and several European countries along with local drug lords and gangsters in India, who have links with Khalistan terrorists and the ISI in Pakistan. Trafficking through Local Gangs: A new trend has emerged wherein organised gangs, which primarily used to carry out extortion activities in their local areas, are being used for drug trafficking, as they are ready-made logistics to carry out such activities. Initiatives undertaken to regulate Drug trafficking in India: National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS): It was introduced in 1985 to regulate drug trafficking and the use of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances in India. National Narcotics Coordination Portal: The multiplicity of stakeholders in Drug Law Enforcement has necessitated coordination between various agencies on real time basis. Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs): The MoSJE provides financial assistance to NGOs and voluntary organizations for the maintenance of Integrated Rehabilitation Centres for Addicts (IRCAs). National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR): The MoSJE launched the NAPDDR for 2018-2025. The Plan aims at reduction of adverse consequences of drug abuse through a multi-pronged strategy. Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan/Drugs-Free India Campaign: It was flagged off on 15th August 2020 (Independence Day) for 272 districts across 32 State/Union Territories that have been identified as the most vulnerable in terms of usage of drugs in the country. It is operational with the involvement of more than 500 voluntary organizations across the country, which are assisted financially under the NAPDDR scheme. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following about seaweeds: They are Carbon Sequestrators. They form Kelp forests underwater. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following about National Statistical Office (NSO): It compiles and releases the Consumer Price Index (CPI). It compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every year. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following about River Hirmand/Helmand: It is the longest river in Iran. Lake Hamun is the largest freshwater lake in Afghanistan. Which of the above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –3rd June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission Vatsalya Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, a consultation meeting of the functionaries of Child Care Institutions was held to review the effective implementation of Mission Vatsalya. About Mission Vatsalya:- IMAGE SOURCE: government plans It’s an umbrella scheme for child protection services in the country. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Prior to 2009, the Ministry of women and child development Implemented three schemes for children in need of protection, The juvenile justice programme for children in need of care and protection as well as children in conflict with the law, The integrated programme for street children, The scheme for assistance to children’s homes. In 2010, these were merged into a single plan known as the Integrated Child Protection Scheme. In 2017, it was renamed “Child Protection Services Scheme,” and again in 2021-22 it was renamed as Mission Vatsalya. It is one of the new triad of schemes along with Mission Shakti, and Poshan 2.0. It aims at securing a healthy and happy childhood for every child. (UPSC MAINS: Measures to promote the rights and interests of the girl child) Components:- Strengthening service delivery structures Upscaling institutional care and services Encouraging non-institutional community-based child care Emergency outreach services Training and capacity building Objectives:- To secure a healthy and happy childhood for each and every child in the country. To ensure opportunities to enable them to discover their full potential. To assist States/UTs in delivering the mandate of the Juvenile Justice Act 2015. (UPSC CSE: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021) To achieve the Sustainable Development (SDG)goals. It promotes family-based non-institutional care of children in difficult circumstances. Implementation:- Under the mission, the Government plans to partner with the private sector as well as volunteer groups. MUST READ: Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. RBI’s lightweight’ payments system Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the conceptualisation of the ‘lightweight’ payments system. About RBI’s lightweight’ payments system:- The lightweight’ payment system is to ensure uninterrupted digital payments during emergencies such as natural calamities or war. Background: the RBI is working on strengthening the oversight framework for Centralised Payment Systems as part of the Utkarsh 2.0 initiative. Salient Features:- This system will operate independently of existing payment technologies like UPI(Unified Payment Interface), NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer), and RTGS(Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)) It can be operated from anywhere. It requires minimal staff during emergencies. It will process critical transactions, such as bulk payments and interbank payments, during extreme and volatile situations. The system operates on minimalistic hardware and software. It gets activated only when needed. Lightweight’ payments system v/s UPI(Unified Payment Interface) UPI and other conventional systems prioritise handling large transaction volumes and require a stable and robust infrastructure. (UPSC CSE: UPI) On the other hand, the lightweight system is designed to operate even in volatile and extreme conditions when regular payment systems may not be accessible. Utkarsh 2.0: In January 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched Utkarsh 2.0, which is the second phase of its medium-term strategy for strengthening regulatory and supervisory mechanisms. Utkarsh 2.0 builds upon the foundation laid by Utkarsh 0.1, which was launched in July 2019 and covered the period from 2019 to 2022. Utkarsh 2.0 will guide the RBI over the period from 2023 to 2025 and includes six vision statements that are designed to improve the performance of the RBI’s statutory and other functions, enhance its relevance and significance at the national and global levels, and improve its internal governance, infrastructure, and human resources. The six vision statements are: Excellence in performance of statutory and other functions: Strengthened trust of citizens and institutions in the RBI: Enhanced relevance and significance in national and global roles: Transparent, accountable, and ethics-driven internal governance: Best-in-class and environment-friendly digital and physical infrastructure: This vision statement seeks to improve the RBI’s digital and physical infrastructure by making it the best-in-class and environmentally friendly Innovative, dynamic, and skilled human resources: MUST READ: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: (2018) BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, the BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agni-1 Missile Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Strategic Forces Command recently carried out a successful training launch of a Medium-Range Ballistic Missile, Agni-1. About Agni-1 Missile:- IMAGE SOURCE: autojournalism.com Agni-1 is a single-stage, solid-fuel missile. (UPSC CSE: Agni – Prime) It was first test-fired in 2002. It has been successfully test-fired 11 times. It is 15 meters long and weighs 12 tonnes. It is powered by a solid-fuel rocket motor. It is a part of India’s nuclear deterrent. (UPSC MAINS: Significance of nuclear tests conducted in Pokhran) The Strategic Forces Command (SFC) of the Indian Army uses it. It is road-mobile, which gives it a high degree of mobility and makes it difficult for an enemy to target. It has a range of 700–900 km, which gives it the ability to strike targets in Pakistan and China. It is capable of carrying a nuclear warhead. This missile has the capability of striking targets with a very high degree of precision. The latest upgrade to the Agni-1 missile includes:- a new guidance system that makes it more accurate and a new warhead that increases its destructive power. Strategic Forces Command (SFC) The SFC is a tri-Service command that forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA). It was created on January 4, 2003 by an executive order of Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) headed by then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Function: It is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile. A Commander-in-Chief of the rank of Air Marshal heads it. Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) NCA is India’s nodal authority responsible for command, control and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme. It has Executive Council and Political Council. The NCA’s directives are executed by the Strategic Forces Command The National Security Adviser (NSA) chairs the Executive Council. It gives inputs to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack if need be. The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and is advised by the Executive Council. MUST READ: Agni-3 missile SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. Q.2) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mettur dam Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The customary date of June 12, 2023, when Cauvery water is scheduled to be released from the Mettur dam is nearing. About Mettur Dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: mettur.com Mettur Dam is regarded as one of the largest and oldest dams in India. The tributary Bhavani joins Kaveri on the Right bank about 45 Km below Mettur Reservoir. Thereafter it enters the plains of Tamil Nadu. Historical Background:- The actual construction of the Mettur Dam began in the year 1925. It was inaugurated in 1934, by the Governor of Madras, Sir George Stanley. The reservoir was named after him. The structure of the dam was designed by British architect Mr Ellis. The project was supervised by another British engineer, Mr Mullings. Salient Features of Mettur Dam:- State: Tamil Nadu Type of dam: Gravity, Masonry Operated by: Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Corporation Ltd. Nearest Town: Mettur River: Kaveri District Name: Salem Popular attraction: A park at the base of the dam called Ellis Park is a. River Kaveri IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Kaveri is designated as the ‘Dakshin Bharat ki Ganga’ or ‘the Ganga of the South’. The Cauvery River rises from the Brahmagiri range in the Coorg district of Karnataka. River basin: it extends over the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry. (UPSC CSE: Linking Rivers) Tributaries:- Left Bank: the Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha, and the Arkavati. Right Bank: Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil, and the Amaravati joins from the right. It descends from the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls. (UPSC MAINS: Inter-state river water disputes) It drains into the Bay of Bengal. It is bound by:- Western Ghats on the west Eastern Ghats on the east and the south The ridges separate it from the Krishna Basin and Pennar Basin on the north. The Nilgiris(an offshore of Western ghats) divide the basin into two natural and political regionse., the Karnataka plateau and the Tamil Nadu plateau. Principal soil types: black soils, red soils, laterites, alluvial soils, forest soils, and mixed soils. Red soils occupy large areas in the basin. Alluvial soils are found in the delta areas. Sivasamudram waterfalls: the river descends from the South Karnataka Plateau to the Tamil Nadu Plains through this waterfall. MUST READ: Cauvery Water Authority SOURCE: NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum Ravi Sutlej Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Article 299 Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court gave judgement on the claims of immunity while entering into a contract in the President’s name under Article 299 of the Constitution. About Article 299:- Article 298 grants the Centre and the state governments the power to carry on trade or business, acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and make contracts for any purpose. Article 299 delineates the manner in which these contracts will be concluded. Article 299 of the Constitution provides that “all contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State shall be expressed to be made by the President or by the Governor of the State” and that all such contracts and “assurances of property made in the exercise of that power shall be executed” on behalf of the President or the Governor by persons in a manner as directed and authorised by them. (UPSC CSE: Governor) The phrase ‘expressed to be made and executed’ under Article 299 (1) means that there must be a deed or contract in writing and that it should be executed by a person duly authorised by the President of the Governor on their behalf. As per the ‘Chatturbhuj Vithaldas Jasani v. Moreshwar Parashram & Ors’(1954), there must be a definite procedure according to which contracts must be made by agents acting on the government’s behalf; otherwise, public funds may be depleted by unauthorized or illegitimate contracts. It implies that contracts not adhering to the manner given in Article 299(1) cannot be enforced by any contracting party. Article 299 (2) says that essentially, neither the President nor the Governor can be personally held liable for such contracts. MUST READ: Responsibilities of President SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: (2019) The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Earth system boundaries (ESBs) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that seven of eight Earth system boundaries (ESBs) that are critical for the stability of the planet’s health and survival of species have already been crossed. About Earth system boundaries (ESBs):- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Earth System Boundaries (ESBs) are scientifically measured limits for climate, freshwater, biodiversity and different kinds of pollution. Operating within these limits, can help maintain a stable and resilient planet. (UPSC CSE: Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)) These are hard limits and even temporary overshooting of some of the boundaries can permanently damage the planet’s critical systems. (UPSC CSE: Climate Finance ) Key Findings of the Report: Two or more ESBs have already transgressed 52% of the world’s land surface, affecting 86% of the global population. India, along with other parts of South Asia, Europe, and parts of Africa is an ESB transgression hotspot. Himalayan foothills have recorded at least 5 ESB transgressions. The seven ESBs that have been crossed are:- Climate, functional integrity, and levels of surface water, groundwater, nitrogen, phosphorus and aerosols. The eighth, which has not been crossed, is. 5 degrees C warming: The global annual mean interhemispheric aerosol optical depth (AOD) difference, which measures the degree of air pollution globally has also not been crossed. MUST READ: Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat of the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Central Electricity Authority Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: As per recent reports of the Central Electricity Authority, 57% of the power generated will be via renewable sources by 2027. About Central Electricity Authority:- The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory organization constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, of 1948. It later continued under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, of 2003. Background: It was established as a part-time body in 1951 and made a full-time body in the year 1975. Composition: as per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members, including its chairperson. Not more than eight shall be full-time members appointed by the Central Government. Chairperson: the Chief Executive of the authority. Function:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Policy (NEP). It formulates short-term and prospective plans for the development of electrical systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid, safety and grid standards and installation and operation of meters. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors for the efficient development of rivers and their tributaries for power generation. Renewable Energy in India With a population of 1.3 billion, India has a massive demand for energy to fuel its rapidly growing economy. From a power deficit nation at the time of Independence, the efforts to make India energy-independent have continued for over seven decades. Today, we are a power surplus nation with a total installed electricity capacity of over Four lakh MW. Today, India is the world’s third largest producer of renewable energy, with 40% of its installed electricity capacity coming from non-fossil fuel sources. The Journey towards Renewable Energy in India As a developing nation at the time of Independence, India relied heavily on coal to meet its energy demands. However, India has always been committed to looking for more alternative energy sources for sustainable development. The beginning was made with hydropower, with major hydroelectric power projects appearing on the scene of India’s energy arena. Over the years, many policy and regulatory initiatives have promoted hydropower development and facilitated investments. Today, we are 5th in the world regarding usable hydropower potential. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) was founded in the 1950s to secure the country’s long-term energy independence. Today, we are the only developing nation with indigenously developed, demonstrated and deployed nuclear reactors for electricity generation. Work on wind energy started in India during the 1960s when the National Aeronautical Laboratory (NAL) developed windmills. Today, we have the 4th largest wind power capacity in the world, blessed with a constant movement of wind, especially in the Southern, Western and North Western regions. India has spearheaded the International Solar Alliance (ISA), which is an action-oriented, member-driven, collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies. The membership of the ISA is open to all member-states of the United Nations, and 107 countries are signatories to the ISA Framework Agreement at present. The Alliance aims to efficiently utilise solar energy to reduce fossil fuel dependence, thereby creating a greener planet Over 800 biomass power and bagasse/non-bagasse cogeneration projects have been installed in the country for feeding power to the grid. India’s vision is to achieve Net Zero Emissions by 2070, in addition to attaining the short-term targets which include: Increasing renewables capacity to 500 GW by 2030, Meeting 50% of energy requirements from renewables, Reducing cumulative emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030, and Reducing emissions intensity of India’s gross domestic product (GDP) by 45% by 2030. MUST READ: The Electricity (Amendment) Bill 2022 SOURCE: THE HINDU  Mains: Retain Sedition Law with Amendments: Law Commission Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Law Commission of India has recommended against the total repeal of sedition law (Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code) and has instead proposed that the provision be retained with certain amendments. Highlights of the report submitted: The report highlighted that the offense of sedition is frequently regarded as a remnant of colonial rule, established during a time when it was frequently employed against India’s freedom fighters. The Commission suggested that a provision analogous to Section 196(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) may be incorporated as a proviso to Section 154 of CrPC, which would provide the requisite procedural safeguard before the filing of an FIR with respect to an offence under Section 124A of IPC. About Sedition Law: Sedition laws were enacted in 17th century England when lawmakers believed that only good opinions of the government should survive, as bad opinions were detrimental to the government and monarchy. The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offence. Today the Sedition is a crime under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Section 124A IPC: It defines sedition as an offence committed when “any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India”. Disaffection includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity. However, comments without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, will not constitute an offence under this section. Punishment for the Offense of Sedition: It is a non-bailable offence. Punishment under Section 124A ranges from imprisonment up to three years to a life term, to which a fine may be added. A person charged under this law is barred from a government job. They have to live without their passport and must appear in court at all times as and when required. Need of continuation of Section 124A: Misuse of freedom of speech: Freedom of speech although is protected through Article 19 (1) but it is not unlimited. Sometimes speech is used as a tool to destabilise country polity and to promote enmity in society. The main reason behind the continuation of Sedition act after independence was to prevent the misuse of free speech (reasonable restrictions) that would be aimed at inciting hatred and violence. Internal security: Maoist insurgency and rebel groups virtually run a parallel administration; it would be dangerous to abolish it. These groups openly advocate the overthrow of the state government by revolution. Thus keeping section 124A is important for Indian security. Destabilising polity: Sometimes, propaganda and facts are modified and used to destabilise the country’s peace and polity by deliberately targeting government actions. Arguments for Section 124A: Section 124A of the IPC has its utility in combating anti-national, secessionist and terrorist elements. It protects the elected government from attempts to overthrow the government with violence and illegal means. The continued existence of the government established by law is an essential condition of the stability of the State. Many districts in different states face a Maoist insurgency and rebel groups virtually run a parallel administration. These groups openly advocate the overthrow of the state government by revolution. Therefore, there is a need to retain the provision to effectively combat anti-national, secessionist and terrorist elements. The plea had contended that the provision which was used by the British against Mahatma Gandhi and Bal Gangadhar Tilak is still being “grossly abused” to stifle freedom of speech and expression of those who choose to express dissent against policies of the Governments in power. Arguments against Section 124A: Mahatma Gandhi called Section 124A “the prince among the political sections of the IPC designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen”. Jawaharlal Nehru said that the provision was “obnoxious” and “highly objectionable”, and “the sooner we get rid of it the better”. It is a constraint on the legitimate exercise of constitutionally guaranteed freedom of speech and expression. Dissent and criticism of the government are an essential ingredient of robust public debate in a vibrant democracy. The British, who introduced sedition to oppress Indians, have themselves abolished the law in their country. There is no reason why India should not abolish this section. The sedition law is being misused as a tool to persecute political dissent. A wide and concentrated executive discretion is inbuilt into it, which permits the blatant abuse. Way Forward: India, being the largest democracy in the world, has to ensure its essential ingredients of free speech and expression. The expression or thought that is not in consonance with the policy of the government of the day should not be considered sedition. It is also essential to protect national integrity. Given the legal opinion and the views of the government in favour of the law, it is unlikely that Section 124A will be scrapped soon. However, it should not be misused as a tool to curb free speech. Source:   Indian Express Code of ethics and code of conduct for Civil Servants Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Role of Civil Services in Democracy) and GS 4 (Ethics – civil service values and ethics in public administration) Context: There are some basic rules a civil servant needs to follow, and the limitations they are placed under. About Civil Services: A civil servant is an official in the service of the people in a contemporary democracy who is recruited based on established criteria. Civil servants are officials who must be aware about the country’s laws and regulations and are expected to operate in the best interests of the nation and its citizens. According to the head of the Canadian Public Service, one of the most essential tasks of the public service is to “speak truth to power.” There are three All India Services (governed by Article 312 of the Indian Constitution) – the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service – which are selected by the central government with officers allotted to various state cadres. Other services are called Central Civil Services. These services are under the central government itself with no state cadre system. They include services such as the Indian Foreign Service, the Indian Revenue Service, Customs and Central Excise Service and several others. Code of conduct for civil servants: “Conduct Rules,” a compilation of guidelines with “do’s and don’ts,” was released in the 1930s. According to the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, every member of the service shall maintain: Integrity and honesty; Political neutrality; Promoting the principles of merit, fairness and impartiality in the discharge of duties; Accountability and transparency; Responsiveness to the public, particularly to the weaker section; Courtesy and good behaviour with the public. Code of ethics vs code of conduct rules: There is no ethical code for civil servants in India, despite similar standards exist in other nations. We have a set of guidelines that forbid a range of typical acts. These standards for behaviour have a function, but they are not a code of ethics. While the Conduct Rules provide basic guidelines such as “keeping integrity and unwavering commitment to duty,” the code of conduct is typically intended to list particular acts deemed inappropriate for civil servants. Recently, there has been some concern that additional “generic norms” should be added to the list of permitted conduct. In 2007, the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions published a draft “Public Service Bill” to establish a set of generic standards of civil servants known as “values.” The major “values” envisioned in the Bill are as follows: Allegiance to the various ideals enshrined in the preamble to the Constitution Apolitical functioning Good governance for the betterment of the people to be the primary goal of civil service Duty to act objectively and impartially Accountability and transparency in decision-making Maintenance of the highest ethical standards Merit to be the criteria in the selection of civil servants consistent, however, with the cultural, ethnic and other diversities of the nation Ensuring economy and avoidance of wastage in expenditure Provision of a healthy and congenial work environment Communication, consultation and cooperation in the performance of functions is the participation of all levels of personnel in management. Issues with the Conduct Rules: Vague: For example, while the promotion of casteism is not covered under any specific Conduct Rules, casteiest behaviour can be interpreted as “unbecoming of a member of the Service”. Ambiguous: Ideas like personal integrity are not well defined. That is why evils like taking dowry are banned but seemingly common. There is no ethical code for civil servants in India. Way Forward: Nolan Committee on Public Life Standards The Committee on Standards in Public Life (CSPL) is a non-departmental British government advisory body established in 1994 to advise the Prime Minister on ethical standards in public life. They were as follows: Selflessness: People in positions of public trust should make decisions solely in the public interest. They should not do so in order to benefit financially or in any other way for themselves, their families, or their friends. Integrity: Public officials should not bind themselves financially or otherwise to outside individuals or organisations that could sway them in the performance of their official duties. Objectivity: Holders of public office should make decisions based on merit when carrying out public business, such as making public appointments, awarding contracts, or recommending individuals for rewards and benefits. Accountability: Public officials are responsible to the public for their decisions and actions, and they must submit to whatever scrutiny is appropriate for their position. Transparency: Public officials should be as transparent as possible about all of their decisions and actions. They should give reasons for their decisions and limit information only when it is clearly in the public interest. Honesty: Public officials have a responsibility to disclose any private interests that may conflict with their public duties and to take steps to resolve any conflicts in a way that protects the public interest. Leadership: Public officials should lead by example in promoting and supporting these principles. Source:  Indian Express PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018 Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to the contracts under Article 299, consider the following statements: The President and the Governor can be personally held liable for such contracts. Article 299 delineates the manner in which these contracts will be concluded. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2. Consider the following statements: The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is an executive body. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA)looks after the cross border trade of electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3. Consider the following statements: Sivasamudram Waterfalls is on the banks Krishna River. Lakshmantirtha and the Kabbani are the right bank tributaries of Kaveri. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 31st May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here