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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Oil hypocrisy Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Oil hypocrisy of countries imposing sanctions on Russia came to the surface. About the Oil hypocrisy:- IMAGE SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH Recent reports show that the countries that banned Russian oil imports(UPSCPrelims: Understanding EU ban on Russia’s Oil) instead imported oil commodities worth €42 billion from India, China, United Arab Emirates, Singapore and Turkey after the war started 2022. These five countries were thus identified as ‘laundromats’. The five countries are responsible for 70 per cent of Russia’s crude oil exports. India emerged as the leading exporter of refined oil products at 3.7 million tonnes to Price Cap Coalition countries in 2022. This is an increase of 0.3 million tonnes from the previous year. This was followed by China at three million tonnes and the United Arab Emirates at 2.9 million tonnes. The Price Cap Coalition comprising Australia, Canada, the European Union, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States imposed a maximum price of $60 a barrel of oil transported by vessels owned or insured by some countries in the alliance to third-party countries, with the intention to dent Russia’s financing of the war(UPSCPrelims: Russia-Ukraine War impact, beyond oil).  Since the beginning of the invasion, demand for Russian crude oil has increased significantly by China, India, Turkey, UAE and Singapore. The EU was the largest importer of oil products from these laundromat countries worth €17.7 billion, despite partially banning crude oil imports from Russia last year. This was followed by Australia (€17.7 billion), the USA (€6.6 billion), the UK (€5 billion) and Japan (€4.8 billion). MUST READ: The new energy disorder SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Union Minister for Women and Child Development and Minority Affairs opened a Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) account recently. About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC):- IMAGE SOURCE: Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Form Interest Calculator – Sarkari Yojana – TheHowPedia Mahila Samman Savings Certificate Scheme was announced in the 2023-24 Union Budget (UPSCPrelims: Union Budget Summary 2023-24 ) to commemorate ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’. It is a one-time savings scheme(UPSCPrelims: Understanding Small savings schemes) for women. Objective: to empower women by increasing their participation in investments. It is a significant step towards financial inclusion and empowerment of women including girls. The two-year tenure scheme offers an attractive interest rate of 7.5 per cent compounded quarterly It will have flexible investment and partial withdrawal options with a maximum ceiling of Rs two lakh. The scheme is valid for a two-year period up to 31st March 2025. The scheme has been made available in all 1.59 lakh post offices from April 01, 2023. Deposit limits:- One can start investing in this scheme with a minimum amount of Rs. 1,000 or any other amount in multiples of Rs. 100. But one cannot make additional deposits after that. Under this scheme, one can open multiple accounts, but the maximum total investment should be Rs 2 lakh only. And each account opened should have a three-month gap between the opening date of the existing account and the new account. Eligibility Criteria:- The scheme is exclusively available to women. Any woman above 18 years of age can invest in this scheme by herself.  Also, in the case of minors, the guardian can open the account on behalf of the girl. Tax Benefits of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate:- No information has been provided by the government related to its taxability. Unless more details emerge, normal taxation as per the slab rate can be assumed for this scheme. MUST READ: Mission Shakti SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nuclear liability law Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The issues regarding India’s nuclear liability law came to continue to hold up the plan to build six nuclear power reactors in Maharashtra’s Jaitapur. About Nuclear liability law:- IMAGE SOURCE: jaitapur nuclear power plant map – Brainly.in The laws on civil nuclear liability ensure that compensation is available to the victims for nuclear damage caused by a nuclear incident or disaster and set out who will be liable for those damages.  The international nuclear liability regime consists of multiple treaties and was strengthened after the 1986 Chornobyl nuclear accident(UPSC Prelims: Place in news-Chornobyl). Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC): it is an umbrella convention adopted in 1997. Objective: Establish a minimum national compensation amount. India was a signatory to the CSC, Parliament ratified the convention in 2016. To keep in line with the international convention, India enacted the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA) in 2010, to put in place a speedy compensation mechanism for victims of a nuclear accident(UPSC CSE: Understanding India’s Nuclear Doctrine).  The CLNDA provides for strict and no-fault liability on the operator of the nuclear plant, where it will be held liable for damage regardless of any fault on its part. It establishes legal liability for nuclear harm as well as rapid compensation for victims of nuclear disasters. It specifies the experts who will assess claims of nuclear injury, sanction compensation, and provide financial assurance. It also specifies the amount the operator will have to shell out in case of damage caused by an accident and requires the operator to cover liability through insurance or other financial security. The operator’s maximum liability under Section 6(2) of the Act is Rs. 1500 crore. In case the damage claims exceed ₹1,500 crore, the CLNDA expects the government to step in, in accordance with Section 7(1)(a) of the CLND Act. However, it has limited the government liability amount to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) or about ₹2,100 to ₹2,300 crores. It specifies the limitations on the amount and time when an action for compensation can be brought against the operator. Section 7 (2) of the CLND Act provides that the Central Government may establish a “Nuclear Liability Fund” by charging such amount of levy from the operators, in such manner, as may be prescribed. Any violations of the terms of the act could result in fines. India currently has 22 nuclear reactors(UPSC CSE: Understanding India’s Nuclear Energy).  All the existing reactors are operated by the state-owned Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is a Public Sector Enterprise. It is under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. The Company was registered as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 1956.  Objective: operating atomic power plants and implementing atomic power projects for generation of electricity in pursuance of the schemes and programmes of the Government of India under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. NPCIL is responsible for design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors. Mission: To develop nuclear power technology and to produce nuclear power as a safe, environmentally benign and economically viable source of electrical energy to meet the increasing electricity needs of the country’. Objectives:- To maximise the power generation and profitability from nuclear power stations with the motto ‘safety first and production next’. To increase nuclear power generation capacity in the country, consistent with the available resources in a safe, economical and rapid manner, in keeping with the growth of energy demand in the country. To continue and strengthen QA activities relating to nuclear power programme. To develop personnel at all levels to further improve their skills and performance consistent with the high technology. To strengthen the environmental protection measures relating to nuclear power generation. MUST READ: Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The Union Minister of Science and Technology recently launched the SUPREME initiative. About Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME):- The Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME), is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology. (UPSC CSE: Science and Technology and Indian culture ) It extends financial support for repair, upgradation, maintenance, retrofitting, or acquiring additional attachments to increase the functional capabilities of existing analytical instrumentation facilities. Eligibility: Different facilities created under the projects/ Analytical instrumentation facilities (AIFs) with the support of DST only will be considered for funding support under this Scheme. UGC recognized Central Universities/ State Funded Universities/Deemed Universities /Private Universities among others are also eligible to apply under this scheme(UPSC Mains: Analyzing India’s Higher Education sector). Duration: The duration of support will be for a period not exceeding 3 years. Funding Pattern: The funding pattern in the scheme would be 75:25 for all private and government-owned institutions (except for state-funded institutions for which 100% funding would be considered). MUST READ: Foreign Universities in India PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Interbank Consortium (SCO IBC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India appealed to SCO Interbank Consortium members to increase cooperation among themselves. About SCO Interbank Consortium:- IMAGE SOURCE: SCO 2019: Opportunities and challenges for India | bilaterals.org The SCO Interbank Consortium was established by the member countries of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2005. (UPSC Prelims: Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) ) It provides funding and bank services for investment projects sponsored by the governments of the SCO member states. (UPSC Mains: Significance of SCO for India) Objective: to provide financial services, promote trade, and facilitate investment among the member states. The SCO IBC Council meets ad hoc upon the consensus of all of the parties at least once per year. The Presidency of the Council is carried out on a rotational basis. It consists of major banks from the member countries, such as the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China, the National Bank of Kazakhstan, and the Bank of Russia. The first meeting of the SCO Interbank Association was held in Beijing on 21–22 February 2006. MUST READ: 21st SCO Council Meet SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank  Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 North Sea Summit Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, nine European countries signed a declaration at the North Sea Summit. About North Sea Summit:- IMAGE SOURCE: North Sea – Kids | Britannica Kids | Homework Help The second edition of the  North Sea Summit was held in the city of Ostend in Belgium. Participant countries included: Belgium, Denmark, France, Germany, Ireland, Luxembourg, Netherlands Norway, and the United Kingdom Objective: to make the North Sea the largest green energy (UPSC CSE: Green Energy as a driving force) centre in Europe by accelerating the deployment of offshore wind turbines. The summit set ambitious targets including the production of at least 120 gigawatts (GW) of offshore wind energy(UPCS CSE: Understanding Wind Energy) in the North Sea by 2030 The first summit was held in 2022 in Denmark. It resulted in the Esbjerg Declaration MUST READ: Black Sea Security ties SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement        set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention –    Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue –     Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition –       Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 European Free Trade Association (EFTA) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India and EFTA countries discussed the resumption of talks for a trade pact. About European Free Trade Association (EFTA):- European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organisation established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention. Objective: Promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally. EFTA currently has 4 member countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The EFTA countries have developed one of the largest networks of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). (UPSC Prelims: Understanding Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) ) These FTAs span over 60 countries and territories, including the European Union (EU). In contrast to the EU(UPSC CSE: India-EU trade relations), EFTA is not a customs union. This means that the individual EFTA States are free to set their own customs tariffs and arrange other foreign trade measures vis-à-vis the non-EFTA States. Governance Structure:- EFTA’s highest governing body is the EFTA Council. The headquarters of the EFTA Secretariat is located in Geneva. EFTA Surveillance Authority (ESA): monitors compliance with European Economic Area (EEA) rules in Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway. EFTA Court: is based in Luxembourg and has the competence and authority to settle internal and external disputes regarding the implementation, application or interpretation of the EEA agreement. MUST READ: India-EU: Trade talks SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its form 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Q.2) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (2017) European Union Gulf Cooperation Council Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development Shanghai Cooperation Organization Indiahandmade portal Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the government launched a new e-commerce portal ‘Indiahandmade’. About Indiahandmade:- Indiahandmade Portal is an e-commerce portal(UPSC CSE: Understanding e-commerce) launched by the Indian Government. Objective: Empower artisans and weavers by providing them with a platform to sell their products directly to customers. This initiative is part of the government’s efforts to promote local artisans and craftsmanship and support the “Vocal for Local” movement. (UPSC Mains: understanding ‘vocal for local’ strategy) It provides a platform for artisans and weavers to showcase their products to a wide customer base. It connects artisans and weavers directly to buyers through a common platform. Indiahandmade Portal offers an opportunity for weavers and artisans to become future e-entrepreneurs. The portal provides free handholding to sellers from registration to order fulfilment, helping them with logistics, payments, and other aspects of online selling.  This empowers weavers and artisans with the necessary tools and support to become successful e-entrepreneurs and grow their businesses. The portal does not charge any commission from sellers, ensuring that artisans and weavers receive the full value of their products.  Free shipping is provided to customers, making it convenient and cost-effective for them to purchase products from the portal. It also provides a return option to customers, ensuring a seamless buying experience. Multiple payment gateways are available for customers to pay online, providing flexibility and convenience in payment options.  The portal complements the PM-VIKAS initiative by providing a platform for artisans and weavers to showcase their products and sell them directly to customers.  PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman Yojana (PM-VIKAS): aims to provide small artisans and craftsmen with training on quality, scale, and reach, as well as access to advanced skill training, modern digital techniques, brand promotion, linkage with local and global markets, digital payments, and social security. MUST READ: Empowering MSMEs digitally SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Achieving Universal Health Care Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Universal Health Care can help to address the current health disparities that exist in India, as it would ensure that everyone, regardless of their social status, has access to essential health services. About Universal Health Coverage/Care: The United Nations defines UHC as “everyone, everywhere should have access to the health services they need without risk of financial hardship.” Sustainable Development Goals target 3.8 also focuses on achieving universal health coverage. In the context of India, this includes health promotion, prevention, treatment, rehabilitation, and palliative care, without experiencing any financial hardship or risk of impoverishment. The Evolution of Universal Health Care: In 1977, the World Health Assembly endorsed the slogan “Health for All by 2000,” implying universalization. Thus, nobody is denied this and everybody is eligible without being discriminated against on the basis of financial status, gender, race, place of residence, affordability to pay, or any other factors. India committed itself to this goal through its National Health Policy in 1983. India’s Initiatives for UHC: National Health Mission (NHM): NHM was launched by the Union Government in 2013 subsuming the National Rural Health Mission (2005) and the National Urban Health Mission (2013). Main components: Health System Strengthening Reproductive-Maternal- Neonatal-Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases NHM envisages achievement of universal access to equitable, affordable & quality health care services that are accountable and responsive to people’s needs. Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0: Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 is an Integrated Nutrition Support Programme. It seeks to address the challenges of malnutrition in children, adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers through a strategic shift in nutrition content and delivery and by creation of a convergent eco-system to develop and promote practices that nurture health, wellness and immunity. Components: Nutrition Support for POSHAN through Supplementary Nutrition Programme (SNP); Early Childhood Care and Education [3-6 years] and early stimulation for (0-3 years); Anganwadi Infrastructure including modern, upgraded Saksham Anganwadi; and Poshan Abhiyaan aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum r National Food Security Act (NFSA): The Union Government provides food grains at low cost under the NFSA. The act aims to ensure people’s food and nutritional security by assuring access to enough high-quality food at reasonable prices. Advantages of Universal health coverage in India: Improved access to health services: UHC would ensure that all Indians have access to necessary healthcare services, including preventive care, treatment, and rehabilitation, regardless of their financial status or geographic location. Better health outcomes: Access to healthcare services will improve health outcomes and reduce mortality rates by diagnosing and treating illnesses and diseases at an earlier stage. Reduced financial burden: UHC would protect individuals and families from catastrophic healthcare expenses, reducing the financial burden on households and preventing them from falling into poverty due to healthcare costs. Increased government accountability: UHC would increase government accountability in healthcare, as the government would be responsible for ensuring that all citizens have access to essential health services. Increased productivity: Improved health outcomes would lead to increased productivity and economic growth as a healthy workforce is more productive. Challenges in Implementing UHC in India: Inequitable Access to Health Insurance: The lowest coverage of health insurance is among households with the lowest wealth quintile and underprivileged sections, indicating a lack of equitable access to health insurance. The NFHS-5 results paint a different picture for India, where insurance coverage is lowest (36.1%) among households with the lowest wealth quintile. Lack of Financial Protection: Despite the existence of schemes like Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, the average out-of-pocket expenditure per delivery in public health facilities is still high, particularly in urban areas. The latest report of NFHS revealed that the average out-of-pocket expenditure per delivery in a public health facility is Rs. 2,916, which in the case of urban and rural stands at Rs. 3,385 and Rs. 2,770. Inclusion and Exclusion Errors in Health Insurance Policies: Recent studies have shown that like earlier health insurance policies, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) is also not free from inclusion and exclusion errors, which could lead to the inclusion of ineligible households and exclusion of eligible households. Availability of Services: Although 56% of empanelled hospitals under the PMJAY are in the public sector, 40% are in the private for-profit sector, indicating that the availability of services may be concentrated in areas with previous experience implementing publicly funded health insurance schemes. Inadequate Infrastructure: In many low- and middle-income countries, the lack of proper infrastructure is a significant challenge to achieving UHC. This includes inadequate health facilities, inadequate equipment, and inadequate medical supplies. There is a shortfall of 79.5% of specialists at the Community Health Centers (CHCs) as compared to the requirement. Poor Health Education: Lack of education and awareness regarding healthy lifestyles and preventive health measures can lead to an increase in preventable illnesses and conditions. Way Forward: India’s National Health Mission, with concurrent intersectoral thrusts on Poshan Abhiyan, National Food Security, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, etc., is a better model of fully tax-funded Universal Health Care. Thus, moving forward with a newer concept of Universal Health Care is necessary to encompass primary, secondary, and tertiary care for all who need it at an affordable cost without discrimination. Source:  The Hindu MUST READ:   India’s Healthcare Sector Welcome to the brain economy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: emergence of brain economy in recent times, that is Technology driven knowledge based economy, which will change the way we look at labour, capital and skills. About Brain Economy: Source:   https://www.nature.com The Brain Economy refers to the shift towards a knowledge-based economy where the primary source of economic growth is driven by innovation and creativity, and the ability to generate, process, and use knowledge effectively. Advantages of the brain economy Higher Productivity: With advancements in technology and automation, the brain economy has the potential to significantly increase productivity and efficiency. Improved Quality of Life: Brain-based work can create jobs that are less physically demanding and more intellectually stimulating. This can lead to an improved quality of life for those who work in the brain economy. Increased Innovation: Brain-based work is about rapid innovation and creation, driven by technology. This can lead to new products, services, and technologies that can enhance people’s lives. Amazon, for example, has brains that create new offerings, skills that maintain their vast data centres and bodies that deliver packages to homes. Increased Collaboration: The brain economy requires collaboration across different fields, disciplines, and cultures. This can lead to increased cooperation and understanding among people from diverse backgrounds. Consistency in Social Progress: Technology and brain power can be used to address social and environmental challenges, such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and healthcare. Much Flexibility: With technology, brain-based work can be done from anywhere, at any time, providing greater flexibility for workers and businesses. Easy Access to Information: Technology has made it easier than ever to access information and knowledge, which can help to create a more informed and educated society. Personal Development: Brain-based work requires continuous learning and personal development, which can lead to increased self-awareness, creativity, and adaptability. Challenges for the brain economy: Inequality: The brain economy has the potential to exacerbate inequality by assigning exponentially differential values to body, skill, and brain. This can lead to a widening gap between those who have access to education and training in advanced technology and those who do not. Ethical dilemmas: As technology continues to evolve and become more integrated into the brain economy, ethical dilemmas around privacy, inclusivity, fairness, and the impact on social issues such as gender parity and wealth sharing may arise. Regulatory challenges: The fast-paced nature of technology development in the brain economy may pose regulatory challenges for policymakers and regulators. There may be a need for more agile and responsive regulatory frameworks to keep pace with technological developments. Access to technology: Not everyone may have access to the technology required to participate in the brain economy, leading to a digital divide and further exacerbating inequality. Job displacement: The rise of the brain economy may result in the displacement of jobs that require physical labor or lower levels of skill, leading to job losses in certain sectors. This may also require significant retraining and upskilling of workers in order to adapt to the new demands of the economy. Societal impacts: The widespread adoption of technology in the brain economy may have significant societal impacts, such as changes to the nature of work, social relationships, and human behavior. It will be important to monitor these impacts and take steps to mitigate any negative effects. Environmental impact: The growth of the brain economy may lead to increased energy consumption and environmental impact, particularly as new technologies such as quantum computing and genetic engineering become more prevalent. It will be important to consider the environmental impact of these technologies and take steps to mitigate any negative effects. Way Forward: There is a need to abandon outdated stereotypes of evil corporations, sinful profits and inhuman technology. The myth of man vs machine needs to be ended. Technology doesn’t destroy jobs, instead It creates jobs, liberates people and drives social progress. The education architecture of the country needs to be revamped. Students and teachers in primary and secondary education need to be equipped with technology. Failures in experimentation and creation in schools should be celebrated. Multidisciplinary research universities should be created on a war footing. Courses in different aspects of technology must be made mandatory for all liberal arts programmes, just like liberal arts courses should be made mandatory in all science and technology departments. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following countries: Belgium Sweden France Finland the United Kingdom which of the above countries borders with the North Sea? 1 3 and 4 only 2 4 and 5 only 1 3 and 5 only All of the above Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME) Initiative: It extends financial support for repair, upgradation, maintenance, retrofitting, or acquiring additional attachments to increase the functional capabilities of existing analytical instrumentation facilities. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to India’s Nuclear Energy, which of the following statements is not correct? India is signatory to the Convention on Supplementary Compensation which ensures compensation is available to the victims for nuclear damage caused by a nuclear incident or disaster India currently has 25 nuclear reactors All the existing reactors are operated by the state-owned Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) NPCIL works under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 47] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 47-> Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, UNPFII called for inclusion of indigenous people in socio-economic development, and conservation of the environment. About United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII):- IMAGE SOURCE: Fourth World: Least Developed Countries And A Look At Their Economy (valuewalk.com) The United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) is a high-level advisory body to the Economic and Social Council. The Forum was established on 28 July 2000 by resolution 2000/22. It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights. The first meeting of the Permanent Forum was held in May 2002, with yearly sessions thereafter. The Forum usually meets for 10 days each year, at the UN Headquarters in New York. The Permanent Forum is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with indigenous peoples’ issues. The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and the Special Rapporteur on the Rights of indigenous peoples. The UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues is the largest international gathering of Indigenous Peoples, with more than 1000 participants expected to attend. The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023.  It has the theme “Indigenous Peoples, human health, planetary and territorial health and climate change: a rights-based Approach”. MUST READ: United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements (2016) The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Manamadurai pottery Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu’s Manamadurai pottery got a GI tag. About Manamadurai Pottery:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Ceramic Pottery PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:5649934 (slideserve.com) Manamadurai, a small village in the Sivagangai district of Tamil Nadu, is known for its pottery making. The tradition has been passed down from generation to generation, and today, Manamadurai pottery is recognized worldwide for its unique style and craftsmanship. The main raw material used for making Manamadurai pottery is mud. The clay used for the pottery is enriched by the Vaigai River which runs through the village. The Vaigai River contributes to the quality of the clay used in the pottery, making it ideal for the process. The making of Manamadurai pottery involves the use of the five elements of nature, namely, earth, water, fire, air, and space. These elements are believed to give the pots a unique quality that cannot be replicated by modern machinery. To improve the quality of the pottery, sand is added to the clay mixture. Lead, graphite, calcium lime, ash, red lead, sodium silicate, manganese, iron, and plasticizing are added to the mixture to make the pottery strong. Pot making requires expertise and is one of the most critical factors in proportion. The bottom of the pot has to be perfectly round, and the circumference of the pot and the neck should be proportionate. MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                   Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh       Terracotta art Ganeshwar                 Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                               Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls                   Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery                    Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris             Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Zero Shadow Day Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Bengaluru saw Zero Shadow Day. About Zero Shadow Day:- IMAGE SOURCE: YOUTH TREND ‘Zero Shadow Day’ is an astronomical event that occurs twice a year on specific dates in some parts of the world. It is a phenomenon that occurs when the Sun is directly overhead.  The shadows of vertical objects such as poles, trees, and buildings disappear completely for a brief period of time during this. There are two zero shadow days every year in May and July/August, observed in places that lie between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn. One fall during the Uttarayan (when the Sun moves northwards). The other is during Dakshinayan (when the Sun moves southwards). It lasts for a small part of a second, but the effect can be seen for a minute to a minute-and-a-half. Ramanujam explained that the Sun’s location moves from 23.5°N to 23.5°S of Earth’s equator and back. All places whose latitude equals the angle between the Sun’s location and the equator on that day experience zero shadow day, with the shadow beneath an object at local noon. MUST READ: Aditya-L1 Mission SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Thirunelly temple Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) has urged the government to conserve the Thirunelly temple. About Thirunelly temple:- IMAGE SOURCE: temple architecture types – Bing images The Thirunelly Maha Vishnu temple is an iconic temple in Wayanad, Kerala near Brahmagiri hills.  It is also known as ”Sahyamala Kshetram” and ”Kashi of the South”. Thirunelly Temple embodies classical, traditional Kerala architecture.  A famous pilgrim centre, this temple, which is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. It is considered an important pilgrimage centre for Hindus. It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, the holy river, which is believed to have the power to wash away sins, Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha. The temple has a unique circular structure made of granite stones, which is believed to have been constructed by Lord Brahma himself. The shrine is shielded with 30 granite columns and the ground is paved with huge square pieces of granite. It has beautiful architecture and features intricate carvings, mural paintings, and sculptures. Thirunelli Temple is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death. On the western side of the temple is the cave temple Gunnika, dedicated to Lord Shiva. MUST READ: Srisailam Temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Tughlaqabad Fort Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Delhi HC asked the ASI to remove encroachments around the Tughlaqabad Fort. About Tughlaqabad Fort:- The Tughlaqabad Fort in Delhi which is in complete ruins now, was built by Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq. Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq: The first Sultan of the Tughlaq Dynasty in 1321. Curse of the Tomb: The legend has it that Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq wanted a powerful fortress which could stand up to a Mongol assault. Hence, soon after he ascended the throne, he began to work on the township and made it mandatory for all the workers of Delhi to work on the fort.  Around the same time, Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, a mystic Sufi Saint was building a Baoli (step well) at his khanqah (dwelling place). The workers worked all day at the fort and night, they would work on the Baoli. This angered the Sultan. He banned the supply of oil to Nizamuddin so that the lamps could not be lit at the construction site of the Baoli. It infuriated Nizamuddin Auliya and he used his mystical powers to turn the water of the well into oil. He also cursed Tughlaqabad saying, “Ya rahe ujjar ya base gujjar,” (either it will be left desolate or occupied by the nomadic herdsmen). The fortified city was built in four years on the rocky terrain, as a defence mechanism. It is in two parts, the citadel and palaces along the southern walls forming one unit and the city to the north the other. Across the main entrance from the south is Ghiyathu’d-Din’s tomb is located. It is faced with red sandstone relieved by marble, and with batter on the exterior. It is enclosed within high walls forming an irregular pentagon. Ghiyathu’d-Din’s successor, Muhammad Tughluq (1325-51), added the small fortress of ‘Adilabad’ on the hill south of Tughluqabad, with which it shares the main characteristics of construction. MUST READ: Raigad fort SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022) The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the northwest of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Quasars Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies show that Galaxy mergers ignite ‘quasars’. About Quasars:- IMAGE SOURCE: Quasars INFO – Bing images Quasars are the brightest and the most powerful objects in the universe. A quasar is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN), in which a supermassive black hole with mass ranging from millions to billions of times the mass of the Sun is surrounded by a gaseous accretion disk. As gas in the disk falls towards the black hole, energy is released in the form of electromagnetic radiation. The power radiated by quasars is enormous.  The most powerful quasars have luminosities thousands of times greater than a galaxy such as the Milky Way. Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre which sucks in surrounding objects. Quasars are formed by the energy emitted by materials spiralling around a black hole right before being sucked into it. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Wheat blast Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent spread of the Wheat blast threatens food security globally. About Wheat Blast:- The wheat blast is a fungal disease.  It affects wheat production in tropical and subtropical regions. It is caused by Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT).  It was identified in Brazil in 1985. The fungus infects wild and cultivated grasses, most notably rice and wheat. It spreads through infected seeds, and crop residues as well as by spores that can travel long distances in the air. It spread to major-wheat producing areas in the country and then to other South American countries like Bolivia, Paraguay, and Argentina. Asia’s first outbreak of this pathogenic wheat blast was reported in Bangladesh in 2016. MUST READ: India and Wheat Exports SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ajeya Warrior 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, the exercise ‘Ajeya Warrior 2023’ took place. About Ajeya Warrior 2023:- It is a bilateral training exercise between the armies of India and the UK. This is the 7th edition of the exercise. It aims to improve interoperability between the two forces while carrying out operations in accordance with UN mandates. The exercise will witness the participation of an infantry company from India and a unit of equal strength from the British Army. The soldiers of both countries will practice using each other’s weapons, war tactics, equipment, war strategies, and procedures for conducting combined military operations in difficult situations. In addition, there will also be a number of expert academic discussions on a range of topics of common interest, such as the combined arms concept, operation logistics, sharing of joint force experience, etc. MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (2016) European Union Gulf Cooperation Council Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development Shanghai Cooperation Organization Q.2) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (2016) ASEAN BRICS EU G20 Gig Workers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Rajasthan Government is about to bring the Rajasthan Platform-based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023, which has stringent provisions against errant aggregators, including barring them from operating in the State. About Gig Economy: A gig economy is a free market system in which organisations hire or contract workers for a short span of time. Simply put, the positions are temporary to meet the company’s requirements by having short-term engagements. Startups like Ola, Uber, Zomato, and Swiggy have established themselves as the main source of the gig economy in India. India and Gig Economy: In 2020, 7.7 million workers were engaged in the gig economy. The gig workforce is expected to expand to 5 million workers by 2029-30. At present about 47% of the gig work is in medium skilled jobs, about 22% in high skilled, and about 31% in low skilled jobs. Trend shows the concentration of workers in medium skills is gradually declining and that of the low skilled and high skilled is increasing. It may be expected that while the domination of medium skills would continue till 2030, gig work with other skills will emerge. About Gig workers: According to the Code on Social Security, 2020 (India), “A gig worker is a person who performs work or participates in work arrangements and earns from such activities, outside of the traditional employer-employee relationship.” They are independent contractors, online platform workers, contract firm workers, on-call workers and temporary workers. Reasons for a rise in Gig Workers: Post Pandemic: The trend accelerated during the 2020 COVID-19 pandemic, the gig economy experienced significant increases as gig workers delivered necessities to home-bound consumers, and those whose jobs had been eliminated turned to part-time and contract work for income. Freedom to work from anywhere: These types of positions facilitate independent contracting work, with many of them not requiring a freelancer to come into an office. Wide Range of Applicants: Employers also have a wider range of applicants to choose from because they don’t have to hire someone based on their proximity. Rise of Technology and Internet: Rise of fast internet and smartphones have made it easier to work from anywhere easily. Convenient for Small Organisations: Employers who cannot afford to hire full-time employees to do all the work will often hire part-time or temporary employees to take care of busier times or specific projects. More income with more work: People often find they need to move or take multiple positions to afford the lifestyle they want. It’s also common to change careers many times throughout a lifetime, so the gig economy can be viewed as a reflection of this occurring on a large scale. Benefits Employers: Employers do not need to provide related benefits, such as medical insurance, Provident Fund, and year-end bonuses which make it a better option for them to pay only for work on a unit basis. Work for All: Students can choose lower-skilled jobs and work without academic or professional qualifications. Retirees, housewives, etc. may find it difficult to find part-time jobs on weekdays, but now they can make good use of their spare time to earn extra money. Issues related to Gig Workers in India: Lack of Job and Social Security: Many gig workers in India are not covered by labour codes and do not have access to benefits such as health insurance and retirement plans. Additionally, gig workers often do not receive the same level of protection as traditional employees in the event of injury or illness. Digital Divide: The gig economy heavily relies on technology and internet access, this creates a barrier for those who lack access to these resources, and further exacerbates income inequality. Lack of Data: There is a lack of data and research on the gig economy in India which makes it difficult for policy makers to understand its size, scope, and impact on the economy and workforce. Exploitation by Companies: Gig workers in India are often paid less than traditional employees and may not have the same legal protections. Some companies may also exploit gig workers by misclassifying them as independent contractors to avoid liability and avoid paying taxes. Steps Taken by Government of India for Gig Workers Code of Social Security, 2020: The Government has formulated the Code on Social Security, 2020 which envisages framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. However, these provisions under the Code have not come into force. Platform workers are those whose work is based on online software apps or digital platforms. Non-platform gig workers are generally casual wage workers and own-account workers in the conventional sectors, working part-time or full time. e-Shram Portal: The Government has also launched e-Shram portal in 2021 for registration and creation of a Comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers including gig workers and platform workers. It allows a person to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, which is spread across around 400 occupations. Way Forward: Social Security Blanket: The government should ensure that gig workers have access to social security programs such as pension schemes and health insurance to ensure financial security for older workers. Education and Training: The government should invest in education and training programs for gig workers to improve their skills and increase their earning potential. Encourage Fair Competition and Innovation: Government can encourage fair competition by having regulations that prevent companies from misclassifying workers as independent contractors and by enforcing fair trade practices. Source:  Hindustan Times 50 Years of Kesavananda Bharati Case and its Legacy Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The seminal ruling in Kesavananda Bharati, in which the Supreme Court laid down the “basic structure” doctrine on the limits of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, recently completed 50 years. The Supreme Court’s 13 judges bench in the Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973 articulated the “doctrine of basic structure”. According to this doctrine, the Parliament cannot use its amending power under Article 368 to destroy the basic structure of the Indian constitution such as democracy, secularism, federalism, judicial independence, etc. The basic structure doctrine is a judicial principle that limits the power of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution. The significance of this case: Established Supremacy of the Constitution: It established the supremacy of the Constitution over the Parliament and the executive and limited their power to amend the Constitution without affecting its basic features. Protected Fundamental Rights: It preserved the democratic and federal nature of the Constitution and protected the rights and freedoms of the citizens from arbitrary or authoritarian amendments. Judicial Review: It asserted the judicial review power of the Supreme Court to examine the validity of any constitutional amendment and strike it down if it violated the basic structure doctrine. Primacy of Fundamental Rights over DPSPs: It resolved the conflict between the fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy, and harmonized them by giving primacy to the former over the latter. Judiciary power to define “basic structure”: It paved the way for subsequent judgments that expanded and enriched the basic structure doctrine, such as the Minerva Mills case (1980), which added secularism and judicial independence as basic features, and the Indira Gandhi case (1975), which invalidated the 39th Amendment that sought to immunize the election of the Prime Minister from judicial scrutiny. Doctrine of Basic Structure: The Constitutional Bench in Kesavananda Bharati case ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution. However, the court did not define the term ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism, democracy — as being its part. The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include – The supremacy of the Constitution, The rule of law, Independence of the judiciary, Doctrine of separation of powers, Sovereign democratic republic, The parliamentary system of government, The principle of free and fair elections, Welfare state, etc. An example of the application of basic structure is the SR Bommai case (1994). In this case the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of BJP governments by the President following the demolition of the Babri Masjid, invoking a threat to secularism by these governments. Application of the doctrine in 50 years: Since 1973, the year of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Constitution has been amended more than 60 times. In these five decades, the Supreme Court has tested constitutional amendments against the doctrine of basic structure in at least 16 cases. In nine of these 16 cases, the Supreme Court has upheld constitutional amendments that had been challenged on grounds of violation of the basic structure doctrine. Six of these cases relate to reservations — including the quota for Other Backward Classes (OBC) and Economically Weaker Section (EWS), and reservations in promotions. National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC): The Supreme Court has struck down a constitutional amendment entirely just once — The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014. The Act established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), the body that would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges, replacing the current Collegium system. The amendment was struck down by a five-judge Constitution Bench in 2015 on the grounds that it threatened “judicial independence”, which the court ruled was a basic feature of the Constitution. Partially struck down: In six instances since 1973, including the Kesavananda ruling itself, the Supreme Court has “partially struck down” a constitutional amendment. In all these cases, the provision that was struck down related to the denial of judicial review. Just one of these six rulings involve an amendment that was not made during the Indira Gandhi era — in Kihoto Hollohan, which dealt with the Tenth Schedule. Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others (1992): The Supreme Court upheld The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act that introduced the Tenth Schedule or the so-called “anti-defection law” in the Constitution. The only portion of the amendment that was struck down was the one that stated that the decisions of the Speaker relating to disqualification cannot be judicially reviewed. In 2021, a three-judge Bench of the court struck down a portion of The Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011, but on procedural — not basic structure — grounds. The amendment changed the legal regime for cooperative societies Way Forward: The Basic Structure Doctrine is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution, which has been instrumental in ensuring the preservation of the fundamental principles of democracy and protecting the rights of citizens. Its establishment in the Kesavananda Bharati case is a testament to the strength and resilience of India’s democratic institutions and the judiciary’s commitment to upholding the Constitution. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Thirunelly temple: It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, , Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha. It is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death. Which of the statements given above i/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the statements given below is not correct regarding the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII)? It is a high-level advisory body to the UN Economic and Social Council. It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights. The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023. It has the theme ““Indigenous peoples, business, autonomy and the human rights principles of due diligence including free, prior and informed consent”. Q.3) Manamadurai pottery recently receives Geographical Indication Tag belong to Kerala Odisha Tamil Nadu Telangana Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 46] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 46-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23 report suggested that States’ gross fiscal deficit is set to fall in 2022-23. About State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23:- IMAGE SOURCE: Summary of the Economic Survey 2022-23 | A2Z Taxcorp LLP State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23″ is a report by RBI. It is a comprehensive analysis of the financial position of the Indian states, including the trends and challenges in their revenue and expenditure. Key Findings of the Report:- According to the RBI report, states’ debt is expected to decrease to 29.5% of GDP in 2022-23, compared to 31.1% in 2020-21. The report also highlights that this is still higher than the 20% recommended by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee in 2018. States are anticipating an increase in non-tax revenue, which is generated from sources such as fees, fines, and royalties. This increase is likely to be driven by revenue from industries and general services. The report notes that states are expecting to see an increase in revenue from various sources such as State GST, excise taxes, and sales taxes in the 2022-2023 fiscal year. Measures Suggested in the Report:- The report suggests that debt consolidation should be a priority for state governments. Debt consolidation: the process of combining multiple debts into a single, more manageable debt. By allocating more resources to key sectors such as healthcare, education, infrastructure, and green energy, the states can promote economic growth and development. The report is proposing that it would be beneficial to establish a fund that would be used to buffer capital expenditure during periods of strong revenue growth. In order to attract private investment, state governments should focus on creating a favourable environment for the private sector to operate and grow. States also need to encourage and facilitate higher inter-state trade and commerce to realize the full benefit of spillover effects of state capex across the country. MUST READ: RBI- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?(2021) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: PM Modi is to attend the 20th anniversary of SWAGAT initiative in Gujarat via video conferencing soon. About State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT):- IMAGE SOURCE: State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT), India (slideshare.net) The SWAGAT initiative of the Government of Gujarat was started in 2003. It is an innovative concept that enables direct communication between the citizens and the Chief Minister, as also between the citizens and other functionaries of the Government. The fourth Thursday of every month is designated as SWAGAT day, wherein the highest office in administration attends to the grievances of the common man. There is a three-tier grievance redressal system under SWAGAT – at State, District andTaluka levels. It is now extended to the village level also. Grievances submitted at the taluka and district levels are first resolved by the authorities at the respective levels and, thereafter, all pending grievances are reviewed by the Chief Minister himself. An applicant under SWAGAT is given a unique ID through which he/she can access the case details and status online. Complaints are divided into three categories Policy Matters-where a gap in the policy requires attention Long Pending -where the case has remained unresolved for at least 6 months after initial application. First Timer – cases are first referred to the concerned subordinate office for attention. The focus in SWAGAT is primarily on the long pending issues. SWAGAT program up to the village level, named as GRAM SWAGAT, was launched on 1st February 2011. SWAGAT Online program going rural has helped the rural people living even in the remotest corner of the state to get their problems solved quickly. Following impacts have been noticed of the SWAGAT initiative:- Public accountability has been strengthened Citizen satisfaction increased as grievances were attended at the highest level Monitoring system focuses attention on unresolved cases Transparency is brought about as all stakeholders are present during the interaction with Chief Minister Inputs from all – citizens, officers and elected representatives- leads to fair decisions Activates local level administration by requiring local level grievance to be resolved to the extent possible before they escalate to state level. MUST READ: Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.2) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 LockBit ransomware Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the LockBit ransomware was found to be targeting Mac devices. About LockBit ransomware:- IMAGE SOURCE: ransomware INFO – Bing images It was first reported in September 2019 and dubbed the “abcd” virus, due to the file extension used when encrypting victims’ files.  The LockBit ransomware is designed to infiltrate victims’ systems and encrypt important files. The virus is categorized as a “cryptovirus” due to its requests for payment in cryptocurrency to decrypt files on the victim’s device. The ransomware is therefore typically deployed against victims who feel hindered enough by the disruption to pay heavy sums in exchange for access to the files and can afford to do so. The gang behind the LockBit ransomware reportedly maintains a dark web portal to recruit members and release data of victims who refuse to meet their demands, as part of their business model. In the past, LockBit ransomware has been used to target enterprises and organizations in the U.S., China, India, Ukraine, and Indonesia.  Attacks have also been recorded throughout Europe, including France, Germany, and the U.K. Working:- It works as a self-spreading malware, not requiring additional instructions once it has successfully infiltrated a single device with access to an organisational intranet. It also known to hide executable encryption files by disguising them in the PNG format, thereby avoiding detection by system defences. Attackers use phishing tactics and other social engineering methods to impersonate trusted personnel or authorities to lure victims into sharing credentials.  Once it has gained access, the ransomware prepares the system to release its encryption payload across as many devices as possible.  It then disables security programs and other infrastructures that could permit system data recovery. The goal is to ensure that data recovery without assistance from the LockBit gang is impossible. Once this is ensured, the ransomware places an encryption lock on all system files, which can only be unlocked via a custom key created by the LockBit gang. The process leaves behind a ransom note, with instructions to restore the system, and has reportedly also included threatening blackmail messages. Victims are then left with no choice but to contact the LockBit gang and pay up for the data. MUST READ: India’s cyber infrastructure SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2018) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Misinformation Combat Alliance (MCA) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Misinformation Combat Alliance mooted multi-stakeholder consultative approach for the self-regulatory organisation (SRO). About Misinformation Combat Alliance:- MCA is an alliance of media companies set up in March 2022. It was set up to combat misinformation and build tools to aid fact-checking. It is a cross-industry alliance bringing companies, organizations, institutions, industry associations and government entities together to combat misinformation and fake news and create an enlightened and informed society. Objective: combatting and limiting the spread of misinformation through targeted interventions and activities. It is currently a network of 14 digital publishers which includes publications such as Boom Live, Factly, The Logical Indian, Vishwas News and The Quint. Membership in the MCA is open to any organization that applies. MUST READ: Fake News on social media SOURCE: THE ECONOMICS TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements: (2022) SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Operation Kaveri Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the first batch under Operation Kaveri was sent. About Operation Kaveri:- India has initiated an operation to evacuate its nationals from conflict-hit Sudan. The operation was launched in response to the conflict and breakdown of essential services in Sudan that had brought the country to a standstill. Stranded Indian citizens are being evacuated from Port Sudan. India has positioned two transport aircraft of the IAF in the Saudi Arabian city of Jeddah and a naval ship at a key port in Sudan as part of its contingency plans to evacuate its stranded nationals. The choice of naming this operation as ‘Operation Kaveri’ has a lot of significance. Kaveri is sacred to the people of the region and is worshipped as the Goddess Kaveriamma (mother Kaveri). It’s like a mother who will ensure she will bring her children back to safety. MUST READ: Operation Sadbhavana SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Exercise INIOCHOS-23 Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the Indian Air Force (IAF) will be participating in Exercise INIOCHOS-23. About Exercise INIOCHOS-23:- It is a multi-national air exercise hosted by the Hellenic Air Force.  The exercise will be conducted at the Andravida Air Base in Greece from 24 Apr 2023 to 04 May 2023. The Indian Air Force will be participating with four Su-30 MKI and two C-17 aircraft. The objective of the exercise is to enhance international cooperation, synergy and interoperability amongst the participating Air Forces. The exercise will be conducted in a realistic combat scenario involving multiple types of air and surface assets.  It will also enable the participating contingents to engage in professional interactions, providing valuable insight into each other’s best practices. MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2019) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen Relative humidity Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recent climate brings to surface importance of the phenomenon of Relative humidity. About Relative humidity:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Earth Science Chapter 18.1 – Water in the Atmosphere PowerPoint Presentation – ID:2253354 (slideserve.com) Humidity is the amount of moisture in the air around us. There are three ways to track it:- Absolute humidity: the mass of water vapour in a given volume of the air and water vapour mixture, expressed as kg/m3. Specific humidity: equal to the mass of the moisture divided by the mass of air.  It is expressed as a dimensionless number (but sometimes also as grams per kilogram, among other similar units.) Relative humidity: it factors in the amount of vapour that air can hold at different temperatures. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. Relative Humidity = [Actual amount of water vapor in air (absolute humidity)/humidity at saturation point (the maximum water vapor air can hold at a given temperature)] X 100 With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. Relative humidity is greater over the oceans and least over the continents (absolute humidity is greater over oceans because of greater availability of water for evaporation). The relative humidity determines the amount and rate of evaporation and hence it is an important climatic factor. Air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be ‘saturated’. At this temperature, the air cannot hold any additional amount of moisture. Thus, relative humidity of the saturated air is 100%. If the air has half the amount of moisture that it can carry, then it is unsaturated and its relative humidity is only 50%. MUST READ: Cloudbursts SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June Second half of the month of June First half of the month of July Second half of the month of July Safe City Project Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Delhi Lieutenant Governor has asked the Delhi Police to implement the ambitious Safe City Project in the city by August. About Safe City Project:- The project aims to curb crime against women and address safety issues sensitively.  It aims to use technology and ensure the prompt availability of professionally equipped police personnel to reach women in distress. Key features :-  10,582 CCTV cameras will be installed in places frequented by women. A command and control centre will be set up with facilities like video analytics, artificial intelligence, machine learning, facial recognition system, etc. at police headquarters, district headquarters and police stations. Integration of various data sets (32) and CCTV projects under various schemes of Delhi Police, with the Safe City Project platform. 2 mobile command and control vehicles to be deployed. 88 Prakhar Vans equipped with MDT (mobile data terminal), communication devices, body worn cameras, vehicle mounted cameras, GPS, etc. Provision for collaborative monitoring by integration of CCTV projects of other departments, in future. GIS Mapping of CCTV cameras under Safe City Project as well as other schemes of Delhi Police for installation of CCTV cameras, to avoid duplication. Integration of location-based services and crime and criminal databases with CCTV feeds for prompt and effective resolution of women’s safety issues at public places. Analysis of video and creation of actionable warnings or alerts for preventive and curative actions. The cost of the project is Rs 798 crore and is being funded by the Centre under the Nirbhaya fund. MUST READ: Mission Shakti SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal (2019) Groups (PVTGs) in India: PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Criminalization of Politics Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Citizens have reconciled to a failed criminal justice system and thus not only do they elect MPs and MLAs with criminal records but also applaud extra judicial killings. About criminalisation of politics: The criminalisation of politics means the rising participation of criminals and people facing criminal charges in politics. The term indicates people with criminal backgrounds becoming politicians and elected representatives. Criminalisation of politics in India: It has been observed that over the last four general elections, there has been an alarming increase in the incidence of criminals in politics. In 2004, 24% of the Members of Parliament had criminal cases pending against them; in 2009, that went up to 30%; in 2014 to 34%; and in 2019 as many as 43% of MPs had criminal cases pending against them. According to the Association of Democratic Reforms (ADR), Nearly half of the recently elected Lok Sabha members have criminal charges against them. This is a 26% increase as compared to 2014. In November 2017, the Supreme Court had ordered the setting-up of Special Courts in each state to try the pending cases. Accordingly, 12 such courts were set up across the country. Reasons for Criminalisation of Politics: Lack of Political Will: It remains the most persistent problem. Till date most efforts to reform the electoral system have been taken by EC and the Supreme Court (SC) only. It is parliament’s responsibility to amend the Representation of People Act 1951, which deals with disqualification of candidates against whom charges have been proved in court for serious offences. Muscle Power and Corruption: Use of muscle power by politicians to collect votes in their favour. Also, the use of money and other freebies in form of cash and kind both affect the final results of the election to a large extent. Model Code of Conduct: Its blatant violation is seen in almost all elections. Limited Awareness: Making voters aware of candidates with criminal antecedents has its limitations. Lack of Governance: The SC’s orders or other legal mechanisms are not fully followed thereby creating an anarchic environment in the country. Law breakers end up becoming law makers. Polarisation Towards Caste/Religions: People still go by the caste system and favour candidates on its basis instead of considering the actual background of the candidate. Issues of Criminalization of Politics: Elected members with criminal records: Nearly 40 percent of members of the current Parliament have criminal cases pending against them. Most of them do not feel vulnerable or threatened as they are aware that it will take years for trials to conclude. Question of safety and security: The main purpose of governance is to provide safety and security to citizens who elect their representatives for this role. But if the elected members themselves have criminal records, would they be interested in a criminal justice system that is prompt and efficient? This is the major issue associated with it, needs to be addressed. Low conviction rate: As per the National Crime Records Bureau’s 2021 report, only 10,416 cases of murder were disposed of during the year with just a 42.4 percent conviction rate. The Law minister has admitted to more than 4.7 crore cases pending in various courts. Situation in police stations: Politicians play a very powerful role at police stations, compromising both integrity and impartiality of field staff. In due course, ordinary criminals graduate to be dreaded ones and form gangs extorting money, grabbing land, threatening witnesses in criminal cases, etc. Law Commission Reports: The Law commission in its 179th report recommended an amendment to the Representation of people act 1951. It suggested the people with criminal backgrounds should be disqualified for five years or until acquittal. It also recommended that the person who wants to contest the election must furnish details regarding any pending case, with the copy of the FIR/complaint, and also furnish details of all assets. But no action was taken on the recommendation by the government due to a lack of consensus amongst the political parties. Supreme Court’s Observations: It is mandatory for all political parties to publish all details regarding pending criminal cases against their chosen candidates, not only in local newspapers, but also on party websites and social media handles. Directions to ensure the asset disclosure and criminal records of candidates. Establishment of special courts in all States for the quick disposal of cases involving elected representatives. Measures to Curb Criminalization of Politics: Section 125A of the Representation of Peoples Act: The Act should be amended, in order to provide more stringent punishment for concealing or providing wrong information in Form 26 under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 to a minimum term of two years’ imprisonment. Law Commission 244th Report recommended: Completion of trials against a sitting MP and MLA within one year. With the retroactive application, all persons with pending criminal charges that are punishable by more than 5 years to be disqualified subject to certain safeguards. Punishment of 2 years for filing a false affidavit under section 125A. A conviction under this should be made a ground for disqualification. Supreme Court Landmark Judgements: Union of India vs. Association for Democratic Reforms and Anr case, 2002: Supreme Court ruled that every candidate contesting election has to declare his criminal and financial records along with educational qualification. Ramesh Dalal vs. Union of India case, 2005: Supreme Court ruled that a sitting Member of Parliament or any Member of state legislative assembly will be disqualified from contesting the election if convicted and sentenced for imprisonment for two years or more by a court of law. Lily Thomas vs. Union of India case, 2013: Supreme court declared the Section 8(4) of the Representation of People Act, 1951 as unconstitutional that allowed the convicted MLAs and MPs to continue in office till the appeal against those convictions is disposed of. Accordingly, MLAs and MPs would be disqualified immediately if convicted and sentenced for two or more years. However, in 2017, the union government informed the supreme court that if the appellate court stays the conviction, the MLAs and MPs would be allowed to continue. Way Forward: State sponsorship of elections has been advocated by a number of committees (including Dinesh Goswami and the Inderjeet Committee) looking into electoral reforms. This will significantly reduce the use of black money in elections and, as a result, the criminalization of politics. Increasing the effectiveness of the Election Commission is necessary to ensure a more transparent electoral process. Strengthening the Indian Election Commission is therefore essential. Voters must exercise caution when it comes to the improper use of gifts, money, and other inducements during elections. Source:   Indian Express India’s Growing Logistics Sector Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: According to World Bank’s Logistic Performance Index (LPI) 2023, India has climbed six places, now ranking 38th in the 139 countries index, as a result of significant investments in both soft and hard infrastructure as well as technology. India’s performance has drastically improved from 2014 when it was ranked 54th on the LPI. About Logistics Sector: The logistics industry comprises all supply chain activities, mainly transportation, inventory management, the flow of information, and customer service. It pertains to the general method of controlling how resources are obtained, housed, and delivered to their ultimate location. It is a differentiating sector that can largely affect any country’s exports, thereby adding a significant competitive edge, with the underlying assumption of a robust logistics sector. It determines the success of not only the country’s supply chain but also influences it on a global scale. India’s Potential: The logistics industry in India is witnessing rapid growth owing to infrastructure, technology, and the emergence of new types of service providers that are reshaping the sector by reducing logistics costs and providing effective services. Moreover, government policies on taxation and regulation play a huge role in the improvisation of the sector. The government is going by certain estimates which suggest that logistics cost in India stands at about 13-14 percent of the country’s GDP. The Economic Survey 2022-23 pointed out that logistics costs in India have been in the range of 14-18 percent of GDP against the global benchmark of 8 percent. Issues with India’s Logistics System Skewed Modal Mix: The modal mix in India’s freight movement is heavily skewed towards road transport, with 65% of freight being moved by road. This has led to increased congestion, pollution, and logistics cost escalation on roads. Loss of Rail Freight Share: Despite being a more cost-effective mode of transportation, railways have been losing freight share to more flexible modes, due to the convenience of road transport. The Indian Railways face infrastructural challenges such as the lack of necessary terminal infrastructure, maintenance of good sheds and warehouses, and uncertain supply of wagons, absence of all-weather roads as a substantial part of the country is out of reach for railways. This results in high network congestion, lower service levels, and increased transit time. Dominance of Bulk Commodities: Coal, iron ore, cement, food grains, and fertilizers account for a significant share of India’s freight movement, while non-bulk commodities have a very small share in rail freight movement. In 2020-21, coal constituted 44% of the total freight movement of 1.2 billion tonnes, followed by iron ore (13%), cement (10%), food grains (5%), fertilizers (4%), iron and steel (4%), Transportation of non-bulk commodities accounts for a very small share in the rail freight movement. Operational and Connectivity Challenges: Increased transit time by rail, pre-movement and post-movement procedural delays, multi-modal handling, and the absence of integrated first and last-mile connectivity by rail are some of the operational and connectivity challenges faced by India’s logistics system. Lack of Skilled & Specialist Personnel: It has emerged as one of the most prominent concerns, especially in the face of increasing volumes, complex operations, and increasing work pressure with multi-tasking. Availability of experienced human resources for mostly labour-intensive processes, demanding higher skills and expertise is a challenge for logistics companies. Warehousing and Taxation Discrepancies: Logistics companies generally opt for warehousing because it enables them to store goods and move them closer to the customer when demand occurs. It helps to reduce the transit time. However, warehousing is not free of cost and needs proper planning for optimum use. Fragmentation: The logistics industry in India is highly fragmented, with many small and medium-sized players operating independently, leading to suboptimal utilization of resources and higher costs. Inefficient Supply Chain Management: The lack of coordination between various players in the supply chain, including manufacturers, distributors, and retailers, leads to inefficiencies, delays, and increased costs. Government Initiatives Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led government announced the PM Gati Shakti‘s initiative, a National Master Plan for multimodal connectivity, in October 2021 to reduce logistics costs and boost the economy by 2024-25. In 2022, the Prime Minister launched the National Logistics Policy (NLP) to ensure quick last-mile delivery, end transport-related challenges, save time and money for the manufacturing sector and ensure desired speed in the logistics sector. Logistics Master Plan: This initiative takes a geographical strategy as opposed to an industry approach. Several projects and activities will be integrated into the plan to expand the mix of intermodal and/or multimodal transportation. Coordinated construction of relevant infrastructure (gas and utility pipelines, optical fiber cable networks) is accordingly planned. National Logistics Law: A national logistics law has been drafted and is under consultation. Through a unified legal framework for the paradigm of One Nation, One Contract, it would support the One Nation, One Market objective and provide a flexible regulatory environment (single bill of lading across modes). The law’s provisions will make it possible to assign a distinct logistics account number in place of cumbersome registration processes. National Multimodal Facilities and Warehousing: In order to promote intermodal and Multimodal Logistics Parks (MMLPs) as a separate class of infrastructure, the National Grid of Logistics Parks and Terminals is being planned. National Logistics Workforce Strategy: For the integrated skill development of professionals in the logistics sector, the government is developing a national logistics workforce strategy. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT): The SWAGAT initiative of the Government of Gujarat was started in 2003. It is an innovative concept that enables direct communication between the citizens and the Chief Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, the State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23 report was launched by Reserve Bank of India Ministry of Finance NITI Aayog None of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Misinformation Combat Alliance (MCA): MCA is an alliance of media companies set up in March 2022. It was set up to combat misinformation and build tools to aid fact-checking. Membership in the MCA is open to any organization that applies. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 26th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 45] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 45-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here