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[DAY 51] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 51->Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Neurotoxins Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Neurotoxins released in the recent Ludhiana gas leak tragedy might have caused the deaths. About Neurotoxins:- IMAGE SOURCE: 5 Neurotoxins Found in Popular Foods | Be Brain Fit Neurotoxins are synthetic or naturally occurring substances that damage, destroy, or impair the functioning of the central and/or peripheral nervous system.  Neurotoxins may damage neurons, axons, and/or glia resulting in loss of specific nuclei and/or axonal tracts or demyelination.  They may also cause metabolic imbalances that can secondarily affect the central nervous system (CNS). Many neurotoxins are of external origin, entering the body from environmental sources. Others, however, are endogenous, being produced and existing within the body. Examples of endogenous neurotoxins include the neurotransmitters nitric oxide and glutamate. (UPSC CSE: Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) ) Physiological effects:- Neurotoxins are absorbed through inhalation, ingestion, skin contact, or injection and can have immediate or long-lasting impacts by causing neurons to malfunction or by disrupting interneuron communication. Certain neurotoxins are highly potent and have been developed into chemical weapons. Sarin is an organophosphorus compound that is classified as a weapon of mass destruction (UPSC Prelims: Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) )  Neurotoxins such as arsenic, chlorpyrifos, DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane), ethyl alcohol, fluoride, lead, polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs), polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), manganese, mercury, and toluene are major contributors to the prevalence of neurobehavioral disorders. The impact of some neurotoxins, such as lead and ethyl alcohol, is well-documented. MUST READ: Safeguards against chemical disasters in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2022) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2022) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Article 142 Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: In a recent ruling, the Supreme Court rules that it can directly grant a divorce to couples under Article 142. About Article 142:- It deals with the enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court. Article 142 provides discretionary power to the Supreme Court as it states that the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. (UPSC PRELIMS: Understanding Article 142) Subsection 1 of Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do complete justice between the parties. According to some eminent jurists, natural justice is above law, and the Supreme Court shall have full right to pass any order that it considers just. (UPSC MAINS: alternate dispute resolution mechanism in India.) Therefore, the Supreme Court shall exercise these powers and will not be deterred from doing justice by the provision of any rule or law, executive practice or executive circular or regulation etc. The framers of the Constitution felt that this provision is of utmost significance to those people who have to suffer due to the delay in getting their necessary reliefs due to the disadvantaged position of the judicial system. (UPSC CSE: Judicial Accountability ) Significance of Article 142:- Prevents Injustice: It provides a special and extraordinary power to the Supreme Court to do complete justice to the litigants who have suffered traversed illegality or injustice in the proceedings. Uphold citizen’s rights: Article 142 has been invoked for the purpose of protecting the rights of the different sections of the population. Check on Government: Works as a system of checks and balances with the Government or Legislature. Cases where the Supreme Court has invoked its plenary powers under Article 142:- Manohar Lal Sharma v. Principal Secretary(2014): The Supreme Court can deal with exceptional circumstances interfering with the larger interest of the public in order to fabricate trust in the rule of law. A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak(1988): The Supreme Court held that any discretion which is given by the court should not be arbitrary or in any way be inconsistent with provisions of any statute laid down. Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India (1989): In Bhopal Gas Tragedy Case, the court ordered to award of compensation to the victims and placed itself in a position above the Parliamentary laws. Siddiq v. Mahant Suresh Das (2019): Popularly known as the Ayodhya dispute, the Supreme Court exercised the powers mentioned under Article 142 of the Constitution. MUST READ: Judiciary & AI SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, of 1968. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Golden Globe Race Syllabus Prelims –Important Events Context: Recently, Abhilash Tomy created history as the first Indian to complete the Golden Globe Race. About Golden Globe Race:- The Golden Globe Race is being conducted by the K.’s Sir Robin Knox Johnston. Objective: to commemorate the world’s first solo non-stop circumnavigation undertaken by him in 1968, onboard the Indian-built boat Suhaili. Participants in the GGR are required to sail around the world, single-handed and non-stop. The uniqueness of the race is that boat designs and technology newer than 1968 are not permitted. Also, the use of the Global Positioning System (GPS), satellite communication and navigational aids are forbidden in the 30,000-mile journey. (UPSC PRELIMS: Understanding NavIC) The sailors each have a satellite phone and emergency locator beacons to be used for medical emergencies only. (UPSC CSE: Maritime Security of India) Entrants are limited to sailing similar yachts, between 32 ft and 36 ft, designed prior to 1988 with a full-length keel with a rudder. Equipment similar to what was available to Sir Robin in that first race was to be used. 16 sailors from 11 countries depart from Les Sables-d’Olonne, France. MUST READ: An Indian Sail to Navigate the maritime environment SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because. (2021) It is dipolar in nature. It is a good conductor of heat It has a high value of specific heat It is an oxide of hydrogen Q.2) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? (2018) Mobile phone operations Banking operations Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Bluebugging Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Andhra Pradesh police cautioned smartphone users to be wary of “bluebugging”. About Bluebugging:- IMAGE SOURCE: BLUEJACKING (slideshare.net) Bluebugging is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection. (UPSC PRELIMS: Understanding Bluebugging) A hacker can gain unauthorized access to these apps and devices and control them as per their wish through bluebugging. (UPSC MAINS: Cyber Attacks in India ) Any Bluetooth-enabled device including True Wireless Stereo (TWS) devices or earbuds susceptible to bluebugging. Preventive Measures: Turning off Bluetooth and disconnecting paired Bluetooth devices when not in use. Making Bluetooth devices undiscoverable from Bluetooth settings. Updating the device’s system software to the latest version. Limited use of public Wi-Fi. Watch out for suspicious activities on your device. Monitoring of sudden spikes in data usage. Usage of modern anti-virus software. MUST READ: India’s cyber infrastructure SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2018) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q.2) In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? (2017) Service providers Data centres Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Shilabhattarika Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recent decoding of Copper plates sheds light on the celebrated ancient Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika. About Shilabhattarika:- Shilabhattarika was a Sanskrit poetess who lived in the 9th century. M. B. Padma, a scholar of the University of Mysore, speculates that she may be the same as Shila-maha Devi, the queen of the 8th-century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva. His theory is based on the fact that the suffix “Bhattarika” attached to the poet’s name indicates her high social status and that the queen is known to have made generous grants to scholars. The 10th-century poet Rajashekhara praises Shilabhattarika as a leading figure of the Panchali literary style (one of the four major contemporary literary styles)  The other three are Vaidharbhi, Gaudi, and Lati. According to Rajashekhara, the Panchali style can be traced to the works of Shilabhattarika, and possibly to some of the works of the 7th-century poet Bana. Shilabhattarika has been quoted by several classical Sanskrit literary critics, and her verses appear in most major Sanskrit anthologies. (UPSC CSE: Central Sanskrit University Bill) She is known to have written at least 46 poems on topics such as “love, morality, politics, nature, beauty, the seasons, insects, anger, indignation, codes of conduct, and the characteristic features of various kinds of heroines.“  However, most of her works are now lost. Only six of her short poems are extant. Sharngadhara-paddhati, a 14th-century anthology, praises her and three other female poets in the following words. Shilabhattarika, Vijja, Marula, and Morika are poetesses of renown with great poetic genius and erudition. (UPSC CSE: Examining the contribution of women poets towards India’s Bhakti literature.) MUST READ: The Sant Tukaram temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.  The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.  Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 100th episode of the Mann Ki Baat radio programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed a historic 100th episode of the Mann Ki Baat radio programme. About the 100th episode of the Mann Ki Baat radio programme:- Mann Ki Baat is an Indian radio program hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He addresses the people of the nation on All India Radio, DD National and DD News. The first Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on the occasion of Vijayadashami on 3 October 2014. The 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat was broadcasted on April 30, 2023. The program is India’s first visually enriched radio program. Objective: to establish a dialogue with the citizens on issues of day-to-day governance. (UPSC CSE: Importance of e-governance in administration) The Radio was chosen as the medium of the program due to its wide reach and an estimated 90% of the total Indian population can be reached through the medium. The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi addresses the nation every month on All India Radio. Guests on the show:-  The former President of the United States, Barack Obama, was a part of the fourth episode of Mann Ki Baat, which was aired on 27 January 2015. On 29 September 2019, Lata Mangeshkar was a special guest on the show. The program is recorded originally in Hindi. However, it is translated into various languages like Adi, Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, English, Garo, Gujarati, Kannada, Kashmiri, Khasi, Kokborok, Konkani, Lepcha, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Mizo, Nagamese, Nepali, Odia, Pnar, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Key Highlights of the 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat:- The Prime Minister highlighted the achievements of this program. He also mentioned the timeline of the program in the last nine years.  The program was telecasted in multiple regional languages to have a wider reach of the program. (UPSC PRELIMS: Languages of India ) It was also this time, that the program was telecasted globally. The Tourism Ministry announced “100 days of action” to mark the 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat. The activities include a design challenge for entrepreneurs to develop substitutes for single-use plastic items. The Prime Minister highlighted the countrymen’s dedication. DG UNESCO became a part of the episode. He thanked Prime Minister Modi on behalf of UNESCO for the opportunity to be part of the 100th episode of the ‘Mann Ki Baat’ Radio broadcast. MUST READ: Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (2016) waste management technology wireless communication technology solar power production technology water conservation technology Q.2) With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Yellow Fever Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Quarantine facilities being set up for those arriving from Sudan to prevent the spread of Yellow Fever. About Yellow Fever:- IMAGE SOURCE: Yellow Fever: Causes, Symptoms, And Treatment | Netmeds Yellow Fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow in the name refers to the jaundice that affects some patients. Symptoms: Fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting and fatigue. A small proportion of patients who contract the virus develop severe symptoms and approximately half of those die within 7 to 10 days. Endemic: The virus is endemic in tropical areas of Africa and Central and South America.(UPSC PRELIMS: African swine fever) Prevention: Yellow fever is prevented by an extremely effective vaccine which is safe and affordable. (UPSC PRELIMS: Dengue and DNA vaccines ) Eliminate yellow fever epidemics(EYE) 2017-2026: It has been developed by a coalition of partners (Gavi, UNICEF and WHO) that aims at ending yellow fever epidemics by 2026. It is usually compulsory to get vaccinated before travelling to any of the yellow fever-endemic countries in parts of Africa, and Central and South America. Yellow fever vaccine is known as 17D. (UPSC PRELIMS: Malaria Vaccine)  According to the World Health Organization (WHO) it is safe and affordable. However, there are reports of multisystem organ failure following vaccination. MUST READ: Lassa Fever SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. EX AGNI DAMAN-23 Syllabus Prelims –Disaster Management Context: A mutual firefighting Exercise named AGNI DAMAN-23 was conducted recently. About EX AGNI DAMAN-23:- EX AGNI DAMAN-23 is a Civil–Military mutual firefighting exercise. Objectives:-  to emphasise the need for awareness and training of men on firefighting. to exercise the capabilities of combined forces of all agencies including military and civil. It was conducted at 29 Field Ammunition Depot, Dehu Road under the aegis of Headquarters Southern Command in Apr 2023. Participants: a total of 56 firefighting columns including 32 from civil agencies like the National Disaster Relief Force (NDRF), State Disaster Relief Force (SDRF), MC Alandi, Fire Department Pimpri Chinchwad, PMRDA Akurdi, MIDC Ambi Talegaon, MC Talegaon Dhabade, Nagar Parishad Chakan, Main Fire Department Bhawani Peth, Tata Motors Ltd, Mahindra Vehicle Ltd & Bajaj Auto participated actively in the exercise. (UPSC MAINS: Role of NDRF in relief operations) Drills and procedures including swift response strategy against all types of fire were rehearsed in a coordinated manner. Significance:-  The exercise was a landmark endeavour in synergizing all the firefighting resources available with the military and civil establishment in Pune. It provided impetus & opportunity to the combatant manpower including central/state agencies to perform coordinated firefighting & render maximum aid in the minimum possible time to the affected areas to save precious lives & valuable assets. (UPSC CSE: Understanding various dimensions of Disaster Management) MUST READ: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Key provisions and challenges of Forest Rights Act, 2006 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) has issued a notice to district authorities in Andaman and Nicobar islands on grounds that the Great Nicobar Island (GNI) Project violated norms under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. About The Forest Rights Act, 2006: Source:                The Hindu The Forest Rights Act, 2006 (also known as the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act) is a landmark legislation in India that seeks to recognise and vest forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers. The Act aims to rectify historical injustices done to forest-dwelling communities and recognise their role in forest conservation. Important provisions of the Act and their impact: FRA enacted in 2006 recognises the rights of forest-dwelling tribal communities (FDST) and other traditional forest dwellers (OTFD) to forest resources on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other sociocultural needs. It recognizes and vest the forest rights and occupation FDST and OTFD who have been residing in such forests for generations. It strengthens the conservation regime of the forests while ensuring livelihood and food security of the FDST and OTFD. The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may be given to FDST and OTFD. Rights Under the Forest Rights Act: Title rights: It gives FDST and OTFD the right to ownership to land farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares. Ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family and no new lands will be granted. Use rights: The rights of the dwellers extend to extracting Minor Forest Produce, grazing areas Relief and development rights To rehabilitate in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection. Forest management rights: It includes the right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use. Challenges Administrative Apathy Implementation of the act remains the biggest challenge as acts related to the environment are not entirely compliant with the law, illegal encroachments have happened as much as that claims have been unfairly rejected. As tribals are not a big vote bank in most states, governments find it convenient to subvert FRA or not bother about it at all in favour of monetary gains. Lack of Awareness Unawareness at the Lower level of forest officials who are supposed to help process forest rights claims is high and majority of the aggrieved population too remains in the dark regarding their rights. The forest bureaucracy has misinterpreted the FRA as an instrument to regularise encroachment instead of a welfare measure for tribals. Dilution of Act Certain sections of environmentalist raise the concern that FRA bend more in the favour of individual rights, giving lesser scope for community rights. Community Rights effectively gives the local people the control over forest resources which remains a significant portion of forest revenue making states wary of vesting forest rights to Gram Sabha. Reluctance of the forest bureaucracy to give up control There has been deliberate sabotage by the forest bureaucracy, both at the Centre and the states, and to some extent by big corporates. The forest bureaucracy fears that it will lose the enormous power over land and people that it currently enjoys, while the corporates fear they may lose the cheap access to valuable natural resources. Institutional Roadblock Rough maps of community and individual claims are prepared by Gram Sabha which at times often lack technical knowhow and suffers from educational incapacity. Intensive process of documenting communities’ claims under the FRA makes the process both cumbersome and harrowing for illiterate tribals. Way Forward: It is important to develop a detailed strategy of training and capacity building of people responsible for implementing the FRA, such as Panchayats, Gram Sabha, village level Forest Rights committee The relevant maps and documents should be made available to the Forest rights committee and claimants to simplify the task of the Gram Sabha in identifying and filing claims for individual and community rights. The Centre should take a more proactive role in pushing states to honor a law that could change the lives of millions. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following articles of the constitution provides discretionary power to the Supreme Court that in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it ? Article 143 Article 142 Article 124 Article 72 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Neurotoxins: Neurotoxins are substances that damage, destroy, or impair the functioning of the central and peripheral nervous system. Neurotoxins can be synthesized only through artificial processes chlorpyrifos, dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, ethyl alcohol, polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs), polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), manganese, mercury, and toluene are examples of Neurotoxins. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) The term Bluebugging often mentioned in the media talked in the context of Exploration of marine resources under the mission Sagarmala It is a form of hacking that lets attackers access a device through its discoverable Bluetooth connection NASA’s all weather satellite launched to study stratosphere Artificial Intelligence based fishing technique Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 50] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 50->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) FM transmitters Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently launched 91 new 100-watt capacity FM transmitters. About Frequency Modulation (FM):- It is the encoding of information in a carrier wave by varying the instantaneous frequency of the wave. In analogue FM (radio broadcasting), the instantaneous frequency deviation has a functional relation to the modulating signal amplitude. frequency deviation – the difference between the frequency of the carrier and its centre frequency. Digital data can be encoded and transmitted with a type of FM known as frequency-shift keying (FSK), in which the instantaneous frequency of the carrier is shifted among a set of frequencies. FM transmitters:- IMAGE SOURCE: FM Transmitter Block Diagram with Explanation (electronicsandcommunications.com) It is a low-power FM radio transmitter that broadcasts a signal from a portable audio device (such as an MP3 player) to a standard FM radio. Most of these transmitters plug into the device’s headphone jack and then broadcast the signal over an FM broadcast band frequeny so that it can be picked up by any nearby radio. This allows portable audio devices to make use of the louder or better sound quality of a home audio system or car stereo without requiring a wired connection. Being low-powered, most transmitters typically have a short range of 100-300 feet (30–91 metres), depending on the quality of the receiver, obstructions and elevation. FM vs AM:- IMAGE SOURCE: Research – VANXFILMS OFFICIAL WEBSITE (weebly.com) Radio signals are broadcast using AM (or Amplitude Modulation) and FM (or Frequency Modulation). Electromagnetic waves are used to transfer data in both cases  The amplitude of the signal or carrier delivered is modulated (changing) depending on the information being sent, but the frequency remains fixed. About AIR:- It is the national public radio broadcaster of India. It is a division of Prasar Bharati. It was established in 1936. Headquarters: New Delhi Mission Uphold the unity of the country and the democratic values enshrined in the constitution. Present a fair and balanced flow of information on national, regional, local and international interests, including contrasting views. (UPSC PRELIMS: Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union) Promote the interest and concerns of the entire nation. (UPSC PRELIMS: News Broadcasting & Digital Standards Authority) Serve the rural, illiterate and underprivileged population, keeping in mind the special needs and interests of the young, social and cultural minorities, the tribal population and those residing in border regions, backward or remote areas. Promote social justice and combat exploitation, inequality and such evils as untouchability and narrow parochial loyalties. Promote national integration. National programmes are broadcast from Delhi for relay by the Capital, Regional and Local Radio Stations. The Regional Stations in different States form the middle tier of broadcasting. They originate programmes in regional languages and dialects. Local radio stations serve small communities, showcase local culture and broadcast area-specific programmes for the benefit of the community. The first FM Channel was launched on an experimental basis in 1977 in Chennai. At present AIR have 497 FM transmitters across the country. MUST READ: Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme SOURCE: ET NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Soniferous fishes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the latest technology has been used to study Soniferous fishes on the coast of Goa. About Soniferous fishes:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Nonvertebrate Chordates, Fishes, and Amphibians PowerPoint Presentation – ID:3223997 (slideserve.com) These fishes are known to make sounds associated with specific behaviours including disturbance, competition for food, territory defence, and courtship or spawning. They produce sound mainly by using modified muscles attached to their swim bladders(drumming) or rubbing body parts together. Sound production in fish is vital to an array of behaviours including territorial defence. There are over 700 known soniferous species worldwide.(UPSC CSE: Conservation of species) Passive acoustics is a technique that enables scientists to listen to and record underwater sounds of aquatic and marine fishes and invertebrates. Using this technique, scientists can gain useful information about the temporal and spatial distribution patterns of soniferous fishes and the locations of spawning and feeding grounds. (UPSC Mains: Government’s Initiatives for a Robust Fishery Sector ) MUST READ: Puffer Fish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that the combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 3.6 per cent (provisional) in March 2023 as compared to the Index of March 2022. About the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):- IMAGE SOURCE: Index of Eight Core Industries (Base: 2011-12=100) March 2019 (indiangovtscheme.com) ICI measures combined and individual performance of the production of eight core industries. These include Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel,  Cement and Electricity.  These Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). (UPSC PRELIMS: Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Details of annual and monthly indices and growth rates are provided in Annex I & II respectively. It is compiled and released by the Office of Economic Adviser (OEA), Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It provides an advance indication of the production performance of industries of a ‘core’ nature prior to the IIP (UPSC PRELIMS: IIP growth slowed to 0.4% in December) MUST READ: Purchasing Manager’s Index SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?(2017) The Reserve Bank of India The Department of Economic Affairs The Labour Bureau The Department of Personnel and Training Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent announcements, India will start participating in the International Civil Aviation Organisation’s (ICAO) Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG) from 2027. About International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO):- The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized funding agency of the United Nations. It changes the principles and techniques of international air navigation. It fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. Its headquarters is located in the Quartier International of Montreal, Quebec, Canada. It has 193 Member States. India is one of ICAO’s founder members, having attended the Chicago Convention in 1944. (UPSC CSE: Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)) The ICAO Council adopts standards and recommended practices concerning air navigation, its infrastructure, flight inspection, prevention of unlawful interference, and facilitation of border-crossing procedures for international civil aviation. (UPSC CSE: Issue – Civil Aviation) The Air Navigation Commission (ANC) is the technical body within ICAO. ICAO defines the protocols for air accident investigation that are followed by transport safety authorities in countries signatory to the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation. Convention on International Civil Aviation also known as the Chicago Convention, established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the UN charged with coordinating international air travel. The Convention establishes rules of airspace, aircraft registration and safety, security, and sustainability, and details the rights of the signatories in relation to air travel. The Convention also contains provisions pertaining to taxation. It came into effect in 1947. About CORSIA:- It is the first global market-based measure for any sector. It represents a cooperative approach that moves away from a “patchwork” of national or regional regulatory initiatives. It offers a harmonized way to reduce emissions from international aviation, minimizing market distortion, while respecting the special circumstances and respective capabilities of ICAO Member States. CORSIA complements the other elements of the basket of measures by offsetting the number of CO2 emissions that cannot be reduced through the use of technological improvements, operational improvements, and sustainable aviation fuels with emissions units from the carbon market. CORSIA is implemented in three phases: a pilot phase (2021-2023), a first phase (2024-2026), and a second phase (2027-2035). For the first two phases (2021-2026), participation is voluntary. From 2027 onwards, participation will be determined based on 2018 RTK data. About Long-Term Aspirational Goals (LTAG):- The 41st ICAO Assembly adopted a long-term global aspirational goal (LTAG). The international aviation of net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 in support of the UNFCCC Paris Agreement’s temperature goal.  This is a historic agreement that reinforces the leadership of ICAO on issues relating to international aviation and climate change. The adopted Resolution A41-21 is available here. The LTAG does not attribute specific obligations or commitments in the form of emissions reduction goals to individual States. Instead, it recognizes that each State’s special circumstances and respective capabilities (e.g., the level of development, maturity of aviation markets, sustainable growth of its international aviation, just transition, and national priorities of air transport development) will inform the ability of each State to contribute to the LTAG within its own national timeframe. Each State will contribute to achieving the goal in a socially, economically and environmentally sustainable manner and in accordance with its national circumstances. MUST READ: 5G Rollout and Aviation Challenge SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2022) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Department of Science and Technology, released the National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22. About National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS):- NMIS 2021-22 is a joint study by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO). Objective: to evaluate the innovation performance of manufacturing firms in India. This study is a follow-up of DST’s first National Innovation Survey held in 2011. The survey offered an empirical understanding of current innovation activities of the manufacturing economy in India as well as ways to navigate organisational rigidity to facilitate market demand for innovations. (UPSC CSE: National Science, Technology and Innovation Policy (STIP 2020) ) Key Highlights of the NMIS 2021-22 Survey:- The NMIS survey shows that innovation is not yet common in manufacturing but has proved to be profitable for firms. (UPSC MAINS: Global Competitiveness of Indian Manufacturing) The NMIS 2021-22 survey had two specific components: the firm-level survey and the sectorial systems of innovation (SSI) survey. The Firm-level survey: captured data related to types of innovations and innovative measures taken by firms. This includes the process of innovation, access to finance, resources, and information for innovation, besides also recording the factors impacting the innovation activities in a firm. One in four firms was found to have successfully implemented an innovation in the observation period, and over 80% of these firms benefitted significantly in expanding markets and production and reducing costs. The Sectorial System of Innovation survey: mapped the manufacturing innovation system and its enabling role in achieving innovations in firms. The SSI study measured the interactions between stakeholders of the innovation ecosystem, relative barriers to innovation, as well as the convergence or divergence of current policy instruments in select five key manufacturing sectors important to the Indian economy – textiles; food & beverage; automotive; pharma; and ICT. The findings from the firm-level survey are captured in the ‘Assessment of Firm-Level Innovation in Indian Manufacturing’. Separately, five reports from the study of the sectorial systems of innovation within five manufacturing sectors, namely, Automotive, Pharmaceutical, Textile, Food & Beverages, and Information & Communication Technologies (ICT), have been developed. MUST READ: India Semiconductor Mission SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Psychedelics Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently studies probe the role of psychedelics in treating depression. About Psychedelics:- IMAGE SOURCE: Psychedelics: Everything you need to know about these powerful plant medicines – Artem Zen Psychedelics are a group of drugs that alter perception, mood, and thought processing while a person is still clearly conscious. Usually, the person’s insight also remains unimpaired.  Psychedelics are non-addictive and non-toxic. Compared to illicit drugs, psychedelics cause much less harm to the end user. The two most commonly used psychedelics are d-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) and psilocybin. Less common ones include mescaline, found in the North American peyote cactus ( Lophophora williamsii), and N, N-dimethyltryptamine, the principal component of the South American ceremonial sacrament ayahuasca. In India, the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985 (UPSC CSE: NDPSA,1985), prohibits the use of psychedelic substances. Ketamine: a dissociative anaesthetic with psychedelic properties, is used under strict medical supervision, for anaesthesia and to treat treatment-resistant depression. (UPSC MAINS: Fighting Drug Menace) MUST READ: Potency drugs not under NDPS Act: SC SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Patent filing in India Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that Patent filing in India registered a decade-high growth of 14%. About Patent filing in India:- A patent is a form of preservation of intellectual property. It is an exclusive right granted for an invention, which is a product or a process that provides, a new way of doing something, or offers a new technical solution to a problem. To get a patent, technical information about the invention must be disclosed to the public in a patent application. (UPSC MAINS: IPR Regime of India) Patentability Criteria for an Invention:- It should be novel. Must involve an inventive step (technical advancement) Capable of industrial application Term of Patent:- The term of every patent in India is twenty years from the date of filing the patent application, irrespective of whether it is filed with provisional or complete specifications. Patents Act, 1970:- This principal law for the patenting system in India came into force in the year 1972. It replaced the Indian Patents and Designs Act 1911. The Act was amended by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, wherein product patent was extended to all fields of technology including food, drugs, chemicals and microorganisms. After the amendment, the provisions relating to Exclusive Marketing Rights (EMRs) have been repealed, and a provision for enabling the grant of compulsory license has been introduced. The provisions relating to pre-grant and post-grant opposition have also been introduced. Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2021:- Patent Fees for Educational Institutions Reduced(UPSC CSE: Understanding Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2021) Benefits related to an 80% reduced fee for patent filing & prosecution have been extended to all educational institutions. Extension of Expedited Examination System: The fastest granted patent is the one which was granted 41 days after the filing of such a request. This facility of the Expedited Examination system was initially provided for patent applications filed by Startups. It has been now extended to 8 more categories of Patent Applicants: SME (Small and Medium Enterprises), Female applicants, Government Departments, Institutions established by a Central, Provincial or State Act, Government Company, an Institution wholly or substantially financed by the Government and applicants under Patents Prosecution Highway. The Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) is a set of initiatives for providing accelerated patent prosecution procedures by sharing information between some patent offices. MUST READ: U.S. Supports India’s vaccine patent waiver proposal SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Governor’s Power to Assent Bills Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently the Supreme Court has given a reminder to Governors that the Constitution expects that a decision to return a Bill to the State Assembly for reconsideration should be made “as soon as possible”. About the office of Governor: Article 153 of the Constitution provides the provision that there shall be a Governor for each State. This Article also provides that it is not necessary for every State to have a different Governor and thus a person can be appointed as the Governor of more than one State. Article 154: The Governor’s position in the State is identical to the position of the President of India and just like the President, the Governor is the Executive Head of the State. This authority is conferred on him under Article 154 of the Constitution which provides that the Executive power of the State is vested in the Governor. The Constitutional power of the Governor related to State Bills: Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Governor’s powers in relation to assenting to legislation enacted by the State legislature and other functions of the Governor such as reserving the bill for consideration by the President. Article 201 relates to “Bills Reserved for Consideration”: Governors have absolute veto power, suspense veto power (except on money bills), but no pocket veto power. Absolute Veto: This refers to the Governor’s power to refuse to sign a bill passed by the Assembly. Suspensive Veto: A suspensive veto is used by the Governor when he returns a bill to the State Assembly for reconsideration. If the Assembly resends the bill to the Governor, with or without alteration, he must approve it without using any of his veto powers. The Governor may not use his suspensive veto in connection to the Money Bill Pocket Veto: Power of the President, in pocket veto, the bill is held pending indefinitely. He neither rejects nor sends the measure back for review. Sending for reconsideration: The Governor can send the bill back to the House for reconsideration but if the bill is sent back by the House without any change, the Governor has to give his assent to that bill. He cannot send the bill back to the State Legislature if it is a Money Bill. Reserving the bill for the president’s consideration: The Governor also has the right to reserve some bills for the consideration of the President. when a governor reserves bill for the president’s consideration, he is no longer involved in the bill’s enactment. Even if the President refers it to the Assembly for reconsideration, the Bill will still be brought before the President and not the Governor following the reconsideration. Withhold assent: The Governor also has power to withhold assent to a Bill Pending bill in the legislature: If any Bill is pending in the House(s), the governor can send a message to such House(s) for reminding them about the same. Supreme Court’s Observation: While referring to the first proviso to Article 200 of the Constitution, the SC mandated that Governors should not delay over Bills sent to them for assent after they had been passed by Legislative Assemblies. They should be returned “as soon as possible” and not sit over them. The expression “as soon as possible” in this article has significant constitutional intent and that constitutional authorities should keep this in mind. Recent Instances of Gubernatorial Procrastination: Chhattisgarh chief recently questioned the governor over the delayed assent to the state’s amended reservation bill that was passed in the Chhattisgarh assembly last year which is since waiting for the governor’s assent. Tamil Nadu Assembly passed a resolution urging the President of India, among other things, to fix a timeline for assent to be given to Bills passed by the Assembly. For instance, in the TN Governor forwarded the Bill for exemption from the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) to the President after considerable delay. Legal Arguments against Delaying Assent: States’ Constitutional Obligation: The Governor’s inaction on bills passed by the Assembly creates a situation where the state government is unable to function in accordance with the Constitution. If the Governor continues to fail to act in accordance with the Constitution, the State government has a constitutional obligation to invoke Article 355 and notify the President, requesting that appropriate instructions be issued to the Governor to ensure that the process of government is conducted in accordance with the Constitution. Role of Apex Court: The framers of the Constitution would never have imagined that Governors would sit on Bills indefinitely without exercising any of the options given in Article 200. This is a new development that needs new solutions within the framework of the Constitution. So, it falls to the Supreme Court to fix a reasonable time frame for Governors to take a decision on a Bill passed by the Assembly in the larger interest of federalism in the country. Way Forward: In order to establish cordial relations between the Governor and the state legislature, the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission, Punchi Commission and Justice V.Chelliah Commission must be implemented. Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebia judgement (2016) ruled that the exercise of Governor’s discretion Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful. It must be a choice dictated by reason, actuated by good faith and tempered by caution – the same should be implemented in letter and spirit. Source:   The Hindu Previous Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2018) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule Appointing the Ministers Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The drugs ‘d-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) and psilocybin’ often mentioned in the news are related to Psychedelic substances Cancer treatment Technical textiles Pesticides used in Agriculture Q.2) The National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22 recently released by Ministry of Commerce and Industry Ministry of MSME Ministry of Science and Technology NITI Aayog Q.3) With reference to Radio services in India, consider the following statements: All India Radio is the national public radio broadcaster of India. Amplitude Modulation (AM) Radio is more susceptible to noise when compared to the Frequency Modulation (FM) Radio. FM Radio signal transmission system consumes more power when compared to AM Radio signal transmission system. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 1st May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 49] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 49-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, WHO launched the Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) Initiative. About Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET):- IMAGE SOURCE: Epidemic vs. Pandemic: What Are the Differences? (verywellhealth.com) The Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) initiative of WHO(UPSC Prelims: WHO) It is an innovative approach to improving disease pandemic preparedness(UPSC Mains: Emerging issues in international relations during the COVID-19 pandemic). The first module of PRET focuses on respiratory pathogen pandemic preparedness. It presents an integrated and efficient respiratory pathogen pandemic planning approach (UPSC CSE: WHO and Traditional Medicine) covering both novel pathogens and those known to have pandemic potential. It enables coherence in addressing pathogen-agnostic and pathogen-specific elements for better preparedness. It gives an organizing framework including operational stages and triggers for escalation and de-escalation between pandemic preparedness and response periods. It describes the critical sectors for respiratory pathogen pandemic preparedness to trigger multisectoral collaboration. PRET incorporates the latest tools and approaches for shared learning and collective action established during the COVID-19 pandemic and other recent public health emergencies. It is an approach that applies a “mode of transmission lens” to preparedness for future pandemics. It will align the intersectoral stakeholders including leaders, implementing partners and Member States, around a common approach that leverages cross-cutting It provides a platform for national, regional and global stakeholders to collaborate to strengthen preparedness. Objectives of the PRET Global Meeting:- Making countries operationally ready to respond to infectious disease threats. Global approaches to pandemic preparedness to be tailored to address regional and country-level specificities. Global coordination, inter-country collaboration, and solidarity for global events such as pandemics. A multisectoral approach development. MUST READ:  H5N1 virus/Bird Flu SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. (2022) Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Seamounts Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, scientists have reported finding 19,325 new seamounts after poring through new high-resolution data. About Seamounts:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Features of the Ocean Floor PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:2365741 (slideserve.com) A seamount is an underwater mountain. They are formed through volcanic activity. They are hotspots for marine life. Like volcanoes on land, seamounts can be active, extinct or dormant volcanoes. Most seamounts are formed near mid-ocean ridges, where the earth’s tectonic plates are moving apart, allowing molten rock to rise to the seafloor. The planet’s two most-studied mid-ocean ridges are the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise. Some seamounts have also been found near intraplate hotspots and oceanic island chains with a volcanic and seismic activity called island arcs. Intraplate hotspots: regions of heavy volcanic activity within a plate Because seamounts are formed when the molten rock comes up from below the tectonic plates, they provide information about the mantle’s composition and about how tectonic plates evolve. (UPSC PRELIMS: Understanding PLATE TECTONICS)  They are good places for life because they can cause localised ocean upwelling. (UPSC MAINS: UPWELLING AND DOWNWELLING) Upwelling: the process by which nutrient-rich water from deep within the ocean moves up to the surface. A 2011 census had already mapped 24,000 seamounts across the world’s oceans. Since the 2011 seamount survey, altimetry has improved as:-  European Space Agency launched the CryoSat-2 and Envisat, and NASA and the French space agency jointly launched the Jason-1 geodetic missions. SARAL, a satellite that India and France developed together for oceanographic studies, made a significant contribution by further reducing radar noise and enabling the expansion of the seamount catalogue. (UPSC PRELIMS: Deep-Sea Mining) MUST READ: Mission Samudrayan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (2021) Brown forest soil Fissure volcanic rock Granite and schist Shale and limestone Q.2) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for MSME Shri Narayan Rane launched the revamped CGTMSE Scheme. About revamped CGTMSE Scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: CGTMSE: Home CGTMSE was established in 2000. It is jointly set up by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME), the Government of India and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: to catalyze flow of institutional credit to Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs).(UPSC CSE: Understanding Finance Related Problems of MSME Sector ) CGTMSE extends a helping hand by providing a guarantee to enable access credit leading to setting up viable micro and small enterprises.  It helps in transforming them from job seekers to job providers and meaningfully contributes to nation-building. (UPSC CSE: Empowering MSMEs digitally ) CGTMSE has been instrumental in providing: Guarantee cover to collateral and/or third-party guarantee free credit facilities The lender should cover the eligible credit facilities as soon as they are sanctioned.  Guarantee will commence from the date of payment of guarantee fee and shall run through the agreed tenure of the term credit in case of term loans / composite loans and for a period of 5 years. The working capital facilities alone are extended to borrowers, or for such period as may be specified by the Guarantee Trust on this behalf. CGTMSE has created a new landmark by touching the milestone figure of approving guarantees worth `1 lakh crore during FY 2022 – 23. A revamped measure introduced to the scheme:- CGTMSE has been provided with an additional corpus support of ₹9,000 crore in the Union Budget for FY 2023-24 to revamp its Scheme to provide a guarantee for an additional ₹2 lakh crore to Micro & Small Enterprises. () Other modifications included a reduction in guarantee fees for loans up to ₹1 crore by 50% bringing the minimum guarantee fee to the level of 0.37% pa only. Another major change announced was raising of ceiling for a guarantee from ₹2 crores to ₹ 5 crores and enhancing the threshold limit for claim settlement without initiation of legal action to ₹10 lakh. MUST READ: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements  (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation held a meeting with board members of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). About National Dairy Development Board (NDDB):- IMAGE SOURCE: CATECHIZE: List of Revolutions in the field of Agriculture in India (catechize20.blogspot.com) The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was founded in 1965. It was initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860. It was later merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by the NDDB Act 1987. The NDDB is an institute of national importance established by an act of the Indian Parliament and thus is a statutory body. National Dairy Development Board Headquarters: Anand, Gujarat It is under the Ministry of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries. It was founded by Dr Verghese Kurien, often called ‘India’s milkman’. It was set up to replicate the success of Amul to the whole of India. (UPSC CSE: Understanding Dairy Cooperatives) Objective: to replace exploitation with empowerment, tradition with modernity, stagnation with growth, transforming dairying into an instrument for the development of India’s rural people. (UPSC CSE: National Dairy Plan ) Mission: of making dairying a vehicle for a better future for millions of grassroots milk producers. (UPSC CSE: Dairy Farming Sector)  The mission achieved thrust and direction with the launching of “Operation Flood“, a programme extending over 26 years and which used a World Bank loan to finance India’s emergence as the world’s largest milk-producing nation. Operation Flood: It was launched in 1970.  Operation Flood has helped dairy farmers direct their own development, placing control of the resources they create in their own hands. The bedrock of Operation Flood has been village milk producers’ cooperatives, which procure milk and provide inputs and services, making modern management and technology available to members. A National Milk Grid links milk producers throughout India with consumers in over 700 towns and cities, reducing seasonal and regional price variations while ensuring that the producer gets fair market prices in a transparent manner on a regular basis. Operation Flood’s objectives included:- Increase milk production (“a flood of milk”) Augment rural incomes Reasonable prices for consumers MUST READ: Women and Cooperative Dairy Farming SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Supreme Court passed an order on the matter of Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary. About Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Chandigarh’s Sukhna wildlife sanctuary remains unprotected as Punjab, Haryana delay on the eco-sensitive zone (mongabay.com) Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is in Chandigarh, and shares boundaries with Punjab and Haryana from the side of Mohali and Panchkula, respectively. (UPSC CSE: Understanding Wildlife Protection) It has an ESZ area of up to 1.75 km, and Birds Sanctuary, Sector 21, has an ESZ of around 100 metres.  It is situated at 1 Km in the North-East of Sukhna Lake.  It forms the part of Sukhna Lake catchment area falling in Shivalik hills. Shivalik hills are ecologically sensitive and geologically unstable. They are highly prone to soil erosion during rains. The soil in the Shivaliks is sandy, embedded with pockets of clay which is highly susceptible to erosion by surface runoff. Sukhna Lake was constructed in 1958 and in the sixties & early seventies, the rate of siltation of the lake was very high due to the high rate of soil erosion from its catchment area. The Punjab and Haryana High Court declared Sukhna Lake (Chandigarh) as a living entity in 2020.  Upto 1988, 66% of the original water holding capacity of the lake was lost due to siltation.  In order to minimize & control soil erosion from hilly catchment areas, various vegetative and engineering methods were adopted by Forest Department. These soil & water conservation measures undertaken on a sustained basis yielded very good results and the rate of siltation of the lake has reduced drastically. Soil conservation measures supplemented with massive afforestation led to the development of a very good forest in the hilly catchment area which is now an ideal habitat for a wide variety of fauna.  Consequently, this area had been notified as “Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary”. (UPSC Mains: Wildlife Diplomacy ) MUST READ: Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Wrestling Federation of India Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Recently, Delhi Police informed the Supreme Court that it will register an FIR against the President of the Wrestling Federation of India. About the Wrestling Federation of India:- The Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is the governing body of wrestling in India. It is headquartered in New Delhi, India. Affiliation: United World Wrestling (UWW) President: Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh Secretary: V.N. Prasood Tournaments:- Pro Wrestling League In 2015, WFI established a Pro Wrestling League tournament to promote the sport. (UPSC CSE: Reformig Sports in India) National Wrestling Championship The National Championships are held annually for Senior and Junior levels. (UPSC MAINS: Social change through sports) MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Washington Declaration Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the 70th anniversary of the Washington Declaration was commemorated. About Washington Declaration:- Washington Declaration is a security alliance between the United States and the Republic of Korea. 26th day of April, 2023 marked the 70th anniversary of the U.S.-ROK Alliance. The Alliance commits to engage in deeper, cooperative decision-making on nuclear deterrence, (UPSC Prelims: Nuclear Weapons)including through enhanced dialogue and information sharing regarding growing nuclear threats to the ROK and the region. Recent developments:-  The two Presidents announced the establishment of a new Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) to strengthen extended deterrence, discuss nuclear and strategic planning, and manage the threat to the non-proliferation regime(UPSC Mains: Nuclear Disarmament) posed by the Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (DPRK). In addition, the Alliance will work to enable joint execution and planning for ROK conventional support to U.S. nuclear operations in a contingency and improve combined exercises and training activities on the application of nuclear deterrence on the Korean Peninsula.  In keeping with the Presidents’ commitments, the Alliance has established a new bilateral, interagency table-top simulation to strengthen our joint approach to planning for nuclear contingencies. MUST READ: NATO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India pushed to widen the scope of the common reporting standard (CRS) in the existing OECD’s Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework. About the Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework:- It provides for the automatic exchange of a predefined set of information between tax authorities. The AEOI Standard requires the annual exchange of information on financial accounts held by non-resident individuals and entities in a pre-defined format. The information exchanged includes details about the financial account and details about the account holder. Under the AEOI framework, signatory countries follow a CRS and obtain information from their financial institutions and automatically exchange that information with other jurisdictions on an annual basis. The AEOI Standard provides a powerful tool to help deter and identify offshore tax evasion through holding financial assets abroad. Indian Scenario:  India currently has AEOI with 108 jurisdictions for receiving financial information and with 79 jurisdictions for sending information automatically. In August 2022, the OECD also approved the Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF). About Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF):- It provides for the reporting of tax information on transactions in crypto assets (UPSC Prelims: Understanding Cryptocurrency) in a standardised manner, with a view to automatically exchanging such information. The CARF aims to ensure the collection and automated exchange of information on crypto assets with jurisdictions of taxpayers’ residences every year in a standardized manner. The framework defines crypto assets as any assets that are held and transferred in a decentralized manner, without the involvement of traditional financial intermediaries. These assets are issued in the form of crypto derivatives, stablecoins, or certain non-fungible tokens. This definition does not include entities that use cryptography only to keep records and does not have ownership rights. It also does not include Central Bank Digital Currency, which has separate reporting requirements. Intermediaries and other service providers enabling the exchange and transfer of crypto-assets(UPSC CSE: Crypto Asset Regulation ) like brokers and ATM operators are included within the scope of this framework. CARF also outlines the data that needs to be reported and the due diligence to be conducted by crypto-asset users. The framework mandates that the crypto asset firms must report to the country in which they operate. They must report about exchanges between relevant crypto assets and fiat currencies, and the exchanges between one or more types of crypto assets as well as other transfers of crypto, including retail payment transactions. The framework requires individual and entity customers and persons to identify themselves. MUST READ: Cryptojacking SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 The third-gen web is about public good Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The 2021 report by the U.S.- India Strategic Partnership Forum states that the third-gen web will be crucial for India to realise its $1.1 trillion digital asset opportunity by 2032. About ‘third-gen web’: Source:  https://flatworldbusiness.wordpress.com/ Web3 is decentralised, privacy-oriented, blockchain-driven and crypto-asset friendly. It also advocates decentralising data storage systems from the single entity or an organisation. It uses file-sharing systems such as the Inter-Planetary File System which are cryptographically protected, more secure and capable of functioning off internet and off blockchains. Web3’s boldest element is the strategic role it assigns to non-custodial wallets that function as digital passports for users to access blockchain-enabled transaction platforms. These wallets aid the creation of a ‘ownership economy,’ whereby creators themselves control their content. Fundamentally, they work as digital proof of identity. Web3 seeks to replace micro-economic organisations with decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs). Significance of WEB 3.0: Web3 is autonomous and reliable, as the data will no longer depend on these large companies or institutions, but on each individual. Web3 seeks to radically transform the manner in which data is generated, monetised, shared and circulated. Non-custodial wallets/digital passports: Web3’s boldest element is the strategic role it assigns to non- custodial wallets that function as digital passports for users to access blockchain-enabled transaction platforms. These wallets aid the creation of an ‘ownership economy,’ whereby creators themselves control their content. Fundamentally, they work as the digital proof of identity. Decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs): Web3 seeks to replace micro-economic organisations with decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs). Role of digital tokens and cryptocurrencies: At a more macro level, it seeks to create a distributed economic system, where special classes of native digital tokens and cryptocurrencies would form the media of monetary circulation. In general, Web3 platforms would serve to raise the efficiency of peer-to-peer transactions. Benefit of the third-generation web for India: Design-related innovations of India’s handicraft industry are not protected by Intellectual Property rights. The digital tokens minted by Web 3 platforms would enable our handcraft enterprises to secure their innovations. Web 3-based instruction tools enable the rapid dissemination of grassroots innovations from master artisans to fellow members. It would improve the economic fortunes of craftsmen and artisan communities in north-east, western and peninsular India. India’s major digital public infrastructure push and the large-scale deployment of Internet of Things (IoT) in rural development projects offer major possibilities for deploying Web 3 in rural areas. Web 3.0 can also yield insights from large volumes of community data, generated by IoT-enabled development programmes such as the Jal Jeevan Mission. Web 3.0’s natural advantage of facilitating ‘analytics at the edge’ provides considerable scope for mapping the water use habits of communities. India’s National Blockchain Strategy 2021 proposes to explore tokenization and apply blockchains solutions for development programmes. A third-gen web strategy can be helpful in achieving it. Challenges: From a policy perspective, the next-gen web is complex. Part of the problem lies with the diverse descriptors employed by experts. Another constraint today is the inability of data analytics capabilities to catch up with the pace of data generation in rural areas. India has a rapidly expanding pool of data analytics and web design talent. By providing incentives for decentralised analytics and tokenising them (as envisaged in Web 3), it is possible to draw upon the talent pool for the benefit of rural communities. India’s Digital Infrastructure: India is in an evolving process of building a large citizen-scale digital public infrastructure. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to solutions and systems that enable the effective provision of essential society-wide functions and services in the public and private sectors. The Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been promoting simplification and transparency to increase the speed of interaction between individuals, markets, and the government. With the commencement of the Digital India mission in 2015, our payments, provident fund, passports, driving licences, crossing tolls, and checking land records all have been transformed with modular applications built on Aadhaar, UPI, and the India Stack. Way Forward: India’s National Blockchain Strategy 2021 proposes to explore tokenisation and apply blockchains solutions for development programmes. It will be a natural progression for India to craft a third-gen web strategy that optimises public interest. Such a strategy should seek to combine the features of Web3 and Web 3.0. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework and Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF) often mentioned in the news are Initiatives of World Bank World Economic Forum Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development European Union Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI): It is the governing body of wrestling in India It is headquartered in Bengaluru It is affiliation to the United World Wrestling (UWW) Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Uttar Pradesh Haryana Gujrat Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 48] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 48-> Click Here