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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –19th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gandhi Peace Prize 2021 Syllabus Prelims – Important Awards Context: According to recent reports, the Gandhi Peace Prize 2021 will be conferred to Gita Press, Gorakhpur. About Gandhi Peace Prize 2021:- Origin: it was instituted in 1995, on the occasion of the 125th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. 1995: Dr Julius K. Nyerere, former President of Tanzania was awarded the first award. Dr Julius K. Nyerere: was also the major force behind the movements for African Unity. Time: it is an annual award. (UPSC CSE: Nobel peace prize 2021) Significance: it is a tribute to the ideals espoused by Mahatma Gandhi. (UPSC CSE: Mahatma Gandhi) Mahatma Gandhi: a lawyer, nationalist, and anti-colonial activist.  He led a non-violent mass movement against the British rule of India. Early movements by Gandhiji: Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Kheda Satyagraha (1918), 1920: Non-Cooperation Movement(1920), Civil Disobedience Movement(1930), Quit India movement(1942). Works: newspapers including Harijan(Gujarati), Indian Opinion and Young India(English). Autobiography: The Story Of My Experiments with Truth. Eligibility for Award: the award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender. Ministry: Ministry of Culture The award carries an amount of one crore rupees, a citation and a plaque. Jury: it is chaired by Hon’ble Prime Minister, and comprises two ex-officio members, namely the Chief Justice of India and  Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in Lok Sabha. Recent Awardees:- 2020: Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. (UPSC MAINS: 971 Indo-Pak war) Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman: Father of Nation in Bangladesh. 2021: Gita Press. Gita Press: it was established in 1923, and is one of the world’s largest publishers. MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following best defines the term “State”? (2021) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government. A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government. A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary. WASP-76b Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: An international team of astronomers announced they conducted a detailed study of the extremely hot giant exoplanet WASP-76 b. About WASP-76b: The planet orbits the massive star WASP-76, which is about 634 light-years away from our planet in the direction of the constellation Pisces. WASP-76 b orbits very close to its parent star, around 12 times closer than Mercury is to the Sun. The planet has a mass similar to that of Jupiter, but it is more than six times larger by volume. The planet is tidally-locked, meaning that one of its sides permanently faces the star that it orbits. This means that one side is constantly superheated while another side is much colder. This could mean that the wind carries the iron atoms from the dayside to the night side. When the iron reaches the transition point between the two sides, the temperature decreases and the iron will condense into liquid drops that fall to the land. The researchers used the MAROON-X instrument of the Gemini-North Telescope to conduct a detailed study of the planet. Source:   IE International Monetary Fund (IMF) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Bangladesh recently announced that it will adopt the International Monetary Fund (IMF) mandated method to calculate its foreign reserves. About IMF:- IMAGE SOURCE: IMF It is an international organization that works to achieve sustainable growth and prosperity for all of its member countries. Established in 1944 HQ: Washington, D.C. (United States of America) Members: 190 India is a member. Any other state, whether or not a member of the UN, may become a member of the IMF. Structure:– At the top of its organization is the Board of Governors. The day-to-day work of the IMF is overseen by its 24-member Executive Board. The Managing Director is the head of the IMF staff and Chair of the Executive Board. S/he is assisted by four Deputy Managing Directors. Funding: the IMF’s resources mainly come from the money that countries pay as their capital subscription (quotas) when they become members. Objectives of IMF:- Foster global monetary cooperation. Secure financial stability. Facilitate international trade. Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth. Reduce poverty around the world. (UPSC MAINS: Role of IMF) Macroeconomic growth. Policy advice & financing for developing countries. Promotion of exchange rate stability, and an international payment system. Functions:- Lending The IMF provides loans including emergency loans to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. The aim is to help them rebuild their international reserves, stabilize their currencies, continue paying for imports, and restore conditions for strong economic growth while correcting underlying problems. Surveillance The IMF monitors the international monetary system and global economic developments.  It identifies risks and recommends policies for growth and financial stability. Capacity Development The IMF provides technical assistance and training to governments, including central banks, finance ministries, revenue administrations, and financial sector supervisory agencies. FLAGSHIP PUBLICATIONS:- World Economic Outlook Global Financial Stability Report Fiscal Monitor IMF and India India is a founder member of the IMF. Post-partition period: IMF came to the rescue when India had a serious balance of payments deficits, particularly with the dollar and other hard currency countries. The Fund granted India loans to meet the financial difficulties arising out of the Indo–Pak conflict of 1965 and 1971. In 1981: India was given a massive loan of about Rs. 5,000 crores to overcome the foreign exchange crisis resulting from a persistent deficit in the balance of payments on the current account. In the early 1990s: when foreign exchange reserves of two weeks’ imports as against the generally accepted ‘safe minimum reserves’ of a three-month equivalent position were terribly unsatisfactory the Government of India’s immediate response was to secure an emergency loan of $2.2 billion from the IMF by pledging 67 tons of India’s gold reserves as collateral security. India promised IMF to launch several structural reforms (like devaluation of the Indian currency, cut in government expenditure and subsidy, import liberalisation, industrial policy reforms, trade policy reforms, banking reforms, privatization of public sector enterprises, etc.) Repayments of all the loans taken from the International Monetary Fund were completed in 2000. India has not taken any financial assistance from the IMF since 1993. The Finance Minister of India is the ex-officio Governor on the Board of Governors of the IMF. RBI Governor is the Alternate Governor at the IMF. India’s current quota in the IMF: 2.75%. MUST READ: IMF and World Economic Outlook SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Malcha Mahal Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, recently issued directions requiring revamping of the forest area around the Malcha Mahal. About Malcha Mahal:- It was built in 1325 by the then Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq. It was used as a hunting lodge for a long time. It later became the residence of the descendants of the Nawab of Awadh. Location: Delhi. Historical Background: it came to be known as ‘Wilayat Mahal’ after Begum Wilayat Mahal of Awadh, who claimed that she was a member of the royal family of Oudh. She was given the palace by the government in 1985. When she died it came into the ownership of her daughter Sakina Mahal, and son Prince Ali Raza (Cyrus). The monument is not Archaeological Survey of India(ASI)protected and, therefore, no attention was paid to it in all these years in order to conserve it. (UPSC CSE: ASI) ASI: an Indian government agency.  It is responsible for archaeological research and the conservation and preservation of cultural-historical monuments in the country. Founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham. He became its first Director-General. Ministry: Ministry of Culture HQ: New Delhi Feroz Shah Tughlaq Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty. Tughlaq dynasty: ruled over Delhi from 1320 to 1412 AD. He ascended the throne of Delhi after the demise of his cousin Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. Time period:  from 1351 to 1388 AD. Salient Features of his rule:- He gave imperative concessions to the Islamic scholars. He boycotted the practices these scholars deemed un-Islamic He started the imposition of Jaziya. He provided the principle of inheritance to the armed forces. Under this, the officers were permitted to rest and send their children to the army in their place. However, they were not paid in real money but by land. He imposed taxes like:- Kharaj: Land tax which was equal to one-tenth of the produce of the land. Zakat: Two and a half per cent tax on property realized from the Muslims. Kham: One-fifth of the booty captured (four-fifth was left for the soldiers) Jaziya: Levied on the non-Muslim subjects, particularly the Hindus. Women and children were, however, exempted from the taxes. MUST READ: ASI planning barricade around famed stone chariot at Hampi SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? (2020) “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” Ashoka Samudragupta Harshavardhana Krishnadeva Raya Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2018) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Nova Kakhovka dam Syllabus Prelims –International Affairs Context: The Nova Kakhovka dam in Ukraine collapsed recently. About Nova Kakhovka dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: newarab.com It was built in 1956 as part of the Kakhovka hydroelectric power plant. The dam was built in the Soviet era.  It is built on the Dnipro River. Dnipro: is one of the major transboundary rivers of Europe. It is the longest river in Ukraine and Belarus.  It is the fourth-longest river in Europe, after the Volga, Danube, and Ural rivers. It  rises in the Valdai Hills near Smolensk, Russia. It flows through Belarus and Ukraine into the Black Sea. (UPSC CSE: Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea ) Black Sea: is an inland sea located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia. The Turkish straits system – the Dardanelles, Bosporus and the Marmara Sea forms a transitional zone between the Mediterranean and the Black Sea. The Black Sea is also connected to the Sea of Azov by the Strait of Kerch. Bordering countries of the Black Sea are Russia, Ukraine, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and Romania. The dam holds back a huge reservoir, which locals call the Kakhovka Sea. Volume: the dam holds back around 18 cubic kilometres of water in the Kakhovka Reservoir. It lies in the Kherson region. (UPSC CSE: Perspectives on Russia-Ukraine War) Russia occupies the left, or southern, bank while Ukraine controls the right, or northern, bank. Distribution: it supplies water to the Crimean Peninsula and to the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant. The reservoir also provided water for the cooling system of the Zaporizhzhia nuclear power plant. Zaporizhzhia nuclear power plant of Ukraine: it is the largest in Europe. Significance Hydroelectric Power Generation: One of the primary purposes of the Kakhovka Dam is to generate electricity. Water Management: By controlling the Dnieper River’s flow, it helps prevent floods during periods of heavy rainfall and releases water during dry seasons to support irrigation and agricultural activities. Navigation and Transport: The reservoir created by the Kakhovka Dam serves as a navigable waterway, enabling inland navigation along the Dnieper River. Recreation and Tourism: The Kakhovka Dam and its reservoir offer opportunities for recreational activities such as boating, fishing, and swimming. Environmental Impact: While it contributes to hydroelectric power generation and supports agriculture, the construction of the dam and the alteration of the river’s flow can have ecological consequences on the river ecosystem and the species that depend on it. MUST READ: Black Sea Grain Initiative SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:      Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                     Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                           Spain Catalonia                                                 Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs National Water Awards Syllabus Prelims – Awards Context: Recently, the Vice President of India, conferred the 4th National Water Awards, 2022. About National Water Awards:- The first National Water Award was launched in 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objectives:- To encourage the stakeholders to adopt a holistic approach towards water resources management in the country. To create awareness among the people about the importance of water and attempt to motivate them to adopt the best water usage practices. Start-ups, leading organisations and people can engage, deliberate and strengthen existing partnerships on issues concerning water conservation and management activities. Significance:- India has more than 18% of the world’s population, it has only 4% of the world’s renewable water resources. (UPSC CSE: Water Crisis in India) Categories:- Ministry of Jal Shakti is giving 57 awards to States, Organizations, Individuals etc. in 11 different categories as follows:- Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best Media (Print & Electronic), Best School, Best Institution/RWA/Religious organization for Campus usage, Best Industry, Best NGO, Best Water User Association, and Best Industry for CSR Activity. MUST READ: Rashtriya Puruskar Portal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) 1.‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. 2.‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. 3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Dairy Sector in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Indian Economy) Context: The Union Minister of Heavy Industries Dr Mahendra Nath Pandey unveiled the “Dugdh Sanakalan Sathi Mobile App” at Mussoorie, Uttarakhand. About the App: It improves the quality of milk, foster transparency among stakeholders, and streamline operations at the grassroots village level, including Milk Cooperative Societies. Designed and Developed by: Rajasthan Electronics and Instruments Limited (REIL), Jaipur, a ‘Mini Ratna” Central Public Sector Enterprises under the Ministry of Heavy Industries Dairy Sector in India: India’s success story in milk production was scripted by Dr Verghese Kurien, known as the “Father of the White Revolution” in India. Dairy is the single-largest Agri commodity in India. It contributes 5% to the national economy and employs 80 million dairy farmers directly. Growth in the liquid milk segment, which accounts for over half of the dairy industry, is likely to remain stable (6-7%). The organised dairy segment, which accounts for 26-30% of industry (by value), has seen faster growth, compared to the unorganised segment. Notably, 228 dairy cooperatives reach out to 17 million farmers, many of whom are likely to be assured of their milk being procured at the right time and at a fair price. Operation Flood: Operation Flood helped quality milk reach consumers across 700 towns and cities through a National Milk Grid. The programme also helped remove the need for middlemen, thereby reducing seasonal price variations. In 1968-69, prior to the launch of Operation Flood, milk production was only 21.2 MT which increased to 30.4 MT by 1979-80 and 51.4 MT by 1989-90. Now it has increased to 210 million tonnes in 2020-21. Significance of the Dairy Sector in India: India’s dairy industry has played a crucial role in the country’s economic development. The sector has demonstrated an important part in achieving food security, reducing poverty, generating employment opportunities, and providing a regular source of income for rural households. The Operation Flood has reduced the import bill, converted India from a milk importer to the world’s largest producer. Underlying Supply Constraints in India’s Dairy Sector: Fodder Inflation and Supply Constraints: Fodder and feed account for 70% of the cost of milk. Fodder development has not found much of a place in animal husbandry budgets. Fodder is grown on just 4% of farmland, leading to supply constraints. Demand Destruction during the Covid-19 Pandemic: The pandemic led to a crash in milk prices, impacting farmers’ ability to invest in cattle upkeep. The effects of this demand destruction will linger for some time. Lumpy Skin Disease Outbreak: Lumpy skin disease has wreaked havoc on livestock, leading to losses in income and capital. Cooperatives’ Limited Success: Dairy cooperatives have revolutionized dairying, but their success has not gone beyond Gujarat and Karnataka. Private players have taken market share by offering higher prices in a buoyant market. Inefficient Breeding Practices: Inefficient breeding practices lead to low productivity and genetic variability, ultimately reducing milk production. Many farmers still rely on traditional breeding practices and do not have access to modern technologies for genetic improvement. Government Initiatives to Boost Dairy Industry: Rashtriya Gokul Mission: Aims to genetically improve the cattle population and promote and conserve indigenous cattle breeds. Under the mission, farmers now have access to several cutting-edge technologies at their doorstep, including sex-sorted semen, IVF technique and genomic selection. National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD): Aims to build or strengthen infrastructure for the production of high-quality milk as well as for the procurement, processing, and marketing of milk and milk products through the State Implementing Agency or State Cooperative Dairy Federation. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS): DEDS is being implemented by the Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying, and Fisheries to create self-employment opportunities in the dairy industry. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is carrying out the programme. e-GOPALA: The web version of the e-GOPALA application developed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) has been launched to aid dairy farmers. Launching of Dairy mark: The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) together developed a dedicated ‘Dairy Mark’ logo as a unified quality mark across India to boost the confidence of consumers in milk and milk products. Way Forward: The milk shortage in India is a complex issue that requires a multi-pronged approach to address. While demand destruction during Covid, lumpy skin disease, and fodder inflation have all contributed to the drying up of milk output, there is hope that the first two factors may be transient. However, fodder inflation is an endemic issue that requires urgent attention from policymakers. Investing in policies to address embedded supply constraints, such as fodder development, could provide a solution to this long-standing problem. MUST READ: Learning from Dairy Revolution Source:     LM Transgenic crops in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment and Ecology) Context: Three States, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana, have recently rejected a proposal, approved by the Centre’s Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), to test a new kind of transgenic cotton seed. About Transgenic Crops: Transgenic crops are plants that have been modified through genetic engineering These crops have had specific genes inserted into their DNA to give them new characteristics or traits that are not naturally found in the species through traditional breeding methods. About Genetically Modified Crops: A Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) is any living organism whose genetic material has been modified to include certain desirable techniques. Genetic modification has previously been used for the large-scale production of insulin, vaccines, and more. In crops, genetic modification involves the manipulation of DNA instead of using controlled pollination— the conventional method to improve crops— to alter certain characteristics of the crop. Status in India: In India, only Cotton is currently commercially cultivated as a GM crop. Trials are underway for other crops like brinjal, tomato, maize, and chickpea using transgenic technology. The GEAC approved the environmental release of GM mustard hybrid DMH-11, bringing it closer to full commercial cultivation. However, there is an ongoing legal case in the Supreme Court questioning the permission for transgenic food crops. They seek a stay on GM mustard, citing concerns about farmers using banned herbicides. Advantages: Disease resistant and Sustainability: Through genetic modifications the genetically modified crops are made resistant to diseases. This enhances their sustainability and yield. Environmental Protection: According to an Oklahoma State University report, the increase of GM animals and crops often requires less time, tools and chemicals, and may help with reducing greenhouse gas emissions, soil erosion and environmental pollution. Longer Shelf life: Genetically modified foods have a longer shelf life. This enhances the ease of transportation and storage. Affordability: Due to reduced burden of inputs and longer shelf life hence reduced wastages, the prices of the output will be low. This increases the affordability. Fortification: According to the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations, some GM foods have been engineered to become more nutritious in terms of vitamin or mineral content. This not only helps people get the nutrients they need, but also plays a significant role in fighting against malnutrition in third-world countries. Disadvantages: It is believed that consumption of these genetically engineered foods can cause the development of diseases which may be immune to antibiotics. This cross-pollination method can cause damage to other organisms that thrive in the environment. The technology could be carcinogenic. It is a killer technology that kills soil, microbes, pollinators, almost all medicinal herbs and adversely affects crop diversity. It may also cause cancer in humans, Way Forward: The GEAC has asked the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the ICAR to “jointly organise capacity-building activities with regard to GM crops for appraising the State/UT Government(s) about the technology involved and the regulatory framework in place for evaluation of these GM crops. To resolve the issue of States not following approvals on testing, because of differing attitudes to GM crops, the GEAC is considering a proposal by the DBT to declare some regions across India as ‘notified testing sites. There are 42 such proposed sites and, if it goes through, companies and institutions wanting to conduct trials of GM crops at these locations won’t need the permission of States for trials. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements regarding, the International Monetary Fund (IMF): India has not taken any financial assistance from the IMF since 1993. Its Headquarters is in New York. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) Consider the following statements regarding, the Nova Kakhovka dam : It is on the Black Sea. It supplies water to the Crimean Peninsula, and to the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) Consider the following statements regarding, the National Water Awards: They are given by the Ministry of Urban Development. It was established in 2015. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 19th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [19th June, 2023] – Day 8

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 8 Questions - CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

मासिक पत्रिका मार्च 2023 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is मार्च/March 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of मार्च/March 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - मार्च/March 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: India’s Health Sector Internationalization of the Indian Rupee Digital India Act, 2023 Corruption in India Indo-German Relations Biotransformation Technology Integrated-Disease Surveillance-Programme Finance Bill 2023 ISRO’s Space Tourism Key takeaways And Much More.... Download The Magazine - मार्च/March 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –17th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Lines of Credit (LoCs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that India’s future Lines of Credit (LoCs) to Africa could focus on defence exports to meet the requirements of the continent. About Lines of Credit (LoCs):- IMAGE SOURCE: INVESTOPEDIA It is a credit facility extended by a bank or any other financial institution that enables the customer to draw the maximum loan amount. Lender: it can be given by a bank or any other financial institution. Borrower: it can be given to a government, business or individual customer. Time limit: the set borrowing limit can be tapped into at any time. Transaction Limit: the borrower can take money out until the maximum limit is reached. Usage in international relations: it is a soft loan provided on concessional interest rates to developing countries. It is not a grant and has to be repaid by the borrowing government. Types of credit lines:  personal, business, and home equity, among others. Advantages: it has built-in flexibility, which is its main advantage. Borrowers can request a certain amount, but they do not have to use it all.  They can tailor their spending from the LOC to their needs. They owe interest only on the amount that they draw, not on the entire credit line. Disadvantages: high-interest rates, penalties for late payments, and the potential to overspend. India-Africa Relations:- IMAGE SOURCE: YourStory Historical Ties India’s trade relations with Africa date back several centuries.  (UPSC CSE: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead) The presence of Indians in East Africa is documented in the ‘Periplus of the Erythraean Sea’ or Guidebook of the Red Sea by an ancient Greek author written in 60 AD. Mahatma Gandhi: he began his political career in South Africa. (UPSC CSE: India and Mahatma Gandhi) Non-Alignment Movement (NAM): India was a forerunner as a champion of the interests of the developing countries from Africa among other third-world countries. (UPSC CSE: NAM) Importance of Africa Africa is home to over half a dozen of the fastest-growing countries in the world. African continent has a population of over one billion with a combined GDP of 2.5 trillion dollars making it a huge potential market. Africa is a resource-rich nation dominated by commodities like crude oil, gas, pulses and lentils, leather, gold and other metals, all of which India lack in sufficient quantities. India is seeking diversification of its oil supplies away from the Middle East and Africa can play an important role in India’s energy matrix. India’s Initiatives in Africa India Africa Forum Summit ) is the official platform for African-Indian relations. It was launched in 2008. India is investing in capacity building providing more than $1 billion in technical assistance and training to personnel under the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) program. ITEC: is the leading capacity-building platform of the Ministry Of External Affairs. Instituted in 1964. Have trained more than 200,000 officials from 160+ countries in both the civilian and the defence sectors. India has invested $100 million in the Pan-African E-Network. Objective: to bridge the digital divide in Africa, leveraging its strengths in information technology. Indian military academies offer training to military officers from a number of African states. Asian Africa Growth Corridor: jointly prepared by Indian and Japanese think tanks. The corridor will focus on Developing Cooperation Projects, Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity, skill enhancement, and People-to-People Partnerships. MUST READ: Credit in the Economy SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Cyclone Biparjoy Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Heavy to extremely heavy rainfall was predicted over Kutch, north Gujarat, and south Rajasthan regions recently as Cyclone Biparjoy moved northeastwards. About Cyclonic Storm Biparjoy:- IMAGE SOURCE: AIR A deep depression over the southeast Arabian Sea intensified into a cyclonic storm Biparjoy. Origin:  southeast Arabian Sea Naming: Bangladesh gave a tropical cyclone the name “Biparjoy,” which is Bengali for “calamity” or “disaster. (UPSC CSE: Naming of Cyclone) Cyclone: a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters.  Usually, a high temperature anywhere means the existence of low-pressure air, and a low temperature means high-pressure wind. Frequency of Cyclones in the Arabian Sea Frequency: It has fewer cyclones compared to the Bay of Bengal. This is because the Bay of Bengal is warmer. Favorable Month: June Factors Influencing Cyclone Formation: Cyclones form due to low-pressure systems over warm waters. The Arabian Sea is getting warmer due to climate change, leading to an increase in cyclones. (UPSC CSE: More cyclones in the Arabian Sea) Tropical Cyclones Intense circular storm over warm oceans with low pressure. It brings high winds and heavy rain. Conditions for formation: Warm sea surface temperatures, anticlockwise rotation of low-level air, favourable atmospheric conditions. Tropical Cyclones in India:- Origin: Tropical cyclones striking India generally originate in the Bay of Bengal. Frequency: Cyclones occur in the months of May–June and October–November. MUST READ: Cyclones forecast SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July National Time Release Study (NTRS) 2023 report Syllabus Prelims – Context: Recently, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) released the National Time Release Study (NTRS) 2023 report. About National Time Release Study (NTRS) 2023 report:- IMAGE SOURCE:  PIB The National Time Release Study (NTRS) is a performance measurement tool. Published by: Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). Time period: NTRS 2023 report analyzed data collected during the sample period from January 1 to 7, 2023. It serves as an essential tool for assessing the efficiency and effectiveness of customs procedures and regulations related to cargo clearance. Objectives:- Assessing progress towards the targets set in the National Trade Facilitation Action Plan. Evaluating the impact of trade facilitative initiatives. Identifying challenges hindering the reduction of release time. Providing a quantitative measure of cargo release time. Presenting port-category-wise average release time for a given year. Key Findings of NTRS 2023 report:- According to the report the average import release time by customs authorities has decreased in 2023 compared to 2022. The import release time has declined by 20% for inland container depots (ICDs), 11% for air cargo complexes (ACCs), and 9% for seaports. In absolute terms, the import release time for seaports is 85.42 hours, for ICDs is 71.46 hours, for ACCs is 44.16 hours, and for integrated check posts (ICPs) is 31.47 hours. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). This renaming happened in 2018 after the roll-out of Goods and Services Tax (GST). It is a statutory board under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, 1963 (54 of 1963). Ministry: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Composition: Chairman and 6 members in addition to the Chairman. Functions:-  It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). (UPSC CSE: GST) The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations. These include Custom Houses, Central Goods and Services Commissionerates and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. It has been actively working towards reducing release time by customs for both imports and exports in order. Promote ease of doing business and enhance tax collections. (UPSC CSE: Tax-GDP ratio) MUST READ: International Customs Day, 2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Enceladus Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, NASA’s Cassini spacecraft discovered ‘phosphorous’, a key element for life, on Saturn’s moon Enceladus. About Enceladus:- IMAGE SOURCE: phys.org Enceladus is the sixth-largest moon of Saturn. Discovery: it was discovered in 1789, by the English astronomer William Herschel. Origin of the name: it was named for one of the Giants (Gigantes) of Greek mythology. Surface features: ranging from old, heavily cratered regions to young, tectonically deformed terrains. It is mostly covered by fresh, clean ice, making it one of the most reflective bodies of the Solar System. It is the second nearest to the major regular. It is the brightest of all moons of Saturn. (UPSC CSE: Methane in the Moons of Saturn) It is an active moon that hides a global ocean of liquid salty water beneath its crust. (UPSC CSE: UAE’s Hope Mission) Major Revelations:- 2005: the Cassini spacecraft discovered water-rich plumes venting from the south polar region. According to NASA scientists, the plumes are similar in composition to comets. 2014: NASA reported that Cassini found evidence for a large south-polar subsurface ocean of liquid water. It had a thickness of around 10 km. 2021: astronomers reported detecting substantial amounts of methane. It could be a possible sign of microbial life, on Enceladus. Cassini spacecraft Launched in 1997 (UPSC CSE: Jupiter and Saturn to be seen in Great Conjunction) Launched by: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) It is an independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research. Time Period of mission: It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times. It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the planet’s moons. It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to search for extraterrestrial life. Titan: Saturn’s largest moon. It is the only moon in the solar system with a substantial atmosphere. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Bangkok vision 2030 Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit end of this year will adopt a Bangkok Vision 2030 as announced by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)recently. About Bangkok Vision 2030:- The Bangkok Vision 2030 was proposed by Thailand. Objective: to propel BIMSTEC towards a prosperous, resilient, and open region, fostering sustainable and balanced growth. (UPSC CSE: BIMSTEC) Vision: to advance BIMSTEC as a prosperous, resilient, and open region. It emphasizes sustainable and balanced growth, adapting to rapid changes in regional and global architecture. It aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability. The goals are in line with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) summit IMAGE SOURCE: southasiamonitor.org It is a regional organization. Objective: Creating an enabling environment for the rapid economic development of the sub-region. Established: 1997, by the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Member countries: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal. Initially, it was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). It became renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the inclusion of Myanmar. With the admission of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation’ (BIMSTEC). Chairmanship of BIMSTEC: rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States. Current chair: Thailand. Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh. It was established during the third BIMSTEC Summit(2014). MUST READ: BIMSTEC after the Colombo summit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea International Energy Agency (IEA) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recent reports from the International Energy Agency (IEA) show that India and China bought 80% of Russia’s oil. About International Energy Agency (IEA):- IMAGE SOURCE: crudeoilpeak.info It is an autonomous Intergovernmental Organisation. (UPSC CSE: IEA) Established: in 1974 HQ: Paris, France. Historical Background: it was established in the wake of the oil crisis of 1973-1974, to help its members respond to major disruptions in oil supply. Objective: it ensures reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond. It focuses on its energy policies which include economic development, energy security and environmental protection. IEA’s Membership:- It has 31 member countries. It also includes eight association countries. Eligibility Criteria:- A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). OECD: an international organisation, founded in 1961 to stimulate economic progress and world trade. A candidate country to the IEA must have: Crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports. The government must have immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) to use them to address disruptions to the global oil supply. Major Reports:- World Energy Outlook Report. World Energy Investment Report. World Energy Statistics. World Energy Balances. Energy Technology Perspectives. India Energy Outlook Report. India and IEA 2017: India became an Associate member of IEA. 2021: India also inked a Strategic Partnership Agreement with the IEA. It aimed to strengthen cooperation in global energy security, stability and sustainability. IEA invited India to become a full Member. Reason for Offering Membership to India:- India is becoming increasingly influential in global energy trends. Its in-depth report on India’s energy policies, which was released in January 2020, states that the country’s demand for energy is set to grow rapidly in the coming decades. The country’s reliance on fuel imports makes further improving energy security a key priority for the Indian economy. MUST READ: The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2022 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its form 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) fellowship programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government launched the Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) fellowship programme. About Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) fellowship programme:- This fellowship programme is to foster collaboration and knowledge-sharing between the Indian diaspora scientists and academic institutions in India. Starting date: 15th June 2023 Implementing Agency: Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology. Objective: to connect the Indian STEMM (Science, Technology, Engineering, Math and Medicine) diaspora with Indian academic and R&D; institutions for collaborative research work leading to sharing of knowledge, wisdom, and best practices in the frontier areas of science & technology. Implementation:- Under this program, 75 selected fellows would be invited to work in 18 identified knowledge verticals. 18 verticals include quantum technology, health, pharma, electronics, agriculture, energy, computer sciences, and material sciences amongst others. Eligibility:– The applicant should be a Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), currently living abroad. The applicant must have obtained a Ph.D/M.D/M.S degree from a recognized University. Applicant must be a researcher engaged in an overseas academic / research / industrial organization with a proven track record of research & development working in the top 500 QS World University Ranking. Eligibility(for Institutions): Higher Educational Institutions / Universities ranked in the top 200 in NIRF overall rankings and have NAAC ‘A’ grades (3.0 and above) and scientific institutes. Funding:- Fellowship would include a fellowship grant (INR 4,00,000 per month), international and domestic travel, accommodation and contingencies. SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 22nd Law Commission and Uniform Civil Code Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Law Commission recently decided to solicit views from the public on the idea of a uniform civil code. About Uniform Civil Code(UCC): The UCC refers to a common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, adoption, inheritance and succession for all citizens, irrespective of religion. Article 44: This Article of the Constitution makes a reference to a UCC and says, “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.” This is in the chapter dealing with the Directive Principles of State Policy and is therefore presumed to be advisory in nature. Article 37: States that the vision of a Uniform Civil Code (along with other directive principles) is enshrined in the Indian Constitution as a goal towards which the nation should strive, but it isn’t a fundamental right or a Constitutional guarantee. One can’t approach the court to demand a UCC. But that doesn’t mean courts can’t opine on the matter. Significance and need of UCC: Uniform Principles: Common Code would enable uniform principles to be applied in respect of aspects such as marriage, divorce, succession etc. so that settled principles, safeguards and procedures can be laid down and citizens are not made to struggle due to the conflicts and contradictions in various personal laws. Promotion of secularism: One set of laws to govern the personal matters of all citizens irrespective of religion is the cornerstone of true secularism. It would help end gender discrimination on religious grounds and strengthen the secular fabric of the nation. Protection of Vulnerable and Women’s Rights: It will protect the vulnerable sections of society. Women have been denied via personal laws in the name of socio-cultural-religious traditions. Therefore UCC could bring all communities together to ensure Women the Right to a dignified life and control over their life as well as body. Reduced Discord: if and when the whole population will start following the same laws, chances are there that it would bring more peace in the living and reduce riots. Hence, Religious harmony will be created for peaceful living in the country Prevents religion-based discrimination: Personal laws differentiate between people on grounds of religion. A unified law having the same provisions regarding marital affairs would provide justice to those who feel discriminated against. Ending unjust customs and traditions: A rational common and unified personal law will help eradicate many evil, unjust and irrational customs and traditions prevalent across the communities. For example, Law against Manual scavenging. It might have been a custom in the past but in a mature democracy like India, this custom cannot be justified. National integration: A common civil code will help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws that have conflicting ideologies. Best Practice: While delivering a judgment legitimising the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, the Supreme Court reportedly described Goa as a “shining example” with a Uniform Civil Code. Remove vote bank politics: Opting the UCC will remove the religious nexus of the Political system in which voters are divided on the basis of religion, caste etc. Eases Administration: UCC would make it easy to administer the huge population base of India. Global practice of UCC: Almost all Muslim nations like Morocco, Pakistan etc. have been following the UCC. Arguments Against UCC: Hampering diversity and multiculturalism: Indian society has a unique identity in the form of being diverse and multicultural, and unified law might do away with these unique characteristics of this nation. Violation of fundamental rights: Religious bodies oppose a uniform civil code on the ground that it would be interference in religious affairs which would violate fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the constitution. May lead to communal unrest: It would be a tyranny to the minority and when implemented could bring a lot of unrest in the country. The All India Muslim Personal Law Board stated that the laws pertaining to marriage and inheritance were part of religious injunctions for ages. Constitution of the 22nd Law Commission: The Commission is headed by former Karnataka High Court Chief Justice Rituraj Awasthi. Functions: The Commission, among other things, shall “identify laws which are no longer needed or relevant and can be immediately repealed; examine the existing laws in the light of Directive Principles of State Policy and suggest ways of improvement and reform. suggest such legislations as might be necessary to implement the Directive Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution”; and “revise the Central Acts of general importance so as to simplify them and remove anomalies, ambiguities and inequities”. The Commission is also looking into several significant issues like Implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC). Holding of simultaneous elections. The 22nd Commission has claimed that years have elapsed since similar views were sought by the previous panel on UCC, and that a fresh effort was needed to garner varied opinions. According to critics, the Law Commission’s decision to solicit views from the public on the idea of a uniform civil code appears to be a political initiative aimed at bringing the potentially divisive issue under focus. Way Forward: The goal of a UCC should ideally be reached in piecemeal manner, like the recent amendment on the age of marriage. Government need to balance the aims of the Constitution dealing with the aspects of valuing and preserving the rich heritage of composite culture and renouncing practices that are derogatory to the dignity of people especially women. Source:    The Hindu Status of Remittances Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the World Bank released its latest Migration and Development Brief. About Remittance: It denotes a sum of money sent by one party to another. These days, the term describes the money sent by someone working abroad to their family back home. In the case of India, the largest sources of remittances have been from Indians working in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries (UAE, Bahrain, Saudi Arabia, Oman, Qatar, Kuwait), and the U.S./U.K. Major Highlights: The remittance flows are expected to reach $840 billion in 2023 for the world. In 2024, the remittances growth rate globally is projected to increase to 0% in 2024, increasing inflows by $18 billion. Region Wise: The growth of remittances is likely to be the highest in Latin America and the Caribbean (forecast of 3.3%), as the labour market in the US continues to be strong. Remittance growth is expected to be the lowest in South Asia (0.3%), mainly because of the high base in 2022 along with slowing demand for highly skilled IT workers in the US and Europe. Remittance flows to the six South Asian countries will also be limited by demand for migrants in the GCC countries where declining oil prices are expected to slow growth from 5.3% in 2022 to 3% in 2023. Remittance flows to low- and middle-income countries (LMICs) are expected to moderate to 1.4% in 2023, resulting in total inflows of $656 billion. The top sources of remittances for India: Almost 36% of India’s remittances are from the high-skilled and largely high-tech Indian migrants in three high-income destinations — the US, the United Kingdom, and Singapore. The post-pandemic recovery led to a tight labour market in these regions, and wage hikes boosted remittances. Significance of Remittances: In the aftermath of the Covid-19 pandemic, remittances are being viewed as a critical financial inflow, and an important source of foreign exchange for several countries including those in South Asia. Remittances are highly complementary to government cash transfers and essential to households during times of need. Remittances have become a financial lifeline in many economies through the pandemic and will become even more so in the foreseeable future. Challenges: Slower growth in OECD economies — especially in the high-tech sector in the United States that could affect the demand for information technology (IT) workers and lead to a diversion of formal remittances toward informal money transfer channels — is likely to impact the flow of remittances this year. Slowing demand for migrants in the GCC countries and weak balance-of-payments conditions and exchange controls are expected to divert remittances to informal money transfer channels in Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka. The projected decline in GDP growth from 2.8% in 2022 to approximately 1.0% in 2023 and 2024 will erode many of the employment and income gains that East Asia’s high-skilled migrants reaped in 2022, dampening remittance flows to the region in 2023. Lower fuel prices in 2023 will further dampen demand for migrants in the GCC countries, reducing remittance flows to East Asia and the Pacific Islands. In Europe and Central Asia, the growth in remittances is expected to fall to 1% due to a high base effect, lingering weakness in flows to Ukraine and Russia, and a weaker Russian Ruble against the US dollar. Suggestive measures: Recognize the complexity and the increasing necessity of cross-border movements. Distinguish between various types of movements to identify appropriate policy responses. Maximize net gains when people bring skills and attributes that strongly match the needs of their destination society—for them, their countries of destination, and their countries of origin. Provide international protection to refuges in a manner that can be sustained, financially and socially—because most refugee situations last many years. There is a pressing need to improve relevant data collection systems. India can attract more NRI money with modern fintech tools such as the UPI linkages which prove faster and cheaper than the traditional money transfer systems such as the SWIFT. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following regarding, International Energy Agency (IEA): India became an associate member of IEA in 2020. It was established in 1974. Its Headquarters are in Montreal, Canada. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) Consider the following regarding, Vaishvik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) fellowships programme. The fellowship would include a fellowship grant (INR 4,00,000 per month). It is under the Ministry of Education. It is a collaboration of Indian diaspora scientists and academic institutions in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q3) Consider the following regarding, Enceladus: It is the moon of Jupiter. It was discovered by the Juno mission. It was named for one of the Giants (Gigantes) of Greek mythology. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) -c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [17th June, 2023] – Day 6

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 6 Questions - CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –16th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant Syllabus Prelims – Context: Recently, the Navy carried out a twin Carrier Battle Group (CBG) operation involving both of India’s aircraft carriers INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant. About INS Vikramaditya:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India INS Vikramaditya is the country’s most powerful aircraft carrier. Origin of the name: It has been renamed in honour of Vikramaditya, a legendary emperor of Ujjain, India. Historical Background:- It was converted from the Russian Navy’s decommissioned Admiral Gorshkov/Baku. Admiral Gorshkov/Baku This carrier served with the Soviet Navy and later with the Russian Navy (as Admiral Gorshkov/Baku) before being decommissioned in 1996. Bought by India: 2004. Commissioned by India: in 2013. It is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier. Kiev-class aircraft carrier: it was the first class of fixed-wing aircraft carriers built in the Soviet Union for the Soviet Navy. Features:- Carrying Capacity: It can carry more than 1,600 personnel, including crew. It has the ability to carry over 30 aircraft comprising an assortment of MiG 29K/Sea Harrier, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Sea King, ALH-Dhruv and Chetak helicopters. Displacement: 44,500 Tonnes. Maximum speed: more than 30 knots and can achieve a maximum range of 7,000nmi. Aircraft component: MiG 29K, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Seaking, ALH, Chetak. It can endure up to 45 days at sea. It is powered by 8 new-generation steam boilers. The aircraft carrier can be armed with a wide range of weapons. These include anti-ship missiles, beyond visual range air-to-air missiles, guided bombs, and rockets. The ship is equipped with state-of-the-art launch and recovery systems along with aids to enable the smooth and efficient operation of ship-borne aircraft. INS Vikrant IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS INS Vikrant is the largest warship to be built in India. (UPSC CSE: INS VIKRANT) Origin of the Name:- Vikrant means courageous. It is named after India’s first aircraft carrier, bought from the UK and commissioned in 1961. It is India’s first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy. Aircraft carrier: a large ship that carries military aircraft and has a long, flat surface from where they take off and land. Significance:-  India joins the United States (US), the United Kingdom (UK), France, Russia, Italy, and China, which have similar capabilities. Technologies used: STOBAR (short take-off but assisted recovery). 76% indigenous material was used. Designed by: Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design (DND). Directorate of Naval Design (DND): it is the warship design organization of the Indian Navy which came into being in 1970. Made: at Cochin Shipyard Limited in Kochi. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL): a public sector shipyard under the Ministry of Shipping. Carrier Battle Group (CBG) A Carrier Battle Group is a powerful naval fleet that consists of an aircraft carrier as its centrepiece, accompanied by various escort vessels. Twin Carrier Battle Group operation involved the simultaneous deployment of two aircraft carriers along with a diverse fleet of escort ships, submarines, and aircraft. (UPSC CSE: Ikshak Survey Vessel) Significance of Indian Navy’s twin CBG operation:- It demonstrated the Indian Navy’s capability to effectively coordinate and deploy multiple aircraft carriers along with their accompanying assets. It showcased India’s commitment to maintaining a strong naval presence. It showed India’s ability in ensuring the security and stability of the region. It also marked a significant milestone in the Indian Navy’s efforts to enhance maritime security and project power in the Indian Ocean and beyond. MUST READ: Operation Ganga SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Execution-only platform (EOP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) directed existing Mutual Funds ‘Execution-Only Platforms’ (EOPs)  to obtain registration within three months. About Execution only platform (EOP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Fuste Execution-only platform (EOP) is a digital or online platform which facilitates transactions such as subscription, redemption and switch transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds. Mutual funds: it is a financial vehicle that pools assets from shareholders to invest in securities like stocks, bonds, money market instruments, and other assets. Mutual funds are operated by professional money managers, who allocate the fund’s assets and attempt to produce capital gains or income for the fund’s investors. Historical Background:- Till now, there was no specific framework available for technology/digital platforms to provide execution-only services in direct plans of mutual fund schemes. Current Status:- As per the new SEBI’s new guidelines, no entity would be allowed to operate as an EOP without obtaining registration from SEBI or the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI). AMFI: nodal association of mutual funds across India. Categories of EOP The capital markets regulator has divided EOPs into two categories:- Category 1 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered with AMFI. Under this category, the EOPs would act as an agent of asset management companies (AMCs) and integrate their systems with AMCs and/or Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs) authorized by AMCs to facilitate transactions in mutual funds. These entities may act as an aggregator of the transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds and provide services to investors or other intermediaries. Category 2 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered as a stock broker with SEBI. It can operate as an agent of investors. It can operate only through the platforms provided by the stock exchanges. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) It is a statutory body established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. It was established in 1992. (UPSC CSE: SEBI) Objective: to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra Ministry: Ministry of Finance Historical Background:- Before SEBI came into existence, the Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority. It derived authority from the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947. In 1988 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India under a resolution of the Government of India. Initially SEBI was a non-statutory body. It became autonomous and given statutory powers by SEBI Act 1992. Members:- Chairman: nominated by the Union Government of India. Two members: Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One member: from the Reserve Bank of India. Remaining five members: nominated by the Union Government of India. Out of these at least three shall be whole-time members. Functions of SEBI:- Quasi-legislative: it drafts regulations Quasi-judicial: it passes rulings and orders Quasi-executive: it conducts investigation and enforcement action Powers of SEBI:- To approve by−laws of Securities exchanges. To require the Securities Exchange to amend its by−laws. Inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical returns from recognised Securities exchanges. Inspect the books of accounts of financial intermediaries. Registration of Brokers and sub-brokers. MUST READ: Mutual Funds (MF) Risk-o-meter becomes effective SOURCE: BUISINESSSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Wilful defaulters Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), allowed wilful defaulters involved in frauds to go in for a compromise settlement with respective banks to settle their dues. About Wilful defaulters:- Wilful Defaulter is an entity or a person that has not paid the loan taken back to the bank despite having the ability to repay it. Wilful defaulters are acted against comprehensively. (UPSC CSE: Time for 5th generation banking reforms) As per the RBI a wilful default occurs when:- the unit has defaulted in meeting its payment/repayment obligations to the lender when it has the capacity to honour these commitments. The funds are not utilised for the specific purpose for which finance was availed but rather have been diverted for other purposes. Those that have disposed of or removed movable fixed assets or immovable property given for the purpose of securing a term loan. Reasons for wilful defaults:- Businesses failure. Gaps in Internal audits, controls and procedures. Wrong investment decision. Bank’s failure in identifying such defaulters at an early stage of loan repayment. Steps By Government:- SARFAESI Act (Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002):- Under the provisions of this act many cases involving secured assets have been initiated. SARFAESI Act, 2002: allows banks and other financial institutions for auctioning commercial or residential properties to recover a loan when a borrower fails to repay the loan amount. RBI Instructions:– As per the instructions provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), wilful defaulters are not sanctioned any additional facilities by banks/financial institutions, their unit is debarred from floating new ventures for 5 years. Even criminal proceedings are initiated wherever necessary. SEBI Regulations:- Wilful defaulters and companies who have wilful defaulters as either promoters or directors have been debarred from accessing capital markets to raise funds. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016: it has debarred wilful defaulters from participating in the insolvency resolution process. IBC 2016: it is India’s bankruptcy law which seeks to consolidate the existing framework by creating a single law for insolvency and bankruptcy. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018: the act was enacted for effective action against wilful defaulters who flee Indian jurisdiction. It provides for attachment and confiscation of property of fugitive offenders and to disentitle them from defending any civil claim. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018: it seeks to confiscate the properties of economic offenders who have left the country to avoid facing criminal prosecution or refuse to return to the country to face prosecution. Public Sector Banks (PSB): the government has also advised all PSBs to decide on publishing photographs of all concerned wilful defaulters. It further suggested obtaining a certified copy of the passport of promoters/directors and other authorised signatories of companies availing loans of over ₹50 crores. PSBs:  banks owned or controlled by the government of India, which holds more than 50% of their shares. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) It was established in 1935 by the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934. It is the Central Bank of India. (UPSC CSE: RBI surplus transfer) HQ: Mumbai It plays a multi-facet role by executing multiple functions such as overseeing monetary policy, issuing currency, managing foreign exchange etc. Structure of RBI:- The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. Directors: are appointed/nominated for a period of four years. Functions of the RBI:- It implements and monitors the monetary policy and ensures price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Amendment to RBI Act, 1934, in 2016 Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide for a six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). It is to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target. It regulator and Supervisor of the Financial System. It manages the Foreign Exchange reserves of India. It issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation. Banker to the Government: it performs merchant banking functions for the central and state governments. Banker to banks: it maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks. It also acts as the lender of last resort by providing funds to banks. MUST READ: Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 This is box title Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) announced that the United States will rejoin it after 4 years. About United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO):- IMAGE SOURCE: vividmaps.com It is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN). UN: is an international organization founded in 1945. It works for maintaining international peace and security, protect human rights, deliver humanitarian aid, promote sustainable development and uphold international law. Objective: promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, the sciences, and culture. HQ: Paris, France. Members:- It has 193 member states and 11 associate members, as well as partners in the nongovernmental, intergovernmental, and private sectors. UNESCO member states not UN members: Cook Islands, Niue, and Palestine. UN member states not UNESCO members: Israel, Liechtenstein, United States. It is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG). UNSDG: a coalition of UN agencies and organizations aimed at fulfilling the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Functions of UNESCO:- Ensuring an inclusive and equitable quality education for all. Safeguarding cultural heritage. Advancing scientific research and collaboration. Promoting freedom of expression. Fostering intercultural dialogue. Notable Programs and Activities of UNESCO:- World Heritage Program: Designates and preserves sites of outstanding universal value. Education for All Program: Ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education for all. International Hydrological Program: Promoting sustainable water management and cooperation. Man and the Biosphere Program: Promoting sustainable development and Conservation of natural resources. Intangible Cultural Heritage Program: Safeguarding and promoting intangible cultural heritage. (UPSC MAINS: world heritage sites) Issue of USA Leaving UNESCO In 2011, UNESCO inducted Palestine as a member. This led to the US halting the agency’s funding, worth millions of dollars, under then-President Barack Obama. Reason to stop funding UNESCO:- Israel and the United States termed the inclusion of Palestine and UNESCO’s naming of what Israel claims were ancient Jewish sites as Palestinian heritage sites as examples of anti–Israel bias. US laws, owing to the country’s historical ties with Israel, prohibit funding to any UN agency that implies recognition of the Palestinians’ demands for their own state. Consequently, in 2019 the US and Israel pulled out of UNESCO citing bias in the organisation in the Palestine issue. The US had pulled out of UNESCO once earlier in 1984 and then rejoined in 2003. Recent Developments: it was negotiated recently through an agreement in 2022 that the USA will begin giving UNESCO funds again. Issue of Palestine:- The Palestinians claim the West Bank, east Jerusalem and Gaza Strip territories captured by Israel in the 1967 war for an independent state. Israel disagrees with Palestine’s claims. Palestine is not recognised as a sovereign state by the United Nations. India and UNESCO India has been a founding member of UNESCO. It had ratified UNESCO’s Constitution in 1946, while still under colonial rule. India has been continuously re-elected to the UNESCO Executive Board since 1946. Recently, India won the re-election to the executive board of the UN’s cultural and education organisation for the 2021-25 term. Objectives of UNESCO’s Mission in India:- Attaining quality education for all and lifelong learning. (UPSC CSE: UNESCO fund for languages) Mobilizing science knowledge and policy for sustainable development. Addressing emerging social and ethical challenges. Fostering cultural diversity, intercultural dialogue and a culture of peace. Building inclusive knowledge societies through information and communication. Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO (INCCU) It is a governmental body. Establishment:- Initially set up in 1949, it is a governmental body functioning under the Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Human Resource Development. A permanent Commission was established in 1951. Ministry: Department of Secondary and Higher Education in the Ministry of Education. Objective: to advise the Government in matters relating to UNESCO. President of the Commission: Minister of Human Resource Development. MUST READ: Seabed SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:       Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco. Region along the Persian Gulf and the Horn of Africa. The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas. Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister praised the initiative of the first Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav.  About Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav:- The Inauguration of Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav was done in 2023. The Janjatiya Khel Mahotsav is a collaborative effort between the Odisha Government and the Union Ministry of Culture. The event successfully showcased the talent and competitive spirit of tribal communities. Organized at Khel Mahotsav at KIIT University, Odisha. Objective: to celebrate sports and promote tribal sports and unity. (UPSC CSE: Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development) Significance:- It provided a platform for athletes from diverse backgrounds to showcase their abilities. It fostered a sense of togetherness among the participating states. It celebrated indigenous athletes from across India. Focus areas: sports, culture, and unity. Participants: around 5,000 indigenous athletes from 26 states, representing a variety of tribal cultures, attended the competition. Karnataka: it excelled in the women’s division of Kabaddi, securing the top spot. It also secured first place in both the men’s and women’s categories in volleyball. Jharkhand earned third place. Odisha topped in the men’s division, in Kabaddi. MUST READ: Integrating tribal knowledge systems SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Jellyfish galaxy JO206 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Hubble captured a jellyfish galaxy JO206 lying 700 million light-years away. About jellyfish galaxy JO206:- It is a galaxy located approximately 700 million light-years away from Earth. Galaxy: a large system of stars, stellar remnants, interstellar gas, dust, and other celestial objects bound together by gravity. It showcases a colourful star-forming disk surrounded by a pale, luminous cloud of dust. It is situated in the constellation Aquarius. Constellations: it’s a group of stars that looks like a particular shape in the sky and has been given a name. Origin of the name: “Jellyfish” is given to galaxies that resemble their marine counterparts. This resemblance is evident in the image of JO206. At the bottom right in the image “tentacles” of bright star formation that trails the main disc of the galaxy are visible. The image was taken with the Hubble telescope. Hubble Space Telescope: it is a large, space-based observatory by NASA/ESA. It is deployed since 1990. National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA): is an independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research. European Space Agency(ESA): is an independent space agency. Its mission is to shape the development of Europe’s space capability and ensure that investment in space continues to deliver benefits to the citizens of Europe and the world. Aquarius constellation Aquarius constellation is located in the southern hemisphere. It is one of the 12 zodiac constellations. It belongs to the Zodiac family of constellations, along with Aries, Taurus, Gemini, Cancer, Leo, Virgo, Libra, Scorpius, Sagittarius, Capricornus, and Pisces. Zodiac constellations: the Sun appears to pass through these constellations over the course of a year. Origin of the name: it is  derived from Latin, meaning “the water-bearer” or “cup-bearer.” Aquarius lies in the region of the sky which is sometimes referred to as the Sea, because it contains a number of other constellations with names associated with water like Pisces (the fish), Eridanus (the river), and Cetus (the whale), among others.  Aquarius is the 10th largest constellation. Area: It covers an area of 980 square degrees. Aquarius contains the famous supergiant stars Sadalsuud (Beta Aquarii) and Sadalmelik (Alpha Aquarii). MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line Speed of light is always the same National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking 2023: Is the ranking system of colleges flawed? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking 2023 was announced recently, showcasing the excellence and achievements of various educational institutions in India. About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Ranking: The NIRF is a methodology to rank institutions across the country based on various parameters. NIRF was approved by the Ministry of Education (Erstwhile Ministry of Human Resource Development) and launched on 29th September 2015. It is the first-ever effort by the government to rank Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. Parameters for NIRF Ranking: The weightage for each parameter varies depending on the category of the institution. NIRF ranks institutes by their total score and it uses five indicators to determine this score — ‘Teaching, Learning & Resources’ (30% weightage); ‘Research and Professional Practice’ (30%); ‘Graduation Outcomes’ (20%); ‘Outreach and Inclusivity’ (10%); and ‘Perception’ (10%). Major Highlights of NIRF Ranking 2023: The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras secured the top spot in the overall ranking for the fifth consecutive year, while the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru was ranked as the best university. Three Distinct Additions of 2023 Edition of India Rankings: Introduction of a new subject namely Agriculture & Allied Sectors Expansion of scope of “Architecture” to “Architecture and Planning” to include institutions imparting courses in Urban and Town Planning. Integration of the “Innovation” ranking previously executed by the Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements (ARIIA) into the India Rankings to reduce the burden on institutions of providing similar data to two different agencies. Significance: India specific ranking: India specific ranking system would reduce the dependence on the international agency ranking which does not take exclusivity and gives ranking. Transparency: Verifiable data would help in setting up as transparent ranking system Status of institutions: As it included both public and private institutions it provides the actual status of higher educational institutions in the country so that students could make informed choices. Improve competitiveness: This will help state as well as institutional for self-check and correcting themselves. Thus promoting excellence. It is a step towards bringing the Indian institutes on a global platform. Criticisms of the ranking framework: Insufficient quality parameters: The quality of an institution is a function of several inputs and the above indicators alone may not be sufficient. For example., how can we include the skills that an institution/university imparts to its students as one of the important ingredients? Should the financial health and size of the institution not be a criterion? etc. One-size-fits-all approach: The diversity in the Indian education system is large. There are fresh as well as old institutions offering degrees/diplomas/certifications. There is also technology vs social sciences institutions, multi-disciplinary vs single discipline, private vs public, research-based, innovation-based, language-based or even special-purpose institutions/universities. NIRF seems to be committing the same sin that the global rankings systems were once accused of — a one-size-fits-all approach. Ranking Vs accreditation: Another glaring oversight is the disconnect that exists between the ranking and accreditation. Several universities have earned a National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) A grade but figure poorly in the ranking system. Lack of international faculty: The world over, ranking educational institutes is a matter of debate and research. There are at least 20 global ranking agencies that measure quality on various parameters. Two factors that are absent and differentiate us from the global ranking systems are our lack of international faculty and students and the inadequacy of our research to connect with the industry. Suggestive measures: Normalisation of performance index: Normalisation would help as there is huge resource gap between state funded and private institutions. Separate scheme: A separate scheme for central, state and private institutions might be better, and private industries would be voluntarily made to compete with the state funded institutions. Measures like extensive cross-examination of data, systematic and monitored surveys, inclusion of state representatives in the NIRF team would help obtaining a comprehensive ranking. Way Forward: Thus, no matter how rigorous the methods, university rankings invariably involve some level of ambiguity. The NIRF’s emphasis on rankings can lead to unhealthy competition between universities, fostering a culture that puts metrics in front of the thing they are trying to measure: excellence in education and research. Source:   The Hindu Balasore Train Accident and The Issue of Indian railway safety Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster management) Context: The recent rail accident in Balasore in Odisha, involving the collision of three trains, is a tragic reminder of the challenges that India’s Rail services are facing. According to the National Crime Records Bureau, an average 23,000 people died every year between 2010 and 2021 in railway accidents. About India’s Rail services: The Indian Railways carries nearly 15 million passengers every day now compared to the peak of 23 million a day the year before the COVID-19 pandemic. India has an ambitious plan to improve its rail infrastructure, and in the year 2023-24, Rs. 2.4-lakh crore has been allocated for capital expenditure. In 2021, the Prime Minister announced that 75 new semi-high speed trains labelled Vande Bharat would be started over 75 weeks, and several have been started already. There has been attention on passenger amenities also, but nothing can be more important than safety. Though such deadly train accidents are usually not too frequent, they do recur occasionally. Train Accidents: An Overview Derailments: Derailments have been a major cause of train accidents in India. Lapses in safety protocols, track maintenance, and failure to identify and rectify track defects have resulted in derailments. For example, the derailment of the Puri-Haridwar Utkal Express in 2017, which claimed 23 lives and injured many, was attributed to negligence in track maintenance. Collisions: Train collisions have occurred due to lapses in signalling systems, human errors, and failure to maintain safe distances between trains. One such incident was the collision between the Gorakhdham Express and a halted goods train in Uttar Pradesh, in 2014, resulting in a high number of casualties and injuries. Level crossing accidents: Lapses in ensuring the safety of level crossings have led to accidents involving trains and road vehicles. Failure to eliminate manned level crossings, inadequate warning systems, and negligence in adhering to safety procedures have contributed to such accidents. For instance, in 2011, 38 people have been killed and 17 others injured in a train-bus collision in the Kanshiramnagar district of Uttar Pradesh. Signal failures: Malfunctioning or improper signalling systems have been responsible for train accidents. Inadequate maintenance, faulty equipment, and human errors in signalling operations have resulted in collisions and other mishaps. The collision of two trains in Gaisal, West Bengal (1999), occurred due to a signalling error. Overcrowding and over speeding: Overcrowding of trains beyond their capacity and over speeding have also led to accidents. Lack of proper crowd management and failure to enforce speed limits have been significant safety concerns. 2018 Amritsar train accident, where a train struck a crowd watching a Dussehra event near the railway tracks, causing numerous fatalities, highlighted the risks associated with overcrowding. Challenges and Shortcomings: Capacity Constraints: The high volume of passengers and freight transported daily leads to overcrowding and delays, impacting the efficiency of operations. Safety Concerns: Safety is a significant challenge for Indian Railways. The network has experienced a significant number of accidents and incidents, including train derailments, resulting in fatalities and injuries. Ensuring passenger and crew safety remains a top priority. Infrastructure Upgradation: The existing infrastructure of Indian Railways, including tracks, stations, and signalling systems, requires modernization and upgradation. Aging infrastructure hampers smooth operations and the ability to meet the growing demand for transportation services. Funding Constraints: Indian Railways faces financial challenges in funding infrastructure development and modernization projects. The cost of such projects is substantial, and securing adequate funds is essential. The Railways heavily rely on government funding and internal resources, which may limit the scope of investment. Competition from Other Modes of Transportation: Indian Railways faces competition from alternate modes of transportation, such as roadways and airways. Increasing competition in the freight and passenger transportation sectors poses challenges to maintaining market share and attracting customers. Skilled Human Resources: Indian Railways faces a shortage of skilled human resources, particularly in critical areas such as safety, maintenance, and operations. Filling vacancies with qualified personnel and providing appropriate training are crucial for efficient and safe railway operations. 2021 CAG Report: CAG submitted another report for the year ended March 2021. It observed, “Proper maintenance of the railway track is a pre-requisite for the train operation without accidents.” The main causes were: Poor planning, Idle track machines, Vacancies in the work force and Lack of training of Permanent Way staff. Initiatives taken by the Government Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): The government has allowed FDI in railways-related components, attracting foreign investment to the sector. From April 2000 to March 2020, FDI inflow in railways-related components stood at US$ 1,107.60 million. National Rail Plan: The government is working on a comprehensive “National Rail Plan” that aims to integrate the rail network with other modes of transport and develop a multi-modal transportation system in the country. New Online Vendor Registration System: The Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO), the research arm of Indian Railways, has launched a digital and transparent system called the “New Online Vendor Registration System” to streamline vendor registration processes. Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs): The construction of dedicated freight corridors is underway to increase the proportion of freight traffic and improve the efficiency of goods transportation. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) from Mumbai to Uttar Pradesh and the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) from Dankuni in West Bengal to Ludhiana in Punjab are part of this initiative. Rail Kisan: The “Rail Kisan” initiative aims to boost the transportation of agricultural goods by providing dedicated trains for farmers. Under this program, over 49,000 tonnes of goods have been transported on eight routes, benefiting farmers across the country. Program for the Redevelopment of Station Infrastructure: The government has launched a program to redevelop 400 railway stations across India under a public-private partnership (PPP) model. The aim is to create self-sustainable stations with high standards of safety, comfort, passenger amenities, value-added services, and efficiency. Connecting Mining Districts and the North East: Railway connectivity in the North East region is being improved to promote inclusive development. Broad gauge lines are being extended to connect major cities in the region, and railway connectivity to mining districts is being mapped to enhance transportation. Quest for Self-reliance: As part of the “Atma Nirbhar Bharat” initiative, the railways are implementing various projects. These include the development of the indigenous anti-collision system called “Kavach,” the introduction of highly energy-efficient “Vande Bharat” high-speed trains, and the goal of achieving zero accidents. Way Forward: Accidents per million train kilometre have fallen over the last decade, but poor maintenance of tracks and the rolling stock and overstretched staff are problems that the Railways can no longer camouflage with glitzy facades.  The accident in Balasore should prompt India’s railways development plans onto the right track. Safety measures including anti-collision systems are expanding, but evidently not at an adequate pace. More important will be the corrective measures by the Railways at the operational and planning levels. It will have to find more resources to modernise and rationalise its priorities. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following regarding, INS VIKRANT: It is made at Cochin Shipyard Limited in Kochi. It is India’s first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) Consider the following regarding, Wilful defaulters: They defaulted in meeting their payment obligations to the lender despite having the capacity to honour these commitments. They can participate in the insolvency resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) Consider the following regarding, Galaxy JO206 : It is situated in the constellation Aquarius. It is 700 million light-years away from Earth. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) -d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –15th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) certified Trainers trained in the cluster-based Training of Trainers project under the Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme.  About SANKALP programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. Tenure: 2018-2023.(UPSC CSE: SANKALP Scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives: to improve short-term skill training through strengthening institutions, bringing in better market connectivity and inclusion of marginalised sections of society. Eligible age: candidate needs to be 18 years old. It aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM). It receives loan assistance from the World Bank. (UPSC CSE: World Bank and International Finance Corporation) World Bank: an international organization dedicated to providing financing, advice, and research to developing nations to aid their economic advancement. 3 Key Areas of SANKALP:- Institutional Strengthening at the Central, State and District level. Quality Assurance of skill development programmes. Inclusion of marginalized populations in skill development programmes. National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) It aims to create convergence across various sectors and different States in terms of activities relating to skill training. Launched: 2015. (UPSC CSE: NSDM) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives of NSDM:- to consolidate efforts of skill training and development across sectors and states. to help expedite steps to achieve various skilling efforts at scale at a fast pace. to create an end-to-end framework which promotes sustainable livelihoods for citizens. Institutional mechanisms:- The MSDE has set up institutional mechanisms at three tiers namely:- Governing Council : at the apex level for policy guidance Steering Committee Mission Directorate The Mission Directorate is supported by three additional institutions functioning horizontally. These include:- National Skill Development Agency (NSDA):- NSDA was established to coordinate and harmonize the skill development efforts of the government and the private sector. It focuses on policy research, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):- NSDC is Public Private Partnership (PPP) under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to create training capacity in the country, fund vocational training initiatives and create a market ecosystem for skill development. It overlooks training, and capacity-building aspects of trainers – both public and private, leads the engagement with industries, and drives the sector’s skills councils. Directorate General of Training (DGT):- DGT is the apex organisation for development and coordination at the National level for the programmes relating to vocational training. It maintains the skill training structures of training Institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. MUST READ: Year End Review of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)recently released the Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI),2023. About Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: UNDP The Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) quantifies biases against women. Published by: United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). 1st edition: Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI 2020). Objective: to tackle gender norms which eventually are a broad contributor to gender inequalities. The index captures people’s attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions:- Political Educational (UPSC CSE: Gender gap in education) Economic and Physical integrity The index, covers 85 percent of the global population. Key Findings of GSNI, 2023:- The past decade didn’t see any improvement in the level of prejudice shown against women. Nearly 90% of people still hold at least one bias against women. Around half the world’s population believe that men make better political leaders than women. Two in five believe that men make better business executives than women. A staggering 25 per cent of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife. Women are grossly underrepresented in leadership in conflict-affected countries at the negotiation tables. This can be seen in the recent conflicts: in Ukraine (0 per cent), Yemen (4 per cent) and Afghanistan (10 per cent). Globally, about seven of 10 peace processes did not include any women mediators or women signatories. However, policies aimed at achieving equal participation in education have been effective, with women catching up in education. Higher enrolment and completion are seen at all levels Even in the 59 countries where adult women are more educated than men, the average income gap is 39 per cent. The most significant declines were in Chile, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia and Kyrgyzstan. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) IMAGE SOURCE: HuffPost It is a United Nations(UN) agency. United Nations (UN): is an international organization tasked with maintaining international peace and security. Objective:- assisting nations in eradicating poverty and achieving long-term economic and human development. HQ: New York City. Historical Background:- The Expanded Programme of Technical Assistance and the United Nations Special Fund were merged in 1965. The two institutions were fully integrated into the UNDP in 1971. Structure:- UNDP is an executive body of the United Nations General Assembly. After the Secretary and the Deputy Secretary-General, the UNDP Administrator is the third highest-ranking member of the UN. Funding: it is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member nations. It operates in 177 countries. It works with local governments to meet development challenges and develop local capacity. Functions of UNDP:- Democratic governance: UNDP aids national democratic transitions by providing policy advice and technical assistance, strengthening institutional and individual capacity within countries. Reduction of poverty: UNDP assists nations in developing poverty-fighting strategies. Prevention and recovery from crises: UNDP aims to decrease the risk of armed conflicts and natural catastrophes. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): the UNDP works internationally to help countries achieve the UN-approved SDG (2015-2030). MUST READ: Markets SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (2012) Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level Purchasing power parity at the national level Extent of the budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recent investigations led by the Indian Express have revealed, gaps in the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana in Jharkhand. About Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana:- PMKSY is an umbrella scheme. (UPSC CSE: PMKSY) Launched: 2015. Ministries: Ministries of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare, Water Resources and Rural Development. Historical Background:- It has been formulated amalgamating ongoing schemes Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP):- It was launched in 1996 as a central assistance programme. Implementation: Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation. Objective: Accelerate the implementation of irrigation projects that exceed the resource capabilities of states. Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP):- Launch: 2009-10 Implementation: Department of Land Resources of Ministry of Rural Development. Objective: to restore ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water. On Farm Water Management (OFWM):- Launch: 2002 Implementation: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare. Objective: it focuses primarily on enhancing water use efficiency by promoting efficient on-farm water management technologies and equipment. PMKSY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme:- Centre- States will be 75:25 per cent. In the case of the northeastern region and hilly states, it will be 90:10. Centrally Sponsored Scheme: are funded entirely or partly by the central government but implemented by the states. Implementation of PMKSY:- The programme architecture of PMKSY will be to adopt a ‘decentralized State level planning and projected execution’. It will allow States to draw up their own irrigation development plans. The objective of PMKSY:- To achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level. To expand cultivable area under assured irrigation. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water. To enhance the adoption of precision irrigation and other water-saving technologies. Components of PMKSY:- Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) It aims for financial support to irrigation projects. Har Khet Ko Pani (HKKP) It aims for the enhancement of physical access on the farm by:- Creation of new water sources through Minor Irrigation (both surface and groundwater). Repair, restoration and renovation of water bodies. construction of rainwater harvesting structures (Jal Sanchay) Command area development: strengthening and creation of distribution network from source to the farm. Groundwater development in the areas where it is abundant, so that sink is created to store runoff/ flood water during peak rainy season. Improvement in water management and distribution system for water bodies to take advantage of the available source which is not tapped to its fullest capacity (deriving benefits from low-hanging fruits) Creating and rejuvenating traditional water storage systems. Watershed Development It is implemented by the Department of Land Resources. It focuses on the development of rainfed areas. It works towards soil and water conservation, regeneration of groundwater, arresting runoff and promoting extension activities related to water harvesting and management. Per Drop More Crop(PDMC) It is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The dedicated Micro Irrigation Fund(MIF) is with NABARD under PMKSY. MUST READ: Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana for 2021-26 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? (2014) Prevention of soil runoff Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’ Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, lauded the new initiative of celebrating Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana as a ‘God Bharai’ ceremony in Dausa, Rajasthan.  About Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:- IMAGE SOURCE: cm helpline Launched: 2017. (UPSC CSE: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana(PMMVY) ) Historical Background: It was rechristened from the erstwhile Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY). IGMSY was launched in 2010. It is a centrally sponsored scheme. Implementation: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme: Cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and partially compensate for wage loss. Objectives of PMMVY:- By offering financial incentives as a partial replacement for lost wages, the mother will be able to get enough rest before and after giving birth to her first child. The cash incentives provided would lead to improved health-seeking behaviour amongst Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM). Reducing maternal and infant mortality rates. Target Beneficiaries:- All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM). All eligible Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who have their pregnancy on or after 1st January 2017 for the first child in the family. The scheme is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women. It provides a partial wage compensation to women for wage loss during childbirth and childcare and provides conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition and feeding practices. Benefits:- Beneficiaries receive a cash benefit of Rs. 5,000 in three instalments on fulfilling the following conditions viz. early registration of pregnancy, ante-natal check-up and registration of the birth of the child and completion of the first cycle of vaccination for the first living child of the family. The eligible beneficiaries also receive cash incentives under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). Janani Suraksha Yojana: it was launched in 2009 Implementation: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: reducing maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women. Exceptions:- It excludes those who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs. It also excludes those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being in force. Funding:- The scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under which cost sharing ratio between the Centre and the States & UTs with Legislature – 60:40 North-Eastern States & three Himalayan States–90:10. Union Territories without Legislature- 100% Central assistance. Distinctive Feature:- Implementation of the scheme is closely monitored by the central and state governments through the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – Common Application Software (PMMVY-CAS). PMMVY-CAS: is a web-based software application that enables tracking the status of each beneficiary under the scheme, resulting in expedited, accountable and better grievance redressal. MUST READ: PM-CARES for Children scheme SOURCE: PMINDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The second Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20)  was organised in Goa recently. About Supreme Audit Institutions of G20 countries Summit (SAI20) :- It is a forum where SAIs from G20 countries can engage with each other to share their experiences and expertise in auditing public policies and governance practices. Objective of the G20 SAI Summit: to promote cooperation among the SAIs in addressing global challenges and fostering accountability in governance. The group meets annually to discuss important issues related to public auditing and to develop joint initiatives to promote good governance and accountability in their respective countries. Chairmanship: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu, the Comptroller & Auditor General of India (CAG) will chair SAI20. (UPSC CSE: CAG and ILO) Top Priority areas for SAI20 deliberations Under India’s presidency Two priority areas have been selected for SAI20 deliberation: Blue Economy It is defined by the World Bank as the Sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ecosystem. Responsible Artificial Intelligence Artificial intelligence (AI): the ability of a computer or a robot controlled by a computer to do tasks that are usually done by humans. Important functions of Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs):- Independent audits: SAIs conduct independent audits of government finances and operations. They ensure that public funds are being used in accordance with the law and that government agencies are operating effectively and efficiently. Promoting transparency and accountability: SAIs promote transparency and accountability by making audit reports publicly available. Improving governance: By identifying weaknesses and inefficiencies in government operations, SAIs can help to improve governance. Supporting the legislative branch: SAIs support the legislative branch by providing information and analysis that can help lawmakers make informed decisions about government programs and policies. Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations: SAIs ensure compliance with laws and regulations by reviewing government operations and financial statements. Fostering international cooperation: SAIs collaborate and share best practices with their counterparts in other countries to promote good governance and accountability globally. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. He is the head of the Indian audit & account department. He is the chief Guardian of the Public purse. Appointment: he is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Tenure: 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Removal: by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution that is the manner same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge. He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/resigns as a CAG. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG:- Article 148: it broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service. Article 149: it deals with the Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. Article 150: it says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe. Article 151: it says that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Article 279:Calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule: Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule: According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. , In addition,n these bodies’ accounts are audited in such manner as CAG may think fit, and the reports relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. MUST READ: Summit SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Anjadip and Sanshodhak Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Two warships Anjadip, and Sanshodhak, were launched recently.  About Anjadip and Sanshodhak:-  Anjadip: It is an anti-submarine warfare shallow watercraft vessel built for the Indian Navy. Built by: Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE). Anjadip is the third of the eight ships of the Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project. Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project: the contract that was signed between Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, Kolkata and the Ministry of Defence in 2019. Historical significance of the name: – The ship has been named Anjadip to signify the strategic maritime importance accorded to the island of Anjadip, Karnataka. The island close to India’s western coast that is now part of the Indian Naval base INS Kadamba. INS Kadamba: is currently the third-largest Indian naval base. Anjadip offered strong resistance in 1961 when India took back Goa from the Portuguese. The island also has a memorial for the brave Indian marines who were martyred there. The ‘Arnala’ class of ships would replace the current ‘Abhay’ class of Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvettes of the Navy. These are designed to undertake anti-submarine operations in coastal waters Features:- It is powered by water-jet propulsion. Maximum speed: 25 knots (46 km/h). It has an endurance of 1,800 nautical miles (3,300 km) at 14 knots (26 km/h). Crew: 57 members, including seven officers and 50 sailors. It is equipped with an Anti-submarine Combat Suite, potentially the DRDO-developed IAC MOD’C’, a Hull Mounted Sonar, and a Low-frequency Variable depth Sonar. It also features a fire control system (FCS), an integrated Platform Management system, an Atomic Power Management system, and a Battle Damage control system. The ships would have 80 per cent indigenisation. Sanshodhak It is the fourth Survey Vessel Large (SVL) of the Indian Navy. (UPSC CSE: Ikshak Survey Vessel) The ship is named ‘Sanshodhak’, meaning ‘Researcher’. It signifies the primary role of the ship as a Survey Vessel. SVL ships will replace the existing Sandhayak Class survey ships, with new-generation hydrographic equipment. It will help to collect oceanographic data. Features:- They have the capability to carry four Survey Motor Boats and an integral helicopter. The primary role of the ships would be to undertake full-scale coastal and deep-water hydrographic surveys of ports and navigational channels. The ships would also be deployed for collecting oceanographic and geophysical data for defence as well as civil applications. MUST READ: MV Ganga Vilas SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Cancel culture Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society and Social Issues) Context: Recently, the term Cancel culture was in the news due to the debate of its impact on society. About Cancel culture: Cancel culture is a phrase contemporary to the late 2010s and early 2020s used to refer to a culture in which those who are deemed to have acted or spoken in an unacceptable manner are ostracized, boycotted or shunned. This shunning may extend to social or professional circles—whether on social media or in person—with most high-profile incidents involving celebrities. Those subject to this ostracism are said to have been “cancelled”. Significance of Cancel culture: When a large number of people on social media platforms collectively object to any action by a public figure, it leads to calls to ‘cancel’ the person. This cancelling occurs by pressuring the individual’s workplace to fire them, pressuring brands to drop their association with the offending individual, using threats of boycott or engaging in any other action that impacts the individual’s reputation or finances. Demanding accountability from people holding such problematic views is central to cancel culture. Recent examples: In 2020, J.K. Rowling faced a fierce backlash against her controversial tweets about the transgender community. In Bollywood many prominent personalities were cancelled for allegedly promoting nepotism. Donald Trump was ‘cancelled’ because of his racist, inappropriate conduct and words towards women, people of colour and immigrants. #Me too Movement, where many people took to social media to “cancel” or boycott celebrities and public personalities accused of sexual misconduct. Arguments in favour of cancel culture: Cancel culture allows marginalized people to seek accountability where the justice system fails. Cancel culture gives a voice to disenfranchised or less powerful people. Cancel culture is simply a new form of boycott, a cherished tactic in the civil rights movement, to bring about social change. Arguments against cancel culture: Critics argue that Cancel culture is no longer about holding people accountable, and has instead become an online form of vicious mob intimidation. Individuals or organisations are presumed guilty without due process, leading to loss of employment, reputational damage, psychological distress and even legal actions. Cancel culture  affects free speech and often signifies the lack of ability to forgive and move on. The goalposts of cancel culture keep changing, individuals and organisations are selectively targeted and face different degrees of outrage. It has led to people being constantly aggravated and frustrated with each other. They can’t seem to move beyond that, to actually initiate change of the kind they actually want to see. Way Forward: Cancel culture began as a way to correct power imbalances, however it is also being used by those holding positions of power against those it intended to help. Hence for some, it is a form of harassment, mob vigilantism and an act of censorship and for some a form of justice and a way to demand accountability. Source:  The Hindu The Hiroshima AI Process Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance), GS 3 (Science and Technology) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: During the annual Group of Seven (G-7) Summit,  Leaders initiated the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) to regulate Artificial Intelligence (AI). About Hiroshima AI process: It aims at the adoption of international technical standards for trustworthy artificial intelligence (AI). The G7 leaders have agreed to create a ministerial forum known as the “Hiroshima AI Process” that will discuss issues regarding generative AI tools like ChatGPT, such as intellectual property rights and disinformation. It is scheduled to be formed by the end of this year. Significance of Hiroshima AI process: It can help the countries develop a common understanding on some key regulatory issues while ensuring that any disagreement doesn’t result in complete discord. The process can bring greater clarity to the role and scope of the ‘fair use’ doctrine in the use of AI for various purposes. It can also differentiate use for machine-learning per se from other AI-related uses of copyrighted materials. This in turn could affect the global discourse and practice on the issue. About Artificial Intelligence (AI): Artificial intelligence is the simulation of human intelligence processes by machines, especially computer systems. Specific applications of AI include expert systems, natural language processing, speech recognition and machine vision. Examples: Robotics and Automation, Natural Language Processing (NLP), Pattern recognition is a subset of machine learning etc. Applications of Artificial Intelligence (AI): Healthcare Sector: Machine learning is being used for faster, cheaper and more accurate diagnosis and thus improving patient outcomes and reducing costs. For Example, IBM Watson and chatbots are some of such tools. Business Sector: To take care of highly repetitive tasks Robotic process automation is applied which perform faster and effortlessly than humans. Machine learning algorithms are being integrated into analytics and CRM platforms to provide better customer service. Education Sector: AI can make some of the educational processes automated such as grading, rewarding marks etc. therefore giving educators more time. Further, it can assess students and adapt to their needs, helping them work at their own pace. AI may change where and how students learn, perhaps even replacing some teachers. Financial Sector: It can be applied to the personal finance applications and could collect personal data and provide financial advice.  today software trades more than humans on the Wall Street. Legal Sector: Automation can lead to faster resolution of already pending cases by reducing the time taken while analyzing cases thus better use of time and more efficient processes. Manufacturing sector: Robots are being used for manufacturing since a long time now, however, more advanced exponential technologies have emerged such as additive manufacturing (3D Printing) which with the help of AI can revolutionize the entire manufacturing supply chain ecosystem. Intelligent Robots: Robots can perform the tasks given by a human because of sensors to detect physical data from the real world such as light, heat, temperature, movement, sound, bump, and pressure. Moreover, they have efficient processors, multiple sensors and huge memory, to exhibit intelligence. Speech Recognition: There are intelligent systems that are capable of hearing and grasping the language in terms of sentences and their meanings while human talks to it. Cyber Security: In the 20th conference on e-governance in India it was discussed that AI can provide more teeth to cyber security and must be explored. Ethical Use of AI: While AI tools present a range of new functionality for businesses, the use of AI also raises ethical questions because, for better or worse, an AI system will reinforce what it has already learned. This can be problematic because machine learning algorithms, which underpin many of the most advanced AI tools, are only as smart as the data they are given in training. Because a human being selects what data is used to train an AI program, the potential for machine learning bias is inherent and must be monitored closely. AI’s ethical challenges include the following: bias due to improperly trained algorithms and human bias; misuse due to deep fakes and phishing; legal concerns including AI libel and copyright issues; elimination of jobs; and data privacy concerns, particularly in the banking, healthcare and legal fields. Challenges in Artificial Intelligence: Lack of enabling data ecosystems. The low intensity of AI research. Inadequate availability of AI expertise, manpower and skilling opportunities. High resource cost and low awareness for adopting AI in business processes. Unclear privacy, security and ethical regulations. Unattractive Intellectual Property regime to incentivise research and adoption of AI. Only 4% of AI professionals trained in Emerging technologies; low H Index (citation) and Data sets. Government efforts regarding artificial intelligence in India: National Programme on Artificial Intelligence: It was announced in the Interim Budget 2019. The programme would be catalysed by the establishment of the National Centre on Artificial Intelligence as a hub along with 6 centres of excellence. International Centre for Transformative Artificial Intelligence: NITI Aayog and Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) initiated collaboration to set up International Centre for Transformative Artificial Intelligence (ICTAI) to conduct advanced research to incubate AI-led solutions in three important areas– healthcare, agriculture and smart mobility. National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS): It is a programme led by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology to enhance capabilities of cyber-physical systems. Budget 2019 allotted Rs. 5 crore for the mission. AIRAWAT (AI Research, Analytics and Knowledge Assimilation platform): In an attempt to achieve the goal of becoming a $5 Tn economy, the Indian government’s think-tank NITI Aayog recently released an approach paper to set up India’s first AI-specific cloud computing infrastructure called ‘AIRAWAT’ (AI Research, Analytics and Knowledge Assimilation platform). The platform aims to guide the research and development of new and emerging technologies. Way Forward: Artificial intelligence has a lot of potential for India. Nearly 200 Artificial Intelligence start-ups in India are today innovating and creating AI-based solutions for various industries. It can complement Digital India Mission by helping in the big data analysis which is not possible without using AI. A “whole of society” approach to AI governance will enable us to develop broad-based ethical principles, cultures and codes of conduct, to ensure the needed harm-mitigating measures, reviews and audits during design, development and deployment phases, and to inculcate the transparency, accountability, inclusion and societal trust for AI to flourish and bring about the extraordinary breakthroughs it promises. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, consider the following: It can help reduce the maternal mortality rate. It is under the Ministry of Women and Child Empowerment. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Anjadip, consider the following: It is the third of the eight ships of the Shallow Water Craft (SWC) Project. It cannot undertake anti-submarine operations in coastal waters Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, consider the following: It is under the Ministry of Urban Development. It was launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here