Apr 21, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Apr 21, 2023 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series

[DAY 41] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 41-> Click Here

Apr 20, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission 50K-EV4ECO Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SIDBI launched a new financing solution for electric vehicle space under the scheme ‘Mission 50K-EV4ECO’. About Mission 50K-EV4ECO:- Objective: to promote the growth and development of the value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry. It is expected to promote EV adoption and strengthen associated infrastructure in the country. The project prioritizes the uptake of 2-wheeler, 3-wheeler, and 4-wheeler EVs through direct and indirect lending. The objective of this scheme is to provide access to affordable financing for electric vehicles and to develop charging infrastructure, including battery swapping. The scheme is the precursor to the EVOLVE scheme by SIDBI-World Bank. It provides better financing terms and other solutions to address the issues faced in the EV ecosystem in India. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):- SIDBI was set up in 1990, under an Act of the Indian Parliament. Headquarters: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India Chairman & Managing Director: Shri Sivasubramanian Ramann It acts as the Principal Financial Institution for the Promotion, Financing and Development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector as well as for the coordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities. The Shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India and twenty-two other institutions / public sector banks/insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government MISSION: To facilitate and strengthen credit flow to MSMEs and address both financial and developmental gaps in the MSME eco-system. VISION:- To emerge as a single window for meeting the financial and developmental needs of the MSME sector to make it strong, vibrant and globally competitive. To position SIDBI Brand as the preferred and customer-friendly institution and For enhancement of shareholder wealth and highest corporate values through a modern technology platform. SIDBI is implementing the PSIG programme funded by UKAid through Department for International Development (DFID), UK. SIDBI has been implementing the “Poorest States Inclusive Growth (PSIG) Program”. It is funded by UK Government through the Department for International Development (DFID), UK since April 2012. The program aimed at enhancing income and employment opportunities of the poor, especially women, in the four poorest States of Bihar, MP, Odisha and UP by enabling the target group to participate and benefit from wider economic opportunities and growth. The program has come to a successful end in March 2020. To take the PSIG legacy forward, Swavalamban Resource Facility (SRF) has since been launched within the P&D Vertical of the Bank. MUST READ: Deep-sea Mining for Building EV Batteries SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SEBI released guidelines on an upfront contribution by issuers for LPCC’s Settlement Guarantee Fund. About Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC):- LPCC is an entity established by SEBI. It will undertake the activity of clearing and settlement of repo rate transactions. The new framework will come into force from May 1.  Under the framework, an amount of 0.5 basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per annum based on the maturity of debt securities will be collected by the stock exchanges and placed in an escrow account before the allotment of the debt securities. This amount is applicable on a public issue or private placement of debt securities. The stock exchanges would transfer the amounts so collected to the bank account of the LPCC within one working day of the receipt of the amount and inform the details of the same to the LPCC. The details of the amounts so collected would also be disclosed by the stock exchanges on their website.  LPCC would provide an illustration of the calculation of the amounts to be contributed by the eligible issuers. AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL) has been granted recognition as LPCC by SEBI. ARCL:- It was incorporated in April 2021. It is recognized in principle by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations (SECC) Regulations, 2018.  ARCL is a Central Counter Party (CCP) offering clearing and settlement services to all trades executed on NSE and BSE under triparty repo in corporate debt securities with robust risk management along with a guarantee mechanism. The mechanism will be used to settle:- disputes between clearing members contention between the clearing members and their clients differences between the LPCC and its vendors disputes between clearing members or its clients and the LPCC. The disputes arising between clearing members of the LPCC will be settled by conciliation and/or by an arbitration panel consisting of three clearing members, other than the clearing members who are party to the dispute. The decision of the arbitration panel would be final and binding on the parties. In case a clearing member or the LPCC is not satisfied then the disputes would be resolved under the procedure laid down in the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. The eligible issuers would be notified by the LPCC as per its risk management policy, Significance: A well-functioning repo market contributes to the development of the debt securities market by way of boosting the liquidity of the underlying debt securities and allowing market participants to monetize their debt holdings without selling the underlying, thus meeting their temporary need for funds. MUST READ: Long-Term SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (2022) As there is an option to exchange the equity bond, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 City Nature Challenge Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent announcements, Delhi will take part in the City Nature Challenge for the first time in 2023. About City Nature Challenge:- It started in 2016 as a competition between Los Angeles and San Francisco, the City Nature Challenge (CNC) has grown into an international event, motivating people around the world to find and document wildlife in their own cities. It was Invented by community science staff, Lila Higgins at the Natural History Museum of Los Angeles County (NHM) and Alison Young and Rebecca Johnson at the California Academy of Sciences (CAS). It is run by the Community Science teams at the California Academy of Sciences and the Natural History Museum of Los Angeles County (NHM).  It is an international effort for people to find and document plants and wildlife in cities across the globe. It’s a competition where cities are in a friendly contest with each other to see who can make the most observations of nature, who can find the most species, and who can engage the most people. The first City Nature Challenge was an eight-day competition between Los Angeles and San Francisco, engaging residents and visitors in documenting nature to better understand urban biodiversity. MUST READ: Biodiversity Mainstreaming SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Panchayat Awards Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu presented the National Panchayat Awards. About National Panchayat Awards:- IMAGE SOURCE: National Panchayat Awards INFO – Bing images The National Panchayat Awards were given to the best-performing Panchayats by assessing their performance in the attainment of SDGs. These annual awards were first instituted in 2011. The Awardee Panchayats are awarded under various categories namely:- Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar (DDUPSVP) for the performance under individual LSDG themes Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar (NDSPSVP) for the aggregate performance under all 9 LSDG themes and green initiative-related Special Categories Gram Urja Swaraj Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar Carbon Neutral Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar were felicitated by the dignitaries and the award money was transferred digitally to the Awardee Panchayats on this occasion. NIRNAY app:- National Initiative for Rural India to Navigate, InnovAte and Resolve PanchaYat decisions (NIRNAY), is a mobile application of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It is aimed at empowering rural communities during the National Conference. It provides easy access to critical information discussed during a Gram Sabha. It will be a game-changer for rural communities in India by acting as a means of verification of facts where necessary or in case of queries that may arise regarding the resolutions undertaken during the Gram Sabha. This would bring in more transparency and increase efficiency in the functioning of Panchayats, which play a vital role in decentralized participatory democracy. It is a significant step towards realizing the vision of ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’ at the grassroots level. It is expected to accelerate the pace of rural transformation to achieve the vision of Gram Swaraj laid down by Mahatma Gandhi. MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Carbon Offsetting Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Carbon Offsets came under fire as a way for companies to compensate for carbon emissions through eco projects elsewhere. About IMAGE SOURCE: How-Carbon-Offsets-Work-Infographic-Web.png (1600×1200) (sustainabletravel.org) Carbon Offsetting can be defined as the mitigation of carbon footprints through the development of alternative projects such as solar, wind, tidal energy or reforestation. Carbon footprint can be defined as the total amount of greenhouse gases produced to directly and indirectly support human activities, usually expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide (CO2). There are two types of carbon footprinting which are given below:- Organisational: Emissions from all the activities across the organisation such as energy use, industrial processes and company vehicles. Product: Emissions over the whole life of a product or service, from the extraction of raw material and manufacturing rights through to its use and final reuse, recycling or disposal. Carbon Offsetting Working Mechanism:- Buying offsets is a way to “compensate” for environmental damage. The companies make a financial contribution to projects that reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, and in exchange can keep polluting themselves. Examples of projects include planting trees and rewetting peatlands which store huge amounts of carbon in their soil. Using this logic, the FIFA World Cup in Qatar recently billed itself as climate-neutral. In recent years, the carbon offset industry has boomed. It is worth $2 billion (€1.87 billion) annually and is expected to grow five times that size by the end of the decade. After the concept’s invention in 1987, some international treaties such as the Kyoto Protocol have let industrialized countries use carbon credits, each of which is worth one ton of carbon, to keep within emissions limits. Offsetting in practice:- Offset projects can be broadly split into two categories: removals and avoidances. Removal: it describes actions which actively take carbon out of the air and store it permanently, such as by planting trees or direct air capture which is not technology available at scale. Avoidance: in this, offsets are from projects that stop the release of greenhouse gases, such as protecting trees from being logged. MUST READ:  Sequestration SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) What is blue carbon? (2021) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils The carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas Carbon present in the atmosphere Blastomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the fungus Blastomyces killed 1 & infected 100 at a Michigan paper mill. About Blastomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: Blastomycosis | Outagamie County, WI Blastomycosis is an infection caused by a fungus called Blastomyces.  The fungus lives in the environment, particularly in moist soil and in decomposing matter such as wood and leaves.  In the United States, the fungus mainly lives in the midwestern, south-central, and southeastern states, particularly in areas surrounding the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys, the Great Lakes, and the Saint Lawrence River. People can get blastomycosis after breathing in the microscopic fungal spores from the air.  Although most people who breathe in the spores don’t get sick, some people will develop symptoms like fever and cough, and the infection can sometimes become serious if it is not treated. Symptoms:- Fever Cough Night sweats Muscle aches or joint pain Weight loss Chest pain Fatigue (extreme tiredness) Skin lesions; such as raised bumps, blisters, or ulcers Treatment:-  Itraconazole is a type of antifungal medication that is typically used to treat mild to moderate blastomycosis. Amphotericin B is usually recommended for severe blastomycosis in the lungs or infections that have spread to other parts of the body. Depending on the severity of the infection and the person’s immune status, the course of treatment can range from six months to one year. MUST READ: Mucormycosis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Kudremukh Range Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) has sought post-facto approval for submerging 700 acres of forest in the Kudremukh Range. About Kudremukh Range:- It is located in the Western Ghats in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka. It got its name from its main peak, Kudremukh Peak (1892 metres), which has a marked similarity to the face of a horse. Kudremukh National Park, the second largest wildlife protected area in the Western Ghats, is located in these ranges. It is believed that Kudremukh served as a landmark for sailors on the western coast for over 2000 years. Kudremukh national park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map showing the location of the Kudremukh mining area and sampling sites…. | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Kudremukh national park stretches from the Narasimha Parvat in the north to the Jamalabad Fort in the south. Kudremukh National Park covers the areas of three districts namely Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and Chikmagalur. It was established as a Reserved Forest in the year 1916. In 1987 it was declared a National Park. The Tunga, the Bhadra and the Nethravathi rivers originate from this national park. The famous Kadambi waterfalls are also located in the Kudremukh National Park. Key Feature: It has the single largest contiguous population of Lion Tailed Macaque (LTM) in the world, tropical wet evergreen forests, top three carnivores (Tiger, Leopard, and wild dogs) Fauna: tigers, wild dogs, leopards, Malabar giant squirrels, sloth bears, common langurs, gaur, sambar, barking deer, spotted deer and sloth bears. The Malabar whistling thrush, Malabar trogon, imperial pigeon, and great pied hornbill are among the 195 bird species found in the park. Flora: It has the least disturbed low-altitude wet evergreen forests and shola-grassland biome. Kudremukh represents one of the world’s major habitats and has tropical biological richness and is thus among one of the 34 biological hotspots of the world. MUST READ: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the fo allowing protected areas are well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous. (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Civil Union and Concept of Marriage Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Recently The Supreme Court clarified that the hearing’s scope would be limited to developing a notion of a “civil union” that finds legal recognition under the Special Marriage Act. About Civil Union: A civil union (also known as a civil partnership) is a legally recognized arrangement similar to marriage, created primarily as a means to provide recognition in law for same-sex couples. Civil unions would be accompanied by rights such as inheritance rights, property rights, parental rights, employment benefits to spouses, joint parenting right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner — similar to the spousal privilege given under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act. Difference between the Civil Union and Marriage: A civil union is a legal agreement between two individuals that provides them with some of the rights and benefits of a marriage, such as inheritance rights, tax benefits, and access to healthcare. Recognition: Civil unions were recognized solely by issuing states and not by federal law, whereas marriages were recognized both at the state and federal levels. Uniformity of Benefits: Couples in civil unions were not able to enjoy the benefits of being in a civil union uniformly across all states, due to variations in state laws. Spousal Privilege: Civil unions provided spousal privileges similar to those given under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, whereas marriages automatically provided this privilege. Conversion: In the wake of the legalisation of same-sex marriages, several civil unions were converted into marriages. Legal Status of Civil Unions: A civil union is the legal status that provides same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples. This means that same-sex couples who are in a civil union have access to legal protections and benefits that were previously unavailable to them. These rights are often similar to those conferred upon married couples, such as inheritance rights, employment benefits to spouses, joint parenting or joint ownership rights, and the right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner. Benefits of Civil Unions: Inheritance rights Employment benefits to spouses Joint parenting or joint ownership rights The right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner Countries that Allow Civil Unions for Same-Sex Couples: In the year 2015, the Supreme Court of the United States (SCOTUS) legalized same-sex marriages across the nation with its landmark ruling in “Obergefell v. Hodges” From 1993, couples in Norway enjoyed the right to enter into civil unions, which gave way to a new law 15 years later, allowing such couples to marry, adopt and undergo state-sponsored artificial insemination. Similarly, countries like Brazil, Uruguay, Andorra, and Chile had also recognized the right of same sex couples to enter into civil unions, even before they formally recognized their legal right to marriage. Additional Information: About Special Marriage Act of 1954: All marriages in India can be registered under the respective personal law Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Muslim Marriage Act, 1954, or under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party. The couples have to serve a notice with the relevant documents to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the intended date of the marriage. Applicability: Any person, irrespective of religion. Hindus, Muslims, Buddhists, Sikhs, Christians, Parsis, or Jews can also perform marriage under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Inter-religion marriages are performed under this Act. This Act is applicable to the entire territory of India and extends to intending spouses who are both Indian nationals living abroad. Source:  Indian Express MUST READ:  Legalising same sex marriage India- UAE Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India, the world’s second-largest food producer, is an essential partner in the UAE’s ambition to strengthen food security. The India-UAE food security partnership stands to benefit from multiple points of convergence. India- UAE Relations: Diplomatic: India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) established diplomatic relations in 1972. UAE opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1972 and India opened its Embassy in Abu Dhabi in 1973. The traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by India and UAE received impetus with the visit of PM Modi to UAE on 16-17 August 2015 that marked the beginning of a new strategic partnership between the two countries. Modi’s last visit to the UAE was in August 2019, when he received the UAE’s highest award, ‘Order of Zayed’. Economic and Commercial Relations: Trade, which was dominated by traditional items such as dates, pearl and fishes, underwent a sharp change after the discovery of oil in UAE. The real impetus, however, started after Dubai positioned itself as a regional trading hub by the early 1990s and about the same time, the economic liberalization process started in India. India-UAE trade is today around US$ 60 billion, making UAE, India’s third largest trading partner for the year 2018-19. UAE is the second largest export destination of India (after US) with an amount of over US$ 30 billion for the year 2018-19. For UAE, India was the second largest trading partner during 2018. UAE is the 10th biggest FDI investor for India. A consortium led by ONGC was awarded a 10 per cent stake in the Lower Zakum Concession in 2018.- first time that the Emirate awarded a stake in a functioning oil field to an Indian group. Energy Cooperation: The UAE is one of India’s key energy providers and remains committed to meeting India’s growing energy demand. India imported US $10.9 billion worth of crude oil from the UAE in 2019-20. The UAE is the first international partner to invest by way of crude oil in India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves Program. The countries are also collaborating in the renewable energy sector as seen by mutual participation in the International Solar alliance. Defence and Security Cooperation: UAE Air Force Officers participated as Observers in Trilateral Air Exercise on Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief (HADR) in 2018. Indian Navy Ships participated in the maiden IN-UAEN Bilateral Exercise in 2018 named Gulf Star 1. IN Ships have been regularly participating in IDEX/NAVDEX held in Abu Dhabi biennially. ‘Desert Eagle II’, a ten-day air combat exercise, was held in 2016 between the air forces of India and UAE. That New Delhi could turn to the UAE for help to deploy its mid-air refuellers for Rafale jets, and it agreed to extend the facility, is seen to reflect the close relationship that India and Abu Dhabi have built. Indian Community: The Indian expatriate community of approximately 3.4 million is the largest ethnic community in UAE constituting roughly about 35% of the country’s population. Significance of India-UAE relationship: Remittances to India: India had received over US $83 billion in remittances in 2020 which was one of the highest in the world. The remittances from the UAE in the first half of 2020 accounted for US $21 billion. Strategic considerations: The UAE, due to its strategic location, has emerged as an important economic centre in the world and is also a major re-export hub for India. Further good relations with the UAE are imperative to counter China’s influence in the Middle-east region. Security of the region: The Middle-east region is still witnessing a lot of conflicts in Syria, Iraq etc. Good relations with UAE are imperative to give India a core place in discussion surrounding the Middle-east region. Further UAE can support India in strengthening the security of the Indian ocean region especially along the western coast of Somalia that is prone to piracy. Gateway to Africa: Engagement with the UAE will pave the way for India to leverage UAE’s easy access to the African market and its various trade partners. This can help India to become a part of the supply chain especially in handlooms, handicrafts, textiles and pharma. Entry into regional groupings: UAE commands a significant respect in regional groupings like OIC (Organization of Islamic Cooperation). An improvement in relation will open India’s door for an OIC membership.   India’s Soft Power: Good relations with UAE is a sine qua non for enhancing India’s Soft power in the Middle-east region. A recent progression of it was witnessed in 2021 when both Abu Dhabi and Dubai celebrated Diwali. Challenges in the Ties: Recent Turbulence in relations: It is caused by the comments on Prophet Mohammed by Nupur Sharma and Naveen Kumar Jindal Balancing geopolitics: India with Iran (also played out over Yemen) and UAE with China. Energy pricing: As an OPEC country UAE is on the side of the debate, where India as a major oil consumer is arguing for a cap on prices- this has seen some heated words between oil ministers in the past India and UAE are yet to renegotiate their air services agreement, which has become a thorn in ties, because the UAE wants to increase the number of flights to India and the number of destinations, but India continues to cap these to protect Indian airlines. Treatment of Indian labour: This frequently flares up as Indians aren’t granted citizenship in the UAE, and conditions at Indian labour camps become a matter of concern. During the pandemic much of the labour to the gulf has had to return, and remittances are likely to be slashed in the next few years Treatment of minorities in India is becoming a big issue: After the CAA protests, social media controversies, now the Hijab Ban has raised concerns in Gulf countries, and the OIC issued a very strong statement. Legal Issues: Legal problems have in the past dampened foreign investments from coming to India. Checks and regulations are needed, better streamlining of the procedures and processes help in avoiding such problems. Way Forward: The UAE today is India’s closest partner in the Arab world and fortunately, there is enough resilience in bilateral ties to withstand the recent convulsions. It will continue to forge closer partnership in these areas, building on their close and friendly relations and historical people-to-people connect. India-UAE has a strong energy partnership which is now acquiring a new focus on renewable energy. It will take a sustained public diplomacy effort to further improve the relations Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Kudremukh national park is often mentioned in the news located in Rajasthan West Bengal Karnataka Odisha Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Blastomycosis: It is a fungal disease caused by Blastomyces The fungus lives in the environment, particularly in moist soil and in decomposing matter such as wood and leaves. It is an airborne disease Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC): LPCC is an entity established by RBI. It will undertake the activity of clearing and settlement of repo rate transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Apr 20, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

Apr 20, 2023 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series

[DAY 40] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 40-> Click Here

Apr 19, 2023 Important Articles

[NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP TEST on 5th MAY] EARN UPTO 100% SCHOLARSHIP!! | Baba’s Gurukul Foundation Course (Baba’s FC) 2024

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Apr 19, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Farm Distress Index Syllabus Context: Recently, Farm Distress Index reported farm distress in different parts of the country. About Farm Distress Index:- IMAGE SOURCE: farmer-suicide-info.jpg (800×729) (yourstory.com) Farm Distress Index is developed by Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA). CRIDA:- It is an institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. It was est. 1985 HQ: Hyderabad It is a constituent organisation of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an autonomous body of the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It is part of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) funded project on ‘Farmers Distress and Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY)’. Farm Distress Index is an early warning system based on a 21-question survey that captures the financial, economic, and emotional health status of farmers in vulnerable areas. The index can sense imminent distress at least 3-4 months ahead of its actual occurrence. Significance: This index can be used by policymakers and the government to plan and design a timely and targeted method of supporting distressed farmers. Farm distress continues to be reported from different parts of the country. Left unattended, the distress can lead to suicides by farmers. MUST READ: Farm reforms SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes? (2020) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets harvesters, Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks requirements of farm Consumption households Post-harvest expenses Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2,3,4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Harpoon missiles Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, China warned the U.S. as Taiwan mulls buying 400 Harpoon missiles. About Harpoon missiles:- IMAGE SOURCE: Harpoon Missile – Think Defence Harpoon missiles are the Torpedoes lightweight missiles and Harpoon air-launched missiles. The Harpoon is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile. It has been in service since 1977. Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. Salient Features:- PAYLOAD:224 kg PROPULSION: Turbojet, solid propellant RANGE:90 – 240 km SPEED: 0.85 Mach (High subsonic), 291.55 m/s RANGE: 250 km OPERATORS: United States, Australia, Bahrain, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, Chile, Denmark, Egypt, Germany, Greece, Indonesia, Iran, Israel, India, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, Pakistan, Poland, Portugal, South Korea, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, Spain, Taiwan, Thailand, Turkey, UAE, United Kingdom, and Venezuela. MUST READ:  Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Utsa Patnaik, a renowned economist of national and international repute, has been selected for the Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023:- About Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023:- The award is given every year by the Malcolm & Elizabeth Adiseshiah Trust. It is one of the most prestigious national awards in India. It recognizes and honours the outstanding contributions of social scientists to the field of development studies. The award includes a citation and prize money of Rs 2 lakh. The Malcolm Adiseshiah Award for distinguished contributions to Development Studies carries a cash award of Rs. 1 lakh and a citation. Malcolm Sathiyanathan Adiseshiah (1910 – 1994), was an Indian development economist and educator. In 1976 he was awarded the Padma Bhushan. Past Indian recipients:- Bina Agarwal, Professor, in 2002 Jandhyala B G Tilak, Professor, in 2003 Dipankar Gupta, Professor, in 2004 Amita Baviskar, Associate Professor, 2005 Prabhat Patnaik economist and political commentator, 2022 MUST READ: Digital India Awards SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017) Privileges Restraints Competition Ideology Buddhism Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: India will be hosting a two-day international Buddhist conference soon. About Buddhism:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUDDHISM FACTS – Bing images Buddhism is based upon the teachings, and life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam, born circa 563 BCE. Buddha asked his followers to avoid the two extremes of indulgence in worldly pleasure and the practice of strict abstinence and asceticism. He ascribed instead the ‘Madhyam Marg’or the middle path which was to be followed. Four noble truths of Buddhism are: They are the truth of suffering, the truth of the cause of suffering, the truth of the end of suffering, and the truth of the path that leads to the end of suffering. The path to nirvana is the Noble Eightfold path– Right Understanding (Samma ditthi), Right thought (Samma sankappa), Right speech (Samma vaca), Right Action (Samma kammanta), Right livelihood (Samma ajiva), Right effort (Samma vayama), Right mindfulness (Samma sati) and Right concentration (Samma samadhi) Buddhist Councils:- There were four Buddhist Councils. They are as follows:- First Buddhist Council:- Venue: In Sattaparnaguha Cave situated outside Rajgriha (the modern city of Rajgir). Year: 486 BC. King: Ajatasatru, son of King Bimbisara (Haryanka Dynasty). Presiding Priest: Venerable Maha Kasyapa with 500 monks. Resulted in:- Vinaya Pitaka which mainly contains the rules of the Buddhist order. This was recited by Suttapitaka was recited by It contains the great collections of Buddha’s sermons on matters of doctrine and ethical beliefs. Second Buddhist Council:- Venue: Vaishali Year: 386 BC King: Kalasoka (Shisunaga Dynasty). Presiding Priest: Sabakami resulted in the split of the Buddhist order into Sthaviravadinis(Theravada) and Mahasanghikas. Third Buddhist Council:- Venue: Pataliputra (today’s Patna). Year: 250 BC. King: Ashoka (Maurya Dynasty). Presiding priest: Mogaliputta Tissa (Upagupta). Resulted in:- Made Sthaviravada School an orthodox school which is believed that the past, present, and future are all simultaneous. Codification of Abhidhamma Pitaka, dealing with Buddhist philosophy written in Pali. Fourth Buddhist Council:- Venue: Kundalavana, Kashmir. Year: 72 AD King: Kanishka (Kushan Dynasty) Presiding Priest: Vasumitra; deputed by Asvaghosha. Resulted in:- Sarvasthivada doctrines were organized into three large commentaries on the Pitakas. Final division of Buddhism into Mahayana & Hinayana sects. MUST READ: Neo-Buddhism SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (2020) Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: (2019) Deification of the Buddha Treading the path of Bodhisattvas Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Supercritical carbon dioxide Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies have found that Supercritical carbon dioxide can flush out oil from depleting wells. About Supercritical carbon dioxide:- Supercritical carbon dioxide (CO2) is a fluid state of CO2 where it is heated and held at or above its critical temperature(31∘C) and pressure(73 atm). In this supercritical phase, CO2 exhibits properties and behaviours between that of a liquid and a gas. Supercritical CO2 possesses liquid-like densities with gas-like diffusivity, surface tension and viscosity. Use of Supercritical Carbon Dioxide (CO2):- It is used in the oil and gas industry for gas injections during enhanced oil recovery (EOR) techniques. When supercritical CO2 reacts with water, carbonic acid (H2CO3) is formed. Carbonic acid lowers the pH in the reserve and creates an environment that is corrosive to metal equipment. MUST READ: Soil carbon sequestration SOURCE:BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Q.2) What is blue carbon? (2021) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils The carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas Carbon present in the atmosphere Marketing and Logistics Development for the Promotion of Tribal Products from North -Eastern Region (PTP-NER) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India has introduced a new scheme “Marketing and Logistics Development for Promotion of Tribal Products from North -Eastern Region (PTP-NER)”. About Marketing and Logistics Development for Promotion of Tribal Products from North-Eastern Region (PTP-NER):- The scheme is for the benefit of Scheduled Tribes of the Northeastern Region. It has the vision to strengthen livelihood opportunities for tribal artisans through increased efficiency in procurement, logistics and marketing of tribal products from North Eastern States. The scheme will apply to the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim. The scheme shall be launched by Ministry for Tribal Affairs. The scheme PTP-NER will facilitate tribal artisans to avail opportunities of enhancing income through the provision of backward and forward linkages through incubation support, aggregation, skill and entrepreneurship development, sourcing and procurement, marketing, transportation and publicity. As a part of this scheme, it is planned to initiate empanelment of tribal artisans from the North Eastern Region by organizing 68 Tribal Artisan Melas (TAMs) w.e.f. 18.04.2023 onwards during the month of April –May 2023 at various districts of the Northeastern Region. TRIFED, the nodal agency under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, continues to strive in endeavours to improve the quality of life of the tribal people, while preserving their age-old traditions. MUST READ: National Commission for Scheduled Tribes SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to  (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Ninth Schedule Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Chhattisgarh Chief Minister wrote to Prime Minister seeking the inclusion of two amendment Bills in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. About Ninth Schedule:- The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts. They are shielded from judicial review. The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951 when the document was amended for the first time. It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system. Article 31A It extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws, Article 31B It shields specific laws or enactments. Article 31B also has a retrospective operation It means if laws are inserted in the Ninth Schedule after they are declared unconstitutional, they are considered to have been in the Schedule since their commencement, and thus valid. Although Article 31B excludes judicial review, the apex court has said in the past that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated fundamental rights or the basic structure of the Constitution. Supreme Court and  I R Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007): It was held that every law must be tested under Article 14, 19 and 21 if it came into force after 24th April 1973. In addition, the court upheld its previous rulings and declared that any act can be challenged and is open to scrutiny by the judiciary if it is not in consonance with the basic structure of the constitution. In addition, it was held that if the constitutional validity of any law under the ninth schedule has been upheld before, in future it cannot be challenged again. Chattisgarh legislative assembly bills:- Two amendment Bills that pave the way for a 76% quota for Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes were passed unanimously by the State Assembly last December. The two bills are Chhattisgarh Public Service (Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes Reservation) Amendment Bill and Chhattisgarh Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admission) amendment bill It is related to quota in government jobs and admission in educational institutions in proportion to the population of different categories in the state, he said. This increased reservation for OBCs to 27% from the existing 14%, while for the SC community to 13% from 12% in the public employment and admissions. The 32% reservation for the ST category was kept unchanged. Besides, a provision of 4% reservation was also provided to the Economic Weaker Section (EWS), taking the total extent of the reservation to 76%. However, the bills are pending with the Governor for assent. MUST READ: Constitutional (127th) Amendment Bill, 2021 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (2021) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units The Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law Q.2) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 The future of India’s civil society organizations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Central government has been accused of weakening India’s civil society organizations (CSO) both in the pre legislative stage and in the redress of lacunae in the implementation of government schemes. About civil society organizations: According to the World Bank: “Civil society refers to a wide array of organizations: community groups, non-governmental organizations [NGOs], labor unions, indigenous groups, charitable organizations, faith-based organizations, professional associations, and foundations.” When mobilized, civil society sometimes called the “third sector” (after government and commerce) -has the power to influence the actions of elected policy-makers and businesses. But the nature of civil society – what it is and what it does – is evolving, in response to both technological developments and more nuanced changes within societies. Examples of well-known civil society organizations: Amnesty International, International Trade Union Confederation World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) Greenpeace The Danish Refugee Council (DRC), Reporter without boarder Role of CSOs: Plugging the Implementation Gap: NGOs play important role in the promotion and implementation of important rights-based legislation such as RTI, FRA 2006, RTE 2010, and the MGNREGA. Support for sectors untouched by the state: Providing aid to migrants, human and labour rights, Tribal welfare (Nilgiris Wynaad Tribal Welfare Society (NWTWS)), Women advocacy (ActionAid India, Sewa, Eklavya, Sathin, Disha work for women empowerment). Promotes community-based organizations such as SHG, and Farmer’s organizations: these organizations are critical in bringing about changes at the grass-roots level Work as Pressure Group: NGOs mobilize people for their rights as well as educate communities against harmful policies of government e.g. Narmada Bachao Andolan work for the rights of displaced people. Bring about behavioural changes: NGOs work against superstition, false faith, Beliefs, and Customs e.g. Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmulan Samiti (MANS); or Committee for Eradication of Blind Faith, CEBF). Promoting Environmentalism: e. Green Peace, Vanashakti NGO, etc. Civil Society in India: The third sector / civil society organisations promote cooperation between two or more individuals through mutual cohesion, common approach and networking. Democracies inherently encourage such cooperative behaviour. The Indian Constitution too explicitly recognizes “right to freedom of speech and expression and to form associations or unions” as one of the core rights of its citizens under Article 19(1) and hence encourages formation of civil society groups and community organisations. In the current model of economic growth, the voluntary/ civil society sector has been recognized as a key player in achieving equitable, sustainable and inclusive development goals. Both the State as well as the market-led models of development have been found to be inadequate and there is an increasing realisation that active involvement of the voluntary sector is needed in the process of nation building. Civil Society plays a crucial role in the good governance. As India is not a participative democracy but a representative democracy, government takes all major decisions by itself. Civil Society act as interface of interaction between the government and the governed. Challenges: The challenge is multidimensional, and is compounded by the ‘unorganised’ nature of the sector, lack of regulatory frameworks and the fact that India boasts of more than a million NGOs of different roles, structures and sizes. The general lack of transparency in the functioning of a large proportion of civil society organisations leads to aversion in donating funds for charitable causes since the general public is largely cynical about the ‘genuineness’ of the non-profit spirit of the sector. Recently, the Union Home Ministry has identified some NGOs as security threat to the country. Such security considerations have underscored the rising need of improving the governance practices in the Indian NGOs and exercising better regulatory mechanisms, disclosure norms, and management processes including financial management and budgeting systems as well. Recently decades have seen a spurt in civil society organizations across the country; Many of them do not server the larger interests of society such as lobbying for industrial groups or foreign nations by advocating a policy. Need of realignment: Because of the financial and structural constraints imposed on them, CSOs/movements are bleeding conscientious youngsters, who naturally need some financial sustenance. Without sustained support, CSOs cannot positively mould public discourse or make a tangible impact on the nation at large. With governments consciously avoiding CSOs/movements, their ability to shape policy is diminished which adversely impacts organisational morale. Way Forward: Civil society that can be subverted, suborned, divided, manipulated to hurt the interests of a nation. So there is need to civilize civil society in the promotion of “good governance” civil society can play an important role in reforming the state in the badly governed countries and through interrogation and collaboration can help promote democracy, rule of law and social justice. Source:   The Hindu Carbon Border Adjustment Tax Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: The European Union has proposed a policy called the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) to tax products such as cement and steel that are extremely carbon intensive, with effect from 2026. About Carbon Border Adjustment Tax: A carbon border adjustment tax is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question. As a price on carbon, it discourages emissions. As a trade-related measure, it affects production and exports. Need of Imposition of Carbon Tax: Climate Change Mitigation: European Union has declared to cut its carbon emissions by at least 55% by 2030 compared to 1990 levels. Emissions from imports contribute 20% of the EU’s CO2 total emissions. Carbon Leakage: Businesses when finding more suitable business alternatives shift their operations which results in carbon leakage and increases the total emissions in the world without paying for the damage. Issues associated with Carbon Tax: Most Affected Countries: The BASIC Group (Brazil, South Africa, India, and China) has opposed the EU’s proposal terming it discriminatory and against the principles of equity and Common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities. India’s exports: Exports from India will come down as EU is India’s third-largest trading partner. The imposition of tax will increase the prices of India-made goods making them less attractive for importers. Violation of the Rio Declaration: Article 12 of the Rio Declaration says that standards applicable to developed countries are not applicable to developing countries. The EU’s proposal seems uniform for all the countries. Non-Tariff Barrier: The policy can be regarded as a disguised form of protectionism. The carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism may spur the adoption of cleaner technologies but without adequate assistance for newer technologies could rather become disadvantageous for developing countries. Impact on India: As India’s third largest trading partner, the EU accounted for €62.8 billion ($74.5 billion) worth of trade in goods in 2020, or 11.1% of India’s total global trade. India’s exports to the EU were worth $41.36 billion in 2020-21, as per data from the commerce ministry. The CBT would cover energy-intensive sectors such as cement, steel, aluminium, oil refinery, paper, glass, chemicals as well as the power sector. By increasing the prices of Indian-made goods in the EU, this tax would make Indian goods less attractive for buyers and could shrink demand. Sadly, India’s many ‘self-reliance’ tariffs are also a contributor to this. Way Forward: A global view on this topic should include an alignment of key parameters applicable to them, as well as agreed standards for measuring carbon that is emitted in the production of goods. Transparency and non-discrimination should remain key principles of any global understanding, and that should also ensure that carbon-related measures do not unnecessarily restrict trade. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The famous I R Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu case is related to Ninth schedule Anti defection Sixth schedule Reservation of Other backward classes Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Buddhist council and place of meeting First Buddhist Council – Vaishali Second Buddhist Council – Rajgriha Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra Fourth Buddhist Council – Kundalavana How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Supercritical carbon dioxide: Supercritical carbon dioxide (CO2) is a fluid state of CO2 where it is heated and held at or above its critical temperature(31∘C) and pressure(73 atm). It is used in the oil and gas industry for gas injections during enhanced oil recovery (EOR) techniques. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 19th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Apr 19, 2023 Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series for UPSC

[DAY 39] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 –HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 39-> Click Here

Apr 19, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Apr 18, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Chhattisgarh Forest Department successfully translocated four sub-adult wild buffaloes from Assam to Chattisgarh’s Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary. About Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Layout map of the Barnowpara Sanctuary, Raipur Forest Division, C.G .  | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary is located in the district of Raipur in Chhattisgarh. Barnawapara the name coined from village Bar and Nawapara. The rivers Balmedhi, Jonk and Mahanadi are the lifeline river which runs along the sanctuary. River Balamdehi forms the western boundary and Jonk River forms the northeastern boundary of the Sanctuary. The Balar reservoir situated inside the sanctuary supports a number of wetland birds and fishes. Flora: The sanctuary contains major vegetation of Teak, Sal and Mixed forest. Fauna: Cheetal, Sambhar, Nilgai Wild Boar, Sloth Bear, and Wild Dogs, are commonly seen. The Indian Wild Buffalo It is the state animal of Chhattisgarh (India) Habitat: mainly found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river valleys. In India, they are generally concentrated in North East India in Kaziranga National Park, Manas and Dibru-Saikhowa National Parks, Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary and Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary, D’Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule 1. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, the such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 The Olkiluoto 3 reactor Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Europe’s most powerful nuclear reactor, The Olkiluoto 3 reactor has completed its test phase in Finland. About the Olkiluoto 3 reactor:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of the Olkiluoto site in Finland  | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Olkiluoto 3 reactor is an EPR (European Pressurized Water Reactor). It is the first new-generation EPR, or European Pressurized Reactor, plant to have gone online in Europe. It is located in Finland. It is built by the French-led Areva-Siemens consortium. It is the most powerful nuclear reactor in Europe. It has a capacity of generating 1,600 megawatts. Construction of Olkiluoto 3 began in 2005. It covers approximately 14% of Finland’s electricity demand. The Olkiluoto 3 is Western Europe’s first new reactor in more than 15 years. It will help Finland to achieve its carbon neutrality targets and increase energy security. MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2022) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight lines The speed of light is always the same                                                                         Q.2) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement : (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting concluded. About G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting:- IMAGE SOURCE: G7 Countries – WorldAtlas G7 Ministers’ Meeting on Climate, Energy and Environment was held in Sapporo, Japan.  The participating leaders committed to work towards ensuring carbon-free electricity production by 2035 and “accelerating” the phase-out of coal. This is significant as the G7 nations account for a quarter of global carbon emissions. Key highlights of Carbon-Free Power By 2035:- Acceleration of renewable energy: The countries agreed to accelerate solar and wind energy investments to produce 1,000 gigawatts (GW) by 2030 from solar power and 150 GW of wind power from off-shore platforms. This move is in line with recent reports by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) to ensure that global temperatures do not increase by more than 1.5°C of pre-industrial levels by the end of the century. Elimination of subsidies: The countries reaffirmed their commitment to the elimination of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies by 2025. Phasing out of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies is a key component of the Paris Agreement. Removal of government support towards fossil-fuel-driven power: The countries emphasized that, with the exception of a few clearly defined circumstances that are consistent with a 1.5°C warming limit and the goals of the Paris Agreement, they have stopped all new direct government support for unabated international thermal coal power generation by the end of 2021 and public support for the international unabated fossil fuel energy sector in 2022. The group will each provide an update on their approach to implementation by the end of 2023. The ministers have agreed to prioritize steps toward phasing out “unabated” coal power generation plants that do not employ mechanisms to capture emissions and prevent them from escaping into the atmosphere. The G7 countries have endorsed Japan’s national strategy that emphasizes clean coal, hydrogen, and nuclear energy to ensure its energy security. The leaders have reaffirmed their commitment to accelerating the transition to clean energy and achieving net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. The leaders emphasized the need to urgently reduce carbon emissions and achieve a “predominantly decarbonized power sector” by 2035. MUST READ: India’s Transition Away from Coal SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or reducing carbon footprint? (2020) Copper slag Cold mix asphalt technology Geotextiles Hot mix asphalt technology Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 4 and 5 only 1 and 5 only Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Public sector banks have set a target for the sale of flagship government insurance schemes Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) in FY24. About Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):- PMJJBY is an insurance scheme by the Ministry of Finance. It offers life insurance cover for death due to any reason. It is a one-year cover, renewable from year to year. Eligibility:-  The age of the applicant must be between 18 and 50 Years. The applicant must hold a Bank Account / Post Office Account.  Aadhar is to be the primary KYC for the bank account.  The life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs shall be for the one-year period stretching from 1st June to 31st May and will be renewable. Risk Coverage: Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death of the insured, due to any reason.  Premium:- A premium of ₹ 330/- per annum per subscriber . It is to be auto-debited in one instalment from the subscriber’s bank account. The scheme is being offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to offer the product on similar terms with necessary approvals and tie up with banks for this purpose. About Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY):- IMAGE SOURCE: Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana — Vikaspedia Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) was launched in 2015. It is implemented by the Ministry of Finance. Objective: to enhance the level of insurance penetration in the country and to provide insurance coverage to common people, especially the poor and the underprivileged sections of society. Eligibility: Available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account. Premium: Rs.12 per annum. With effect from June 1, 2022, the premium is Rs 20 per annum. Payment Mode: The premium will be directly auto-debited by the bank from the subscriber account on or before the 1st of June of each annual coverage period under the scheme. Risk Coverage:- Death – Rs 2 Lakh Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot – Rs 2 Lakh Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot – Rs.1 Lakh. Eligibility: Any person having a bank account and an Aadhaar number linked to the bank account can give a simple form to the bank every year before the 1st of June to join the scheme.  Name of nominee to be given in the form. Terms of Risk Coverage: A person has to opt for the scheme every year. They can also prefer to give a long-term option of continuing in which case his/her account will be auto-debited every year by the bank. Implementation: The scheme will be offered by all Public Sector General Insurance Companies and all other insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie up with banks for this purpose. MUST READ: Digital Banking Units (DBU) SOURCE: ECONOMICS TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Substack Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the users of the digital newsletter platform Substack reported they could not like or retweet Twitter posts with Substack links. About Substack:- Substack, is an online publishing platform that lets writers and podcasters publish and share content directly with their targeted audience. It was launched in 2017. The platform allows content creators to generate income directly from subscribers on their terms.  For readers and listeners, the platform provides an easy way to access content and support individual creators based on users’ needs and preferences. Susbtack content creators look to social media platforms to create additional engagement with readers and listeners.  It also helps them grow their audience base. The creators post links on Twitter, Facebook, and other prominent social media for interested users to subscribe to and follow posts regularly. These links are used to redirect users to content published on Substack, driving online traffic toward the original content published on the platform. MUST READ: Guidelines for Social Media Platform SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements: (2022) SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hemophilia Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, World Hemophilia Day 2023 was celebrated. About Hemophilia:- World Haemophilia Day is celebrated on the 17th of April every year. It aims to increase awareness about haemophilia and other inherited bleeding disorders. The day is celebrated in honour of Frank Schnabel. Frank Schnabel: founder of the World Federation of Haemophilia (WHF).   Haemophilia is a medical condition, mostly inherited. In this, the ability of blood to clot is severely reduced, so that even a minor injury can cause severe bleeding. It is caused by a mutation or change, in one of the genes, that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins needed to form a blood clot. This change or mutation can prevent the clotting protein from working properly or at all. These genes are located on the X chromosome. Men are more vulnerable to haemophilia than women.  It is quite a rare disease, about 1 in 10,000 people are born with it. Types:- Haemophilia A:- It is The most common type of Haemophilia is called Haemophilia A.  A person does not have enough clotting factor VIII (factor eight). Haemophilia B:- A person with Haemophilia B does not have enough factor IX (factor nine). Symptoms:- Big bruises. Bleeding into muscles and joints. Spontaneous bleeding (sudden bleeding inside the body for no clear reason). Prolonged bleeding after getting a cut, removing a tooth, or having surgery. Treatment:- The main treatment for Haemophilia is Replacement Therapy. Replacement Therapy:- Concentrates of clotting factor VIII (for Haemophilia A) or clotting factor IX (for Haemophilia B) are slowly dripped or injected into a vein. These infusions help replace the clotting factor that is missing or low. MUST READ: The Human Genome Project SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2022) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2022) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Jivhala scheme Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently launched Jivhala scheme offers loans to Yerwada jail inmates in Maharashtra. About the Jivhala scheme:- A loan scheme named Jivhala has been launched by the Maharashtra Department of Prisons. It is for the inmates who are serving sentences in various jails across Maharashtra. The scheme, was implemented by the Department of Prisons and Maharashtra State Cooperative Bank. It has been started in Pune’s Yerawada Central Jail. The credit scheme, named Jivhala, means affection in Marathi. It is primarily for inmates who are undergoing a prison sentence of more than three years. In the initial phase of this scheme, a Rs 50,000 loan will be given.  The interest rate that will be applicable is 7%. Out of the interest that will be earned by the bank, 1 per cent will be contributed by the bank to the prisoners’ welfare fund. For issuing this loan no guarantor or mortgage is required MUST READ: Police & Prison Reform SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, NHAI told NGT that the alternative designs under evaluation for ECR are widening near Odiyur Lake. About NHAI:- National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was set up under NHAI Act, 1988. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. It has been entrusted with the National Highways Development Project, along with other minor projects for development, maintenance and management. National Highways Development Project (NHDP) is a project to upgrade, rehabilitate and widen major highways in India to a higher standard. The project was started in 1998. NHAI maintains the National Highways network to global standards and in a cost-effective manner and promotes economic well-being and quality of life of the people. MUST READ: Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) model SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018 Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies Q.2) Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to (2016) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them RBI’s Green Deposits Framework Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: Recognising that climate change is one of the most critical challenges in the present era, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a framework for banks to accept and promote green deposits. About Green Deposit: Image credit: The Hindu A green deposit refers to an interest-bearing deposit received by regulated entities (usually banks and non-banking financial institutions) for a fixed period. The proceeds are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance. The investment in this fixed tenure deposit will go towards financing eligible businesses and projects that promote the transition to a low-carbon, climate-resilient, and sustainable economy. The projects must encourage energy efficiency in resource utilization, reduce carbon emissions and greenhouse gases, promote climate resilience and/or adaptation and value, and improve natural ecosystems and biodiversity. The green deposit framework: As per the RBI framework, banks will offer the deposits as cumulative/ non-cumulative deposits. On maturity, the green deposits would be renewed or withdrawn at the choice of the depositor. The green deposits shall be denominated in rupees only. Key Features of the Framework: Applicability: The framework is applicable to Scheduled Commercial Banks, including Small Finance Banks, excluding Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks and Payments Banks and all deposit-taking Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), including Housing Finance Companies. Allocation: REs will be required to allocate the proceeds raised through green deposits towards a list of green activities and projects that encourage energy efficiency in resource utilization, reduce carbon emissions and greenhouse gases, promote climate resilience and/or adaptation, and improve natural ecosystems and biodiversity. Exclusion: Projects involving new or existing extraction, production and distribution of fossil fuels, including improvements and upgrades, nuclear power, direct waste incineration, alcohol, weapons, tobacco, gaming, or palm oil industries. Renewable energy projects generating energy from biomass using feedstock originating from protected areas, landfill projects and hydropower plants larger than 25 MW have been excluded from green financing. Financing Framework: To ensure effective allocation of green deposits, REs must put in place a Board-approved Financing Framework (FF). The green deposits shall be denominated in Indian Rupees only. The allocation of funds raised through green deposits by REs during a financial year shall be subject to independent third-party verification/assurance, which shall be done on an annual basis. Significance: The idea is to foster and develop a green finance ecosystem in the country. It aims to encourage regulated entities (REs) to offer green deposits to customers, protect the interest of the depositors, aid customers to achieve their sustainability agenda, address greenwashing concerns, and help augment the flow of credit to green activities/projects. Climate change has been recognised as one of the most critical challenges and globally, various efforts have been taken to reduce emissions as well as promote sustainability. The financial sector can play a pivotal role in mobilising resources and their allocation thereof in green activities/project Green finance is also progressively gaining traction in India, The allocation of proceeds raised from green deposits should be based on the official Indian green taxonomy. The projects must encourage energy efficiency in resource utilisation and improve natural ecosystems and biodiversity. Banks and NBFCs will have to put in place a comprehensive board-approved policy on green deposits. There are no penal provisions for banks that do not utilize green deposits. However, since the utilization of green deposits is transparent, if funds are not adequately deployed, depositors may not be very forthcoming to invest in green deposits of the bank. Way Forward: Green deposits are a step towards promoting sustainable financing and addressing environmental concerns. These deposits offer investors an opportunity to invest in eco-friendly projects while earning reasonable returns. By investing in green deposits, investors can make a positive impact on the environment and contribute towards creating a sustainable future. Thus, with the transparency and regulatory framework in place, green deposits are an attractive option for savers looking to invest in socially responsible investment products. Source: The Hindu The Maternity Benefit Act 2017 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Minister of State for Labour and Employment, informed that the Ministry of Labour and Employment is implementing the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, which provides for paid maternity leave to women workers and crèche facility by establishments. About the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961: The Maternity Benefit Act was originally passed to regulate the employment of women in “certain establishments” for the period before and after childbirth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits. Originally it applied to every establishment being a factory, mine or plantation. Later in 1973, it was extended to any such establishment belonging to Government and every establishment where persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances. It repealed the Mines Maternity Benefit Act, 1941 and Maternity Benefit Act, 1929. The right to paid maternity leaves was also given under the 1961 Act, although the period of such leave could not exceed twelve weeks. Additionally, no woman could be allowed to avail maternity benefits if she had not worked in the establishment for at least one hundred and sixty days in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery. These benefits would be allowed without dismissing the female worker from service or reduction of wages. Violating provisions of the Act could result in three months’ punishment, with or without a fine. The 2017 amendment: The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 was amended to allow 26 weeks of paid leave after childbirth, although only to biological mothers. The amendment also inserted Section 5(4) which said that adoptive or surrogate mothers legally adopting a child below three months will be entitled to a maternity benefit period of 12 weeks from the date the child is handed over to the mother. Women in the unorganised sector cannot avail the benefits of the Maternity Benefit(Amendment) Act 2017. Benefits: The enhancement of paid maternity leave for women is a progressive step and would benefit about 1.8 million women in the organised sector. It would allow a woman to take care of her infant in the most important, formative months of a child and provide her with much needed work-life balance. It will make India at third place, only after Canada and Norway, in the level of maternity benefits such as paid time off work extended to women. The amendment is in line with several expert recommendations including that of the World Health Organisation, which recommends exclusive breastfeeding of children for the first 24 weeks. It will make for a milestone legislation on the road to reducing gender inequality at work and bringing down maternal and infant mortality in India. Associated challenges: Unorganised sector women do not receive benefits: Women in the unorganised sector cannot avail the benefits of the Maternity Benefit(Amendment) Act 2017. According to Section 5(4) of the amended Act It says “A woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother shall be entitled to maternity benefit for a period of twelve weeks ….”. A woman adopting a child older than three months gets no benefits. This is challenged as being “discriminatory” and “arbitrary” towards adoptive mothers. This section also arbitrarily discriminates against orphaned, abandoned, or surrendered children above the age of three months. Implementation of the Act not equal across sectors: A report by Team Lease in 2020 revealed that the Maternity Benefit Act has not delivered a positive impact on job opportunities for women, even three years after its implementation. More than five out of 10 sectors reviewed showed a drop in women’s participation since the implementation of the Act. 7 out of 10 sectors were expected to show positive momentum in women’s workforce participation in the medium term, while 5 of the 10 sectors showed a drop in the share of women in their workforce. Challenges faced by women after maternity leave: According to the same report, after maternity leave, women face several challenges such as wage cuts (30%), resistance or lack of support from family (25%), and access to childcare (20%). Way Forward: The solution for the long list of barriers that women face in accessing employment opportunities, such as the risk of exploitation particularly in the informal sector, the lack of wage parity, concerns regarding safety and security, etc., need to be addressed on priority basis. India’s problem is not just about ensuring women return to the workforce after childbirth but in bringing women into the workforce in the first place. Resolving this will require more than just maternity leave. Source:   PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary is located in Jharkhand Chhattisgarh Maharashtra Odisha Q.2) Consider the following countries: United States Japan India China France Which of the above are members of G7 group? 1 3 and 4 only 1 4 and 5 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 5 only Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY): PMJJBY is an insurance scheme by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. To apply for benefits under the scheme, the age of the applicant must be between 18 and 50 Years. The scheme is being offered by Life Insurance Corporation only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }