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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [15th June, 2023] – Day 4

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 5 Questions - CLICK HEREP.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –14th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Exercise Ekuverin Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The 12th edition of the joint military exercise Ekuverin commenced at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand recently. About Exercise Ekuverin:- IMAGE SOURCE: Quora It is a joint Military Exercise between India & Maldives. Ekuverin means ‘Friends’ in the Maldivian language. (UPSC MAINS: India’s interests in the Maldives ) Background: India and Maldives have been conducting Exercise Ekuverin since 2009. It focuses on enhancing interoperability between the two forces for carrying out counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in a semi-urban environment under the United Nations mandate and carrying out joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations. 11th edition: was held in Maldives in December 2021. 12th edition: was held in Uttarakhand, India in June 2023. Other important joint military exercises of India: MUST READ: India-Maldives relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Svalbard mission Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Norwegian Ambassador has paid a visit to the ISRO Chairman. The meeting concluded with a mutual agreement on the importance of maintaining a continued partnership and fostering increased engagements between India and Norway in the field of space exploration and technology. About Svalbard mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: gktoday.in This visit offers an occasion to recall the challenging Svalbard mission, which took place 26 years ago at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard. In 1997, under the Savalbard mission, Antrix signed an agreement with the Norwegian Space Centre for the sale of a Rohini RH-300 Mk.II Sounding Rocket. (UPSC CSE: NISAR) Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL): is a marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe). The RH-300 Mk-II was given a new name by the Norwegian Space Centre as Isbjorn-1, which translates literally as ‘Polar Bear-I.’ Challenge: the Rohini rockets had until then flown only in the tropical hot and humid conditions in India. while the Svalbard archipelago’s temperatures were on the extremely low side. ISRO shipped the RH-300 Mk-II to Norway after qualifying it for arctic weather conditions. However, the rocket, unfortunately, did not achieve the predicted height, rising only up to 71 km. Nevertheless, the Norwegian scientists seemed happy with the launch as the data collected during the flight led to some new findings. This launch marked a new era of cooperation between the two countries in space research. RH-300 It is a single-stage sounding rocket. Derived from French Belier rocket engine technology. Launch altitude:100 km. A variant, the RH-300 Mk-II, has a maximum launch altitude of 116 kilometers. Payload: up to 80 kilograms (20 kg of scientific payload). Numerous payloads can be tested in a single flight. ISRO ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 with an expanded role to harness space technology. Department of Space (DOS) was set up and ISRO was brought under DOS in 1972. It is the space agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Vision: to harness space technology for national development, while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Objective: development and application of space technology for various national needs. To fulfil this objective, ISRO has established major space systems for communication, television broadcasting and meteorological services; resources monitoring and management; space-based navigation services. (UPSC CSE: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) Chairman: the activities of ISRO are guided by him. He would be the secretary of the Department of Space. He would also be Chairman of the Space Commission. Space Commission: the apex body that formulates the policies and oversees the implementation of the Indian Space Programme. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. Light always travels in a straight line. Speed of light is always the same. United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Dubai Customs celebrated the graduation of participants from the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme.  About United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) – IMAGE SOURCE: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. HQ: Vienna. Historical Background: It was established in 1997.It was named as a United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) in Funding: UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from Governments. UNODC has 20 field offices covering over 150 countries. (UPSC CSE: World Drug Report and UNODC) UNODC field staff develop and implement drug control and crime prevention programmes tailored to countries’ particular needs. It has approximately 500 staff members worldwide. Functions:- It acts as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division of the United Nations Office in Vienna. It is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism. It is mandated to assist Member States in their struggle against illicit drugs, crime and terrorism. Three pillars of the UNODC work programme are- Field-based technical cooperation projects: to enhance the capacity of Member States to counteract illicit drugs, crime and terrorism. Research and analytical work: to increase knowledge and understanding of drugs and crime issues. To expand the evidence base for policy and operational decisions. Assist States in the ratification and implementation of the relevant international treaties. (UPSC CSE: Synthetic Drugs in East and Southeast Asia: Report by the UNODC released) MUST READ: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. New Development Bank (NDB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Honduras President formally requested the country’s admission to the BRICS-led New Development Bank (NDB). About New Development Bank (NDB):- IMAGE SOURCE: economywatch.com NDB is a multilateral development bank. Founded by: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa (BRICS) countries. It was founded at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014. It was established in (UPSC CSE: NDB) HQ: Shanghai, China. Objective: mobilizing resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs). Members: – the Bank’s membership is open to all the members of the United Nations. Founding Members: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa joined in Bangladesh & UAE joined in Egypt joined in Uruguay is a prospective member. Funding: The Bank had an initial authorized capital of US$ 100 billion. The initial subscribed capital shall be US$ 50 billion, equally shared among founding members. First President: V. Kamath, India. 2018: NDB received observer status in the United Nations General Assembly. Significance: NDB strives to act as a catalyst in bridging the gap between the availability of financial resources and the growing needs of our founding members and EMDCs. (UPSC MAINS: Significance of NDB, AIIB and ADB ) Objectives:- Fostering the development of member countries. Supporting economic growth. Promoting competitiveness and facilitating job creation. Building a knowledge-sharing platform among developing countries.  Focus Areas:- Clean energy and energy efficiency Transport infrastructure Water and sanitation Digital infrastructure Environmental protection Social infrastructure Major Projects Funded by NDB in India:- It has committed funding to a number of major infrastructure projects in India, including:- Mumbai Metro rail, Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System and Many Renewable Energy projects. 2020: India announced a 1 billion USD loan pact with NDB to boost rural employment and infrastructure. Recent Projects in India:- Bihar Rural Road (Phase II):2023 Corridor 4 of Phase II of Chennai Metro Rail Project:2022 Meghalaya Ecotourism Infrastructure Development Project:2022 Assam Bridge-II (Palasbari) Project:2022 Sustainable Low-carbon Rail Infrastructure Program:2022 MUST READ: BRICS SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Global Slavery Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Important Publications Context: The Global Slavery Index 2023 was published recently. About Global Slavery Index 2023:- It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries. Published by: the Walk Free Foundation It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the International Organisation for Migration (IOM). ILO: it is a specialized agency of the United Nations working for social justice and is essential to universal and lasting peace. IOM: it is an intergovernmental organization in the field of migration. The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality). Key Highlights of the Report:- According to the Global Slavery Index 2023, an estimated 50 million people were living in modern slavery on any given day in 2021. It is an increase of 10 million people since 2016. Modern slavery: it encompasses various forms of exploitation, including forced labour, forced marriage, debt bondage, commercial sexual exploitation, human trafficking, slavery-like practices, and the sale and exploitation of children. This means that one in every 160 people in the world is a victim of modern slavery. Countries with the highest prevalence: North Korea (104.6), Eritrea (90.3), and Mauritania (32.0). modern slavery in these is often state-sponsored. Countries with the lowest prevalence: Switzerland (0.5), Norway (0.5), and Germany (0.6). Asia and the Pacific: has the largest number of people in modern slavery. (29.3 million) India: has a prevalence of 8. (Estimated proportion of the population living in modern slavery per thousand people). India, China, Russia, Indonesia, Turkey, and the U.S. are among the top G20 countries with the highest number of forced labourers Countries hosting the maximum number of people living in modern slavery:- India China North Korea MUST READ: World of Work Report SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom. The United States of America. Q.2) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change. Regulation of food prices and food security. Gender parity at the workplace. Menhir and megalithic burial sites Syllabus Prelims –Ancient History Context: Recently, the Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology declared five menhir and megalithic burial sites at Kodumanal in Erode district as protected monuments. About Menhir and megalithic burial sites:- Menhirs are upright stones from the Megalithic period. (UPSC MAINS: Rock cut architecture) They are erected above a burial site or near a burial site as a memorial. Megalith:- Megaliths are large stones that are used to construct a structure or monument, either alone or together with other stones. Megaliths were constructed as either burial sites or commemorative Timeline:- The construction of these structures took place mainly in the Neolithic period. It continued into the Chalcolithic period and the Bronze Age. In India: archaeologists trace the majority of the megaliths to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC), though some sites precede the Iron Age, extending up to 2000 BC. Distribution in India:- Megaliths are spread across the Indian subcontinent. The majority of megalithic sites are found in Peninsular India. It is concentrated in the states of Maharashtra (mainly in Vidarbha), Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Types of Megalithic Structure:- Stone Circles: Stone circles are commonly called “cromlechs” (a word in the Welsh language). Dolmen: A dolmen is a megalithic structure formed by placing a large capstone on two or more support stones, forming a chamber below, sometimes closed in on three sides. Cist: a small stone-built coffin-like box or ossuary used to hold the bodies of the dead. Monolith: Any single standing stone erected in prehistoric times. Synonymous with “megalith” and “menhir”. Capstone style: Single megaliths placed horizontally, often over burial chambers, without the use of support stones. Recent Findings in Kodumanal:- Potsherds containing names inscribed in Tamil-Brahmi script were found in large numbers. Potsherd= a broken piece of an object made of baked clay, especially one found by an archaeologist Roman silver coins, precious stones and quartz were found. Significance: these findings showed that an industrial and trade Centre had existed here about 2,300 years ago. MUST READ: Necropolis SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelising water into connected reservoirs? (2021) Dholavira Kalibangan Rakhigarhi Ropar Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2019) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Betelgeuse Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, there have been debates regarding explosion of the red giant star, Betelgeuse. About Betelgeuse:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Betelgeuse is a red supergiant star in the constellation Orion. Supergiant star: over 20 times bigger than the Sun. It is one of the largest visible starts to the naked eye. It is the second-brightest in the constellation of Orion. The star is approximately 650 light-years from Earth. Betelgeuse is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It is a distinctly reddish, semiregular variable star whose apparent magnitude, varies between +0.0 and +1.6. At near-infrared wavelengths, Betelgeuse is the brightest star in the night sky. It is known for its periodic dimming and brightening up. In massive stars like Betelgeuse, the carbon-burning stage lasts only up to a few hundred years, after which the star ‘dies’ and collapses into a supernova within a few months. Supernova A supernova is the name given to the explosion of a massive star. They are the largest explosion that takes place in space. A star can go supernova in one of two ways:- Type I supernova: Star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbor until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites. Type II supernova: Star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity. Orion constellation Orion constellation is named after the hunter in Greek mythology. Orion, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world. In total, Orion is home to 10% of the seventy brightest stars, despite covering only 1.4% of the sky. MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Mains Covid Vaccine Intelligence Network (CoWIN) Portal Data Breach Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The CoWIN portal, which is used by most Indians to register for COVID-19 vaccination, has been in the news recently after reports of a data breach by a Telegram bot. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) had been asked to investigate the issue and submit a report. CERT-In, in its initial report, has pointed out that the back-end database for the Telegram bot was not directly accessing the APIs (application programming interfaces) of the CoWIN database. About CoWIN Portal: CoWIN Portal is the digital platform to capture covid-19 vaccination program details. CoWIN connects to various stakeholders, including vaccine manufacturers, administrators, and verifiers, public and private vaccination facilities, and vaccine recipients etc. The CoWIN platform was developed at a record speed with ample consideration to its scalability, modularity and interoperability. CoWIN has been integrated with other government mobile applications such as Aarogya Setu and UMANG. CoWIN provides access to third-party applications that have been authorised by the government to use its APIs (application programming interfaces). APIs are a set of rules that allow two applications to communicate and share data. Data access on the CoWIN portal: At present individual level, vaccinated beneficiary data access on the CoWIN portal is available at three levels. Beneficiary dashboard: The person who has been vaccinated can have an access to the Co-WIN data through use of registered Mobile number with OTP authentication. CoWIN authorized user: The vaccinator with use of authentic login credential provided can access personal level data of vaccinated beneficiaries. But the CoWIN system tracks and keeps record of each time an authorized user accesses the CoWIN system. API based access: The third party applications who have been provided authorised access of Co-WIN APIs can access personal level data of vaccinated beneficiaries only through beneficiary OTP authentication. Implications of this data leak: Identity theft risks: The leaked data exposes individuals to the risk of identity theft, as sensitive information can be misused for fraudulent activities. Targeted frauds and phishing attacks: With access to personal details, scammers may attempt targeted frauds and phishing attacks, leading to financial loss and potential harm to individuals. Loss of trust in government systems: The data breach undermines public trust in the government’s ability to safeguard sensitive information, affecting confidence in the vaccination program and other government initiatives. Reputational damage: The incident could tarnish the reputation of the CoWIN platform and associated government agencies, affecting their credibility in managing sensitive data. Impact on future vaccination drive: Concerns about data security may deter individuals from participating in the vaccination program, slowing down efforts to control the spread of COVID-19. Calls for accountability: The data leak prompts demands for accountability from the responsible government agencies and the implementation of stricter measures to protect citizen data. Need for Data Protection in India: India as a data-driven economy: As per a report by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in 2019, there were 665.31 million internet subscribers in India. This indicates that personal data is becoming available in the public domain due to high mobile internet usage. Younger Generation and Data: Statistics show that 30.5% of Indians are below the age of 25 and extensively use mobile apps to access social media. Therefore, it becomes imperative for the government to protect the personal data of its citizens. Risks to Individual Data: Loss of individual privacy, including the loss of individuals’ control on usage of their personal data, is one of the most significant data risks at present. Financial Losses: Data breaches have become a significant issue in India, resulting in financial losses to individuals. Hackers often target bank account details, credit card information, and other financial identifiers, leading to fraudulent activities and financial harm. Discrimination and Marginalization: Profiling individuals or groups based on their personal data can lead to unfair exclusion, marginalization, or discrimination. Way Forward: Increase awareness among the software community on producing safer software and push organisations to invest in better practices. There is need to invest in cutting-edge defence mechanisms, enact stringent legislation, and foster cross-sector collaboration to counter evolving threats. Source:   Indian Express Minimum Support Prices (MSP) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved the increase in Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for all mandated Kharif Crops for 2023-24. About MSP: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season, considering the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The Food Corporation of India (FCI), along with state government agencies (SGAs), procures food grains under MSP. There are two types of systems: centralized procurement system and Decentralized procurement system Centralized procurement system: The procurement of food grains in Central Pool is undertaken by FCI either directly or by State government agencies (SGA). Central pool refers to stocks procured through MSP operations for welfare schemes and calamity relief. Quantity procured by SGAs is handed over to FCI for storage and subsequent issue against GoI (Government of India) allocations in the same State or movement of surplus stocks to other States. The cost of the food grains procured by State agencies is reimbursed by FCI. Decentralized procurement system: The State Government itself undertakes direct purchase of food grains. It also stores and distributes these food grains under NFSA and other welfare schemes. Significance of MSP: Better price for their crops: With the increase in the MSP, farmers will get a better price for their crops and procurement will be done. Promotion to grow oilseeds: As farmers get a secured price for their crops, it will encourage more and more farmers to grow oilseeds as well as prompt them to shift away from grains. Crop Diversification: There are slightly higher increases in the MSP for pulses, oilseeds and coarse cereals, which helps in achieving the motive of diversifying crops. Differential Remuneration and protection to farmers: It helps in diversifying the crops in land use pattern. It protects farmers from the unwarranted fluctuation in prices provoked by the international level price variations. Any sharp fall in the market price of a commodity can be handled as MSP acts as a shock absorber. Mend demand supply imbalance: Concerted efforts were made to realign the MSPs in favor of oilseeds, pulses and coarse cereals. Focus on Nutri-Rich crops: The added focus on nutri-rich nutri-cereals is to incentivize its production in the areas where rice-wheat cannot be grown without long-term adverse implications for groundwater table. Atma-Nirbhar Bharat: To boost pulses and oilseeds production and reduce the country’s dependence on imports, the government increased the support price of tur by Rs. 300 to Rs 6,300 per quintal for the 2021-22 crop year from Rs 6,000 per quintal last year. Issues Associated with India’s MSP Regime: Limited Extent: As against the official announcement of MSP for 23 crops, only two, rice and wheat, are procured as these are distributed in NFSA (National Food Security Act). For the rest, it is mostly ad-hoc and insignificant. Ineffectively Implemented: The Shanta Kumar Committee, in its report in 2015, stated that only 6 % of farmers receive MSP, which means that 94% of the farmers in the country are deprived from the benefit of the MSP. More of a Procurement Price: The current MSP regime is not related to prices in the domestic market. Makes Agriculture Wheat and Paddy Dominated: Skewed MSP dominated system of rice and wheat leads to overproduction of these crops and discourages farmers to grow other crops and horticulture products, which has higher demand and subsequently could lead to increase in farmer’s income. Middlemen-Dependent: The MSP-based procurement system is also dependent on intermediaries, commission agents and APMC officials, which smaller farmers find difficult to get access. Way Forward: The procurement policy of the government needs reforms that are easier to implement. Efforts must be made to balance market price and farmers’ support. Cash transfer gives better choices to farmers than imposing subsidies. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements: It was established by the BRICS countries. Digital infrastructure is one of its focus areas. Its Headquarters is in Beijing. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) With reference to the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), consider the following statements: It is Headquartered in Montreal. It is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to Betelgeuse, consider the following statements: It is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. It lies in the Orion Constellation. It is smaller than the sun. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [14th June, 2023] – Day 3

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 3 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –13th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gilgit Manuscripts Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the National Archives of India organized an exhibition which exhibited the Gilgit Manuscripts.  About Gilgit Manuscripts:- IMAGE SOURCE: slideshare.net Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. . Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE. It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent. It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region. It contains both canonical and non-canonical Jain and Buddhist works that throw light on the evolution of much religious-philosophical literature. (UPSC CSE: Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site) National Archives of India The present building of the National Archives of India was constructed in 1926 following the transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. Historical Background: It was established in 1891 at Kolkata (Calcutta) as the Imperial Record Department. Ministry: Ministry of Culture HQ: New Delhi It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Public Records Act, 1993 and Public Record Rules, 1997. Its repositories are a vast collection of records, which include files, volumes, maps, bills assented to by the President of India, an important collection of Gazettes and Gazetteers, Census records, assembly and parliament debates, proscribed literature, travel accounts, etc. A major chunk of Oriental records is in Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, etc. MUST READ: Palm-Leaf Manuscript Museum SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) ln Which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka? (2019) Kanganahalli Sanchi Shahbazgarhi Sohgaura Anak Krakatau volcano Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Indonesia’s Anak Krakatau volcano erupted recently.  About Anak Krakatau volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: ABC News  It is an island in a caldera situated in the Sunda Strait between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia. Caldera: It is a large depression formed when a volcano erupts and collapses. Origin: Anak Krakatau, which means the child of Krakatau, is the offspring of the famous Krakatau volcano, whose monumental eruption in 1883 triggered a period of global cooling. In 1927, Anak Krakatoa emerged from the caldera formed in 1883 by the explosive volcanic eruption that destroyed the island of Krakatoa. (UPSC CSE: Volcanic eruption at Mount Semeru) It is part of the Ujung Kulon National Park, listed in UNESCO’s World Heritage site.(UPSC CSE: Dholavira: India’s 40th World Heritage Site) Ujung Kulon National Park It is a national park on the island of Java, in the province of Banten, Indonesia. It is best known as the last refuge of the one-horned Javan rhinoceros. A remote area of low hills and plateaus, with small lagoons and coastal dunes, it occupies 475 square miles (1,229 square km) on a peninsula and some islands at the extreme western tip of Java. The park faces the Sunda Strait, separating Java from Sumatra, and includes Panaitan Island, about 6 miles (10 km) northwest of the peninsula. it was set aside as a nature reserve in 1921; the national park was proposed in 1980 and formally established in 1992. The area was designated a World Heritage site in 1991. The park today contains the last remaining low-relief forest on Java; typical trees are of the genera Ficus and Barringtonia. Fewer than 60 Javan, or lesser one-horned, rhinoceroses (Rhinoceros sondaicus) remain alive, although the animals once thrived throughout the islands of Java, Borneo, and Sumatra, the Malay Peninsula, and other areas of Southeast Asia. Poaching and disease are the gravest threats to the remaining Javan rhinoceroses. Additional species in the park include bantengs (a type of wild cattle), Javan gibbons, langurs (leaf monkeys), muntjacs (barking deer), chevrotains (mouse deer), crocodiles, green turtles, green peacocks, and jungle fowl. In the late 20th century Javan tigers, which had inhabited the area, were considered extinct. MUST READ:  Rhinos SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (2021) Brown forest soil Fissure volcanic rock Granite and schist Shale and limestone Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: In the recent aftermath of the escalation of tensions between Kosovo and Serbia, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) sent 700 more of its peacekeeping troops to Kosovo. Kosovo -Serbia Conflict IMAGE SOURCE: THE HINDU Kosovo: is a small, landlocked country in the Balkans. Bordering countries: Albania, North Macedonia, Montenegro and Serbia. Many Serbs consider it the birthplace of their nation Historical Background:- After the break-up of Yugoslavia in the 1990s, Kosovo which was a province of the former country sought independence. Serbia responded with a brutal crackdown against ethnic Albanians seeking independence. This ended in 1999, with a NATO bombing campaign against Serbia. Serbian forces withdrew from Kosovo but for many Kosovo Albanians and Serbs, the conflict has never been resolved. The NATO-led Kosovo Force (KFor) is still based in Kosovo. In 2008, Kosovo unilaterally declared independence. UN Members who recognize Kosovo’s independence:- A total of 99 out of 193 United Nations countries now recognize Kosovo’s independence. These include the US, the UK and 22 out of 27 EU countries. Russia, India & China do not recognize Kosovo as an independent state Current Situation:- The relationship between the Albanian-dominated government and the Serb minority has been strained for years. In 2022, tensions led to civil disobedience. In the summer, ethnic Serbs in the northern region of Kosovo, barricaded roads and some men reportedly fired shots in protest against a new law. EU-mediated talks to resolve the dispute India’s Stand on Kosovo-Serbia Conflict:- India has refused to recognize Kosovo as a separate state since it declared independence from Serbia in 2008. Further, India has, on Serbia’s request, opposed Kosovo’s membership of international bodies, UNESCO, Apostille Convention, Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes, and Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units. India and Serbia are co-founders of the Non-Aligned Movement and have traditionally enjoyed a close partnership for decades. About North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica NATO is a Western defensive military alliance led by the United States. It is also called the Washington Treaty. (UPSC CSE: NATO) Historical Background: It came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts in Europe. Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty in 1949. After the collapse of the USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of the Soviet Union joined NATO. HQ: Brussels, Belgium. Headquarters of Allied Command Operations: Mons, Belgium. NATO Secretary General: Jens Stoltenberg. Funding: The U.S. contributes roughly three-fourths of NATO’s budget. 30 Members: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, the United States, Greece, Turkey, Germany, Spain, Czech, Hungary, Poland, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Albania, Croatia, Montenegro, and North Macedonia. India is not a member of NATO. Objectives of NATO:- To safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military means. Political objectives: NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defense and security-related issues to solve problems. Military Objectives: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes but if diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defense clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organizations. NATO has only once invoked Article 5, in 2001 following the 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Centre in the US. Functions of NATO:- NATO has an integrated military command structure but very few forces or assets are exclusively its own. Most forces remain under full national command and control until member countries agree to undertake NATO-related tasks. All 30 allies have an equal say, the Alliance’s decisions must be unanimous and consensual. Its members must respect the basic values that underpin the Alliance, namely democracy, individual liberty and the rule of law. NATO’s protection does not extend to members’ civil wars or internal coups. MUST READ: Turkey’s Peace with Sweden and Finland Joining NATO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Region often mentioned in the news:   Country (2022) Anatolia        Turkey Amhara       Ethiopia Cabo Delgado        Spain Catalonia       Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen Ram Prasad Bismil Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities/History Context: The birth anniversary of Ram Prasad Bismil was observed recently. About Ram Prasad Bismil:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Better India Bismil was a revolutionary freedom fighter with a poet’s heart. Bismil was born on 11 June 1897, in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Shahjahanpur district to Murlidhar and Moolmati. British authorities hanged him for his involvement in the Kakori Train Action. He was hanged in the Gorakhpur jail in 1927 and cremated on the banks of the Rapti River. He is a revered symbol of patriotism and Hindu-Muslim unity. He attended the 1921 session of the Indian National Congress at Ahmedabad. Affiliated Organizations:- He joined Arya Samaj in 1875. (UPSC CSE: Dayanand Saraswati ) He formed the organization Matrivedi with Genda Lal Dixit, a schoolteacher. He formed the Hindustan Republic Association in 1924. Hindustan Republic Association: was a revolutionary party to fight against British colonial rule in India. It was evolved into Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928 by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh and others. (UPSC CSE: Chandra Shekhar Azad) Bhagat Singh: he was a revolutionary hero of the Indian independence movement awarded the death sentence under the Lahore conspiracy case. Works:- He published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyon ke Naam’ and distributed it along with his poem ‘Mainpuri ki Pratigya’ in 1918. He also wrote the cult song “Mera rang de Basanti chola”. Ideology:- His ideals of freedom struggle stood in stark contrast to that of Mahatma Gandhi and he would reportedly say “Independence would not be achieved by means of non-violence”. (UPSC CSE: India and Gandhi ) Mahatma Gandhi: he was a lawyer, nationalist, and anti-colonial activist. He led a non-violent mass movement against British rule in India Major Cases against Bismil Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918:- The police found a few young people including Bismil selling books that were not prescribed by the government. To collect funds for the parties, they looted government coffers. Kakori Conspiracy Case:- In 1925, Bismil and his companions Chandrasekhar Azad and Ashfaqulla Khan looted a train in Kakori near Lucknow. They were arrested alongside a dozen other HRA members within a month of the attack and tried under the Kakori Conspiracy Case. Bismil, Lahiri, Khan and Thakur Roshan Singh were awarded death sentences. MUST READ: Shaheed Bhagat Singh SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Matias Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Central Minister for Shipping (MoS) demanded a CBI probe over the alleged attack on the Matuas. About Matuas:- Matuas are a Scheduled Caste group who trace their ancestry to East Bengal. (UPSC MAINS: Effectiveness of NCSC) Caste: It is a religious sect of Bangladeshi Dalits who predominantly belong to the Namasudra caste. Many of them entered West Bengal after Partition and after the formation of Bangladesh. (UPSC CSE: Importance of Caste Data) Getting citizenship is one of the long-standing demands of this refugee community. Matua Mahasangha is a Hindu reform movement. It has a considerable number of adherents in West Bengal as well as Bangladesh. It believes in Self-Dikshitisation (“Self-realization”). Therefore, anyone who has faith in the Darshan or Philosophy of God Harichand belongs to the Matuamahasanhga. Historical Background:- The Matua Mahasangha, is a religious reforms movement and a sect which was formed by Harichand Thakur in East Bengal in the mid-1800s. Harichand Thakur: he attained Atma darshan at an early age and would subsequently preach his Darshan in Twelve Commandments His teachings of established education as pre-eminently important for the adherent and upliftment of the population, while also providing a formula for ending social conflict. Harichand’s grandson P R Thakur established West Bengal’s Thakurnagar as headquarters of the sect after 1947. Significance: – While no official count is available, community leaders put their population at 3 crores. (UPSC MAINS: Role played by caste-based pressure groups) The Namasudras form one of the largest SCs in Bengal, comprising 17.4 per cent of the population, as per the 2001 Census data. They are a deciding factor in many Lok Sabha seats in West Bengal which assumes a lot of political significance. MUST READ: Reviewing Reservation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                                 State Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur Thang-Ta dance             Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Nutri Garden project Syllabus Prelims – Context: The Nutri Garden project of Lakshadweep has turned out to be a big success. About the Nutri Garden project:- Nutri garden is a method of planting and harvesting nutrient-rich crops in residential houses or in their vicinity to meet the requirements of the family all year round. It is a cost-effective model to grow nutrient-rich crops for personal or community consumption to promote good health and well-being. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development In urban areas: Nutri kitchen gardening can be promoted in the form of rooftop gardening, terrace gardening, vertical gardening and container gardening. (UPSC CSE: Urban farming) In rural areas: Nutri kitchen gardens can be promoted in the backyard of the houses. Benefits of Nutri Garden:- It increases the availability of food and nutrient sources. It can act as a source of supplementary income. The crops harvested are Fresh and Safe (chemical-free). (UPSC CSE: Natural Farming ) It helps tackle both under-nutrition and over-nutrition by adopting a sustainable life cycle approach. Challenges:- Lack of availability of vacant land, water and other necessary infrastructure to create a nutri-garden. Insufficient funds from the administration. MUST READ: Nutrition Smart Village SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2)“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Non-Communicable Diseases Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: For a State which takes immense pride in consistently coming at the top in the health index rankings of NITI Aayog every year, the findings of the ICMR-INDIAB study, which puts Kerala right on top with the worst overall indicators for long-term morbidity and mortality due to non-communicable diseases (NCD), has come a cropper. About Non-Communicable Diseases (NCD): No communicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, tend to be of long duration and are the result of a combination of genetic, physiological, environmental and behavioral factors. The main types of NCD are cardiovascular diseases (such as heart attacks and stroke), cancers, chronic respiratory diseases (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma) and Causes: The rise of NCDs has been driven by tobacco, harmful use of alcohol, unhealthy diet, insufficient physical activity, and overweight/obesity, raised blood pressure, raised blood sugar and raised cholesterol. Consequences: The epidemic of NCDs poses devastating health consequences for individuals, families and communities, and threatens to overwhelm health systems. The socioeconomic costs associated with NCDs make the prevention and control of these diseases a major development imperative for the 21st century. The diseases kill 7 out of 10 people globally from risk factors like tobacco, alcohol, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity and air pollution. Apart from the lives they take, NCDs take a heavy toll on economies, cutting down people in their most productive years. Kerala’s case study: Kerala has known since the mid or late 90s that NCDs are going to be its biggest health challenge. A current diabetes prevalence of nearly 24%, pre-diabetes at 18.1% and hypertension prevalence at a whopping 44%, is certainly not the picture of a healthy State. With more than half the State’s population having high cholesterol levels and abdominal obesity, the incidence of cardiovascular diseases and chronic kidney diseases could skyrocket in the near future and have significant impact on the State’s health expenditure as well as private spending on catastrophic illnesses. Data Analysis for India According to the study report “India: Health of the Nation’s States”- The India State-Level Disease Burden Initiative in 2017 by Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), it is estimated that the proportion of deaths due to Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) in India have increased from 37.9% in 1990 to 61.8% in 2016. The four major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancers, chronic respiratory diseases (CRDs) and diabetes, which share four behavioral risk factors –unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, and use of tobacco and alcohol. Indian initiatives for tackling NCDs: National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) is being implemented under the National Health Mission (NHM). The Central Government is implementing the Strengthening of Tertiary Care Cancer facilities scheme to support the setting up of State Cancer Institutes (SCI) and Tertiary Care Centres (TCCC) in different parts of the country. Oncology in its various aspects has a focus in case of new AIIMS and many upgraded institutions under Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY). Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) Deendayal outlets have been opened at 159 Institutions/Hospitals with an objective to make available Cancer and Cardiovascular Diseases drugs and implants at discounted prices to the patients. Jan Aushadhi stores are set up by the Department of Pharmaceuticals to provide generic medicines at affordable prices. Way Forward: Achieving the SDG target by reducing one-third of premature mortalities due to NCD will make India more resilient to future viral pandemics. Thus, India must strengthen its health infrastructure through the Aatmanirbhar Swasth Bharat programme. Source:   The Hindu Self-reliance in Fertilisers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: “When the world is in crisis, we must pledge — a pledge that is greater than the crisis itself. We must endeavour to make the 21st century, India’s century and the path to achieving this is self-reliance. The above statement of Indian Prime Minister Modi reflects the vision of India for Aatmanirbhar. Fertilizer Consumption in India: India’s fertilizer consumption in FY20 was about 61 million tonnes — of which 55% was urea—and is estimated to have increased by 5 million tonnes in FY21. Since non-urea (MoP, DAP, complex) varieties cost higher, many farmers prefer to use more urea than actually needed. The government has taken a number of measures to reduce urea consumption. It introduced neem-coated urea to reduce illegal diversion of urea for non-agricultural uses. It also stepped up the promotion of organic and zero-budget farming. Currently, the fertilizer production of the country is 42-45 million tonnes, and imports are at around 18 million tonnes. Subsidy on Urea: The Centre pays subsidy on urea to fertilizer manufacturers based on cost of production at each plant and the units are required to sell the fertilizer at the government-set Maximum Retail Price (MRP). Subsidy on Non-Urea Fertilizers: The MRPs of non-urea fertilizers are decontrolled or fixed by the companies. The Centre, however, pays a flat per-tonne subsidy on these nutrients to ensure they are priced at “reasonable levels”. Examples of non-urea fertilizers: Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP), Muriate of Potash (MOP). All Non-Urea based fertilizers are regulated under Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme. Challenges of the sector: High government subsidies such as on Urea and DAP About 73 lakh crore or 5 percent of GDP, the second-highest after food Companies are obliged to sell at MRP, with their higher cost of production or imports being reimbursed as subsidy by the Centre. Small Farmer Inability to derive full benefits: Only 17,500 crores or 35 per cent of total fertilizer subsides reaches small farmers. Heavy Import dependence: Entire potash requirement, about 90 per cent of phosphatic requirement, and 20 per cent urea requirement is met through imports. The use of nitrogen (N), phosphorous (P) and potassium (K) in the country has over the last few years sharply deviated from the ideal NPK use ratio of 4:2:1. This causes worsening of soil quality. Imbalance in application: MOP, which contains 60% K, has a high MRP so farmers have no incentive today to apply the same. Environmental concerns: Nutrient imbalance owing to their use — disproportionate to other, more expensive fertilizers — could have implications for soil health, ultimately affecting crop yields. The India Fertilizers Market is fragmented, with the top five companies occupying 28.93%. Black market and corruption: Urea is highly regulated and is only subsidized for agriculture This creates a black market that burdens small farmers disproportionately; incentivizes production inefficiency, leads to over-use, depleting soil quality and damaging human health. Government Initiatives and Schemes: Neem Coating of Urea: The Department of Fertilizers (DoF) has made it mandatory for all the domestic producers to produce 100% urea as Neem Coated Urea (NCU). The benefits of use of NCU are as under: Improvement in soil health. Reduction in usage of plant protection chemicals. Reduction in pest and disease attack. An increase in yield of paddy, sugarcane, maize, soybean, Tur/Red Gram. Negligible diversion towards non-agricultural purposes. Due to slow release of Nitrogen, Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) of Neem Coated Urea increases resulting in reduced consumption of NCU as compared to normal urea. New Urea Policy (NUP) 2015: Objectives of the policy are To maximize indigenous urea production. To promote energy efficiency in the urea units. To rationalize the subsidy burden on the Government of India. New Investment Policy- 2012: The Government announced New Investment Policy (NIP)-2012 in January 2013 and made amendments in 2014 to facilitate fresh investment in the urea sector and to make India self-sufficient in the urea sector. Policy on Promotion of City Compost: The Government of India approved a policy on promotion of City Compost, notified by the DoF in 2016 granting Market Development Assistance of Rs.1500/- for scaling up production and consumption of city compost. To increase sales volumes, compost manufacturers willing to market city compost were allowed to sell city compost in bulk directly to farmers. Fertilizer companies marketing city compost are covered under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for Fertilizers. Use of Space Technology in Fertilizer Sector: DoF commissioned a three year Pilot Study on “Resource Mapping of Rock Phosphate using Reflectance Spectroscopy and Earth Observations Data” by National Remote Sensing Centre under ISRO, in collaboration with Geological Survey of India (GSI) and the Atomic Mineral Directorate (AMD). The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme: The DoF has implemented it from April 2010. Under NBS, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis, is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers depending on its nutrient content. It aims at ensuring the balanced use of fertilizers, improving agricultural productivity, promoting the growth of the indigenous fertilizers industry and reducing the burden of Subsidy. Way Forward: The Department of Fertilisers has positioned India as a key player in the global fertiliser supply chain. India’s bold move towards self-reliance in fertiliser is a testament to the government’s commitment to ensuring food security for its citizens and fulfilling PM Modi’s vision of an Aatmanirbhar Bharat. Source:  Indian Express The Need for De-globalization Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Governance and International Relations) Context: Worries about the inadequacies of global governance and weakening multilateralism have heightened in recent years. About Globalization and De-globalization: Globalization is the word that describes the growing interdependence of the world’s economies, cultures, and populations, brought about by cross-border trade in goods and services, technology, and flows of investment, people, and information. On the other hand, De-globalization is a movement towards a less connected world, characterized by powerful nation states, local solutions, and border controls rather than global institutions, treaties, and free movement. The Benefits of Globalization: Economic benefits: It fostered as well a rapid global industrial development that allowed the rapid development of many of the technologies and commodities, we have available nowadays. Cultural benefits: The multiplication of economic and financial exchanges has been followed by an increase in human exchanges such as migration, expatriation or traveling. These human exchanges have contributed to the development of cultural exchanges. The Negative Effects of Globalization: Disappearing cultures: Apart from all the benefits globalization has had on allowing cultural exchanges, it also homogenized the world’s cultures. That is why specific cultural characteristics from some countries are disappearing. Rising inequalities: The consequences of globalization are far from homogeneous: income inequalities, disproportional wealth and trades that benefit parties differently. In the end, one of the criticisms is that some actors (countries, companies, individuals) benefit more from the phenomena of globalization, while others are sometimes perceived as the “losers” of globalization. Environmental pollution: Many critics have also pointed out that globalization has negative effects on the environment. Thus, the massive development of transport that has been the basis of globalization is also responsible for serious environmental problems such as greenhouse gas emissions, global warming or air pollution. Reasons for rising tendency towards de-globalisation by some countries: Rise of Asia: Developing nations like India, China and Japan have grown rapidly over the last few decades. The economic power has been shifting from the West to these Asian Nations. Thus, developed nations have started turning inward in order to put a check on the rise of other powers. Protectionism: Although western nations have benefitted immensely from globalization by expanding the reach of their economy and by the acquisition of talented individuals, public support towards it has been waning fast. Developed nations think they have more to lose than to gain. Security concerns: One of perceived consequences of globalization is rising security concerns. Increased exchange and mutual trade between nations have made it increasingly tough to maintain global security. Refugee crisis: Another factor that plays a role in support of de-globalization is the refugee The constant unrest in western Asian nations has caused a severe refugee crisis. Impact of de-globalisation on India: Economic impact: De-globalization will lead to reduction in the rate of economic growth of India. It will lead to protectionism with reduced cooperation among countries that will hurt Indian trade and exports. It may lead to increased import costs due to lesser choice and options and manufacturers and producers would have to pay more for equipment, commodities, and intermediate products from foreign markets. Social impact: It will lead to decrease in standards of living, as it will affect exports and economic growth affecting welfare of poor and their standard of lives. It will lead to rise in conflicts economically and politically. Political impact: It would affect polity leading to instability in political framework of nations due to rise in prices and cost of living may lead to civil Uprisings. Impact on technology: These tendencies limit technological advancement of the world as whole and of developing countries in particular. Limited knowledge-sharing, lack of flow of technology to developing countries limit advancement in science. Impact on Environmental conversation: Due to non-cooperation among nations, it will affect environment conservation efforts in India. It will reduce required funding and would jeopardize efforts to conserve environment and tackle environment change. Impact on women employment: De-globalization would affect women empowerment efforts as it will impact women movements across the globe. Lack of coordination will reduce opportunities for women across the world. Impact on security: Due to lack of coordination among various nations, security around the world along with India would affect. It will not only increase economic risks, but would provide an opportunity for terrorists to carry out violence due to lack of coordination among various law enforcement agencies. Way Forward: When governments pursue more inclusive economic, social, and environmental agendas, they provide a further benefit to the world economy.  Well-governed economies where prosperity is widely shared are more likely to welcome expanded international trade, investment and immigration. As economics teaches, the home economy reaps the bulk of the benefits from openness to the world economy, provided the benefits are distributed equitably. When countries help themselves, they help the global economy. Source:    LM Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements, regarding the Anak Krakatau volcano: It is situated in the Atlantic Ocean. It is the offspring of the famous Krakatau volcano. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q2) Consider the following statements, regarding Ram Prasad Bismil: He published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyon ke Naam’. He was tried for the Lahore Conspiracy Case. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q3) Consider the following statements, regarding the Gilgit manuscripts: It contains canonical and non-canonical only the Buddhist works. It originated in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [13th June, 2023] – Day 2

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 2 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BRICS Syllabus Prelims –Important International Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently discussed cooperation in BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) with the South African President during a telephone conversation. About BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa):- IMAGE SOURCE: PMLiVE BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. (BRICS) Origin: the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term “BRIC” in 2001 to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. BRICS Leaders’ Summit is convened Chairmanship is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. Together, BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world’s population and about 30% of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product), 16% of the global trade. Initiatives: New Development Bank (NDB), Contingent Reserve Arrangement, BRICS Payment System Customs Agreements, Remote Sensing Satellite. New Initiative: BRICS is planning to launch its own “new currency” system, a major step towards de-dollarization. De-dollarization: reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade. First BRIC Summit: the first BRICS Summit took place in 2009 in the Russian Federation. Recent BRIC Summit: the 14th BRICS Summit was convened in 2022 in a virtual format, under the Chairmanship of (UPSC PRELIMS: BRICS – 14th Summit) Objectives:- To deepen, broaden and intensify cooperation within the grouping and among the individual countries for more sustainable, equitable and mutually beneficial development. It takes into consideration each member’s growth, development and poverty objectives. It is emerging as a new and promising political-diplomatic entity with diverse objectives. New Development Bank Origin: During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza ,Brazil.(2014) (UPSC CSE: NDB) HQ: Shanghai Key areas of operation: clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member countries. Membership The Agreement on the New Development Bank entered into force in July 2015, with the official declaration of all five states that have signed it. The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank; however, the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power. According to the Bank’s General Strategy: 2017–2021, the NDB plans to expand membership gradually so as not to overly strain its operational and decision-making capacity. In September 2021, Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates and Uruguay joined the NDB. In December 2021, the NDB admitted Egypt as a new member. BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) It was signed by the BRICS nations in 2014 as part of the Fortaleza Declaration at the Sixth BRICS Summit. Objective: to provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigate the BOP crisis and further strengthen financial stability. The initial total committed resources of the CRA will be 100 billion dollars with individual commitments as follows: China ($41 billion), India ($18 billion), Brazil ($18 billion), Russia ($18 billion) and South Africa ($5 billion). India and BRICS India is a founding member of BRICS. It conducted 13th BRICS Summit in 2021 in New Delhi. Importance of BRICS for India:- Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) membership: India is engaged with the other BRICS countries on its NSG membership. Funds for infrastructure: NDB will help India raise and avail resources for their infrastructure and sustainable development projects. SUMMITS held in India: India hosted the 13th BRICS summit in 2021. An agreement on BRICS Cooperation on Remote Sensing Satellite Constellation was signed. MUST READ: BRICS | The coming together of the powerful five SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) New Development Bank has been set up by APEC. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Kerala State government has recently, nominated the Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) as the State-level nodal agency for Green Hydrogen initiatives. About Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT):- ANERT is the single nodal agency for drafting and publishing the Green Hydrogen policy for the state of Kerala. (UPSC CSE: Green Hydrogen) A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) appointed by the Government heads ANERT. ANERT is also the Nodal Agency for the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sources (MNRE), Govt. of India, to carry out the National Programmes in Kerala. Chairman: Minister for Electricity Supervision: ANERT is guided by a:- Governing Body- chaired by the Minister for Electricity, Kerala and Executive Committee- chaired by the Additional Chief Secretary to Government/ Principal Secretary. Power Department, Government of Kerala provides guidelines for ANERT’s activities in various energy-related areas. Objectives of ANERT:- To identify, formulate, implement and implementation of projects aimed at providing energy requirements of the State of Kerala. Evolving long-term plans based on harnessing solar energy, wind energy, wave energy, biogas, biomass, energy plantations, micro and mini hydel projects, improved chulahs etc. To identify, formulate, implement and support the implementation of a broad-based energy conservation program including the conservation of energy at the source of generation, at the state of distribution and/ or its utilization. To provide technical, financial or other assistance for popularization and creation of awareness on alternative sources of energy, energy conservation and rural technologies. To undertake or sponsor training programs, seminars workshops etc. on non-conventional sources of energy, energy conservation, and rural technology. To sponsor, co-ordinate or promote research programs or projects of a development nature involving the development of prototypes, pilot plant investigation in the area of alternative and new sources of energy and rural technologies, and PROGRAMMES under ANERT:- Solar Photovoltaic Programmes Wind energy Solar Thermal Programme Improved chulhas Training and extension Other programmes Bioenergy Green Hydrogen Green Hydrogen is produced by electrolysis using renewable energy. Electricity splits water into hydrogen and oxygen. By Products: Water, Water Vapor. It is called ‘green hydrogen’ because has no carbon footprint. (UPSC CSE: G) Other Types of hydrogen:- Brown hydrogen: produced using coal where the emissions are released into the air. (UPSC CSE: Coal based Hydrogen) Blue hydrogen: produced from natural gas, where the emissions are captured using carbon capture and storage. Significance of Green Hydrogen for India:- Green hydrogen can drive India’s transition to clean energy and combat climate change. Green hydrogen energy is vital for India to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) Targets. Under the Paris Climate Agreement, India pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its economy by 33-35% from 2005 levels by 2030. It will reduce import dependency on fossil fuels. The localisation of electrolyser production and the development of green hydrogen projects can create a new green technologies market in India worth $18-20 billion and thousands of jobs. Advantages of green hydrogen:- Environment Friendly: Green Hydrogen as an energy source is seen as the next big thing as its usage would lead to zero emissions Potential to decarbonise various sectors: It is a clean burning molecule, which can decarbonise a range of sectors including iron and steel, chemicals, and transportation. Efficient utilization of Renewable Energy: Renewable energy that cannot be stored or used by the grid can be channelled to produce hydrogen. (UPSC CSE: National Green Hydrogen Mission) Applications of green hydrogen:- It can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity, or power and heat. MUST READ: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 French Open Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: In the recently held French Open 2023, Novak Djokovic created history by becoming first man to reach the 23 grand slam title mark. About French Open:- IMAGE SOURCE: sportycious.com The French Open is a major tennis tournament. It is one of the four Grand Slams in Tennis. It is also known as Roland-Garros. The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros. Roland Garros: was a French aviation pioneer and fighter pilot. Scheduled Time: two weeks, beginning in late May each year. Location: the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France The French Open is the premier clay court championship in the world. (UPSC MAINS: Sports and Ethics) The French Open tournaments were not considered a Grand Slam before 1924 – 1925. French Open 2023 winners:- Men’s singles: Novak Djokovic (Serbia) Women’s: Iga Swiatek (Poland) Grand Slam tournaments The Grand Slam tournaments consist of the following:- Australian Open: in mid-January, French Open or Roland Garros: around late May, Wimbledon: in June end, and US Open tennis: at the end of August. The four annual tennis tournaments are collectively called the Grand Slam, also known as majors. Operated by: the International Tennis Federation (ITF). Historical Timeline:- Wimbledon Tennis: is the oldest, founded in US Open: founded in 1881 French Open: founded in 1891 Australian Open: founded in MUST READ: India and France relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started the implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Q.2) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (2018) Amnesty International International Court of Justice The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights World Justice Project India’s Fisheries Sector Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying stressed the need for strengthening marketing in the fisheries sector, by evolving a system similar to that of agriculture marketing. About India’s Fisheries Sector:- India is the third-largest fish producer and the second-largest aquaculture producer The Indian Blue Revolution has led to a major improvement in the fishing and aquaculture industries. Blue Revolution: it refers to the time of intense growth of the worldwide aquaculture industry from the mid-1960s to the present day. It was launched in India during the seventh Five Year Plan (FYP), from 1985 to 1990. These industries are regarded as sunrise sectors and are anticipated to have a big impact on the Indian economy. Sunrise sectors: is a term used for a sector that is just in its infancy but shows promise of a rapid boom. Recent trends in the Fisheries sector:- In the recent past, Indian fisheries have witnessed a paradigm shift from marine-dominated fisheries to inland fisheries, with the latter emerging as a major contributor to fish production from 36% in the mid-1980 to 70% in the recent past. The Fish production reached an all-time high of 16.25 MMT during FY 2021-22. The marine exports touched Rs. 57,586 Crores. (UPSC CSE: Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (Agreement)) Top Fish Producing States:- Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of fish in India followed by West Bengal. Challenges of the Fisheries Sector:- Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing: it exacerbates overfishing and undermines the sustainability of the sector. IUU fishing involves activities such as fishing without proper licenses, using banned gear, and disregarding catch limits. Inadequate Infrastructure and Technology: Outdated fishing vessels, gear, and processing facilities hinder the efficiency and productivity of the sector. Insufficient cold storage and transportation infrastructure result in post-harvest losses. Climate Change and Environmental Degradation: Rising sea temperatures, ocean acidification, and changing currents have a profound impact on marine ecosystems and fish populations. Socio-Economic Issues: a large number of small-scale and artisanal fishers who face multiple socio-economic challenges characterizes the fisheries sector in India. These challenges include low incomes, lack of access to credit and insurance, inadequate social security measures Gender disparities and the marginalization of women in fisheries also pose challenges. Market Access and Value Chain Inefficiencies: Despite India’s significant fish production, there are challenges in accessing domestic and international markets. MUST READ: Agriculture Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granSted to farmers based on soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Proterozoic Eon Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently discovered molecular fossils from the Proterozoic Eon may open the window to the ‘lost world’ of primordial life. About Proterozoic Eon:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Proterozoic Eon was the last aeon of the Precambrian supereon. Precambrian era: it spans Era (4500–544 Ma) and includes almost 90% of Earth’s history. Eon (or aeon): is a term in Earth science for the longest periods of time. Era: it is a very long span of geologic time; the second longest portion of geological time. It spans from the time of the appearance of oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere to just before the proliferation of complex life (such as corals) on the Earth. Major Events in the Proterozoic Eon:- Bacteria began producing oxygen, leading to the sudden rise of life forms. Eukaryotes (have a nucleus), emerge, including some forms of soft-bodied multicellular. Earlier forms of fungi formed around this time. The early and late phases of this aeon may have undergone Snowball Earth periods. Snowball Earth periods: when Earth suffered below-zero temperatures, extensive glaciation and as a result drop in sea levels. It was a very tectonically active period in the Earth’s history. (UPSC CSE: PLATE TECTONICS) It featured the first definitive supercontinent cycles and modern mountain buildings. (UPSC MAINS: principles of plate tectonics) It is believed that 43% of modern continental crust was formed in the Proterozoic, 39% formed in the Archean and only 18% in the Phanerozoic. In the late Proterozoic (most recent), the dominant supercontinent was Rodinia. MUST READ: Abnormal’ dinosaur egg in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: (2019) Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent the illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently allowed the First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system in the digital lending space. About the First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) system:- First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) is also known as default loss guarantee (DLG). FLDG is a lending model between a fintech and a regulated entity. Financial technology (fintech): it is a new technology that seeks to improve and automate the delivery and use of financial services. (UPSC CSE: Fintech Regulation in India) It is a safety-net arrangement among banks, non-banking finance companies (NBFC), and lending service providers (LSPs), popularly known as fintech players) in the digital lending space. NBFC: a company incorporated under the Companies Act 2013 or 1956. (UPSC MAINS: Company’s Act,2013) They offer various banking services but do not have a banking license. Under this, a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default. The fintech originates a loan and promises to compensate the partners up to a pre-decided percentage in case customers fail to repay. Advantages:- The credit risk is borne by the Lending service providers (LSPs) without having to maintain any regulatory capital. The loan portfolio backed by FLDG is akin to the off-balance sheet portfolio of the LSP wherein the nominal loans sit in the books of the lender without having to partake in any lending process. FLDG helps expand the customer base of traditional lenders but relies on the fintech’s underwriting capabilities. Disadvantage:- FLDG costs are often passed on to customers. FinTech The term “FinTech” is a combination of the words “finance” and “technology”. Fintech refers to the integration of technology into offerings by financial services companies to improve their use and delivery to consumers. It primarily works by unbundling offerings by such firms and creating new markets for them. Benefits: Companies in the finance industry that use fintech have expanded financial inclusion and use technology to cut down on operational costs. Challenges: Fintech funding is on the rise, but regulatory problems exist. Fintech applications: robo-advisors, payment apps, peer-to-peer (P2P) lending apps, investment apps, and crypto apps, among others. Lending service providers (LSPs) They are new-age players who use technology platforms in the lending space. They are agents of a bank or NBFC. (UPSC CSE: RBI suggests a tougher regulatory framework for NBFCs) They carry out one or more of a lender’s functions (in part or full) in customer acquisition, underwriting support, pricing support, disbursement, servicing, monitoring, and recovery of specific loans or loan portfolios on behalf of REs as per the outsourcing guidelines of the RBI. MUST READ: Empowering Rural Women FINTECH SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Food Programme (WFP) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, World Food Programme (WFP) suspended food aid to Ethiopia after the diversion of supplies. About World Food Programme (WFP):- It is the leading humanitarian organization saving lives and changing lives, delivering food assistance in emergencies and working with communities to improve nutrition and build resilience. It was founded in 1961. (UPSC CSE: WFP) Founded by: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) HQ: Rome, Italy. Funding: The WFP has no independent source of funds; it is funded entirely by voluntary donations. Its principal donors are It is governed by the WFP Executive Board, which consists of 36 Member States and provides intergovernmental support, direction and supervision of WFP’s activities. Head: an Executive Director, who is appointed jointly by the UN Secretary-General and the Director-General of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. It is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG), UNSDG: a coalition of UN agencies and organizations aimed at fulfilling the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). WFP works in over 120 countries and territories to bring life-saving food to people displaced by conflict and made destitute by disasters. In 2020, it was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace for its efforts to combat hunger, and for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas. It works closely with:- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO): a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger. The International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD): a UN-specialized agency which finances projects in poor rural areas. Objectives:- WFP focuses on emergency assistance as well as rehabilitation and development aid. Two-thirds of its work is in conflict-affected countries, where people are three times more likely to be undernourished than elsewhere. To end hunger by protecting access to food. Improving nutrition and achieving food security. Supporting the SDG implementation and partnering for its results. MUST READ: Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen: Its Products include Water, Water Vapor. It has zero carbon footprint. It can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the World Food Programme (WFP ): It’s Headquartered in Rome. It was founded by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) only. In 2020, it was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Proterozoic Eon: Complex form fungi formed around this time. It was a tectonically active period. Bacteria began producing oxygen during this period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here