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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [12th June, 2023] – Day 1

Hello Students  TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 1 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –9th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) was launched recently to leverage Emerging Technologies in Power Sector. About the Mission of Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR):- It aims to facilitate indigenous research, development and demonstration of the latest and emerging technologies in the power sector. Timeline: It is planned for an initial period of five years from 2023-24 to 2027-28. Ministry: Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy  Objectives of MAHIR:- To identify emerging technologies in the power sector that have the potential for future relevance globally. To serve as a platform for collective brainstorming. To Support pilot projects for indigenous technologies. Leverage foreign alliances to accelerate research and development efforts. To create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in the power sector. Funding and Collaboration:- MAHIR is funded through pooling of resources from the Ministry of Power, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, and Central Public Sector Enterprises under these ministries. Additional funding will be from the budgetary resources of the Government of India. The mission encourages funding by inviting proposals from companies and organizations worldwide. Structure of MAHIR:- MAHIR operates through a two-tier structure comprising a Technical Scoping Committee and an Apex Committee. Led by the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority. Areas Identified for Research:- Alternatives to Lithium-Ion storage batteries Modifying electric cookers/pans to suit Indian cooking methods Carbon capture (UPSC CSE: Decarbonisation of India’s Power Sector) Geothermal energy Solid-state refrigeration. Nanotechnology for EV battery Indigenous CRGO technology Central Electricity Authority (CEA) It is a statutory organization constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, of 1948. It is now under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. As per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members, including its chairperson. Not more than eight shall be full-time members to be appointed by the Central Government. Functions of Central Electricity Authority:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Plan (NEP). It formulates short-term and perspective plans for the development of electricity systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid etc. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors. National Electricity Plan (NEP) The latest draft of the National Electricity Plan (NEP), which covers the period 2022-27. The NEP guides the development of the power sector in India. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) formulates it every five years under the Electricity Act, 2003. The new NEP recognizes the need for additional coal-based capacity, ranging from 17 GW to nearly 28 GW, till 2031-32, over and above the 25 GW of coal-based capacity that is currently under construction. The draft Plan also highlights the need for significant investments in battery storage, with an estimated requirement of between 51 GW to 84 GW by 2031-32. It projects an increase in the Plant Load Factor (PLF) of coal-fired power plants from 55% up to 2026-27 to 62 % in 2031-32. It also emphasizes the challenges posed by the increasing reliance on renewables, which will require careful management and planning in the years ahead. MUST READ: Energy Security SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in (2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Agni Prime Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: India recently conducted a successful flight test of the Agni Prime ballistic missile. About Agni Prime:- IMAGE SOURCE: autojournalism.com Agni Prime is the advanced version of the ‘Agni-1’ missile. (UPSC CSE: New generation ballistic missile ‘Agni P’) It is a short-range ballistic missile. Range: 1000 km to 1500 km It is a two-stage It is the latest and sixth variant of the Agni series missiles. It is under Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) Agni Prime has multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles. It is capable of delivering a number of warheads at separate locations. It can carry warheads up to 1.5 tonnes. It has a dual redundant navigation and guidance system. The Agni-P missile would further strengthen India’s credible deterrence capabilities. Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) It was conceived by Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam to enable India to attain self-sufficiency in the field of missile technology. 5 missiles developed under this program are:- Prithvi: Short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Agni: Ballistic missiles with different ranges. Trishul: Short-range low-level surface-to-air missile. Nag: 3rd generation anti-tank missile. Akash: Medium-range surface-to-air missile. Other Agni Class of Missiles Agni I: Range of 700-800 km. Agni II: Range more than 2000 km. Agni III: Range of more than 2,500 Km Agni IV: Range is more than 3,500 km and can fire from a road-mobile launcher. Agni-V: The longest of the Agni series, an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. MUST READ: Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) Interceptor SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. Shangri-La Dialogue Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The 20th edition of the Shangri-La Dialogue, concluded in Singapore recently. About Shangri-La Dialogue:- IMAGE SOURCE: scholars-stage.org The Shangri-La Dialogue (SLD) is an inter-governmental security forum. Originally known as the Asia Security Summit was initiated in 2002 in response to the evident need for a forum where Asia-Pacific defence ministers could engage in dialogue aimed at building confidence and fostering practical cooperation. It is a Track 1inter-governmental security forum. It is held every year in Singapore since 2002. Organised by: International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS). IISS is a London-based independent think tank. Defence ministers, permanent heads of ministries and military chiefs of 28 Asia-Pacific states attend it. The ministers debate the region’s most pressing security challenges engage in important bilateral talks and come up with fresh approaches together. The forum gets its name from the Shangri-La Hotel in Singapore where it has been held since 2002. It is Asia’s largest annual security forum. ( UPSC CSE: Indo-Pacific Relations ) The 2023 event took place in Australia’s Prime Minister Anthony Albanese delivered the Keynote Address at the Shangri-La Dialogue 2023. (UPSC CSE: Prime Minister’s Key Note Address at Shangri La Dialogue) Different levels of Diplomacy: Track 1 Diplomacy: Official discussions typically involving high-level political and military leaders. Track 2 Diplomacy: Unofficial dialogue and problem-solving activitiesInvolving influential academic, religious, and NGO leaders and other civil society actors who can interact more freely than high-ranking officials can. Track 3 Diplomacy: People-to-people diplomacy undertaken by individuals and private groups. MUST READ: Raisina Dialogue SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Q.2) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (2018) Amnesty International International Court of Justice The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights World Justice Project National food safety index Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Kerala has secured the first position in the recently released national food safety index. About the national food safety index:- The first State Food Safety Index was published in 2018-19. It was announced on the first-ever World Food Safety Day on 7th June 2019. World Food Safety Day: The World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) jointly facilitate the observance of World Food Safety Day. (UPSC CSE: WHO) Objective of Food safety index: creating a competitive and positive change in the food safety ecosystem in the country. Developed by: FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) (UPSC CSE: FSSAI) The Parameters include Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing – Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity Building and Consumer Empowerment. (UPSC CSE: Food Security) The food safety index, at the national level, is determined based on enforcement activities. These include food safety checks, sample collection, sample examination prosecution cases, number of NABL-recognised food safety labs in the State etc.  Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare Headquarters: Delhi FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. Composition: The FSSAI comprises of a Chairperson and twenty-two members. One-third of the members are to be The Central Government appoints the Chairperson of FSSAI. Functions:- Framing of regulations to lay down the standards and guidelines of food safety. Granting FSSAI food safety license and certification for food businesses. Laying down procedures and guidelines for laboratories in food businesses. To provide suggestions to the government in framing the policies. To collect data regarding contaminants in food products, identification of emerging risks and introduction of the rapid alert system. Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards. MUST READ: FSSAI releases draft notification on a star rating for packaged food SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2018) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) selected new chiefs for General Insurance Corporation of India and National Insurance Company Limited. About Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB):- It was established by passing a resolution by the Cabinet Appointments Committee (ACC) to establish it in place of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB). Composition:- FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee. The board would comprise the Secretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector. Functions:- The FSIB selects the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies. (UPSC CSE: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB)) It has the mandate to issue guidelines and select general managers and directors of state-run non-life insurers, general insurers and Financial Institutions. It works under the Department of Financial Service, Ministry of Finance. It also monitors and assesses the performance of public sector banks, government-owned financial institutions and insurance companies. It is the single entity for making recommendations for appointments of WTD (Whole-time Director) and NEC (Non-executive Chairman) in Public Sector Banks, India Private Limited companies and Financial Institutions. General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) GIC is an Indian nationalised reinsurance company. It was set up by the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, of 1972. It was enacted to nationalise all private companies undertaking general insurance business in India. Four subsidiary companies of GIC are:- National Insurance. New India Assurance. Oriental Insurance. United India Insurance. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 was subsequently amended in 2002 to transfer the control of these four subsidiary companies from GIC to the central government. Since 2000, GIC exclusively undertakes the reinsurance business. National Insurance Company Limited (NIC) It is India’s oldest l Insurance Company. It was s tarted in Kolkata, West Bengal in 1906. 66 years later, after the passing of the General Insurance Business Nationalisation Act in 1972, it was merged along with 21 foreign and 11 Indian companies to form National Insurance Company Limited. It became one of the four subsidiaries of the General Insurance Corporation of India. It is fully owned by Govt. of India. 2002: National insurance was delinked from GIC and formed as an independent insurance company. Products of National Insurance: Personal Line of Insurance Motor Vehicle Insurance. Rural Insurance Industrial & Commercial Insurance. MUST READ: Leadership Development programme SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kilauea Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Kilauea, one of the most active volcanoes in the world, began erupting recently. About Kilauea:-   IMAGE SOURCE: CBC.ca Kilauea volcano is located in Hawaii Volcanoes National Park on the south-eastern part of the island of Hawaii, U.S.A. It is one of the world’s most active volcanoes. It has erupted 34 times since 1952.From 1983 to 2018, it erupted almost continuously. It is an active shield volcano. Shield volcanoes: these are formed where a volcano produces low viscosity, runny lava, spreading far from the source and forming a volcano with gentle slopes. Features of Kilauea volcano:- It has an elongated dome-shaped structure. It has a Caldera: a depression formed after a volcano releases the bulk of its magma in an explosive eruption. It has a lava lake. Lava lake: a lake produced by the build-up of water over the caldera. Its slopes merge with that of the adjacent volcano, Mauna Loa.(UPSC CSE: Mt. Mauna Loa) Volcanoes in India:- Barren Island: Andaman Islands (India’s only active volcano) Narcondam: Andaman Islands Baratang: Andaman Islands Deccan Traps: Maharashtra Dhinodhar Hills: Gujarat Dhosi Hill: Haryana MUST READ: Volcanic Eruption at Mount Semeru SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                          Turkey Amhara                                       Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                Spain Catalonia                                          Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Biparjoy Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, a cyclonic storm Biparjoy formed over the east-central Arabian Sea. About Biparjoy:- IMAGE SOURCE: Swarajya Biparjoy was a deep depression formed over the southeast Arabian Sea, which intensified into a cyclonic storm. The name ‘Biparjoy’ was given by It means ‘calamity’ or ‘disaster’. Naming of Cyclones: In 2000, a group of nations called WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific), which comprised Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, decided to start naming cyclones in the region. The WMO/ESCAP expanded to include five more countries in 2018 — Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates and Yemen. After each country send their suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalises the list of names of Cyclones. The list of 169 cyclone names released by IMD in April 2020 were provided by these countries — 13 suggestions from each of the 13 countries. Guidelines to adopt names of cyclones? The proposed name should be neutral to (a) politics and political figures (b) religious believes, (c) cultures etc. Name should be chosen in such a way that it does not hurt the sentiments of any group of population over the globe. It should not be very rude and cruel in nature It should be short, easy to pronounce. The maximum length of the name will be eight letters. The proposed name should be provided with its pronunciation and voice over. The names of tropical cyclones over the north Indian Ocean will not be repeated. Once used, it will cease to be used again. World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) It is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It is dedicated to meteorology (weather), climatology (climate), operational hydrology (water) and other related geophysical sciences such as oceanography and atmospheric chemistry. International Meteorological Organization (IMO), founded in 1873 was its predecessor organization. Membership: it has 192 Member States and Territories.India is a member of WMO. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland Reports:- Greenhouse Gas Bulletin. Status of the World Climate. MUST READ: More Cyclones in the Arabian Sea SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar? (2017) Sumatra Borneo Java Sri Lanka Mains: Transition to a low-carbon City Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: It has been observed that Cities are critical actors in the energy transition. About Energy-system transitions: An energy-system transition could reduce urban carbon dioxide emissions by around 74%. With rapid advancements in clean energy and related technologies and nosediving prices, we have also crossed the economic and technological barriers to implementing low-carbon solutions. The transition must be implemented on both the demand and the supply sides. Mitigation options on the supply side include phasing out fossil fuels and increasing the share of renewables in the energy mix, and using carbon capture and storage (CCS) technologies. On the demand side, using the ‘avoid, shift, improve’ framework would entail reducing the demand for materials and energy, and substituting the demand for fossil fuels with renewables. Additionally, in order to address residual emissions in the energy sector, we must implement carbon-dioxide removal (CDR) technologies. Role of Cities in energy-system transitions: In 2020, cities dumped a whopping 29 trillion tonnes of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. This carbon dioxide along with other greenhouse gases poses a serious health hazard. It also manifests as extreme weather events, leading to the loss of lives, livelihoods, assets, and social well-being. Therefore, given the significant impact that cities have on the environment, low-carbon cities are crucial to mitigate the effects of climate change. An energy-system transition could reduce urban carbon dioxide emissions by around 74%. Implications of rising CO2 and Need for low-carbon cities/net-zero cities: This may lead to extreme weather events, can lead to the loss of lives and livelihoods, property and resources, and overall social wellbeing. By 2050, seven billion people will be living in cities, and that will accentuate the concerns regarding worsening climate, sustainability. Global warming may have adverse impact on health like damage in lung tissue, heightened complications for asthma patients due to increase the ozone concentration. It may affect food security and can lead to the resource conflicts. This transition to low carbon cities will help to mitigate the effects of climate change. Challenges of Energy Transition: Groups of people or communities of developing economies depends on fossil fuels and has limited access to renewable energy options. Hence, they could be affected disproportionately. For example Nigeria, Angola, and Venezuela. In developed countries, it may lead to inequity due to high-energy costs and associated poverty/low incomes. There is an inherent issue of energy justice and social equity, which has severe implications for -economic well-being of people, livelihoods and economic development. Concerns related to Justice concerns are land evictions for large-scale renewable energy projects, the marginalisation of few communities, increased gender gaps etc., There need to be a focus on energy-transition policies that are socially and environmentally fair. As a city’s requirement is different, spatial form, land-use pattern, level of development etc. to be given a special focus. Government interventions: System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal Air Quality Index: AQI has been developed for eight pollutants viz. PM2.5, PM10, Ammonia, Lead, nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide, ozone, and carbon monoxide. Graded Response Action Plan (for Delhi) For Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure (for Delhi) New Commission for Air Quality Management Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine for reducing stubble burning. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP): Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz. SO2, NO2, PM10, and PM2.5 have been identified for regular monitoring at all locations. Way Forward: Transitioning cities to low-carbon energy systems requires efforts that consider factors such as urbanization, national contexts, and institutional capacities. Hence, it is important to engage multiple stakeholders in energy governance and decision-making processes. Source:  The Hindu BrahMos: 25 Years of the Joint Venture Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: India-Russia defence Joint Venture BrahMos Aerospace has embarked on a glorious milestone as it completed 25 years. About BrahMos: The BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarine, ships, aircraft or land. It is a joint venture between the Russian Federation’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM), a subsidiary of the state-owned JSC Tactical Missiles Corporation and India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), who together have formed BrahMos Aerospace. In the joint venture, Indian side holds a share of 50.5% and the Russian side 49.5%. It is based on the Russian P-800 Oniks cruise missile and other similar sea-skimming Russian cruise missile technology. The name BrahMos is a portmanteau formed from the names of two rivers, the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia. With a carrying capacity of 250-300 kgs, the BrahMos missile is capable of carrying a regular warhead as well as a nuclear warhead. Features: Stages: BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then is separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in the cruise phase. Capability: the missile is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea, air against surface and sea-based targets, and has been long inducted by the Indian armed forces. The ship-based version was inducted in the Navy in 2005, the land-based version in the Army in 2007, and the air-launched version was inducted in the Air Force in 2020. Range: The range of the BrahMos was originally limited to 290 km as per obligations of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) of which Russia was a signatory. Following India’s entry into the club in June 2016, plans were announced to extend the range initially to 450 km and subsequently to 600 km. Speed: The BrahMos missile has a speed of 2.8 Mach, which is nearly three times the speed of sound Indigenised: The missiles now contain a high level of indigenised content and several systems have been indigenised to maximise the participation of Indian industry in the development of the ordnance. The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target. Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire. These are in the arsenal of most major militaries in the world. Significance: The Brahmos JV has helped India develop its military-industrial complex. The deal between the Philippines and BrahMos is a milestone in India’s efforts to become one of the largest defence exporters in the world. In addition, it also shows the growing capabilities of India’s public and private defence sectors. It helps the country achieve strategic autonomy in the defence sector, which is important to safeguard the country’s national interests. Additional BrahMos exports could to some extent help in fulfilling Prime Minister vision of ‘Making in India, Making for the world’, achieving the defence hardware export target of US$ 5 billion by 2025. BrahMos missile provides India strategic airpower in the face of 2 inimical neighbours. Challenges and competitors: One of the most prominent cruise missiles in the world is the Tomahawk, developed by the US. Notably, it is subsonic and flies around 0.8 Mach. It has a range of about 1,600 km, much more than the BrahMos, but its speed makes it relatively slow and somewhat easier to intercept. The French Apache series of missiles is also a prominent cruise missile, with a top speed of 1 Mach. This has been inducted by UAE, Greece, Saudi Arabia, the UK and Italy, besides France. The Chinese inducted the YJ-1814 into the PLA in 2014. It has a range of 220–540 km and cruises at subsonic speed before accelerating to supersonic speed in the terminal stage. The Russian P-800 Oniks is a supersonic cruise missile with specifications somewhat similar to BrahMos and flies at a top speed of 2.2 Mach. The BrahMos missile is not significantly different from the P-800 Oniks, it costs twice as much. This can be attributed perhaps to a more developed military industrial base in Russia, which results in a lower cost of production. Possible defence deals are highly competitive, with major players extensively marketing their products. Way Forward: BrahMos has very few competitors in the international market and The 2022 Philippines deal should spur additional exports of the supersonic cruise missile. India needs to develop marketing and promotion networks akin more actively to established players in the global market to promote defence sales. Source: Financial Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements with reference to the Shangri-La Dialogue (SLD): It is held in Singapore. It is organised by International Institute for Strategic Studies. Australia’s Prime Minister Anthony Albanese delivered the Keynote Address in 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) With reference to Agni Prime, which of the following statements is/are incorrect? It is a supersonic missile. It is developed in collaboration with Russia. Select the incorrect answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to Tropical Cyclones, which of the following statements is/are correct? Tropical cyclones are called Willy-willies in Western Australia. Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is published by UNEP. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 9th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –8th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Trishul Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, INS Trishul arrived at Durban port in South Africa to commemorate the 130th anniversary of the incident at Pietermaritzburg railway station when Mahatma Gandhi was evicted from a train. About INS Trishul:- It is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. The guided missile frigate joined the arsenal of the Indian Navy in 2003. Built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Pietermaritzburg railway station incident On the night of June 7, 1893, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, then a young lawyer in South Africa was thrown off the train’s first-class compartment at Pietermaritzburg station despite having the ticket. This happened because he refused to give up his seat as ordered after being told that it was for ‘whites-only’. The incident led him to develop his Satyagraha principles of peaceful resistance and mobilize people in South Africa and in India against the discriminatory rules of the British. Satyagraha: the term is derived from ‘satya’ (truth) and ‘agraha’ (insistence or truth-force). Its practitioners are called Satyagrahis MUST READ: India and Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Burial tradition of Homo Naledi Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Recent evidence suggests that Homo Naledi buried their dead. About Homo Naledi:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.com.au Homo naledi is an extinct human species that lived hundreds of thousands of years ago. Homo Nalediis a species of human discovered in the Rising Star cave system, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in South Africa in 2013. Homo naledi exhibits a combination of primitive and modern features and is not a direct ancestor of modern humans. They are believed to have existed between 300,000 to 200,000 years in Southern Africa. (UPSC CSE: Palaeolithic Cave Paintings in NCR) They walked upright. Their shoulders were built for climbing. Their teeth were shaped like that of older primates. One of the most interesting things was that their brain size was between 450 to 600 cubic centimetres (Small brain). It was one-third of that of modern humans. About the Study: Homo Naledi buried their dead, which would challenge existing notions about advanced mortuary behavior. Modern Humans exhibit a unique behavior among primates by burying their dead, which sets them apart from other animals. This behavior is known as Mortuary behavior, characterized by social acts and a complex understanding of death. Previously, the earliest evidence of Mortuary behavior was found among Neanderthals and modern humans, occurring more than 100,000 years after Homo naledi. Homo naledi may have created rock art in Rising Star Cave. This is intriguing because rock art has traditionally been associated with Homo sapiens and other large-brained ancestors. The report describes engravings in the form of deeply impressed cross-hatchings and geometric shapes such as squares, triangles, crosses and X’s. Additionally, a rock-like object found near a Homo naledi body suggests it could be a stone tool.(UPSC MAINS: Cave paintings). Homo naledi used fire strategically for illumination during mortuary and engraving activities in the cave. Burial tradition in India:- It is said that the practice of burying dead people started some 3000 years ago in India. Megaliths or large stones were used to indicate the place where the dead were buried. We still find this practice in various cultures of India. 3000 years ago, people living in southern regions, Kashmir, and the Deccan plateau were involved in such burial practices. The people who died were buried with the help of pots known as Red and Black Ware. Megalith Sites in India Nilaskal – Karnataka Hire Benkal- Kerala Chamber Tomb: Hire Benakal- Karnataka Dolmens: Hire Benakal– Karnataka Hanamsagar– Karnataka Kudakkallu Parambu– Kerala Junapani- Maharashtra MUST READ: Bhimbetka cave SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh Terracotta art Ganeshwar                Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – Lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Price support scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The government recently announced the removal of the procurement ceiling for tur, urad and masur dal under the price support scheme. About the Price support scheme:- The scheme is for procurement, through NAFED.(UPSC CSE: NAFED and APMC) Under PSS, NAFED undertakes procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton when prices fall below the MSP Procurement under PSS is continued until prices stabilize at or above the MSP. Farmers can avail the benefit of the scheme by selling their produce at support price in Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC) centres. The Central Government reimburses the loss incurred by NAFED in undertaking such operations. NAFED:- It was established in 1958. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. It is the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It undertakes the procurement as and when prices fall below the MSP. It is at present, one of the largest procurement as well as marketing agencies for agricultural products in India. Objectives:- To organize, promote and develop marketing, processing, storage of agricultural, horticultural, and forest produce. To distribute agricultural machinery, implements and other inputs. To act and assist for technical advice in agricultural production. Minimum Support Price (MSP) The MSP are announced at the beginning of the sowing season crops based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). CACP: is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare It is at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production incurred by the farmers. Objective: to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs declares MSP. Crops under MSP:- The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 farm commodities based on the CACP’s recommendations. 7 cereals: paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley 5 pulses: chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur 7 oilseeds: rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed 4 commercial crops: cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute Fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane MUST READ: Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for copra season 2023 SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the SAT quashed an order of SEBI, which had earlier cancelled licence of Brickwork Ratings’, a credit rating agency. . About Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):- It is a statutory body created under the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992. It has only one bench, which sits in Jurisdiction: the whole of India Composition of the SAT: It consists of a Presiding Officer and two other members. Appointment of the Presiding Officer: by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India or his nominee. Powers: it has powers similar to a civil court. Appeals from its orders can be challenged in the Supreme Court. Key Functions:- To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) or by an adjudicating authority under the Act. (UPSC CSE: SEBI) To exercise jurisdiction, authority and powers conferred on the SAT by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force. To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). (UPSC CSE: NPS) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):- It is a pension regulatory authority, which was established in 2003. It is a statutory body established under PFRDA Act, 2003. Ministry: Ministry of Finance HQ: New Delhi Function: It promotes old age income security by establishing, developing and regulating pension funds. It protects the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters. To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI). Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. The apex body supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and the Government of India appoints four part-time members.. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) extends trading ban on Agri commodities SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the NHAI started shifting the toll plaza from Jagjitpura to a new location on the Jalandhar-Barnala stretch of the national highway. About the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):- IMAGE SOURCE: 91wheels.com National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was set up under NHAI Act, 1988. It is an autonomous organization that looks after the management of the complete network of National Highways in the country. (UPSC MAINS: Investment model for the highway sector) Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways HQs: New Delhi Composition: Chairman, and not more than five full-time Members and four part-time Members. They are appointed by the Central Government. Functions:- It has been entrusted with the National Highways Development Project (NHDP). NHDP is India’s largest-ever Highways Project in a phased manner. NHAI takes care of other minor projects for development, maintenance and management. NHAI maintains the National Highways network to global standards and cost-effective manner. Collecting fees or tolls on National Highways. (UPSC CSE: Char Dham Highways) Developing and providing consultancy and construction services on a national and international level. Advising the Central government on issues related to National Highways. Formulating and implementing schemes for National Highways development. National Highways Development Programme (NHDP) National Highways Development Programme (NHDP) was launched in 1998 with the objective of developing roads of international standards which facilitate smooth flow of traffic. It envisages creation of roads with enhanced safety features, better riding surface, grade separator and other salient features. The programme is being implemented in the following seven phases; Phase I: Phase I consists of Golden Quadrilateral network comprising a total length of 5,846 km which connects the four major cities of Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai & Kolkata and 981 km of North-South and East-West corridor .NS-EW corridor connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south and Silchar in the east to Porbandar in the west. Phase I also includes improving connectivity to ports. Phase II: Phase II covers 6,161 km of the NS-EW corridor (The total NS-EW corridor consists of 7,142 km) and 486 km of other NHs. Phase III: Four-laning of 12,109 km of high-density national highways connecting state capitals and places of economic, commercial and tourist importance. Phase IV: Upgradation of 20,000 km of single-lane roads to two-lane standards with paved shoulders. Phase V: Six-laning of 6,500 km of four-laned highways. Phase VI: Construction of 1,000 km of expressways connecting major commercial and industrial townships. Phase VII: Construction of ring roads, by-passes, underpasses, flyovers, etc. comprising 700 km of road network MUST READ: Drone Survey Mandatory for All National Highways Projects SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, an RBI-appointed committee has recommended the extension of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) cover to Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders. About Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) holders:- PPIs are instruments that facilitate the purchase of goods and services. These include financial services, remittance facilities, etc. (UPSC CSE: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)) Prepaid instruments can be issued as smart cards, magnetic stripe cards, internet accounts, internet wallets, mobile accounts, mobile wallets, paper vouchers and any of the instruments used to access the prepaid amount. (UPSC CSE: Non-Bank PSPs to Join Centralised Payment System ) Three types Types of PPIs:- Closed System PPIs: These PPIs are issued by an entity for facilitating the purchase of goods and services from that entity only. They do not permit cash withdrawals. The operation of such instruments does not require approval by the RBI. The most common example of a closed system PPI is a brand-specific gift card. Semi-closed System PPIs: banks (approved by RBI) and non-banks (authorized by RBI) issue these PPIs. They are for the purchase of goods and services at merchant locations, which have a specific contract with the issuer to accept the PPIs as payment instruments. Open System PPIs: These PPIs are issued only by banks (approved by RBI). These are used at any merchant for the purchase of goods and services. Cash withdrawal at ATMs / Points of Sale (PoS) terminals / Business Correspondents (BCs) is allowed through such PPIs. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) The merger of Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. (CGCI) in 1978 resulted in the formation of DICGC. It is a statutory body under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961. It serves as a deposit insurance and credit guarantee for banks in India. It protects deposit accounts up to a INR 5 lakh per bank account holder.If a deposit balance of a bank account holder in a single bank exceeds INR 5 lakh, the DICGC will pay up to INR 5 lakh, comprising interest and principal, if the bank goes bankrupt. It is a fully owned subsidiary of The RBI governs it. Coverage of DGCI:-Banks including regional rural banks, local area banks, foreign banks with branches in India, and cooperative banks, are mandated to take deposit insurance cover with the DICGC. Types of Deposits Covered:-DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring, etc. The following types of deposits are not covered under DICGC:- Deposits of foreign Governments. Deposits of Central/State Governments. Inter-bank deposits. Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative banks. Any amount due on account of any deposit received outside India. Any amount which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of the MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Mahua laddoos Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Mahua ladoos, prepared by Odisha tribal women have showed huge revenue success in recent times. About Mahua ladoos:- The tribal women in Odisha’s Kandhamal district use mahua flowers to prepare various delicious varieties of food. Mahua flowers are mainly used for brewing local liquor, are popular across India Around 120 tribal women members of the state’s Van Dhan Vikas Kendras prepare laddus, cakes, jam, toffees, pickles, squash, pakodas and biscuits using dry mahua flowers, which they supply, in the local market to earn revenues. Mahua laddus are in high demand compared to other products. The laddu is prepared using ingredients such as cashew, rasi, groundnut, jaggery, and mahua flowers. Van Dhan Vikas Kendras: These are set up under the Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY). They aim to promote Minor Forest Products (MFPs) -centric livelihood development of tribal gatherers and artisans. Minor forest produce are economic commodities growing naturally in a forest and sold for purposes other than timber and fuel. Examples include bamboo, wild honey, gum, lac, waxes, resins etc. These Kendras would act as common facility centres for procurement cum value addition to locally available MFPs. Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY):- It was launched in 2018. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. Objective: to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products. It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies. MUST READ: Mahua Tree/Madhuca longifolia SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Manual Scavenging in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Social Issues) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: According to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s recent report, only 66% of districts in a country are free of manual scavenging. About manual scavenging: The Act of Manual Scavenging refers to manually cleaning, carrying, and disposing of, or handling in any manner, human excreta in an insanitary latrine. In 2013, the definition of manual scavengers was also broadened to include people employed to clean septic tanks, ditches, or railway tracks. Status of manual scavenging: As per 2011 Census of India, there were over 740,000 households in the country where manual scavenging was still being practiced. This practice is often associated with the caste system in India, where people from lower castes, such as Dalits, are forced to engage in manual scavenging. According to the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis, a total of 482 manual scavengers died while cleaning sewers and septic tanks across India between 2016 and 2019. The Safai Karamchari Andolan, an advocacy group working to eradicate manual scavenging, estimates that there are still around 1.8 million manual scavengers in India. 233 people died due to accidents while undertaking hazardous cleaning of sewer and septic tanks from 2019 to 2022. Haryana had the highest number of deaths at 13, followed by Maharashtra with 12 and Tamil Nadu with 10. Reasons for the Prevalence of Manual Scavenging: Indifferent Attitude: A number of independent surveys have talked about the continued reluctance on the part of state governments to admit that the practice prevails under their watch. Social Issue: The practice is driven by caste, class and income divides. It is linked to India’s caste system where so-called lower castes are expected to perform this job. In 1993, India banned the employment of people as manual scavengers (The Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act, 1993), however, the stigma and discrimination associated with it still linger on. This makes it difficult for liberated manual scavengers to secure alternative livelihoods. Issues due to Outsourcing: Many times, local bodies outsource sewer-cleaning tasks to private contractors. However, many of them unreliable operators do not maintain proper rolls of sanitation workers. In case after case of workers being asphyxiated to death, these contractors have denied any association with the deceased. Issues associated with manual scavenging: Manual scavenging is a “dehumanizing practice” which has been carried on in the country with a background of historical injustice and indignity suffered by the manual scavengers. It constitutes problems that encompass domains of health and occupation, human rights and social justice, gender and caste, and human dignity. Manual scavenging and deaths of people trapped in flooded sewer lines continue to be a reality though the practice was banned. The workers were made to work in the most hazardous way. There was not enough protective gear and tech support and they continue to do it manually. Other issues are Poverty and Caste-discrimination. Constitutional provisions against manual scavenging in India: Human dignity is an inalienable right, which forms a part of the fundamental right to life (Article 21– Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India) as per the Constitution of India. The following is a list of provisions under the Indian Constitution, which is supposed to cater to the rights of equality, respect, and dignity before the law. Article 14 is about equality before the law, which should not be denied to any individual in India. Article 15 provides that no discrimination be permitted based on the place of birth of a person, race, religion, caste, and sex. Manual scavengers, however, face discrimination because of their caste all their lives. Article 16 of the Indian Constitution, in matters of public employment guarantees equal opportunity to all its citizens. Article 17 has provision for the abolition of untouchability, it is guaranteed under this constitutional provision to all. Article 19(1) (g) gives every citizen the right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business of their choosing. Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to all the citizens living in India. Apart from these, some other rights, which safeguard the manual scavengers as SC or ST, under the Indian Constitution, are Article 46 and Article 338. Supreme Court’s Judgements: The apex court itself had reinforced the prohibition and directed the rehabilitation of people, traditionally and otherwise, employed as manual scavengers in its judgment in Safai Karamchari Andolan and Others vs. Union of India. The judgment had called for their “rehabilitation based on the principles of justice and transformation”. Initiatives taken by the Govt. NAMASTE scheme: The scheme for rehabilitation of manual scavengers has now been merged with the NAMASTE scheme for 100% mechanisation of sewer work. The Union Budget for 2023-24 showed ₹100-crore allocation for the NAMASTE scheme and no allocation for the rehabilitation scheme. Manual scavenging as defined under Section 2 (1) (g) of the “Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (MS Act, 2013)” is prohibited with effect from 6.12.2013. No person or agency can engage or employ any person for manual scavenging from the above date. Any person or agency who engages any person for manual scavenging in violation of the provisions of the MS Act, 2013 is punishable under Section 8 of the above Act, with imprisonment upto 2 years or fine upto Rs. One Lakh or both. Under Swachhta Udyami Yojana of National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation, concessional loans are provided to safai karamcharis, manual scavengers, their dependants, the Urban Local Bodies, and other agencies responsible for cleaning, for procurement of sanitation related instruments/vehicles. A short-duration training programme (RPL) is organised for the sanitation workers wherein they are trained in safe and mechanised cleaning practices. Source:   The Hindu Financial Inclusion in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: In June 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor launched a Financial Inclusion Dashboard, named Antardrishti. About Antardrishti: The dashboard will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters. The dashboard, presently intended for internal use in the RBI, will further facilitate greater financial inclusion through a multi-stakeholder approach. About Financial Inclusion: According to the world bank, financial inclusion means that individuals and businesses have access to affordable financial products and services that meet their needs. Accessibility, affordability and availability of financial services are 3 pillars of financial inclusion. It is a method of offering banking and financial solutions and services to every individual in the society without any form of discrimination. The concept of financial inclusion was first introduced in India officially in 2005 by the Reserve Bank of India. The objectives of financial inclusion are to provide the following: A basic no-frills banking account for making and receiving payments Saving products (including investment and pension) Simple credit products and overdrafts linked with no-frills accounts Remittance, or money transfer facilities Micro insurance (life) and non-micro insurance (life and non-life) Micro pension and Financial Literacy. Significance of Financial Inclusion: Financial inclusion strengthens the availability of economic resources and builds the concept of savings among the poor. Financial inclusion is a major step towards inclusive growth. It helps in the overall economic development of the underprivileged population. In India, effective financial inclusion is needed for the uplift of the poor and disadvantaged people by providing them with the modified financial products and services. Challenges to financial inclusion in India: Socio-economic factors: Financial exclusion is related to the social conditions of low-income households, who are not able to access the available financial products and services. Various constraints such as low income, low savings and generally low levels of awareness hinders financial inclusion. Geographical factors: A review by the Rangarajan Committee shows that financial exclusion is highest among households in the Eastern, North -Eastern and Central areas of the country partly due to poor infrastructure. This coupled with remoteness and less population in some areas resulting is in problems with access. Limited availability of appropriate technology: The key driver of financial inclusion is the proliferation of stable and reliable Information and Communication Technology (ICT). The lack of infrastructure and cost effective technology for facilitating transactions at the doorstep is a hindrance to financial inclusion. Perception of obligation: The financial institutions are reluctant to serve small value and unprofitable customers with irregular income. Banks perceive inclusion as an obligation rather than a business opportunity. This discourages banks from providing financial services to low income individuals. Lack of documents: Another factor preventing them from accessing formal financial institutions are the requirement of various document proof. The poor generally lack documents such as Aadhaar card, income certificate, birth certificate, address proof etc. Financial illiteracy: The absence of basic education prevents people from following even simple information related to financial inclusion. The rural population as a result, relies mostly on the informal sector for availing finance at high rates, which lead to the vicious circle of poverty and debt repayment. Penetration: At present, only about 5% of India’s 6 lakh villages have bank branches. There are 296 under-banked districts in states with below-par banking services. Thus, bank reach is poor in rural areas leading to financial exclusion. Steps taken to achieve Financial Inclusion: Government of India Initiatives: PM Mudra Yojana – for small loans to non-corporate businesses PM Jan Dhan Yojana Insurance scheme – PM Suraksha Bima Yojana and Jeevan Jyoti Beema Yojana Pension Scheme – Atal Pension Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mann Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM) Nandan Nilekani Panel on deepening of Digital Payments Kisan Credit Card Initiatives by the RBI: National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2019-24 Payment Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) ATM infrastructure Project Financial Literacy Way Forward: The availability of banking facilities and strong bank branch network are the major facilitators of developmental activities. A strong and sturdy financial system is a pillar of economic growth, development and progress of an economy. The problem of financial exclusion needs to be tackled if we want our country to grow in an equitable and sustainable manner. Source:  Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana, consider the following statements: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It includes only Major Forest Products. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the National Highways Authority of India, consider the following statements: It is entrusted with collecting fees or tolls on National Highways. NHAI is an executive body. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), consider the following statements: It has only one bench, which sits in Delhi. It can take appeals of SEBI only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 8th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[MOST TRUSTED] TLP (Phase II) – ONLINE FREE Initiative for UPSC Mains 2023 – Daily Mains Answer Writing Programme - Starting from 12th June!

Hello Friends,Do you remember that brilliant six that Virat Kohli hit against Haris Rauf? Wasn’t that surreal? Everything about the shot – Kohli’s stance, back lift, hand eye coordination, and follow through were spot on. It was a picture perfect moment. But any picture of that shot couldn’t capture the process behind the shot. To produce that seemingly effortless shot in the match, Kohli must have practised the same shot hundreds of times in the nets. He has spent years to perfect his fitness and strength to be able to play that spectacular shot. While he is getting all the accolades today, his success is a great example of the significance of process for producing desirable resultsIn the game of UPSC also, particularly the Mains stage, process is crucial. To produce 20 perfect answers in a paper, you have to start the process of mastering the art of answer writing, one that involves commitment, consistency and eagerness to learn from mistakes. You must commit to the process of perfecting your writing game on a consistent basis. This is where IASbaba’s Think, Learn and Perform (TLP) initiative comes into play. Consider TLP as a net practice set up where you will be challenged with all sorts of deliveries in the form of daily questions. Your job is to tackle those with patience, fail in the beginning and learn from your failures in a quest to improve your game. If you make TLP a routine process of your preparation, you will definitely do better in the real test. The philosophy of TLP is simple – make answer writing a small but integral part of your preparation to improve your answer writing skills continuously and consistently over a period of time. IASbaba posts 5 questions on a daily basis based on a micro plan that is shared in advance. You visit IASbaba’s TLP portal, answer the questions in a time-bound manner, share the same with IASbaba and other aspirants on the portal, get access to quality synopsis, receive feedback from IASbaba and peers, learn from your mistakes and move on to the next set of questions the coming day. Now, imagine sticking to this process for a couple of months! We are pretty sure that you will experience a huge improvement in the level of your answers – a fact that has been mentioned by hundreds of toppers who were part of the TLP initiative in the past. Peer feedback is also promoted to have engaging discussions on the questions posted. Peer review is an important practice as when you are reviewing your fellow aspirant’s answer, you have turned the table and you are acting as an evaluator. It is important because, this way you will tend to find the mistakes in the answer which in turn will improve your own answers as you will refrain from committing them. We also provide detailed synopsis to ensure that you get a ready reference to all the questions posted under the TLP initiative. The synopsis that are provided are articulated in such a way that you can prepare an entire topic from them. In short, the features of TLP program are as follows Daily Five Questions: We will be posting daily 5 questions. Mains Rapid Revision Video Classes: The most important events of the year from the mains perspective will be covered in our classes. This will give you in-depth understanding of complex issues, comprehensively cover the syllabus and aid you with rapid revision of the mains syllabus. Synopsis: Detailed synopsis or model answer for each General Studies questions. Evaluation: We would encourage peer reviews. So, friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. The best answer will be pinned as featured comment. Essays: We will be covering every major theme and philosophical essays on every weekend. Current Affairs of last one year: will be covered on a daily basis throug the questions. Download the Schedule - TLP (Phase 2) 2023 This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post.We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Click Here To Register For TLP (P.S: If you have issues regarding login/registering to the program, please mail us on support@iasbaba.com) As you know we put in a lot of effort in every single initiative that we launch. We do not make questions just for the sake of it. Questions are well researched and are on the lines of UPSC pattern. The above testimonials from toppers are a proof of that.Answer writing is an art that can not be learnt in a single day. So don’t get bogged down by strict reviews. You are not on the platform to appease anyone, but to improve every single day. Write the answers everyday and learn from the comments of the IASbaba mentors and the feedback of your peers. We can assure you, by the end of the process, you will internalise the process of answer writing. Not only this, you will develop a muscle memory of several answers that you will find the actual UPSC exam. Many of the questions that we have asked on TLP, have been asked directly by UPSC.On this note, we wish you all the best and hope that the process will help you in becoming a topper.All the Best IASbaba Team

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) District Legal Services Authority Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: District Legal Services Authority in West Tripura recently organized Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign. About District Legal Services Authority:- Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed in the various states of India under the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987. Objective: to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities. It is organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition. Related Constitutional provision: Article 39-A: Deals with the provision of providing free legal services to the citizens of India. The provision applies to the citizens if they are unable to bear the expenditure of legal services. It also helps the defendant by appointing a lawyer to act for him in legal aspects. Composition of DLSA:- The State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court constitutes it. (UPSC CSE: Judicial appointments) Chairman: District Judge Other members: must have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government. The Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court may nominate these members. The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service and not lower than rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority. Member Secretary of the District Authority: Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District The officers and other employees of the District Authority are entitled to salary and allowances and shall be subject to such other conditions of the services as the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court prescribes. Legal Services Institutions at Various Levels:- The Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987 mandates the establishment of the following at various levels; National Level: National Legal Services Authorities (NALSA) The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. Objective: to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act. Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of India It distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organisations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives. State Level: State Legal Services Authority Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of the State High Court At District Level: District Legal Services Authority. ex-officio Chairman: District Judge of the District At Taluka/Sub-Division Level: Taluka/ Sub-Divisional Legal Services Committee. A senior Civil Judge heads it. Eligibility for free legal service:- Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disasters, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, and industrial disasters. Disabled persons Persons in custody Those persons who have an annual income of less than the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, if the case is before any court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs. 5 Lakhs if the case is before the Supreme Court. Victims of Trafficking in Human beings or begar. Nyaya Bandhu’s (Pro Bono Legal Services) It is a primary initiative to establish a framework for the dispensation of pro bono (free of cost) legal services across the country. Under Nyaya Bandhu, practising advocates, interested to volunteer their time and services, are connected, via mobile technology, with eligible marginalised beneficiaries. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application (Android/IOS) has been developed in collaboration with technical partner Common Services Centres (CSC) e-Governance Pvt. Ltd. Common Services Centres (CSC) are the access points for the delivery of various e-governance and business services to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country. (UPSC MAINS: Risks in e-governance) CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle set up under the Companies Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Electronics & IT Objective: to oversee the implementation of the CSC scheme. It provides a centralized collaborative framework for the delivery of services to citizens through CSCs, besides ensuring the systemic viability and sustainability of the Scheme. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application has been on boarded on the UMANG platform. UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National e-Governance Division (NeGD). MUST READ: Judicial Accountability SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 Syllabus : The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 were released recently.  About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023:-  IMAGE SOURCE: findhow.net The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is a methodology to rank institutions of higher education in India. Ministry: Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) Objective: help universities to improve their performance on various ranking parameters and identify gaps in research and areas of improvement. There are separate rankings for different types of institutions depending on their areas of operation like universities and colleges, engineering institutions, management institutions, pharmacy institutions and architecture institutions. Five broad categories of parameters identified in the NIRF: Teaching, learning and resources (TLR); research and professional practice; graduation outcome; outreach; and inclusivity and perception. Key findings of NIRF 2023:- Indian Institute of Technology Madras: retains its first position in Overall Category and Engineering. Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru: tops the Universities Category and stood first in Research Institutions Category. IIM Ahmedabad: tops in Management subject retaining its first position. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi: top slot in Medical. National Law School of India University, Bengaluru: retains its first position. Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi: takes the top slot in Agriculture and Allied Sectors. Three distinct additions to the 2023 edition of India Rankings are as follows:- Introduction of a new subject namely Agriculture & Allied Sectors. (UPSC CSE: Agriculture Reforms) Integration of the “Innovation” ranking to reduce the burden on institutions of providing similar data to two different agencies. Expansion of scope of “Architecture” to “Architecture and Planning” to include institutions imparting courses in Urban and Town Planning. (UPSC CSE: Transforming Indian Cities) With the addition of these, the existing portfolio of India Rankings has increased to 13 categories and subject domains that have been ranked in India Rankings 2023. It ranks Overall, Universities, Colleges, and Research Institutions & Innovation. It ranks 8 subject domains: Engineering, Management, Pharmacy, Architecture & Planning, Medical, Law, Dental Agriculture and Allied Sectors. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2018) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2018) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Agra Fort Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, debates on who built the Agra Fort has started again. About Agra Fort:- The Agra Fort is a UNESCO World Heritage site that attracts people from all over the world. This fort has been occupied by several dynasties, including the Rajputs, Mughals, Jats, and Marathas. The fort underwent a construction of eight years under the reign of Akbar in 1565. However, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) lacks knowledge about who built the Agra Fort first and what changes it underwent during Akbar’s reign. It is made of red sandstone. It comprises the Jahangir Palace and the Khas Mahal (built by Shah Jahan), Diwan-i-Khas and two very beautiful mosques. It was the main residence of the emperors of the Mughal Dynasty until 1638 when the capital was shifted from Agra to Delhi. It became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983. (UPSC MAINS: Mandate and significance of UNESCO) Important Structures Inside the Agra Fort:- Jahangir’s Hauz: This is a monolithic tank, and was built by Jahangir. The tank was initially used for bathing. It is now a part of Akbar’s Bengali Mahal. Shahjahani Mahal: The Shahjahani Mahal is probably one of the earliest attempts of Emperor Shah Jahan to turn a red sandstone palace into a palace of white marble. Babur’s Baoli (step well): Babur built a stone step well, which took care of the water needs in the ancient fort of Agra. Nagina Masjid: Nagina Masjid is a mosque, which was built by Shah Jahan. The mosque was built using white marble only and was considered a private place of worship. Diwan-I-Am (Hall of Public Audience): This hall was built by Shah Jahan. Interestingly, the hall was first built using red sandstone but was later shell-plastered, giving it a look of white marble. Ghaznin Gate: The Ghaznin Gate actually belongs to the tomb of Mahmud of Ghazni, one of the rulers of the Ghaznavid Empire. Bengali Mahal: This palace was built by Akbar and was later modified by Shah Jahan. Akbar’s Mahal: The ruins of Akbar’s famous palace remain in the fort. (UPSC CSE: Akbar) Akbar breathed his last in this very palace. The entire palace was built using red sandstone. MUST READ: Dholavira: India’s 40th World Heritage Site SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements (2018) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Higgs boson Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) particle-smasher at CERN, in Europe, reported that they had detected a Higgs boson decaying into a Z boson particle and a photon. About Higgs boson:- IMAGE SOURCES: scalarlight.com The Higgs boson is a type of boson, a force-carrying subatomic particle. It carries the force that a particle experiences when it moves through an energy field, called the Higgs field. Higgs field: a field that gives mass to other fundamental particles such as electrons and quarks. It is believed to be present throughout the universe. The Higgs boson is often called “the God particle”because it’s said to be what caused the “Big Bang” that created our universe many years ago. The Higgs boson is an extremely short-lived particle. Characteristic property: It decays rapidly into other particles, making its direct detection challenging. Scientists at the LHC used high-energy particle collisions to produce the Higgs boson and observed its decay products to confirm its existence. The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts.It is 130 times more massive than a proton. It is also chargeless with zero spin. Spin: a quantum mechanical equivalent to angular momentum. The Higgs Boson is the only elementary particle with no spin. It has a short lifespan. It sticks around for merely less than a trillionth of a billionth of a second or, more precisely, 6 x 10-22 seconds. Timeline:- Peter Higgs, François Englert, and four other theorists to explain why certain particles have mass proposed the existence of Higgs boson in 1964. Scientists confirmed its existence in 2012 through experiments at the Large Hadron Collider at CERN in Switzerland. This discovery led to the 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics being awarded to Higgs and Englert. Significance:- The Higgs boson can provide significant insights into the nature of our universe. Scientists hope to use the Higgs Boson as a tool to learn more about dark matter. (UPSC CSE: International Space Station (ISS)) Its decay process can help test the predictions of the Standard Model of physics. Standard model of elementary particles: it is a theoretical framework in physics that explains the particles of matter and their interactions. Large Hadron Collider (LHC) The LHC is a huge experiment that collides two beams of particles to study physics at very high energies. It is the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator. It is the largest science experiment in the world. Operated by: CERN (European Organisation for Nuclear Research) CERN: the world is largest nuclear and particle physics laboratory. It is best known as the operator of the Large Hadron Collider. It is based in Geneva on the French-Swiss border. It has 22 member states. India and CERN:- India in 2016 became an associate member of the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN). India’s association with CERN goes back decades with active involvement in the construction of the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). India was inducted as an ‘Observer’ at CERN in 2004. The associate membership would cost India Rs. 78 crores annually though it still would not have voting rights on decisions of the Council.Indian scientists have played a significant role in the Large Ion Collider Experiment (ALICE). MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent reports of the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), parts of New Delhi and South Delhi were worst affected this summer by ground-level ozone pollution.  Ozone Pollution IMAGE SOURCE: Climate Central Ozone occurs both in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (stratosphere) and at ground level (troposphere). It can be good or bad, depending on where it is found. Good Ozone: Ozone occurs naturally in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (Stratosphere). It forms a protective layer that shields from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays. Ozone-depleting gases like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), HCFCs, and halons, destroy this protective shield and causes a hole in the ozone. Bad Ozone: found in the Earth’s lower atmosphere (troposphere) near ground level. It is formed when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources react chemically in the presence of sunlight. It is a harmful air pollutant. (UPSC CSE: Air Pollution) It causes damage to crops and forests. It can increase the risk and susceptibility to pulmonary inflammation like Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). It may reduce lung function and make breathing difficult. About the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE):- It was established in 1980 It is a public-interest research and advocacy organisation. HQ: New Delhi It works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India. It researches into, lobbies for and communicates the urgency of development that is both sustainable and equitable. It creates awareness about problems and proposes sustainable solutions. In 2018, the CSE was awarded Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Consider the following: (2022) Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a 15-year-old tiger died after being found in an injured condition near the Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR), Madhya Pradesh. About Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR):- IMAGE SOURCE: shergarh.com Kanha Tiger Reserve stretches over the two districts: Mandla and Balaghat – of Madhya Pradesh. It is located in the central Indian highlands. The reserve is situated on the Maikal range, which is a part of the Satpura mountain range. Prominent Rivers: Banjar and the Halon Rivers. Kanha National Park was created in 1955. Kanha National Park is the largest National Park in Central India. It was made the Kanha Tiger Reserve in 1973. (UPSC CSE: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) It is the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, “Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”. Fauna: The State animal of Madhya Pradesh – Hard Ground Barasingha (Swamp deer or Rucervus duvaucelii) is found exclusively in Kanha Tiger Reserve. Protection Status of Swamp Deer: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Other Species: Tiger, Leopard, Dhole, Bear, Gaur and Indian Python etc. Flora: It is best known for its evergreen Sal forests (Shorea Robusta). MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous: (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The Commission of Railway Safety (CRS) is investigating the recent Odisha rail accident. About the Commission of Railway Safety (CRS):- The Commission of Railway Safety deals with matters pertaining to the safety of rail travel and trains. Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation HQ: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh The operation is charged with certain statutory functions as laid down in the Railway Act (1989). Its functions are of an inspectorial, investigatory & advisory nature. (UPSC CSE: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC)) Investigating serious train accidents is one of the key responsibilities of the CRS. (UPSC MAINS: Indian railways accidents) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA). The reason or principle behind this, put simply, is to keep the CRS insulated from the influence of the country’s railway establishment and prevent conflicts of interest. MUST READ: Shramik Kalyan Portal SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2016) Resident Indian citizens only. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only. All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004. Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2017) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy. Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018. Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies. Mains: Pulses Production in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: There are two agricultural commodities in which India is significantly import-dependent: Edible oil and pulses. About pulses production in India: Pulses are annual leguminous crops yielding between one and 12 grains or seeds of variable size, shape and colour within a pod, used for both food and feed. Bengal Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi Chana), Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor / Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor), White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown and consumed in India. February 10 is a designated global event to recognize and emphasize the importance of pulses and legumes as a global food. The UN General Assembly adopted 2016 as the International Year of Pulses (IYP). According to the Agriculture Ministry, India’s pulses output has increased from 19.26 MT in 2013-14 to 27.50 MT in 2022-23. The reduction in pulses imports have come essentially on the back of higher domestic production. It can be seen that imports of two items have recorded dramatic drops: Yellow/white peas (matar) and chickpea (chana). Significance of pulses: Pulses are rich in nutritional and protein values and are an important part of a healthy diet. Pulses and legumes (lentils, peas, chickpeas, beans, soybeans, and peanuts) play an equally important role in health maintenance and overall improvement. Pulses also contribute majorly to achieving the goals of the 2030 Agenda of Sustainable Development. Pulses play a critical role in marking challenges of poverty, food chain security, degraded health, and climate change. Pulses and legume crops help in improving the feasibility of agricultural production systems. The nitrogen-fixing properties of pulses improve soil fertility, which increases the productivity and fertility of the farmland. Pulses are important for a healthy diet. Challenges to the Pulse Production: Infrastructure: Poor and inadequate storage facilities Prices: Volatility in the prices due to rainfed dependency of the crops Decrease in the cultivation area, farmers opting Higher Yielding Crops with higher MSP. Inconsistencies in Minimum Support Price (MSP) like the Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission who fixes MSP is by status a department whose recommendations are only advisory. Representation of farmers is minimal. The so-called 50 per cent profit to the farmer is not per the government’s intended formula, and so it is relatively low. The farmers do not even get the declared MSP. The pulses are imported at prices lower than the domestic ones. Vulnerability to pests is also a major hindrance in the production of pulses. Farmers lack crop Insurance and credit facilities. Government of India Initiatives to boost pulses production: National Food Security Mission: Launched by the Government of India during 2007-08 at the beginning of the 11th five-year plan. To expand the area under cultivation of pulses, and; To enhance productivity by bridging the gap between the actual and potential yield. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana programme: It is a continuing scheme under implementation from the 11th Five Year Plan period of National Development Council (NDC). The scheme will incentivize States in enhancing more allocation to Agriculture and Allied Sectors. PM-POSHAN: The Indian government has urged states to procure pulses (for Mid-day meals) under the PM-POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) program from NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.). Way Forward: India is moving closer to AatmaNirbharta on pulses with consistent efforts by the government. It is vital to raise awareness about the benefits of eating pulses that are high in macronutrients for both sustainability and dietary needs. Source:   Indian Express Plastic Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Every year, June 5 is celebrated as World Environment Day. The day called for global solutions to combat the pandemic of plastic pollution. The date was chosen by the UN General Assembly during the historic 1972 Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment – considered to be the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. Over the years, it has grown to become the largest global platform for environmental outreach, with millions of people from across the world engaging to protect the planet. 2023 marks the 50th anniversary of the World Environment Day. #BeatPlasticPollution: Hosted by Côte d’Ivoire and supported by the Netherlands, this year’s World Environment Day campaign is aimed towards discussing and implementing solutions to the problem of plastic pollution. About Plastic Pollution: Plastic refers to a wide range of synthetic or semi-synthetic materials that use polymers as a main ingredient with their defining quality being their plasticity – the ability of a solid material to undergo permanent deformation in response to applied forces. These include Polyethylene terephthalate or PET, High-density polyethylene or HDPE, Polyvinyl chloride or PVC, Low-density polyethylene or LDPE, Polypropylene or PP, and Polystyrene or PS. Each of these have different properties and can be identified by their resin identification code (RIC) denoted by symbols found on plastic products. Plastic pollution occurs when plastic has gathered in an area and has begun to negatively affect the natural environment and create problems for plants, wildlife, and even the human population. This includes killing plant life and posing dangers to local animals. Plastic is an incredibly useful material, but it is not biodegradable. According to UN data, more than 400 million tonnes of plastic is produced every year worldwide, half of which is designed to be used only once. Of that, less than 10 per cent is recycled. Consequently, an estimated 19-23 million tonnes end up in lakes, rivers and seas annually. Around the world, one million plastic bottles are purchased every minute, while up to five trillion plastic bags are used worldwide every year. In total, half of all plastic produced is designed for single-use purposes – used just once and then thrown away. Common sources of Plastic pollution: Merchant ships expel cargo, sewage, used medical equipment, and other types of waste that contain plastic into the ocean. The largest ocean-based source of plastic pollution is discarded fishing gear (including traps and nets). Continental plastic litter such as Food Wrappers and Containers, Bottles and container caps, Plastic bags, Straws etc. enters the ocean largely through storm-water runoff. Issues Associated with Plastic-Waste in India: More Plastic per Person: Like much of the world, India is struggling to dispose of its growing quantities of plastic waste given how ubiquitous it has become- from our toothbrushes to debit cards. A little over 10,000 tonnes a day of plastic waste remains uncollected. Unsustainable Packaging: India’s packaging industry is the biggest consumer of plastics. A 2020 study on packaging in India projects a loss of almost 133 billion dollars’ worth of plastic material value over the next decade due to unsustainable packaging. Unsustainable packaging involves general packaging through single use plastic. Online Delivery: The popularity of online retail and food delivery apps, though restricted to big cities, is contributing to the rise in plastic waste. India’s biggest online delivery startups Swiggy and Zomato are each reportedly delivering about 28 million orders a month. E-commerce companies too have come under fire for excess use of plastic packaging. Upsets the Food Chain: Polluting plastics can affect the world’s tiniest organisms, such as plankton. When these organisms become poisoned due to plastic ingestion, this causes problems for the larger animals that depend on them for food. Larger items, such as plastic bags and straws, can choke and starve marine life, while smaller fragments (microplastics) can cause liver, reproductive, and gastrointestinal damage in animals and it can directly affect the blue economy as well. Impact on Human Health: The World Health Organisation published shocking research in 2018 that exposed the presence of micro plastics in 90% of bottled water. We absorb plastic through our clothes, 70% of which are synthetic and the worst fabric for the skin. We even breathe plastic when due to poor waste management by burning the trash in the open air. Plastic toxicity in humans can lead to hormonal disruption and adverse reproductive and birth outcomes. Govt Initiatives to tackle plastic pollution: National Dashboard on Elimination of Single Use Plastic and Plastic Waste Management: India launched a nationwide awareness campaign on Single Use Plastics on World Environment Day in June 2022. A mobile app for Single Use Plastics Grievance Redressal was also launched to empower citizens to check sale/usage/manufacturing of SUP in their area and tackle the plastic menace. Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2022: It prohibits the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of several single-use plastic items as of July 1, 2022. It has also mandated Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) that incorporates circularity by making manufacturers of products responsible for collecting and processing their products upon the end of the products’ lifetime. India Plastics Pact: It is the first of its kind in Asia. The Plastics Pact is an ambitious and collaborative initiative to bring stakeholders together to reduce, reuse and recycle plastics within the material’s value chain. Mascot ‘Prakriti’: To spread awareness among masses about small changes that can be sustainably adopted in lifestyle for a better environment. Project REPLAN: Project REPLAN (stands for REducing PLastic in Nature) launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) aims to reduce consumption of plastic bags by providing a more sustainable alternative. Way Forward: Adaptation of the 3R’s +E Strategy Reduce: To efficiently reduce plastic pollution, there is an evident need of reducing our usage of plastic. Reuse: Many plastic items can be reused or used for different purposes. Before throwing plastic items, it is important to consider how they can be reused. Recycle: Plastic recycling consists of collecting plastic waste and reprocessing it into new products, to reduce the amount of plastic in the waste stream. Educate: Another crucial solution is education in order to increase awareness and behavioural change. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) With reference to Ozone pollution, consider the following statements. Ozone in the stratosphere is a pollutant. India is a party to the Kigali Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) With reference to the Commission of Railway Safety, consider the following statements. It is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its primary function is to investigate rail accidents. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3) With reference to the Kanha Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements. Banjar and the Halon rivers flow through it. It passes through the Satpura Hills. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –6th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, about 85 per cent of 11,000 products offered at zero tariffs by India to least developed countries (LDCs) under the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) remains unutilised. About the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD Background: The decision to provide duty-free quota-free (DFQF) access for least developed countries (LDCs) was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005. Least developed countries (LDCs): The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries, which have been designated as such by the United Nations. There are at present 48 LDCs on the UN list. 31 of these are members of the WTO. It requires all developed and developing country members to provide preferential market access for all products originating from all LDCs. India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs in 2008. It provided market access to 85% of India’s total tariff lines. It aimed to integrate LDCs into the global trading system and improve their trading opportunities. The scheme was expanded in 2014 providing preferential market access on about 2% of India’s tariff lines to LDCs. India offers 11,506 preferential tariff lines to LDCs of which 10, 991 are duty-free. Of the duty-free tariff lines, 1,129 are agricultural goods and the remaining 9,862 are non-agricultural goods. Key findings of WTO data for 2020:- 85% of India’s tariff lines show a zero utilisation rate compared to 64% by China. Among the remaining, only 8% demonstrate a utilisation rate of above 95% against 17% by China. Noteworthy amounts of LDC exports are entering under non-preferential (most favoured nation) tariff routes into India even though they are covered by the Indian preference scheme. There is a significant variation between the beneficiary LDCs. Guinea and Bangladesh: show the highest amount of eligible imports Benin: reports a utilisation rate of 98%, the highest of all beneficiary countries. Afghanistan: Fruits and nuts worth $325 million exported were entered under the most-favoured-nation (MFN) despite the preference margin of 28 percentage points being offered under the Indian preference scheme. Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally. Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. If a country grants someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products), they have to do the same for all other WTO members. This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment. Chad: exports of mineral fuels, oils and products, etc, of a value of $48 million are entering India under MFN. The World Trade Organization (WTO):- IMAGE SOURCE: slideserve.com The WTO is the international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all. Objective: to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. WTO agreements are negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. Ministerial Conference: the topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. (UPSCE CSE:12th WTO Ministerial Conference) Historical Background:- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, which established two key institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. An agreement as the GATT signed by 23 countries in Geneva in 1947 came into force on Jan 1, 1948, with the following purposes: To phase out the use of import quotas. to reduce tariffs on merchandise trade. Uruguay Round (1987-1994): culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which established the World Trade Organization (WTO). The WTO incorporates the principles of the GATT and provides a more enduring institutional framework for implementing and extending them. The GATT 1994 is an international treaty binding upon all WTO Members. It is only concerned with trade in goods. Members: it has had 164 members since 2016. India is a founding member of WTO. (UPSC CSE: Moratorium on e-commerce trade) WTO is not an UN-specialized agency. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It is a forum for governments to negotiate trade agreements. It is a place for them to settle trade disputes. It is a place where member governments try to sort out the trade problems they face with each other. MUST READ: Reviving WTO SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gulf of Mannar Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Gulf of Mannar became the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in the South East Asia. About the Gulf of Mannar:- IMAGE SOURCE: casmbenvis. nic. in Gulf of Mannar is an inlet of the Indian Ocean, between south-eastern India and western Sri Lanka. It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island. The gulf receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka). The port of Tuticorin is on the coast. It has been renowned for its highly productive pearl banks and religious significance. The Government of India designated it as the country’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Gulf of Mannar National Park has also been identified as the important Bird Area by BNHS-Birdlife International because of its rich avian fauna. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been identified as an Important Marine Mammals Area of the World by IUCN due to its dugong population and other marine mammals presence. Key life forms found in the Gulf of Mannar:- Dugong (Sea cow): also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s first dugong conservation reserve) Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Sea turtles: Four of the seven species of sea turtles found worldwide are reported to occur in the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve. These are:- Olive ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea): IUCN status (Vulnerable) They are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary: It is the world’s largest nesting beach for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Green (Cheloniamydas) Hawksbill (Eretmochelys imbricata) Leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea) All four species of sea turtles that occur in these coastal waters are protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act (1972), as well as listed in Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Lobsters: Stock enhancement and fattening of lobsters Panulirus homarus and P. polyphagous in this region are important for the livelihood of coastal fishermen. Crabs: Of the 11 important commercial crabs in India, six crab species occur Sea snakes: A total of 12 species of sea snakes have been reported in the Gulf of Mannar region. Coastal Birds: 187 species of birds were reported from the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park. Coral reef ecosystem:- Corals and coral reefs of the Gulf of Mannar National Park form an essential ecosystem, which supports a variety of ecologically and economically important marine life. (UPSC CSE: Coral Reefs) The islands in the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park are divided into three groups namely, the Mandapam group (seven Islands), the Keelakarai group (7 Islands) and the Tuticorin group (7 Islands). MUST READ: Development of Great Nicobar SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Development of building materials using plant residues Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Necrophilia Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Karnataka High Court observed that “necrophilia” is an erotic attraction to corpses. About Necrophilia:- It is a psychosexual disorder, classified under the DSM-IV, among a group of disorders, called “paraphilias”. Paraphilias: include disorders like paedophilia, exhibitionism, and sexual masochism. Necrophilia could be the result of rage, experimentation, or lust rather than sexual necessity or habit. As of date, the IPC does not list “necrophilia” as a specific offence under sexual offences mentioned in the code. The court mentioned that it could be brought under Section 297 as causing “indignity to any human corpse” if someone trespasses into a place for performing funeral rites or a depository for the remains of the dead. Section 297 of IPC:- The knowledge that any person’s feelings are likely to be wounded or their religion is likely to be insulted by such an act will make it an offence under Section 297. The ruling of Karnataka High Court in Rangaraju @Vajapeyi vs State of Karnataka” case:- It held that having sexual intercourse with a woman’s dead body would not attract the offence of rape, punishable under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code, as there is no provision in the IPC for it. (UPSC CSE: Rape and sexual crimes law in India) The provisions of Sections 375 and 377 of the Indian Penal Code make it clear that the dead body cannot be called a human or person. Thereby, these provisions of the IPC would not apply. The court clarified that sexual intercourse on a dead body is nothing but necrophilia. Hence, it is not a punishable offence under Section 376 (punishment for rape). National Human Rights Commission’s advisory, on “Upholding the Dignity and Protecting the Rights of the Dead: The court invoked the 2021 advisory of NHRC, which states that there cannot be any physical exploitation or discrimination in the treatment of the body. It also mentions the right to a decent and timely burial. It also asked the Centre to amend the law. Recommendation of Karnataka High Court to the centre:- To amend Section 377 of IPC To include dead bodies of men, women, and animals. To protect the dignity of the dead. Criminalising necrophilia: It also offered an alternative that the Centre brings in a separate penal provision to criminalise necrophilia with life imprisonment up to 10 years with a fine. The ruling of Supreme Court in Parmanand Katara, Advocate vs Union of India (1989):- The court relied on and held that the dignity of a dead body must be maintained. It established a corresponding duty on the state to ensure decent cremation is served to the person. The right to dignity and fair treatment under Article 21 of the Constitution of India is not only available to a living man but also to his body after his death. Countries that prohibit necrophilia:- The United Kingdom’s Sexual Offences Act, 2003, includes necrophilia as an offence under Section 70, which makes “sexual penetration of a corpse” an offence punishable with six months to two years imprisonment. Canada, New Zealand, and South Africa, too, prohibit necrophilia under different laws. Status in India:- India does not have any specific provision punishing necrophilia. The Karnataka High Court made recommendations to the Central government for including it under Section 377 of the IPC or as a new provision. MUST READ: Marital Rape SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Salt caverns Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, a Government-owned engineering firm studied the prospects of developing petroleum reserves in Rajasthan’s salt caverns. About salt caverns:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Salt caverns are created by dissolving salt deposits with water, and then pumping out the brine (salt water) to create a hollow space. This process is much faster and cheaper than excavating rock caverns and can be done in flat or low-lying areas where salt deposits are found. Rock caverns: created by excavating hard rock formations, such as granite or basalt, using explosives or mechanical methods. Advantages:- Salt caverns are naturally well sealed. The salt lining acts as a natural barrier against liquid and gas migration, preventing oil from escaping or contaminating groundwater. (UPSC CSE: Groundwater Mapping ) They have low oil absorbency, which prevents leakage and contamination of the stored oil. They are relatively easy and cheap to create and operate. The process of solution mining is faster and simpler than excavating rock caverns, which requires more time, labour, and equipment. They are suitable for storing natural gas, compressed air and hydrogen. (UPSC CSE: LNG & its climate impact) Salt caverns can also be located closer to the surface than rock caverns, which reduces the drilling costs and the risk of leakage. Salt caverns can withstand high pressure and temperature variations, allowing for faster filling and emptying of oil. This makes them ideal for emergencies or market fluctuations when the oil needs to be released or stored quickly. Disadvantages:- Salt caverns require a large amount of water. The water used for solution mining has to be treated to prevent corrosion and bacterial growth, which adds to the operational costs. The water also has to be disposed of safely after extracting the brine (water with dissolved salt), which can pose environmental challenges. The brine can contain harmful substances such as heavy metals or radioactive elements, which have to be removed before discharging into surface water or injecting into deep wells. Salt caverns are limited by the availability and quality of salt deposits. MUST READ: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) SOURCE: THE INDIN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020) Cassava Damaged wheat grains Groundnut seeds Horse gram Rotten potatoes Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 5 and 6 only 1, 3, 4 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Indian Army generated a unique ecosystem for peaceful co-existence with wild elephants in Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary, Assam. About Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net The Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located on the eastern fringe of Guwahati, Assam. It comprises three Reserve forests:- Khanapara Amchang, and South Amchang It stretches from the Brahmaputra River in the north to the hilly forests of Meghalaya in the south, forming a continuous forest belt through Meghalaya’s Maradakdola Reserve Forests. (UPSC MAINS: Monitoring China’s Moves on the Brahmaputra) It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 2004 by the government of Assam. (UPSC MAINS: Human-wildlife conflict) Flora: Khasi Hill Sal Forests, East Himalayan Mixed Deciduous Forest, Eastern Alluvial Secondary Semi-Evergreen Forests and East Himalayan Sal Forests. Fauna: It is home to Mammals (Flying Fox, Assamese Macaque, Slow Loris, etc.), Birds (Lesser and Greater Adjutant, White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture), Reptiles (Python, Monitor Lizard, Indian Cobra etc.). Tree yellow butterflies (banana harina): found at the Amchang wildlife sanctuary, which are indigenous to Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore and northeast India. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Abaucin Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Scientists recently, found a potential new antibiotic named Abaucin, with the help of machine learning. About Abaucin:- This antibiotic compromises the normal function of a protein called CCR2. It was originally been developed to treat diabetes. It appears to work by disrupting lipoprotein trafficking in baumannii. Working: Based on genetic studies, the researchers believe that abduction could be preventing lipoprotein produced inside the bacteria from moving to the outer membrane. Abaucin is also a “species-selective” antibiotic. It only disrupts the growth of A. baumannii, not other Gram-negative bacteria. Acinetobacter baumanni It is a Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria: it has a protective outer membrane that allows it to resist antibiotics. It has been associated with hospital-acquired infections in India. It was acknowledged to be a “red alert” pathogen because of its exceptional ability to develop resistance to all currently available antibiotics. (UPSC CSE: Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)) MUST READ: World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC+) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The OPEC+ agreed on a new oil output deal recently. About (OPEC+):- IMAGE SOURCE: watchers. ie The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization. It was created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960. Founding members: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Objective: to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market, in order to avoid fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries. HQ: Vienna, Austria. Membership: OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization. It has 14 members: Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, and Venezuela (1960), Qatar (1961), Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), Abu Dhabi (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), Ecuador (1973), Angola (2007), Equatorial Guinea (2017), and the Republic of the Congo (2018). OPEC’s 14 members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies and 82 per cent of proven reserves. With the addition of the 10 Non-OPEC nations, notable among them Russia, Mexico and Kazakhstan, those shares increase to 55 per cent and 90 per cent respectively. (UPSC CSE: OPEC) OPEC+ OPEC+ includes the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and its allies. It pumps around 40% of the world’s crude. OPEC-plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan. MUST READ: Oil for Emergencies SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Mains: Adverse Possession in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: As per the recent report by 22nd Law Commission there is no justification for introducing any change in the law relating to adverse possession. About adverse possession: Adverse possession essentially means when a tenant possesses the property of the owner when they are not legally entitled to do the same overtlye., without any attempt regarding the concealment from the owner. In such a situation, if they continue to hold the property unlawfully for more than 12 years and the owner, despite having the same, does not take any action over these years, they would lose their right to claim the property by filing a suit in the court of law upon the expiration of this term. The concept originally dates back to 2000 BC, finding its roots in the Hammurabi Code, but the historical basis of “title by adverse possession” is the development of the statutes of limitation on actions for recovery of land in England. The first such statute was the Statute of Westminster, 1275. However, it was the Property Limitation Act, 1874, that set the period of limitation at twelve years from when the cause of action first arose, which laid the groundwork for the limitations model inherited by colonial India. Act XIV of 1859 regulated the limitation of civil suits in British India. After the passage of the Limitation Act in 1963, the law on adverse possession underwent significant changes. Arguments in favour of adverse possession: To avoid long disputes: The real aim of law is to neither punish the one nor reward the other. However, a society should not be bothered with disputes for eternity. Therefore, the law puts a limit of twelve years for such quarrels and disputes before which the title must be settled. Land should be put to a judicious use: The concept of adverse possession stems from the idea that land must not be left vacant but instead, be put to judicious use. Essentially, adverse possession refers to the hostile possession of property, which must be continuous, uninterrupted, and peaceful. According to the Law Commission, the rationale behind this comes from considerations that the “title to land should not long be in doubt”, “society will benefit from someone making use of land the owner leaves idle,” and “persons who come to regard the occupant as owner may be protected.” Original titleholder neglected his rights: The maxim that the law does not help those who sleep over their rights is invoked in support of adverse possession. Argument against adverse possession: Harsh for true owner: The law as it exists is extremely harsh for the true owner and a windfall for a dishonest person who has illegally taken possession of the property. Avoidable and expensive litigation: True owners have been subjected to, such as “avoidable and expensive litigation” by unscrupulous persons” who are acquainted with fraud, the already overburdened machinery of the courts is further saddled with avoidable work, much to the misery of the litigants. Struck off law will not harm anybody: lf the law of adverse possession is struck off from the Limitation Act it will not hinder anybody’s right nor will it cause any neglect of land resources. Promotes false claims: The fact that land prices are skyrocketing in both rural and urban areas defeated the Commission’s argument that land is not put to proper use. In an over-populous country like India where land is scarce, the law of adverse possession only promotes false claims under the colour of adverse possession, which ultimately does not stand judicial scrutiny. Different laws for state and private individuals: If in a welfare state and under law, state and common person have same rights and same Acts being applicable, then why is there a different time window for the adverse possession over Government land. SC Rulings: In the 2004, Karnataka Board of Wakf v Government of India, the apex court held “A person who claims adverse possession should show: on what date he came into possession, what was the nature of his possession, whether the factum of possession was known to the other party, how long his possession has continued, and His possession was open and undisturbed.” In 2008, HemajiWaghaji Jat v. BhikhabhaiKhengarbhai Harijan and Others, the court ruled that Article 65 “ousts an owner on the basis of inaction within limitation” and is “irrational, illogical, and wholly disproportionate” and recommended the government “to seriously consider and make suitable changes in the law of adverse possession”. Owing to the importance of the subject, coupled with the fact that the reference had been pending since 2008, the present Law Commission found it “expedient to deliberate afresh over the subject.” Way Forward: Parliament might simply require the adverse possession claimants to possess the property in question for a period of 30 to 50 years, rather than a mere 12. A longer statutory period would also decrease the frequency of adverse possession suits and ensure that only those claimants most intimately connected with the land acquire it, while only the most passive and unprotected owners lose title. Source:    Indian Express Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs) Ban Issue Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Health Ministry has published a gazette notification banning 14 Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) drugs citing lack of therapeutic justification and an expert committee’s recommendation for their prohibition. About Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs: Combination products or fixed dose drug combinations (FDCs) consist of two or more active drugs in a single dosage form. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the USA defines a combination product as a product composed of a drug and a device, a biological product and a device, a drug and a biological product, or a drug, device, and a biological product. It is widely accepted that most drugs should be formulated as single compounds. Examples: Phenytoin + Phenobarbitone Sodium, Chlorpheniramine + Codeine Phosphate + Menthol Syrup, Salbutamol + Bromhexine, Paracetamol + Bromhexine + Phenylephrine + Chlorpheniramine + Guaiphenesin etc Justification for Ban: The ban, which comes into effect immediately, follows recommendations of the Expert Committee formed to examine the efficacy of these drug combinations and the Drugs Technical Advisory Board. The expert committee recommended, “there is no therapeutic justification for these FDCs and the FDCs may involve risk to human beings”. Advantages of FDC Drugs: Complementary Mechanism of Action: FDC formulations combine drugs with complementary mechanisms of action, which can enhance the therapeutic effectiveness of the treatment. The combined action of multiple drugs in a single dosage form can target different aspects of a disease or provide a more comprehensive treatment approach. Synergistic Effects: FDCs can exhibit synergistic effects, where the combined action of the drugs produces a greater therapeutic effect compared to individual drugs used alone. This can result in improved efficacy and better treatment outcomes for patients. Better Tolerability: In some cases, combining drugs in an FDC can help reduce side effects or improve tolerability. The interaction between the drugs can minimize adverse reactions, making the treatment more manageable for patients. Elongated Product Life-Cycle Management: FDC formulations can extend the life cycle of a product by combining drugs that have already been individually approved. This allows pharmaceutical companies to innovate and offer new treatment options without going through the lengthy process of developing and gaining approval for completely new drugs. Cost Savings: FDCs can lead to cost savings for both patients and healthcare systems. By combining multiple drugs into a single formulation, the overall cost of treatment may be reduced. This can make the medication more affordable and accessible, particularly in resource-constrained settings. Minimized Pill-Burden: Using FDCs reduces the number of pills a patient needs to take. This can simplify treatment regimens and improve patient adherence to medication schedules, especially for individuals who need to take multiple drugs regularly. Disadvantages of FDCs: There may not be an FDC available with the appropriate drugs and/or in the most appropriate respective strength(s) for a given patient, which can lead to some patients getting too much of an ingredient and others getting too little. Thus, FDCs “limit clinicians’ ability to customize dosing regimens.” If an adverse drug reaction occurs from using an FDC, it becomes difficult to identify the active ingredient responsible for causing the reaction. Scientists face challenges in the development stages of multi-drug formulations such as compatibility issues among active ingredients and excipients affecting solubility and dissolution. If one drug is contraindicated for a patient, whole FDC cannot be prescribed. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to OPEC, consider the following statements: OPEC’s members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies. OPEC has 15 members who have 82 per cent of the proven reserves of oil in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2. Consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of Abaucin vaccines. Abaucin is a species-selective antibiotic. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3. Consider the following statements: Necrophilia is an erotic attraction to corpses. Necrophilia is a punishable offence under the IPC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) -c