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[DAY 35] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 34-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

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[MOST AWAITED COURSE] GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ – UPSC/IAS 2024 – ‘A Rigorous, Intensive Tests & Mentorship Based Programme’ That DOUBLES Your Success Rate!

IN INDIA, THE PLACE OF A ‘GURU’ or a mentor and a guide is above all! The Guru – Shishya Parampara has a beautiful history, known to all but practised by none in today’s day and age. The process of this direct dissipation of information from the source not only built a knowledge base but also helped in building a strong character in the students. But when we look around – excessive commercialisation has paved way for only a professional connection between teachers and students. There is a strong lack of connection between the teachers and the students. The fear of asking questions has not helped much in the process of learning as it should have actually happened. The fast-paced lifestyle and accessibility to various resources all at once, have steered many students away from the mentorship that could have served as the single most important starting point for many successes in life. But let us think for a moment….The stories of teachers like Vishvamitra, Sandinapani and Drona and the anecdotes about the brilliance of students like Ram, Krishna and Arjun are an integral part of our life journey. Isn’t it? One fine day, when the team was contemplating how best can we serve the veterans who have been in this game but have not tasted their most awaited success yet…we came up with an idea – we wondered if the parampara could be revived! Read Complete Details -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Einstein’s theory of gravity Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a new detailed map of dark matter has been found to be in agreement with Einstein’s theory of gravity. About Einstein’s theory of gravity:- Albert Einstein published his full theory of general relativity in 1915. As per this theory, no motion can exceed the speed of light. In general relativity (GR), concentrations of mass and energy curve the structure of spacetime, affecting the motion of anything passing near including light. Physicists made many exotic predictions using general relativity. Significance of the theory:- IMAGE SOURCE: Space – SciDump The theory explained the anomalous orbit of Mercury.  In 1919 when Arthur Eddington and his colleagues measured the influence of the Sun’s gravity on light from stars during a total solar eclipse. The bending of light around the Sun is small, but researchers realized the effect would be much larger for galaxies, to the point where gravity would form images of more distant objects. The phenomenon now called gravitational lensing.  The theory predicted the existence of black holes Black holes: objects with gravity so intense that nothing getting too close can escape again, not even light. General relativity showed that gravitation has a speed, which is the same as the speed of light. Catastrophic events like collisions between black holes or neutron stars produce gravitational waves. Researchers finally detected these waves in 2015 using the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO) Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO): a sensitive laboratory that took decades to develop. MUST READ: Dark matter SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) The distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Q.2) Consider the following phenomena (2018) Light is affected by gravity. The Universe is constantly expanding. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context:Recent studies have shown that Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) in Andhra Pradesh have yielded more produce than conventional methods. About Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):- IMAGE SOURCE: Things to know about Zero Budget Natural Farming / (SPNF) – Agrikrit Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. It was originally promoted by agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash Palekar. He developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers, pesticides and intensive irrigation. Objective: to bring down the cost of production to nearly zero and return to a pre-green revolution style of farming. The four wheels of ZBNF are:- Jiwamrita        It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil. About 200 litres of jivamrita should be sprayed twice a month per acre of land. After three years, the system is supposed to become self-sustaining. Bijamrita         It is a mix of desi cow dung and urine, water, bund soil and lime that is used as a seed treatment solution prior to sowing. Mulching         It is Covering the plants with a layer of dried straw or fallen leaves. It is meant to conserve soil moisture and keep the temperature around the roots at 25-32 degrees Celsius. It allows microorganisms to do their job. Waaphasa       It is providing water to maintain the required moisture-air balance. MUST READ: Natural farming SOURCE:DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Doctrine of promissory estoppel Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Advocate Prashant Bhushan argued that instead of implementing the Agnipath scheme, the government should complete the old process and cited the doctrine of promissory estoppel. About Doctrine of promissory estoppel:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – CONSIDERATION PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:6208176 (slideserve.com) The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel works on the principle of equity, fairness and moral conscience. The doctrine of Promissory Estoppel means when an individual with an intention of forming a relationship which is lawful makes a clear promise to another individual and the latter individual acts on it, that promise becomes an obligation for the individual who made the promise.  Hence, then going back from its words is not permissible.  The law commission recommended suggestions to form a new section as Section 25A in the Indian Contract Act in the 108th report for this doctrine. No provisions as such are there which ensures availability of relief under this doctrine.  At the same time, it can be implemented on the basis of equity, to defend the aggrieved party.  The doctrine of estoppel in India is a rule of evidence included into Section 115 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Promissory Estoppel’s application can invalidate the constitutional provision provided under Article 299, which talks about immunity granted against the personal accountability of an individual making the promise. MUST READ: Doctrine of necessity SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Cost inflation index (CII) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified the provisional cost inflation index (CII) for the fiscal 2023-24. About Cost inflation index (CII):- The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery, debt mutual funds, and so on. This CII number will assist in determining the long-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year. This number is used to calculate inflation-adjusted cost for only those assets that allow for inflation-adjusted (indexation benefit). As a result, the CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds. This is because any sum above Rs 1 lakh each fiscal year is taxed at a flat rate of 10% without the advantage of indexation. Calculating CII:- The formula to calculate inflation-adjusted cost price is:  (CII of the year of sale/CII for the year of purchase) * Actual cost price. The government declared in Budget 2017 that the base year would be changed from 1981 to 2001 due to challenges in obtaining appropriate information by taxpayers. MUST READ: WPI inflation SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mankading Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Recently, Harshal Patel’s missed Mankad attempt has brought back the spotlight on cricket’s most controversial mode of dismissal. About Mankading:- ‘Mankading’ is the act of a bowler running out a batter on the non-striker’s end if he/she is backing up and too far ahead of the crease before the ball is delivered. Though this is a legally permissible dismissal, it is considered against the spirit of the game. Background:- The term comes from the name of the legendary former Indian cricketer Vinoo Mankad. In 1947, when India was playing a series in Australia, Mankad dismissed opposition batsman Bill Brown twice by taking off the bails at the non-striker’s end before releasing the ball. Laws on Mankading:- Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), the custodian of the Laws of Cricket, accepted Mankading as a normal mode of running out the non-striker, removing it from Law 41 (Unfair play) and clubbing it with Law 38 (Run out). There have been several instances in men’s Test matches and ODI cricket like the recent incident that happened during the 2019 IPL when Ravichandran Ashwin ran out Jos Buttler in a game between Kings XI Punjab and Rajasthan Royals. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea Good Friday Agreement Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, American President ,Joe Biden visited Belfast to mark 25 years of Good Friday Agreement. About Good Friday Agreement:- IMAGE SOURCE: Belfast In Turmoil As Brexit Stokes Tensions In Northern Ireland (ibtimes.com) The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement. It is a historic peace agreement that ended the sectarian violence in Northern Ireland. It was was signed on April 10, 1998. It was signed between factions of Northern Ireland, and the governments of Britain and Ireland. Objective: to end decades of violence in Northern Ireland among those who wished to remain with the United Kingdom (UK) and those who wanted to join Ireland. The negotiators included then-British Prime Minister Tony Blair, then-Irish Prime Minister Bertie Ahern, George Mitchell, a former Democratic senator who acted as the envoy of then-US President Bill Clinton, and eight parties from Northern Ireland. The aim of the agreement was to establish a power-sharing government. Approval:- The Good Friday Agreement was put to a referendum on May 22, 1998.  It gained the approval of 94% of voters in Ireland and 71% in Northern Ireland. Current Statues of the agreement:- The Good Friday Agreement continues to be in place, but issues have emerged due to Brexit and the Northern Ireland Protocol. Northern Ireland Protocol: a plan agreed upon by the UK and the EU to check goods arriving in Northern Ireland from the rest of the UK to ensure they follow EU rules. MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations SOURCE:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Amolops siju Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that India’s newest named frog ‘Amolops siju’ is a dark cave dweller in Meghalaya. About Amolops siju:- Amolops siju is named after the Siju cave system of Meghalaya, from where four specimens were collected. This is the second cave-dwelling species of frog recorded from India after  Micrixalus spelunca in Tamil Nadu nine years ago.  Frogs are known to inhabit the subterranean world of caves due to the constant humidity and temperature that a cave ecosystem provides. The  Amolops siju is the first cave-dwelling cascade frog from the northeast. Cascade frogs being morphologically cryptic in nature, tissue samples of the specimens were subjected to molecular studies to ascertain their specific identity from the other known species. Amolops siju is the fourth species of cascade frog described from the northeast .  They had earlier described  Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang from Arunachal Pradesh. Siju Cave:- The cave is a natural limestone cave. It is located in the South Garo Hills District of Meghalaya, Northeast India. The cave contains the twilight zone, an area with limited light. This ‘dark zone’ has consistent ‘temperature and humidity’ all year long. The cave is known to harbour more than 100 faunal species, mostly invertebrates like cave crickets, spiders, beetles, and earthworms. MUST READ: New Species of frog in Andaman found SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican State Development Loans Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Four states raise Rs 5,800 crore through State Development Loans at bond auction. About State Development Loans:- State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. Purpose of issuing State Development Loans: to meet the budgetary needs of state governments. Each state can borrow upto a set limit through State Development Loans. The SDL securities issued by states . They are credible collateral for meeting the SLR requirements of banks as well as a collateral for availing liquidity under the RBI’s LAF including the repo. SDL is that it is a market oriented instrument for states to mobilise funds from the open market. Higher the fiscal strength of a state, lower will be the interest rate (yield) it has to pay for the SDL borrowings. SDLs are are auctioned by the RBI through the e-Kuber e-Kuber : dedicated electronic auction system for government securities and other instruments. RBI holds SDL auctions once in a fortnight. The RBI will purchase the SDLs through a multi-security auction using the multiple price method. The result of the auction will be announced on the same day. MUST READ: Sovereign Green Bonds (SGB) SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Safeguards and procedures: On India’s preventive detention laws Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Supreme Court observed in a judgment that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy and confer arbitrary power to the state. The Court warned that these laws are extremely powerful and have the potential to provide the state with free discretion. About Preventive Detention: Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. Protection: Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law. Two Types of Detentions: Preventive detention is when a person is held in police custody only on the basis of a suspicion that they would conduct a criminal act or cause harm to society. The police have the authority to hold anyone they suspect of committing a criminal offence and also to make arrests without a warrant or a magistrate’s authorization in certain cases. Punitive detention, which means detention as a punishment for a criminal offence. It occurs after an offence is actually committed, or an attempt has been made towards the commission of that crime. Preventive Detention Laws in India: Parliament passed a legislation named Preventive Detention Act, 1950 which talks about the detention of a person on the grounds of defense, foreign affairs or the security of the state. History: The constitutionality of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was challenged in the case of K. Gopalan V. State of Madras where a leader named A.K. Gopalan was detained in Madras jail from 1947. He challenged the validity of the aforesaid act as this act of state of further detaining him is in violation of Article 13, Article 19 and Article 21 and provisions of the act are not in accordance with Article 22 enshrined under the Constitution of India. The case was decided by 4:1 ratio, where the majority does not recognize detention as an infringement of personal liberty under Article 21. Minority view in the case: Preventive detention, which is dealt with in Article 22, also amounts to deprivation of personal liberty which is referred to in Article 21, and is a violation of the right of freedom of movement dealt with in Article 19(1)(d). The interrelationship between fundamental rights paved the way for acknowledging privacy as a fundamental right in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case by overruling MP Sharma and Kharak Singh case. Safeguard Against Misuse of Preventive Detention Time-period: A person may be taken to preventive custody only for 3 months at the first instance. If the period of detention is extended beyond 3 months, the case must be referred to an Advisory Board consisting of persons with qualifications for appointment as judges of High Courts. Permission of Advisory board: It is implicit that the period of detention may be extended beyond 3 months, only on approval by the Advisory Board. Grounds of detention: Detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention. The state, however, may refuse to divulge the grounds of detention if it is in the public interest to do so. This power conferred on the state leaves scope for arbitrary action on the part of the authorities. Legal options: Detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention. Concerns: The government holds the right to conceal information which it considers to be against public interest to disclose. The power of preventive detention is mostly misused by the authorities. The use of preventive detention even during peacetime denotes ‘anachronism’. It is a matter of irony that the makers of our Constitution, who themselves were once victims of the tyranny of preventive detention laws, still chose to grant powers to governments under the Constitution to enact such laws. According to Section 50 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CRPC), any person arrested has to be informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to bail. But getting bail is not a simple task in reality. Way Forward: The preventive detention should be strictly used with the delicate balance between social security and citizen freedom. As the Supreme Court has observed that to prevent misuse of this potentially dangerous power, the law of preventive detention has to be strictly construed and need to follow meticulous compliance with the procedural safeguards. There is an urgent need to ensure this. Source: The Hindu MUST READ: Constitutional provisions related to personal liberty in brief 75 years of the WHO: Not a ‘global health police’ Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) marks its 75th anniversary on 7 April 2023. About World Health Organization (WHO): Source:   news-medical.net It is a specialised agency of the United Nations with a mandate to act as a coordinating authority on international health issues. It is headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland. It has 194 Member States, 150 country offices, six regional offices. It works in collaboration with its member states usually through the Ministries of Health. Successes of WHO Health as a human right: Efforts helped in realising the goal of health as a human right. Some of the WHO’s most lauded successes include its child vaccination programs, which contributed to the eradication of smallpox in 1979 and a 99 percent reduction in polio infections in recent decades, and its leadership during the 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) epidemic. The agency has the exclusive authority to declare global health emergencies, which it has done several times since its members granted it the power in 2007. Failed attempts of WHO: The 2014 Ebola outbreak in Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone offers an example of a WHO job less well done. The organization’s agreement to give up on trying to eradicate malaria in the 1960s represents another example of what some consider a botched job. The WHO launched the Global Malaria Eradication Programme (GMEP) in 1955. But there was little to no progress in sub-Saharan Africa under the program, and in many places, failure to sustain GMEP actually led to a resurgence of malaria. In 1969, the program was discontinued. In the COVID-19 pandemic the WHO was criticized for not doing enough to support member states in their fight against the disease. The WHO has become increasingly dependent on voluntary contributions, which puts pressure on the organization to align its goals with those of its donors. Challenges: There is no single document which comprehensively describes its responsibilities, obligations and powers with respect to infectious diseases. WHO’s authority is recommendatory in nature. The organisation’s responsibilities during a pandemic include surveillance, monitoring and evaluation, developing guidance for member states-lacks the ability to direct an international response to a life-threatening epidemic. WHO’s annual operating budget is smaller than that of many university hospitals. Lack of preparedness for the Global pandemic. It has delayed to declare Covid-19 as Public Health Emergency of international concern. No Appropriate action and investigation against the China that shows the lack of independence. Delay to provide crucial information regarding Covid-19 like human to human transition etc. Need for WHO Reforms: Funding: Any attempt to build a stronger WHO must first begin with increased mandatory funding by member states. Providing more powers: It is time to provide the agency with more powers to demand that member states comply with the norms and to alert WHO in case of disease outbreaks that could cause global harm. WHO does not have the authority to enforce its recommendations. Information sharing: The long delay and the reluctance of China to share vital information readily and quickly regarding the novel coronavirus, including the viral outbreak in Wuhan. Member states do not face penalties for non-compliance: This has to change for any meaningful protection from future disease outbreaks. Way Forward: Nine point plan proposed by India- Approach on WHO reforms Changes in mechanisms to monitor health emergencies that can cross borders. Giving the head of the UN body greater power to declare an international public health emergency. Devising “objective criteria with clear parameters” for declaring a “public health emergency of international concern” (PHEIC) such as the Covid-19 pandemic. A greater role for the world body in ensuring fair, affordable and equitable access to Covid-19 vaccines. WHO’s regular budget should also be increased so that core activities are financed from it, without putting an overwhelming financial burden on developing countries. Voluntary contributions should be unearmarked to ensure that the WHO has necessary flexibility for its usage in areas where they are required the most. Changes and improvements in the body’s funding and governance: Effective involvement of all countries in budget implementation and spending. Strong and robust financial accountability frameworks should be created, a significant amount of transparency with respect to data reporting and disbursement of funds” should be established, and the efficiency of funding mechanisms such as the WHO Solidarity Response Fund should be strengthened. India called for strengthening capacities in countries found to be deficient and for enhancing international cooperation. Calling for a global framework for managing infectious diseases and pandemics, including capacities such as testing and surveillance systems, the document highlighted the “need to establish a system facilitating pan-world surveillance by leveraging innovating ICT tools”. The Indian government also called for efforts to ensure fair, affordable and equitable access to all tools for combating Covid-19 pandemic and, therefore, the need to build a framework for their allocation. Source:   Indian Express MUST READ: Pandemics of the world Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the State Development Loans (SDLs): SDLs are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. SDLs are auctioned by the Commercial Banks through the e-Kuber Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Amolops siju, Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang are Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Cost inflation index (CII): The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery etc. CII number will assist in determining the short-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year. The CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 33] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 33-> Click Here

[DAY 34] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 34->Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Exercise Cope India 23 Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the announcement for Exercise Cope India 23 between the Indian Air Force, and the United States Air Force was made. About Exercise Cope India 23:- Exercise Cope India 23, a bilateral air exercise between the Air Forces of India and the U.S. It will be held at Air Force Stations Arjan Singh (Panagarh), Kalaikunda, and Agra. Japan will act as an observer. The exercise aims to enhance mutual understanding between the two Air Forces and share their best practices. It will involve transporting aircraft and Special Forces assets from both the Air Forces. Both sides will field the C-130J and C-17 aircraft, with the USAF operating an MC-130J as well. The Indian Air Force (IAF) is set to field its frontline fighters SU-30MKI, Rafale and the indigenous Light Combat Aircraft along with force multipliers, while the U.S. Air Force is expected to bring in F-15 fighter jets. MUST READ: India-US relations SOURCE: ANI PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?(2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Union Minister of Power and New & Renewable Energy, released the report of the State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 recently. About State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22:- The State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 is developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in association with Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE). Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy (AEEE):- It was formed in 2008 as a not-for-profit society. It is one of the leading organisations in India that works on creating awareness about energy efficiency as a resource. Its vision and financial support provided by various proactive energy efficiency equipment and services companies- Conzerv Systems Pvt Ltd (CSPL – since acquired by Schneider-Electric India in 2009), Schneider Electric, Thermax Limited, Grundfos Pumps India and Development Enviroenergy Services Ltd, and other practitioners and energy service companies. USAID/ECO-III project partners, International Resources Group, with support from Alliance to Save Energy provided strategic guidance and support to develop and implement AEEE’s Vision and Mission. It supports policy implementation and is an energy efficiency market enabler with a not-for-profit motive.  It promotes data-driven and evidence-based energy efficiency policies and research. Reports: State Energy Efficiency Index 2020, Cold Chain Energy Efficiency in India, and Enabling cold chain infrastructure development in India. It consists of 50 indicators (common and programme-specific) spanning 7 sectors: buildings, industry, municipal services, transport, agriculture, DISCOMs, and cross-sector. It is a tool designed to track Energy Efficiency initiatives in the states and UTs. It is released by the Ministry of Power. There are four categories in the index i.e. Front Runner, Achiever, Contender and Aspirant. Front Runner category (>60 points) It has 5 states: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan and Telangana. Achiever Category (50-60 points): Assam, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab. MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Q.2) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020) Cassava Damaged wheat grains Groundnut seeds Horse gram Rotten potatoes Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 5 and 6 only 1, 3, 4 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 International Prize in Statistics 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, the Indian-American statistician Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao has been awarded the 2023 International Prize in Statistics. About International Prize in Statistics 2023:- International Prize in Statistics 2023 was established in 2016. It is awarded to an individual or group once every two years. It is awarded for significant breakthroughs utilising statistics to improve science, technology, and human welfare. The prize is modelled after the Nobel Prize, Abel Prize, Fields Medal, and Turing Award.  It carries an $80,000 monetary award. The International Prize in Statistics and the COPSS Presidents’ Award are the two top honours in statistics. Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao’s :- C. R. Rao, is an Indian-American mathematician and statistician.  He is currently professor emeritus at Pennsylvania State University and Research Professor at the University at Buffalo. Rao has been honoured by numerous colloquia, honorary degrees, and festschrifts and was awarded the US National Medal of Science in 2002. The American Statistical Association has described him as “a living legend whose work has influenced not just statistics, but has had far reaching implications for fields as varied as economics, genetics, anthropology, geology, national planning, demography, biometry, and medicine.” The Times of India listed Rao as one of the top 10 Indian scientists of all time. In 2023, Rao was awarded the International Prize in Statistics, an award often touted as the “statistics’ equivalent of the Nobel Prize”. Rao is also a Senior Policy and Statistics advisor for the Indian Heart Association non-profit focused on raising South Asian cardiovascular disease. In 1945, Professor Rao’s article, “Information and Accuracy Attainable in the Estimation of Statistical Parameters,” was published.  It encouraged the rapid growth of contemporary statistics and their use in research. In 1948, one of Professor Rao’s publications proposed a revolutionary general technique for evaluating hypotheses, which became known as the “Rao score test.” This and two other tests devised by Jerzy Neyman, E.S. Pearson, and Abraham Wald are commonly referred to as the “holy trinity” of statistics. MUST READ: Porter prize SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Q.2) Consider the following pairs of Terms sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic: (2018) Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology: Digital/ Cryptocurrency CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 UN Democracy Fund Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the UN Democracy Fund extended support for NGOs funded by George Soros, who is on a watchlist in India. About the UN Democracy Fund:- IMAGE SOURCE: Members of the United Nations by the year of entry – Maps on the Web (zoom-maps.com) The UNDEF was established in 2005 with an initial contribution of $10 million each from the United States and India. Background: In 2005, India’s then PM, Manmohan Singh, and US President George W. Bush announced the US-India Global Democracy Initiative, which included support for the UNDEF. As Joint Secretary (Americas) at the time, S Jaishankar was a lead negotiator. It was created by UN Secretary-General Kofi A. Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization efforts around the world. Objectives: to support projects that strengthen the voice and participation of civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the development of democratic institutions and processes. Funding: It is funded entirely by voluntary contributions from member states and is governed by an advisory board composed of 16 members representing different regions of the world. Composition:- The Advisory Board, constituted by the Secretary-General, includes the eight largest Member State contributors and six other states to reflect diverse geographical representation. India has been a member of the Board since the beginning. India’s Contribution to UNDEF:- India gave $5 million to the fund in 2005, 2006, 2008, 2009 and 2011. The contributions began dipping in 2012 ($4.71 m) and the following year was $1.85 million. After no contribution in 2017, India was back with $100,000 in 2018 and 2019. In 2020, 2021 and 2022, it gave $150,000. MUST READ: UN Fund for ‘People’s Economy’ in Afghanistan SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 The Gilens model Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Ruben B. Mathisen undertakes a study on Norway’s democracy, following the ‘Gilens model’ methodology. About The Gilens model:- It was proposed by Martin Gilens in 2012. In his study, it was found that in the U.S., public policy decidedly favoured the preferences of the affluent, at the expense of the poor and the middle classes. American democracy, shows a heavy reliance on political parties for private campaign donations, which might make it far more unresponsive to the non-affluent. Three different studies inspired by Gilens were held in Germany, the Netherlands and Sweden. In all these countries, the policy was once again found to be skewed in favour of the preferences of the affluent. But in recent cases of social democracy like Norway, the link between money and politics was much weaker than in the U.S. There are several reasons why the wealthy in Norway haven’t managed to capture policy­making, the way they have in the U.S. MUST READ: The Global State of Democracy Report, 2021 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation on 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: About Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map of Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary with its villages (Source: Akash… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Suhelwa wildlife sanctuary is located in the Sravasti, Balrampur and Gonda districts of Uttar Pradesh. It is connected with the forest of Mahadevpuri in Nepal. It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1988. Flora:  Sal, Sheesham, Khair, Sagaun (Teak), Asna, Jamun, Haldu, Phaldu, Dhamina, Jhingan and Bahera trees. Fauna: Leopard, Tiger, Bear, Wildcat, Wild Boar and various birds. Sohelwa Wild Life Division is situated on the Indo-Nepal International Border. Adjacent to the Sanctuary area there are the Shivalik Ranges of Himalaya. Cultural Aspect:- Shrawasti, a famous historical place known as Baoudh teeth situated at about 15 Km on Balrampur- Bahraich road. Devipatan Mandir has situated in Tulsipur this mandir is a Sidhpeeth of Maa Durga. Baba Vibhutinath Mandir, which is a famous Shiv Mandir is situated in East Sohelwa Range. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Debt Relief for a Green and Inclusive Recovery (DRGR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology and Economy Context: Recent reports by Debt Relief for a Green and Inclusive Recovery (DRGR) show that the debt of emerging markets & developing economies rose by 178% from 2008-2022. About Debt Relief for a Green and Inclusive Recovery (DRGR):- The Debt Relief for Green and Inclusive Recovery (DRGR) Project is a collaboration between the Boston University Global Development Center, Heinrich-Böll-Stiftung and the Centre for Sustainable Finance, SOAS University of London. Objective: to advance innovative solutions to address the looming sovereign debt crisis. The DRGR Project works with policymakers, thought leaders and civil society from around the world to develop systemic approaches to both resolve the debt crisis and advance a just transition to a sustainable, low-carbon economy. The framework has not been very effective at bringing all creditors, including private and commercial creditors, on board and linking debt relief with development and climate goals, the findings stated. Common Framework:- The “Common Framework” was established by the G20 countries in November 2020. Objective:  to provide relief to debtors facing insolvency or liquidity problems. Recent reports findings: – The sovereign debt of emerging markets and developing economies (EDME) increased by 178 per cent, from $1.4 trillion to $3.9 trillion, between 2008-2021. Global South is staring at a debt crisis, but the “Common Framework” created to provide debt relief has serious shortcomings.  EDMEs are seeing weakened economic growth due to a slow recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic as well as high food and energy prices fuelled by Russia’s war in Ukraine. Escalating climate impacts have added to the financial burden of these countries.  A strong US dollar and depreciating currencies for many EMDEs have exacerbated the problem. These shocks have weakened economic growth and ballooned debt burdens. The authors of the new report called for a reform of the Common Framework. MUST READ: Green, resilient and inclusive development SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi expressed happiness over the success of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. About Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.:- The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched in 2016. Administered by: Ministry of Agriculture Objective: PMFBY insures farmers against all non-preventable natural risks from pre-sowing to post-harvest. It is an insurance service scheme for farmers for their yields which aims to reduce the premium burden on farmers and ensure early settlement of crop assurance claims for the full insured sum. Implemented by: Empanelled general insurance companies Coverage:- The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield data is available and for which a requisite number of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) are being conducted under General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES). Objectives:- To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crops as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming To encourage farmers to adopt innovative and modern agricultural practices To ensure the flow of credit to the agriculture sector MUST READ: Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Conservation of wildlife in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment and Ecology) Context: The Prime Minister of India launched International Big Cats Alliance on Commemoration of 50 years of ‘Project Tiger’ recently. The conservation of wildlife fauna is a complex task that involves addressing various challenges. According to the recent data by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) and State Forest and Police Authorities, in the past three years (2018-2020), about 2054 cases were registered for killing or illegal trafficking of wild animals in India. About International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA): IBCA will focus on the protection and conservation of seven major big cats of the world such as tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar and cheetah in collaboration with countries harbouring these species. Membership to the alliance will be open to 97 “range” countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc. Challenges posed during the conservation of wildlife fauna: Habitat Loss: One of the most significant challenges in conserving endangered wildlife is habitat loss. With growing urbanization, deforestation, and development activities, the natural habitats of wildlife species are shrinking rapidly. For e.g. Habitat loss faced by Great Indian Bustard in India. Poaching: Poaching of wildlife for their skins, bones, and other body parts is another significant challenge faced by conservation efforts. Poachers often kill wildlife species for illegal trade, which drives the species to the brink of extinction. For example – the Tusk of Elephants, Horns of Rhinoceros. Human-Wildlife Conflict: As the human population continues to expand, conflicts between wildlife and humans also increase. Wildlife often ventures into human settlements in search of food and water, leading to conflicts and sometimes causing loss of life and property damage. For example – Instances of Elephants being killed while crossing railway tracks. Inadequate funding and resources: Conservation efforts require substantial resources, including funding, staff, and equipment. In India, conservation organizations often struggle to secure adequate resources to carry out their work effectively. Climate change: Climate change can have significant impacts on wildlife habitats and migration patterns, leading to changes in population dynamics and species composition. Invasive species: The introduction of invasive species into ecosystems can disrupt natural ecological processes and threaten native species. Example Invasive species such as water hyacinth and Mimosa are great threats to Kaziranga NP. Poor law enforcement: Enforcement of laws and regulations designed to protect endangered species can be lax, which undermines conservation efforts. Lack of coordination and cooperation: Conservation efforts can be undermined by a lack of coordination and cooperation between different organizations and stakeholders involved in conservation efforts. Importance of wildlife: Ecological importance: Wildlife helps in maintaining the eco-logical balance of nature. Killing of carnivores leads to an increase in the number of herbivores which in turn affect the forest vegetation, thus due to lack of food in the forest they come out from the forest to agriculture land and destroy our crops. This makes us know that wildlife helps in maintaining ecological balance even by being predators of each other . Economic importance: The wild life can be used to earn money. Wild plant products like food, medicine, timber, fibres, etc. are of economic value and the wild animal products such as meat, medicines, hide, ivory, lac, silk, etc. are of tremendous economic value. Investigatory importance: Some wild organisms are used for scientific experiments such as to test effect of medicine. Conservation of biological diversities: By conserving wildlife, diversity in the environment can be conserved. According to some scientists an ecosystem with more diversity is more stable. Importance in agriculture: Wild organisms are very important for modern agriculture. Production of new hybrid variety using wild plants Production of better hybrid variety of animals used for agriculture using wild animals New species of plants and animals can be produced by them Religion of wild: Many animal species have spiritual significance in different cultures around the world, and they and their products may be used as sacred objects in religious rituals. Eco Tourism: Many nations have established their tourism sector around their natural wildlife. Constitutional Provisions Article 48 A in the Directive Principles of State policy, mandates that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Article 51 A (g) of the Constitution states that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds was transferred from State to Concurrent List. Steps taken by government for conservation of Fauna: Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Protected Areas like National Parks, Biodiversity Reserves, etc. were created Project Tiger: Initiated in 1972. It helped in the conservation of both tigers and the entire ecosystem. Project Elephant: Initiated in 1992 with the aim of conserving elephants and their habitat and of migratory routes by developing scientific and planned management measures. Crocodile Conservation Project: The main objectives of the crocodile project is to protect the remaining population of crocodiles and their natural habitat by establishing sanctuaries. UNDP Sea Turtle Project: To conserve the Olive Ridley Turtles. Initiated by Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun as the Implementing Agency in 1999. Cheetah Reintroduction Programme in Kuno Palpur sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh from Namibia. Vulture Conservation: National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has cleared a plan for conserving vultures. India Rhino Vision (IRV) 2020: The goal of IRV2020 was to increase the rhino population in Assam to 3,000 by establishing populations in new areas. Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules 2010 have been drafted to protect wetlands in India. Way Forward: Public awareness and education must play an essential part in teaching an environment of compassion in protecting animals with sustainable solutions to address these issues.  All these need to be discussed collectively at a global scale to make a positive impact. There is dire need to be mindful of tackling increased urbanization, rising temperatures, and ecotourism, which are negatively contributing and fuelling to affect wildlife. The Indian government has taken significant measures to address these challenges and protect endangered wildlife, including tigers, and the recent improvement in the tiger population is a testament to the success of these efforts. Source:  PIB Human Composting: A greener way to die Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently, New York became the sixth state in the US to legalise human composting as a burial option. Washington was the first to do so in 2019. About Human Composting: Source:   dailymail.co.uk Human composting, also known as natural organic reduction, is a process of transforming the human body into nutrient-rich soil that has emerged as an eco-friendly alternative to traditional burial or cremation. It has gained popularity, especially among the younger generation, for being an eco-friendly alternative to dispose of a corpse. Process of human composting: The body is first washed and dressed in a biodegradable grown. It’s then placed in a closed vessel, usually measuring 8 feet by 4 feet, along with selected materials such as alfalfa, straw, and sawdust. The body is left to decompose for the next 30 days. To speed up the decay, oxygen is added to the vessel, which results in the unfolding of a process called “aerobic digestion”, in which microbes start to consume organic matter. Temperature inside the container is kept around 130 degrees Fahrenheit or 55 degrees Celsius to kill off contagions. By the time aerobic digestion is over, the body has been transformed into a soil-like material, containing nutrients, bones, and some medical devices — these are taken out from the compost pile and recycled. As the microbial activity comes to an end, the temperature inside the pile drops, marking the transformation from an active composite pile into the soil. Concerns: The biggest opponent of this process has been the Catholic Church and called it an “unfortunate spiritual, emotional, and psychological distancing from the deceased. It has been believed that the ‘transformation’ of the remains would create an emotional distance rather than a reverence” for the remains. Even cremated remains must remain in a communal place befitting of the dignity inherent in the human body and its connection to the immortal soul. Significance: Human composting is seen as an alternative to burials and cremations: Methods like burials and cremations are increasingly being seen as contributors to carbon emissions. Cremating one body emits an estimated 190 kg of carbon dioxide into the air, which is the equivalent of driving 756 km in a car. Burial has its hazards too — apart from an indefinite use of land, it involves embalming a corpse in toxic solutions, which could be harmful to the soil. Burials and cremations are expensive, and not many can afford them. In the US, on average, traditional funerals cost $7,000 to $10,000. Therefore, human composting costs around $5,500 including the laying-in ceremony, and uses much less energy than cremation has emerged as a viable option. The soil produced through this procedure can be used for gardening or can be spread in designated memorial grounds or forest conservation areas. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana: It is an insurance service scheme for farmers for their yields which aims to reduce the premium burden on farmers and ensure early settlement of crop assurance claims for the full insured sum. It is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Suhelwa wildlife sanctuary is located in Uttarakhand Uttar Pradesh Jharkhand Andhra Pradesh Q.3) State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2021-22 recently released by Ministry of Power Ministry of New and Renewable Energy NITI Aayog Bureau of Indian Standards Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

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[Results, Question Paper, Solutions] IASbaba’s All India Open Mock for UPSC Prelims 2023 – Mock 1

Hello Aspirants, Thank you for your tremendous response to our 1st All India Prelims Open Mock! Due to the significant rise in the number of registrations in Bangalore & Delhi, we decided to conduct the Open Mock in a School instead of IASbaba Centres.It was a good decision when we saw the turn out of students.More than 10,000 students took the test as per their preferred mode and language of choice. Many of the students have mailed to show their appreciation towards our commitment to our UPSC Aspirant Community. Some of the appreciation emails we have received! Thank you for your valuable feedback and appreciation, it motivates the entire team, it will only make us to try and work harder to bring the best possible experience to our followers! Download Question Paper & Synopsis GS / Paper 1 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Questions CSAT / Paper 2 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Questions Rank List Download GS / Paper 1 Ranklist Download CSAT / Paper 2 Ranklist We will be announcing the next mock test details in a couple of days, mark your calendar on 30th April to attend the test! All the best!

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here