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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent announcements the Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh would soon be notified as a tiger reserve. About Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary:- Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary is located nearby Anini district, Arunachal Pradesh. It has been named after the Dibang River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River. It occupies part of the Eastern Himalayas. Flora: the two main categories of vegetation are temperate broad-leaved forest and temperate conifer forest (Rhododendron, Bamboo, Gregaria, Tsuga etc). Alpine vegetation occurs at higher altitudes with herbs, stunted trees and dwarf bushes. Fauna: Mishmi takin, Asiatic black bear, tigers, gongshan muntjac, red panda, red goral and musk deer. About Idu Mishmis:- It is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet. They primarily live in Mishmi Hills, bordering Tibet. They are believed to have migrated from the Mongoloid race. Mongoloid race: belong to the Tibeto-Burman family. Their language (also called Idu Mishmi) is considered endangered by UNESCO. They follow a strict belief system of myths and taboos like ‘iyu-ena’. Iyu-ena: restrict them from hunting many animals, including a complete prohibition on killing tigers. MUST READ: Wildlife Conservation in Arunachal Pradesh SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Q.2) Consider the following statements? (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the forest rights act 2006 For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Parambikulam Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Kerala High Court ordered the translocation of Arikompan to Parambikulam Tiger Reserve. About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: View of Small carnivores of Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, southern Western Ghats, India | Journal of Threatened Taxa Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is located in the Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, South India.  It includes the former Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary, which was established in part in 1973 and 1984. It stood 7th in the country in terms of Management Effectiveness in the 2018 Assessment (among 50 Tiger Reserves in the country). The area was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2010.  A total extent of 643.66 sq km, out of which an extent of 390.89 km2 has been declared as the core or critical tiger habitat and 252.77 km2 as the buffer zone of the Tiger Reserve. Parambikulam is a well-protected part of the Nelliampathy – Anamalai sub-unit of the Western Ghat. Nelliampathy: Anamalai sub-unit of the Western Ghats. Habitat: evergreen forests, moist and dry deciduous forests and grasslands.  Other unique habitats like montane grasslands and marshy grasslands (locally known as ‘vayals’) are extensively found.  Parambikulam has one of the highest densities of the Gaur population in Southern India. It is also home to four different tribes of indigenous peoples, including the Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar, settled in six colonies.  The only South Indian wild goat, the Nilgiri Tahr is also found MUST READ:  Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Rare earth elements(REE) Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, large deposits of 15 rare earth elements (REE) were recently found in Andhra Pradesh’s Anantapur district. About Rare earth elements (REE):- IMAGE SOURCE: imgurl:https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/12/Rare_Earth_Elements-300×232.jpg?is-pending-load=1 – Bing Rare earth elements are a set of seventeen metallic elements in the periodic table. The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y). They are characterized by high density, high melting point, high conductivity, and high thermal conductance. They do not occur in a free state rather are found in mineral oxide ores. They occur abundantly but are often not concentrated enough to undertake viable extraction. Uses of Rare earth elements:- They are widely used in high technology owing to their luminescent and catalytic properties. Neodymium, is a critical component for permanent. Aerospace and Defence: it is used in precision-guided munitions in missiles, high-power sonar on ships and submarines, stealth helicopters, etc. Health care: are used in medical imaging devices, such as MRIs, and modern surgical machines. Clean Energy: is used in wind turbines, electric car batteries and energy-efficient lights (LEDs and CFLs). Nuclear Energy: these are useful for controlling nuclear reactions and are used in control rods. Electronics: Used as phosphors in cathode ray tubes, fluorescent lamps and X-ray intensifying screens. Chemicals, Oil Refining, and manufacturing: Make the refining of crude oil into gasoline more efficient and are used in many speciality metal alloys. Europium is necessary for LED bulbs and colour television screens.  Samarium is used in optical lasers. India’s situation:- India is almost 100% import-dependent for most rare earth. However, India possesses the 5th highest reserves of rare earth in the world In India, rare earth minerals like ilmenite, sillimanite, garnet, zircon, monazite, and rutile, collectively are found and these are called Beach Sand Minerals (BSM). Monazite is the principal source. It is mainly found in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, West Bengal, and Jharkhand. International situation:- IMAGE SOURCE: World map showing reserves of rare earth metals, vital to the… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) China holds the leading position among producers of rare earth oxides. Other major producers are Myanmar, Australia, the USA, Russia and Malaysia. Concentrated/partially-processed intermediate products are further processed at many locations in Europe, the USA, Japan and China. MUST READ: Deep-sea Mining for Building EV Batteries SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only National Pension System (NPS) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recent reports stated that the total enrolments under various schemes of the National Pension System (NPS) and Atal Pension Yojana (APY) have crossed one crore 35 lakh margin during the Financial Year 2022-23. About National Pension System (NPS):- IMAGE SOURCE: NPS: National Pension Schemes Eligibility, Types, Calculator (paisabazaar.com) National Pension System (NPS) is a government-sponsored pension scheme. It was launched in 2004 for government employees.  However, in 2009, it was opened to all sections. Implementation Agency: it is being implemented and regulated by PFRDA. PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority) – a statutory body established by PFRDA Act, 2013. Eligibility:- Any Indian citizen (Both Resident and Non-Resident) between 18 and 60 years can join NPS. The only condition is that the person must comply with know your customer (KYC) norms. However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs) are not eligible for opening of NPS account. About Atal Pension Yojana (APY):- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old-age income security scheme for all savings account holders between the age group 18-40 years. The scheme also addresses the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganized sector and encourages the workers to voluntarily save for their retirement. Under APY, the individual subscribers shall have the option to make the contribution on a monthly basis.  Banks will be collecting  additional amounts for delayed payments, such amount will vary from a minimum of Rs. 1 per month to Rs 10/- per month as shown below: 1 per month for contributions up to Rs. 100 per month. 2 per month for contributions up to Rs. 101 to 500/- per month. 5 per month for contributions between Rs 501/- to 1000/- per month. 10 per month for contributions beyond Rs 1001/- per month. Discontinuation of payments of contribution amount shall lead to the following:- After 6 months account will be frozen. After 12 months account will be deactivated. After 24 months account will be closed. Upon exit on attaining 60 years The subscriber shall receive the following three benefits on attaining the age of 60: Guaranteed minimum pension amount: Each subscriber under APY shall receive a  guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1000 per month or Rs. 2000 per month or Rs. 3000 per month or Rs. 4000 per month or Rs. 5000 per month, after the age of 60 years until death. Guaranteed minimum pension amount to the spouse: After the subscriber’s demise, the spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as that of the subscriber, until the death of the spouse. Return of the pension wealth to the nominee of the subscriber: After the demise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the nominee of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the pension wealth, as accumulated till age 60 years of the subscriber. The contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS) under section 80CCD(1). Voluntary exit (Exit before 60 Years of age): – The subscriber shall only be refunded the contributions made by him to APY along with the net actual accrued income earned on his contributions (after deducting the account maintenance charges). Exception: In the case of subscribers who joined the scheme before 31st March 2016 and received Government Co-Contribution shall not receive the Government co-contribution and the accrued income earned on the same, if opted for Voluntary exit before 60 years. Age of joining and contribution period The minimum age for joining APY is 18 years and the maximum age is 40 years. The age of exit and start of pension would be 60 years. Exclusions:- Tax Payers will not be eligible to join APY from 1 Oct 2022. Members of the statutory social security scheme are not eligible under this scheme. Members enrolled in statutory social security schemes like:- Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952. The Coal Mines Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1948. Assam Tea Plantation Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision, 1955. Seamens’ Provident Fund Act, 1966. Jammu Kashmir Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1961. Any other statutory social security scheme. MUST READ: National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Budget Session Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Budget Session, 2023 of Parliament which commenced recently, has been adjourned sine die. About the sessions of parliament:- A session of the Parliament is the period during which a House meets almost every day uninterruptedly to manage the business. Summoning of the Parliament:- The President from time to time summons each House of the Parliament to meet as per Article 85.  But the maximum gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot be more than six months. The Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of a session is completed. Types of sessions:- There are usually three sessions in a year. Budget Session Monsoon Session Winter Session Budget Session:- The budget session takes place from February to May every year. The Budget is generally presented on the last working day of the month of February. In this session, the Members of the Parliament (MP) discuss the various provisions of the budget and matters concerning taxation, after the Finance Minister presents the budget. The budget session is usually split into two periods with a gap of one month between them. The session starts with the President’s Address to both Houses. Monsoon Session:- The monsoon session takes place from July to September every year In this session, matters of public interest are to be discussed. Winter Session:- The winter session takes place from mid-November to mid-December every year. It is the shortest session of all the sessions.  It discusses the matters that could not be considered upon earlier and makes up for the absence of legislative business during the second session of the Parliament. Adjournment:- Adjournment terminates the sitting of the House which meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting. The postponement may be for a specified time such as hours, days or weeks.  If the meeting is terminated without any definite time/ date fixed for the next meeting, it is called Adjournment sine die. Prorogation:- Prorogation is the end of a session.  The time between the Prorogation and reassembly is called Recess.  Prorogation is the end of the session and not the dissolution of the house. Quorum:- Quorum refers to the minimum number of members required to be present for conducting a meeting of the house. The Constitution has fixed one-tenth strength as a quorum for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.  Thus, to conduct a sitting of Lok Sabha, there should be at least 55 members present while to conduct a sitting of Rajya Sabha, there should be at least 25 members present. Joint Session/Sitting of Parliament:- Article 108 of the Constitution of India deals with the joint sitting of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is could have taken place under any one of the following three: if the bill is rejected other House if the Houses finally disagreed on the amendments made to the bill if more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it In order to break any deadlock, the President can summon both Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. Such session is presided over by the Speaker, and in his/her absence, by the Deputy Speaker.  If both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent then, it is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If any of the above is not present, any other member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of both Houses. Money Bill and Constitution Amendment Bill are the exceptions to Joint Sittings because there are no provisions for Joint Sittings of Parliament for these bills. MUST READ: Parliamentary Committees and Joint Parliamentary Committee SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Finland joined North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO). About North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO):- IMAGE SOURCE: NATO members – Answers (mapsofworld.com) NATO is a Western defensive military alliance led by the United States. The NATO headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium. The headquarters of Allied Command Operations is near Mons, Belgium. India is not a member. Background:- It came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts in Europe. Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty on April 4, 1949. After the collapse of the USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of the Soviet Union joined NATO. It has 30 Members:-  Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, the United States, Greece, Turkey, Germany, Spain, Czechia, Hungary, Poland, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Albania, Croatia, Montenegro, and North Macedonia Core duties:- It follows the collective defence principles and routinely undertakes exercises to strengthen its territorial, naval, and air forces. NATO members also arm themselves to face evolving methods of attacks like cybercrimes. They also have participated in military operations in Bosnia and Herzegovina, Kosova, Afghanistan, Iraq, Libya and Syria, among others. MUST READ: India’s NATO Engagement SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?(2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2014) Denmark Japan Russian Federation United Kingdom United States of America Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 5 UN Statistical Commission Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, India has been elected to the UN Statistical Commission for a four-year term. About UN Statistical Commission:- The United Nations Statistical Commission was established in 1947. Headquarters: New York It is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world. It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international levels. The Statistical Commission oversees the work of the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), and it is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council. Sessions: The 54th session of the United Nations Statistical Commission was held on 28 February – 3 March 2023. Mandate:- The Statistical Commission was established by the Economic and Social Council. Commission shall assist the Council:- In promoting the development of national statistics and the improvement of their comparability; In the coordination of the statistical work of specialized agencies; In the development of the central statistical services of the Secretariat Membership:- The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council on the basis of an equitable geographical distribution according to the following pattern: Five members from African States Four members from Asia-Pacific States Four members from Eastern European States Four members from Latin American and Caribbean States Seven members from Western European and other States The term of office of members is four years. India is a member. MUST READ: U.N. Peacekeeping Forces SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the US Centers for Disease Control flagged Indian eye drop for death, and blindness caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. About Pseudomonas aeruginosa:- Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an aerobic microorganism. It is a motile, Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria distributed throughout different habitats in the world. Industrial applications:- The bacterium also has several industrial applications where it is cultivated for the production of primary and secondary metabolites. These are also used as agents of biosurfactants for environmental cleanup, restoration, and remediation. Disease caused by P. aeruginosa:- Pneumonia Pneumonia caused by P. aeruginosa is often hospital-acquired with the common source being contaminated bronchoscopes. The common clinical symptoms associated with this infection include fever and chills and difficulty in breathing. Sepsis/ Bacteremia:- The Sepsis is indicated by irregular alterations of the cardiac dynamics, which ultimately leads to decreased cardiac output, metabolic acidosis, and even multiorgan failure. Urinary tract infection Urinary tract infection by P. aeruginosa has also been observed in some patients that use external medical devices or during dialysis. The source of urinary tract infection by P. aeruginosa is the entry of the organism from the skin. MUST READ: Zombie Virus SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Judicial pendency in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: As per the India Justice Report 2022, as of December 2022, against a sanctioned strength of 1,108 judges, the High Courts were functioning with only 778 judges leading to huge pending of cases in the judiciary. Statistics related to pendency in Indian Judiciary: Source:      National Judicial Data Grid Reasons for judicial pendency: Government – the biggest litigant: The Centre and state governments are party to 46% of the pending cases. Thus, a simple negative list which identifies instances in which government and its agencies are barred from going to court would be helpful to avoid futile litigation. Judge strength: As of 2021, India had 21.03 judges per million people compared to the UK with 51 and the US with 107 judges per million. Hence India needs more judges for speedy justice delivery. The 120th Law Commission of India report has suggested a judge strength fixation formula. India should utilize its most experienced judges since present retirement age (62 for HC judges and 65 for SC judges in contrast with 75 in UK or Canada) was fixed when life expectancy was lower. Judicial appointments: The tussle between the executive and the judiciary over judicial appointments must be resolved on a war footing. The collegium system of judges appointing other judges should be replaced with a more viable scheme. The Constitution of the All-India Judicial Services can also help India establish a better judicial system. Administrative burden: The Indian judges spend majority time in scheduling hearings, deciding admission, etc., unlike in developed countries where administrative tasks of courts are supported by an external agency. India can emulate the same with a separate professional agency with administrative expertise, specialization, and modern management practices and technologies. The Union government had suggested Indian Courts and Tribunal Services (ICTS) – an authority charged with supervising and fulfilling the administrative requirements of the courts. Frivolous litigation: Certain categories of cases such as dishonouring of cheques or landlord-tenant disputes are voluminous and clog the system. Thus, rules should be established for disincentivizing such litigations by imposing exceptionally heavy costs on losing party. This would lead to several frivolous disputes settled out of court. Poor judicial infrastructure: For example, many court complexes operate from rented premises. Ex CJI N V Ramana has remarked that a National Judicial Infrastructure Corporation (NJIC) should be created for the standardization and improvement of judicial infrastructure. Technology constraints: Certain categories of cases can be moved permanently to an online disposal system, similar to online hearings during Covid-19 lockdown. The computer algorithms could also be used to manage the roster, thus eliminating bias. Issue of undertrials: Around 76% of prisoners in Indian jails are undertrials, i.e., three out of four prisoners are not even convicted. The SC recently directed the government to consider the introduction of Indian Bail Act to streamline the grant of bails, as done in various other countries like the UK. Frequent adjournments: A norm needs to be formed that once a date is fixed no adjournment should be possible unless the side that requests it is willing to pay the other side’s legal costs along with a substantial penalty. Poor management practices: The system of long vacations for courts is a colonial practice that should be done away for optimum justice delivery owing high pendency in courts today. Former CJI Lodha has recommended that instead of all the judges going on vacation at one time, individual judges should take their leave at different times through the year. It will ensure that the courts are constantly open and there are always benches present to hear cases. Low number of Special courts: Special Courts can be established on specialised areas such as commercial cases can be transferred to the commercial division and the commercial appellate division of High Courts. Similarly, Special Courts within High Courts can be set up to address litigations pertaining to land, crime, traffic challans etc., in order to reduce the burden on main courts. Less budgetary allocation: The budget allocated to the judiciary is between 0.08 and 0.09 per cent of the GDP. Only four countries — Japan, Norway, Australia and Iceland — have a lesser budget allocation and they do not have problems of pendency like India. Suggestive measures: Speedy appointment of judges: By not appointing judges, the government is depriving common persons of justice. Justice delayed is justice denied. There is urgent need to improve the judge-to-population ratio to reduce the workload of judges. Guidelines by Union government: Centre had suggested measures like increasing the number of working days of courts, establishment of fast track courts and Indian Courts and Tribunal Services (ICTs) to increase the productivity of the court system. E-platforms: Improve judicial infrastructure through the use of e-platforms and setting up of more courts. India has launched the e-Courts National portal ecourts.gov.in of the eCourts Project. Strengthen the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism: It uses the modes like Arbitration, Mediation and Conciliation. It uses a neutral third party who helps the parties to communicate, discuss the differences and resolve the dispute. It offers to resolve all types of matters related to civil disputes, as explicitly provided by the law. Counselling: Disputes can be settled at the pre-litigation stage through counselling. Lok Adalat: Voluntary agencies like Lok Adalats (People’s Courts) are an interesting feature of the Indian legal system. It is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms. Source:   The Hindu Need for robust Cybersecurity in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Internal Security) Context: The spyware maker Cognyte, often billed as an alternative to Pegasus, has been selling tech gear to the Signal Intelligence Directorate which comes under the Ministry of Defence. The firm in question is Cognyte Software Ltd, which faces a class action lawsuit in the U.S. from investors. About Cybersecurity: Cybersecurity or information technology security are the techniques of protecting computers, networks, programs, and data from unauthorized access or attacks that are aimed for exploitation. Cyber security is concerned with making cyberspace safe from threats, namely cyber-threats. Significance of Cybersecurity: The concept of cybersecurity can be applied in various contexts, from general business operations to firewall technologies, but it can be divided into a few general categories. Information security – to protect and secure the privacy and integrity of data at rest or at movement. Network security – to secure a computer network from bad actors that might be a targeted attack or malicious malware. Operational security – to create and maintain the processes, procedures and decision making for treatment and protecting data assets. Application security – to concentrate on maintaining the safety of software and devices clear of threats. Business continuity and disaster recovery – to decide how an organization responds to a cybersecurity incident or breach of data. These are the policies and procedures that dictate how the organization re-establishes control of its operations and information to the same level prior to the event because resources may be lacking post event. Risk Management – to manage organizational risk in the company’s information security program itself, which offers an operative framework for setting the risk appetite and security controls for systems. Security Awareness training – to address the education of people who often cause security vulnerabilities based on their actions or lack thereof. People can unintentionally introduce a virus or malware to an otherwise secure system if they are not knowledgeable of security best practices, such as deleting suspicious attachments in emails, refrain from inserting unidentified USB drives, etc. Reasons for increasing cyber-attacks: Increasing dependency on technology: As we grow faster, more and more systems are being shifted to virtual space to promote access and ease of use. Lack of robust law enforcement mechanisms: India’s approach to cyber security has so far been ad hoc and unsystematic. Lack of International Coordination: International cooperation and consensus is missing in this field. Adverse relations with China: China is considered one of the world leaders in information technology. Therefore, it is expected to have capabilities to disable or partially interrupt the information technology services in another country. Challenges in Ensuring Cyber Security: Widespread digital illiteracy Use of Substandard devices Rampant use of unlicensed software and underpaid licenses also make them vulnerable. Lack of adoption of new technology Lack of uniform standards Import dependence Lack of adequate infrastructure and trained staff Anonymity Lack of coordination among various agencies working for cyber security Government of India Initiatives: The Government of India (GoI) has taken several technical, institutional, and legislative steps to tackle issues related to cybersecurity, including the National Cyber Security Policy (2013) and enactment of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) was founded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) as the national bureau for event response, including evaluation, prediction and alerts for cybersecurity breaches. The Cyber Swachhta Kendra (Botnet Cleaning and Malware Analysis Centre) (CSK), a constituent of the Digital India initiative of the GoI under MeitY, works to create a secure cyberspace by identifying botnets. Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) deals with issues relating to Cyber Crime, Cyber Security, National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) and National Information Security Policy & Guidelines (NISPG). Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children (CCPWC) Scheme is established by MHA to give the states/UTs financial support of USD 11.99 million for the establishment of cyber forensic-cum-training laboratories. National Cyber Coordination Centre (NCCC) and National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) are some other initiatives undertaken by the government concerning cybersecurity. Way Forward: Thus, the governments, both at the state and central level as well as policymakers need to play an active role in spreading awareness and training individuals. A large part of India’s population is digitally literate but unaware about basic security measures. With the introduction of 5G and the arrival of quantum computing, the potency of malicious software, and avenues for digital security breaches would only increase. India’s cybersecurity strategy would do well not to overlook these actualities and trends. The G-20 summit this year in India is a rare opportunity to bring together domestic and international engagement groups across the spectrum, and steer the direction of these consultations. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the UN Statistical Commission: It is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world. It is headquartered at London India is a member of the commission Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: The United Kingdom Russia Ukraine France Finland Which of the above are members of North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)? 1 3 and 4 only 1 4 and 5 only 2 3 and 5 only 1 2 and 5 only Q.3) Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is in Karnataka Tamil Nadu Goa Kerala Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th April- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 29] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 29->Click Here

मासिक पत्रिका जनवरी 2023 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is जनवरी/January 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of जनवरी/January 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - जनवरी/January 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Judiciary in India Digitalization Self-Reliance in Defense National Green Hydrogen Mission Natural Farming Digital Economy World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2023 UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra India-Egypt Relations And Much More.... Download The Magazine - जनवरी/January 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) World Energy Transitions Outlook report Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports have suggested that the global energy transition has made progress but it falls short of the 1.5°C pathway. About World Energy Transitions Outlook report:- It is taken out by International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). The World Energy Transitions Outlook outlines a vision for the transition of the energy landscape to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement. It presents a pathway for limiting global temperature rise to within 1.5°C of pre-industrial levels and bringing CO2 emissions to net zero by mid-century. It outlook charts an evolving pathway to achieving a climate-safe future in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement.  Its 1.5°C pathway offers a roadmap for accelerating the global energy transition by positioning electrification and efficiency as key drivers of change, backed by renewables, hydrogen and sustainable biomass. This Preview presents high-level insights from the forthcoming 2023 report, which builds on two of IRENA’s key scenarios to capture global progress toward meeting the 1.5°C climate goal: the Planned Energy Scenario (PES) and the 1.5°C Scenario. International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA):-  It is an intergovernmental organisation. It was officially founded in Bonn, Germany, in 2009. It has 167 members and India is the 77th Founding Member of IRENA. It has its headquarters in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates. MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India Justice Report 2022 Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, in the India Justice Report (IJR) 2022 the State of Karnataka has achieved the top rank. About India Justice Report 2022:- It was initiated by Tata Trusts in 2019. This is the third edition. The foundation’s partners include the Centre for Social Justice, Common Cause, Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative, DAKSH, TISS-Prayas, Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy and How India Lives, IJR’s data partner. This report is based on overall data of 4 pillars of justice delivery namely Police, Judiciary, Prisons, and Legal Aid. It also separately assesses the capacity of the 25 State Human Rights Commissions in the country. Findings of the report:- Few number of judges: High courts: As of December 2022, against a sanctioned strength of 1,108 judges, the High Courts were functioning with only 778 judges. Subordinate courts: The subordinate courts were found functioning with 19,288 judges against a sanctioned strength of 24,631 judges. Rising pendency: The number of cases pending per judge is rising in most States over the past five years. At High Court level: Uttar Pradesh has the highest average pendency – cases remain pending for an average of 11.34 years, West Bengal for 9.9 years. The lowest average High Court pendency is in Tripura (1 year), Sikkim (1.9 years) and Meghalaya (2.1 years). Number of cases per judge: The number of cases a judge has to deal with has steadily increased. Between 2018 and 2022, the caseload per judge increased in 22 States and Union Territories. Case clearance rate: The case clearance rate (CCR), or the number of cases disposed of in a year measured against the number filed in that year, is a common metric used to determine the rate at which cases are disposed of. The report found that the High Courts are clearing more cases annually than the subordinate courts. Between 2018-19 and 2022, the national average improved by six percentage points (88.5% to 94.6%) in High Courts, but declined by 3.6 points in lower courts (93% to 89.4%). Tripura is the only State where the CCR in district courts remained above 100%, with the exception of 2020 — the year of the pandemic. Number of court halls: Nationally, the number of court halls appears sufficient for the number of actual judges. However, that space will become a problem if all the sanctioned posts are filled. Caste based reservation: Though caste-based reservations vary from State to State, at the district court level, no State or Union Territory could fully meet all its Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes quotas. State-wise data on caste diversity in High Courts remains unavailable. Representation of Women: There are more women judges at the district court level than at the High Court level, with 35% of the total number of judges at the district court level and only 13% of judges in the High Courts across the country being women. Goa, with 70%, has the highest percentage of women judges at subordinate courts, followed by Meghalaya and Nagaland at 63% each. Among the High Courts, Sikkim, with a total strength of just three judges, has the highest national average at 33.3% of women judges. Bihar, Tripura, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Uttarakhand continued to have no women judges in their High Courts.   MUST READ: Judicial Accountability SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 3 only Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sodium cyanide Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recently, India has initiated an anti-dumping probe into imports of the poisonous chemical sodium cyanide from China, the European Union, Japan and Korea. About Sodium cyanide:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Chemistry of Poisons – Cyanide – Compound Interest (compoundchem.com) This sodium salt is white in colour and is soluble in water. It is one of the highly toxic salts as it has a high affinity (highly reactive) for metals. Sodium cyanide is also a moderately strong base, and when it is treated with an acid (such as sulfuric acid). It forms a highly toxic gas known as hydrogen cyanide. Sodium Cyanide Uses:- Gold Mining: In the mining industry sodium cyanide has exorbitant uses. Chemical Feedstock: Sodium cyanide helps in producing a number of commercially significant chemical compounds such as cyanogen chloride, many types of nitriles and also cyanuric chloride. Pharmaceutical industry: Nitriles are present in many chemicals which it has vast usage in the industry. Other industries:  it is used for cleaning metals. In the dye industry, the chemical is used to produce dyes. This said the chemical can also be used for producing hydrocyanic acid. In many other sectors, the chemical is used to manufacture the electroplating solution. It is also used as an agricultural chemical and farmers use it as a pesticide to kill pests that damage the crop. MUST READ: Shortcomings of Indian Chemical Industry: TIFAC and Anti-Dumping Duty SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit-ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Disaster Management Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi, underlined the need for an integrated response to disasters recently. About International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023:- It is the annual conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and its partners. International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023 is being hosted by India. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):- It is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN (United Nations) agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions. The Prime Minister of India launched CDRI during his speech at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development. Members: 30 countries and 8 organizations. The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India. It brings together member Countries, organizations, institutions and infrastructure actors and stakeholders to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilient infrastructure. The ICDRI 2023 will focus on charting these solutions and pathways to Shaping Resilient Infrastructure. It aims at delving into practices of creating risk-informed systems, resilient infrastructure assets and innovative financing to deliver infrastructure needs.  The conference will feature the progress of the Biennial Report on Global Infrastructure Resilience, the collaborative delivery mechanism of IRIS with SIDS, and the operationalization of IRAF. IRAF: multi-partner trust fund for DRI, and feature the launch of the DRI Academic Network and Partnership. Objectives of ICDRI 2023 are:- To provide a platform for Member Countries to engage and contribute to DRI solution pathways. To bring together infrastructure actors for building partnerships, knowledge sharing and fostering complementarity on DRI solutions. To convene DRI stakeholders for enhanced collective action on infrastructure resilience. Thematic Focus:- Pillar 1: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure  Inclusive and Risk-Informed Systems Pillar 2: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure  Providing Reliable Services through Resilient Infrastructure Assets Pillar 3: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure Realising Finance and Investments for Infrastructure Resilience MUST READ: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rescued black panther was released in Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary. About Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Erasing the dots (downtoearth.org.in) It is located in South Eastern Goa. Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest sanctuary in Goa and probably the most bio-diverse. It constitutes one of the vital corridors of the Western Ghats. Netravali or Neturli is an important tributary of River Zuari, which originates in the sanctuary. It has two important waterfalls namely, Savari and Mainapi. It has some of the finest yet relatively unexplored forests in the state. The typical forest here is mixed deciduous to semi-evergreen with a good network of streams and tabletop grasslands. Fauna: Leopard, Giant Squirrel, Mouse Deer, Nilgiri Wood Pigeon and Ceylon Frogmouth. MUST READ: Panther SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2018) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Avalanche Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, an avalanche struck Sikkim’s capital Gangtok. About Avalanche:- It is a mass of snow, rock, ice, soil, and other material sliding swiftly down a mountainside. Avalanches of rocks or soil are often called landslides. Snow slides are the most common kind of avalanche. It can sweep downhill faster than the fastest skier. A snow avalanche begins when an unstable mass of snow breaks away from a slope. It occurs as layers in a snowpack slide off. A snowpack is simply layers of snow that build up in an area, such as the side of a mountain. There are two main types of snow avalanches: Sluff avalanches: occur when the weak layer of a snowpack is on top. A sluff: is a small slide of dry, powdery snow that moves as a formless mass. Sluffs are much less dangerous than slab avalanches. A slab avalanche occurs when the weak layer lies lower down in a snowpack.  About important passes in Sikkim:- IMAGE SOURCE: important passes in Sikkim upsc – Bing images Nathu La (Pass)-Nathu La It is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region. Nathu means “listening ears” and La means “pass” in Tibetan. Jalep La (Pass)-Jelep La or Jelep Pass It is at an elevation of 4,267 m or 13,999 ft. It is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India, and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India. MUST READ: Snow and Avalanche Study Establishment (SASE) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: (2017) The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries of Brahmaputra? (2016) Dibang Kameng Lohit Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ladakh's Wood Carving Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, the Prime Minister expressed happiness about GI Tag for Ladakh’s Wood Carving. About Ladakh’s Wood Carving:- Ladakh’s wood carving has been known for its intricate designs and unique patterns.  The designs and unique patterns, are mostly inspired by Buddhist themes and motifs. The wood carvings are made from local wood such as willow and apricot.  They are often used for decorating doors, windows, and other household items. The unique form of wood carving which has received a GI tag is concentrated in the Wanla and Cjoglamasar districts of Leh. The craft has a distinct cultural and religious influence. MUST READ: India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                      Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls      Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery        Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2019) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North East India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India Babu Jagjivan Ram Syllabus Prelims –Modern Indian History Context: Recently, the 116th birth anniversary of Babu Jagjivan Ram was celebrated. About Babu Jagjivan Ram:- He was a national leader, a freedom fighter, a social justice crusader, a champion of the depressed classes, and an outstanding Parliamentarian. In 1925, Jagjivan Ram met scholar Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya and was greatly inspired by him. On Malaviya’s invitation, he joined the Banaras Hindu University.  He organized a number of Ravidas Sammelans and celebrated Guru Ravidas Jayanti in different areas of Calcutta (Kolkata). In 1931, he became a member of the Indian National Congress (Congress Party). He was instrumental in the foundation of the All India Depressed Classes League. All India Depressed Classes League: an organisation dedicated to attaining equality for untouchables, in 1934-35. He was a champion of social equality and equal rights for the Depressed Classes. In 1935, he proposed at a session of the Hindu Mahasabha that drinking water wells and temples be open to untouchables. In 1935, Babuji also appeared before the Hammond Commission at Ranchi and demanded, for the first time, voting rights for the Dalits. He was jailed twice in the early 1940s for his political activities associated with the Quit India movement against British rule. When Jawaharlal Nehru formed the provisional government, Jagjivan Ram became its youngest minister. After independence he held the labour portfolio until 1952. He served in Nehru’s cabinet in the posts of minister for communications (1952–56), transport and railways (1956–62), and transport and communications (1962–63). He served as minister for food and agriculture (1967–70). In 1970 he was made minister of defence. He later served as the Deputy Prime Minister of India (1977–79). Jagjivan Ram was a member of the Parliament uninterrupted from 1936 to 1986 (40 years) and this is a world record. He also holds another record for being the longest-serving cabinet minister in India (30 years). His memorial at his cremation place is named Samta Sthal (Place of Equality). MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Lokpal Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Lokpal of India the country’s first anti-corruption body instituted four years ago to investigate complaints against public functionaries , recently submitted to a parliamentary panel that “it has not prosecuted even a single person accused of graft till date.” Key highlights of the report: According to data provided by the Lokpal office to a parliamentary panel on the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), since 2019-20, the anti-corruption body received 8,703 complaints. Out of them, 5,981 complaints were disposed of. As many as 6,775 complaints were rejected for not being in the correct format. The office informed that only three complaints were fully investigated, and 36 complaints were at a preliminary stage. In 2022-23, as many as 2,760 complaints were received, out of which only 242 were in the prescribed format. The Parliamentary committee recommends Lokpal not to reject genuine complaints merely on the technical ground that the complaint is not in the prescribed format. About Lokpal: The word “Lokpal” is derived from the Sanskrit word “loka” meaning people and “pala” meaning protector or caretaker. Together it means “protector of people”. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States. The Act states that not less than 50% of the members of the Lokpal should be from among persons belonging to the SCs, the STs, OBCs, minorities and women. Lokpal is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by Prime Minister which includes the Chief Justice of India, Speaker, Lok Sabha and Leader of Opposition, Lok Sabha and an eminent Jurist as its member. Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court. These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016 was passed by Parliament in July 2016 and amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013. It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a member of the selection committee in the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition. Powers of the Lokpal It has the powers to superintendence over, and to give direction to CBI and its officers. The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016 also incorporates provisions for attachment and confiscation of property acquired by corrupt means, even while the prosecution is pending. Lokpal has the power to recommend transfer or suspension of public servants connected with allegations of corruption. Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry. Need for Lokpal Lack of Independence: Most of our agencies like CBI, state vigilance departments, internal vigilance wings of various departments, Anti-corruption Branch of state police etc are not independent. Powerless: Some bodies like CVC or Lokayuktas are independent, but they do not have any powers. They have been made advisory bodies. They give two kinds of advice to the governments: to either impose departmental penalties on any officer or to prosecute him in court. Lack of Transparency and internal accountability: In addition, there is the problem of internal transparency and accountability of these anti-corruption agencies. Presently, there is not any separate and effective mechanism to check if the staff of these anti-corruption agencies turns corrupt. Challenges: Political Influence: The appointing committee of Lokpal consists of members from political parties that put Lokpal under political influence. Judiciary excluded: One of the biggest lacunae is the exclusion of the judiciary from the ambit of the Lokpal. No criteria to decide eminent Jurist: There are no criteria to decide who is an ‘eminent jurist’ or ‘a person of integrity’ which manipulates the method of the appointment of Lokpal. No proper immunity to Whistle Blowers: The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 failed to provide any kind of concrete immunity to the whistleblowers. No provisions of appeal: There are no adequate provisions for appeal against the actions of Lokpal. No constitutional backing: The Lokpal does not have any constitutional backing. Way Forward: The institution of ombudsman must be strengthened in respect of functional autonomy and workforce availability to fight against corruption. The appointment of Lokpal is not the real solution to problems; instead the government should focus on eliminating the root causes because of which the general public is demanding a Lokpal. There should be complete transparency when nominating a Lokpal and Lokayukta as it will increase the chances for the right person to be appointed. At this juncture when India is heading the G20 Anti-Corruption Working group, Lokpal should rise to the occasion and make every effort to strengthen the anti-corruption landscape in the country. Source:  The Hindu Mental Illness : A Serious Concern for India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently a new study conducted by Journal of Health Management, on the burden of mental illness highlighted expenditure on treatment of mental illness pushes 20% Indian households into poverty. Key findings of the study: 20 % of Indian households become poor as a result of spending money on the treatment of mental illnesses. India’s national average healthcare burden due to mental illness is 10.4 %. States and UTs with a higher burden: Daman and Diu (19.4 %), Himachal Pradesh (18.0 %), Sikkim (17.4 %), Lakshadweep (14.6 %), Maharashtra (13.7 %), Telangana (13.3 %), Punjab (12.7 %) and Uttarakhand (12.5 %). States and UTs with a lower burden: Mizoram (0.5 %), Andaman and Nicobar Islands (1.2 %), Puducherry (1.7 %), Dadra and Nagar Haveli (2.0 %), Arunachal Pradesh (3.0 %) and Nagaland (3.5 %). Majority of people in low- and middle-income countries with mental illness do not receive healthcare, leading to chronicity, suffering, and increased costs of care. OOPE, CHE, and Poverty: Study estimated the out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE), catastrophic health expenditure (CHE), and poverty impact due to mental illness in India. OOPE usually refers to expenses that one has to pay for with their own money rather than an alternative source. CHE is money spent on healthcare that exceeds some specified critical level of tolerance or threshold from the household total income in a given specified period. Those aged 60 years and above reported the highest OOPE on mental illness in the last 365 days across all age groups. 5 % and 32.5 % of the households were exposed to CHE based on 10 % and 20 % thresholds. 20 % of households forced into poverty due to expenses on mental illness treatment were rural (22.5 %) as compared to urban (17 %). About Mental Health and illness Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. It is an integral component of health and well-being that underpins our individual and collective abilities to make decisions, build relationships and shape the world we live in. Mental health is a basic human right. It is crucial to personal, community and socio-economic development. World Mental Health Day is observed on 10th October every year The term ‘mental disorders’ is used to denote a range of mental, behavioral disorders and psychosocial disabilities. They are generally characterised by a combination of abnormal thoughts, perceptions, emotions, behaviour and relationships with others. Mental Disorders include depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia and other psychoses, dementia, and developmental disorders including autism. Determinants of Mental Health: Multiple social, psychological, and biological factors determine the level of mental health of a person at any point of time. For example, violence and persistent socio-economic pressures are recognized risks to mental health. The clearest evidence is associated with sexual violence. Poor mental health is also associated with: rapid social change, stressful work conditions, gender discrimination, social exclusion, unhealthy lifestyle, physical ill-health and human rights violations. There are specific psychological and personality factors that make people vulnerable to mental health problems. Biological risks include genetic factors. Issues and Concerns: Mental health problems have been growing rapidly over the last few decades. In 2015, the GOI carried out a National Mental Health Survey — 2015-16 to assess the prevalence of mental health in the country. The report showed mental disorders at 10.6 per cent among above 18-year-olds, 16 per cent among the productive age group of 30-49-year-olds — and lifetime morbidity affecting 150 million people with one per cent reporting high suicidal risk. The human resources and treatment facilities are woefully low. For policymakers, mental health is a low priority. Such poor policy attention is often ascribed to indifference among bureaucrats and politicians. Designing a policy is the most challenging piece of policy-making. Government of India Initiatives: Constitutional Provision: The Supreme Court has held healthcare to be a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. National Mental Health Program (NMHP): To address the huge burden of mental disorders and shortage of qualified professionals in the field of mental health, the government has been implementing the National Mental Health Program (NMHP) since 1982. The Program was re-strategized in 2003 to include two schemes, viz. Modernization of State Mental Hospitals and Up-gradation of Psychiatric Wings of Medical Colleges/General Hospitals. Mental HealthCare Act 2017: It guarantees every affected person access to mental healthcare and treatment from services run or funded by the government. It has significantly reduced the scope for the use of Section 309 IPC and made the attempt to commit suicide punishable only as an exception. Kiran Helpline: In 2020, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched a 24/7 toll-free helpline ‘Kiran’ to provide support to people facing anxiety, stress, depression, suicidal thoughts and other mental health concerns. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2017: The Act acknowledges mental illness as a disability and seeks to enhance the Rights and Entitlements of the Disabled and provide effective mechanism for ensuring their empowerment and inclusion in the society Mano Darpan Initiative: An initiative under Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, aims to provide psycho-social support to students for their mental health and well-being. Way Forward: To promote mental health, there is a need to create such living conditions and environment that support mental health and allow people to adopt and maintain healthy lifestyle. A society that respects and protects basic, civil, political, and cultural rights is needed to be built to promote mental health. The National mental health policies should not be solely concerned with mental disorders, but should also recognize and address the broader issues which promote mental health. This includes education, labour, justice, transport, environment, housing and health sector. Source:  DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Babu Jagjivan Ram? He was instrumental in the foundation of the All-India Depressed Classes League. He was jailed twice in the early 1940s for his political activities associated with the Quit India movement against British rule. He was the longest-serving cabinet minister in India All statements are correct Q.2) Consider the following passes: Jalep La Khardung la Nathu La Banihal pass Which of the above are located in Sikkim? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only Q.3) Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is often mentioned in the news located in Goa West Bengal Odisha Karnataka Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 28] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 28-> Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SLINEX-23 Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: Recently, the 10th edition of IN-SLN bilateral maritime exercise SLINEX-23 was scheduled to take place in Colombo. About SLINEX-23:- It is an India -Sri Lanka Bilateral Maritime Exercise. This is the 10th edition of the exercise. It is scheduled to take place in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Indian Navy is being represented by INS Kiltan. INS Kiltan: it is an indigenous Kamorta class ASW Corvette and INS Savitri: an Offshore Patrol Vessel. The Sri Lanka Navy is represented by SLNS Gajabahu and SLNS Sagara. MUST READ: India-Sri Lanka relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Jainism Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Mahavir Jayanti was celebrated recently. About Jainism:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – What is Jainism? PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:177736 (slideserve.com) The word Jain comes from the term Jina, meaning conqueror. According to Jain tradition, Mahavira was preceded by 23 Tirthankaras. The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated and even stones, rocks and water have life. According to Jain teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma and asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world.  In order to do so, Jain monks and nuns had to take the five vows. Seven Tattvas (elements) of Jain Philosophy are:- Jiva: living substance Ajiva: matter or non-living substance Asrava:  an influx of Karmic matter in the soul Bandha: bondage of soul by Karmic matter Samvara: stopping of Asrava Nirjara: gradual removal of Karmic matter Moksha: attainment of perfect freedom or salvation Spread of Jainism:- Over hundreds of years, it spread to different parts of north India and to Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Literature:- Jain scholars produced a wealth of literature in a variety of languages namely Prakrit, Sanskrit and Tamil. Jain literature is classified into two major categories Agam Literature: This consists of original scriptures compiled by Ganadhars and Srut-Chehalis. They are written in the Prakrit language. Non-Agam Literature: This consists of commentary and explanation of Agam literature and independent works, compiled by elder monks, nuns, scholars, etc. These are written in many languages such as Prakrit, Sanskrit, Old Marathi, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Tamil, German and English. About Lord Mahavira:- Mahavira was born in the village Kundgrama near Vaishali in Bihar. His father Siddhartha was the head of the jnathrika Kshatriya clan under Vajji of Vaishali His mother Trishala was the sister of Chetaka, the king of Vaishali.  Mahavira was also related to Bimbisara, the ruler of Magadha. Mahavira was married to Yashoda. He had a daughter Anonja Priyadarshini whose husband Jamali, became the first disciple of Mahavira. At the age of 30, after the death of his father, he renounced his family, became an ascetic and proceeded in search of truth.  He was accompanied by Makkhali Gosala. Makkhali Gosala, later left him and founded the Ajivika sect. At the age of 42, under a sal tree at fab Jambhikagrama on the bank of river Rijupalika, Mahavira attained Kaivalya (supreme knowledge). He was called:-  Kevalin: perfect learned  Jina or Jitendriya: one who conquered his senses Nrigrantha: free from all bonds Arhant: the blessed one Mahavira: the brave and His followers were named Jain. He delivered his first sermon at Pava to his 11 disciples. Later, he founded a Jain Sangha (Jain commune) at Pava. At the Age of 72 in 468 BC, he passed away at Pavapuri near Biharsharif in Bihar. Principles of Jainism as Preached by Mahavira:- Rejected the authority of the Vedas and Vedic rituals Did not believe in the existence of God. Believed in Karma and the transmigration of the soul Laid great emphasis on equality. MUST READ:  Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: (2022) Historical person                     Known as Aryadeva                            Jaina scholar Dignaga                              Buddhist scholar Nathamuni                        Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched? None of the pairs Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs Nagri Dubraj Rice Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, Chhattisgarh’s Nagri Dubraj rice variety, Basohli Painting of Jammu, Banarasi Paan, and Langda mango were accorded the geographical indication tag. About Nagri Dubraj Rice:- It is known as the Basmati of Chhattisgarh because of its fragrance. It is produced by a women’s self-help group “Maa Durga Swasahayata Samuh“. The grain finds reference in Valmiki Ramayana. It is an indigenous variety and has small grains, is very soft to eat after cooking. About Basohli Painting:- IMAGE SOURCE: Basohli Paintings of the Rasamanjari | Exotic India Art Basohli painting belongs to the Kathua district of Jammu. It belongs to the Pahari School of Paintings.  It has a unique style of miniature paintings that have a fusion of mythology and traditional folk art. The characteristic features of these paintings were the use of bright and bold colours like red, yellow, and blue in the borders, as well as for the generally flat background. The other distinguishing part was the facial features- a prominent nose and lotus-shaped eyes. The female figures can be categorised into three types according to their attire. About Banarasi Paan:- It is made in Banaras, UP. It is known for its delicious taste. It is made using special ingredients in a unique way. It is an exotic combination of areca nuts, catechu (kattha) of fresh betel leaf, tobacco, and slaked lime. Other ingredients like rose petals (gulkand), silver foil (Parekh) etc. are added to it. About Langda mango:- Langra aam is believed to have originated in Banaras (now Varanasi). It maintains its green colour after it gets ripe, while other mangoes change into yellow-reddish colour. This pulpy fruit is cultivated in mid-season in states including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Punjab, West Bengal and Rajasthan About GI Tag:- It is used for products which have specific geographical origins or have qualities that can be attributed specifically to the region. The GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, of 1999. It is a part of the intellectual property rights that comes under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (2021) Sugarcane Sunflower Pearl millet Red gram Amogha-III Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the indigenous Anti Tank Guided Missile, Amogha-III tests were announced as successful. About Amogha-III:- IMAGE SOURCE: Defence Decode® on Twitter: “AMOGHA-III ATGM by India’s #BDL https://t.co/4G4fRbQQFD” / Twitter Amogha-III is an indigenous missile. It is developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). It has a fire-and-forget capability. Fire-and-forget capability: meaning it does not require external intervention after launch. The missile features dual-mode Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker systems with a range of 200 to 2500 meters. It showcases a tandem warhead, consisting of two separate explosive charges that are detonated in sequence. The first charge, known as the precursor charge, penetrates the target’s armour, creating a hole.  The second charge or the main charge then detonates inside, maximizing damage inflicted on the target. One of the unique features of the missile is it has both top and direct attack modes. MUST READ: Helina Missile SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the NFRA has pulled up a section of India Inc, including “a large listed firm”, for not complying with Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS). About The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):- It was constituted in 2018 under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is an independent regulator. It works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Objective: to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. Composition:- Chairperson: a Chartered Accountant and a person of eminence having expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance or the law (appointed by the Central Government) and a maximum of 15 members. Functions and Duties:- It recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government. It monitors and enforces compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards It oversees the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggests measures for improvement in the quality of service. Powers:- It has the same powers as the Civil Court. To debar the member/firm from practice as a member of ICAI between 6 months to 10 years as may be decided. To investigate matters of professional or other misconduct. Jurisdiction:- Companies listed in India Unlisted Companies whose: Net worth ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or Paid up Capital ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or Annual turnover ≥ Rs. 1000 crore (As on 31st March of the preceding financial year); OR Companies whose securities are listed outside India. MUST READ: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Indian Government slammed OIC for its comments on the Ram Navami violence recently. About the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):- IMAGE SOURCE: What is the Organization of the Islamic Cooperation? – Answers (mapsofworld.com) It was established upon a decision of the historical summit which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of Morocco in 1969. Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN). It has a membership of 57 states. Objectives:- It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world. It aims to promote international peace and harmony among various people of the world. India is not a member of the OIC. MUST READ: India-UAE and FTA SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the importance of developing the Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India Q.2) Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as the ‘Arab Spring’ originally started in (2014) Egypt Lebanon Syria Tunisia Direct Taxes Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Gross Direct Tax collections for the Financial Year 2022-23 registered a growth of over 20 per cent. About Direct Taxes:- A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer. It is paid directly to the government by those who are subjected to it. The Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and collecting direct taxes as well as formulating other direct tax policies. Examples of Direct Tax: Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital Gain Tax etc. Advantages of Direct Tax:- Economic Balance: The tax rate is set according to the country’s economic position. Ensures equality: Individuals and businesses with larger profits must pay higher taxes. Gives Certainty: The direct tax provides both the government and the taxpayers with a sense of certainty because the amount of tax that must be paid and collected is known to both the taxpayer and the government. During periods of high inflation, the government raises taxes in order to limit the demand for goods and services, resulting in a fall in inflation. It ensures that the government is held accountable. Disadvantages of Direct Tax:- It can be easily evaded. Taxes are set arbitrarily by the Finance Minister if they are progressive. High taxes disincentivize people from saving and investing, causing the country’s economy to suffer. Paying direct taxes is quite inconvenient. MUST READ: Tax-GDP ratio SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? (2020) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of the war of GDP of the State 2 Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Project Tiger Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Bandipur completed 50 years as Project Tiger Reserve. About Project Tiger:- The Indira Gandhi government launched Project Tiger in 1973 from the Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand. The tiger is a globally endangered species. India had a tiger population ranging from 20000 to 40000 at the turn of the twentieth century. A group of conservationists and researchers applied sustained pressure on the Indian government around 1970. As a result, the Wildlife Protection Act was drafted in 1972, effectively ending all hunting in India and legally protecting individual species. In 1973, Project Tiger was launched.  Dr. Kailash Sankhla was named the first Director of Project Tiger in India. About Bandipur Tiger Reserve:- It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger.  In 1985, by including adjacent areas from Venugopala Wildlife Park, it was enlarged and named as Bandipur National Park. It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka. It is located in the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It lies in one of the richest biodiversity areas of the country. It is surrounded by Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South-west & The Kabini Reservoir separates the Bandipur and Nagarahole Tiger Reserve on the North-west. The park is located between the Kabini River in the north and the Moyar River in the south. The Nugu River runs through the park. The highest point in the park is on a hill called Himavad Gopalaswamy Betta. MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, the such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Competition Amendment Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, Rajya Sabha passed the Competition Amendment Bill, 2023. The bill seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002 which regulates competition in the Indian market and prohibits anti-competitive practices such as cartels, mergers and acquisitions that may have an adverse effect on competition. About Competition Act, 2002: The Competition Act, 2002, regulates competition in the Indian market and prohibits anti-competitive practices such as cartels, abuse of dominant market position, and mergers and acquisitions that may have an adverse effect on competition. The Act has been amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Act. The Competition Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body created in accordance with the Competition Act, 2002 to hear and regulate on appeals against any rules made, decisions made, or orders made by the Competition Commission of India. The government replaced the Competition Appellate Tribunal with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017. Amendments: Penalties: The Bill seeks to defines ‘turnover’ for the purpose of penalty as global turnover derived from all the products and services by a person or an enterprise The idea is to levy a penalty as a percentage of global turnover of the offending company, moving away from the current practice of levying a part of the local or relevant market turnover as penalty. Decriminalisation: The Bill decriminalises certain offences under the Act by changing the nature of punishment from imposition of fine to civil penalties. These offences include failure to comply with orders of the CCI and directions of the Director General related to anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position. Expands CCI’s Scope: The new provisions expand the scope of CCI’s merger regulation by bringing deals worth more than Rs. 2,000 crore requiring regulatory clearance. Settlement Mechanism: The amendment introduces a scheme for commitment and settlement which is meant to reduce litigation by way of negotiated settlements. This scheme is available to cases of anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominance, but not to cartels. Reducing US monetary Policy Influence: By reducing the use of the US dollar, countries can reduce the influence of US monetary policy on their own economies. Significance: Enhancing Transparency: The inclusion of global turnover in the definition of “turnover” aims to enhance transparency and accountability in the Indian market. The amendment ensures that companies cannot escape penalties for competition law violations by shifting their revenue to other countries. Promoting Ease of Doing Business: The amendments to the Competition Act aim to reduce regulatory hurdles and promote ease of doing business in India. The amendments are expected to provide greater clarity to businesses operating in India and reduce the compliance burden for companies. Way Forward: India should focus on promoting free and fair competition by focusing on competitive neutrality i.e. creating level playing field between all private and public sectors and gradual opening of sectors such as mining, ports, railways, and electricity towards true competition. The recent government initiatives to introduce limited privatisation of Indian Railways by introducing 109 pairs of routes for private train operations for passenger train services indicate India’s growing realization of the importance of introducing competition in the public sector. Source: NewsOnAir National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Government has given full exemption from basic customs duty on all drugs  and food for special medical purposes imported for personal use for treatment of all Rare Diseases listed under the National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021. The exemption has been granted by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) by substituting “Drugs, Medicines or Food for Special Medical Purposes (FSMP)” instead of “drugs or medicines”. Source:   The Hindu About Rare Diseases: Rare diseases (also called “Orphan” diseases) are broadly defined as diseases that infrequently occur in a population and three markers are used (the total number of people with the disease, its prevalence, and the availability/non-availability of treatment options). The World Health Organisation (WHO) defines a rare disease as having a frequency of less than 6.5-10 per 10,000 people. Example: Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSD), Pompe disease, cystic fibrosis, muscular dystrophy, spina bifida, haemophilia etc. About 95% rare diseases have no approved treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive disease-specific treatment. National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 It categories ‘rare disease’ into three groups: Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment. Group-2: Diseases requiring long term/lifelong treatment having relatively lower cost of treatment and benefit has been documented in literature and annual or more frequent surveillance is required. Group 3:- Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. The government would notify selected Centres of Excellence at premier government hospitals for comprehensive management of rare diseases. Provision for financial support of up to Rs. 50 lakhs to the patients suffering from any category of the Rare Diseases and for treatment in any of the Centre of Excellence (CoE) mentioned in NPRD-2021, outside the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi. In order to receive financial assistance for treatment of rare disease, the patient of the nearby area may approach the nearest Centre of Excellence to get him assessed and avail the benefits. Eight (08) Centres of Excellence (CoEs) have been identified for diagnosis, prevention and treatment of rare diseases. Five Nidan Kendras have been set up for genetic testing and counselling services. Preventive measures adopted by the policy The preventive measures adopted by the National Policy for Rare Diseases are as follows: Preventing birth of an affected child. Prenatal Screening Prenatal Screening by invasive testing New born screening Early postnatal diagnosis and treatment Constitutional Provisions in the context of the new policy for rare diseases Article 38 says that the state will secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. Providing affordable healthcare is one of the ways to promote welfare. Article 41 imposes duty on state to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement etc. Article 47 makes it the duty of the State to improve public health, securing of justice, human condition of works, extension of sickness, old age, disablement and maternity benefits and also contemplated. Challenges to be addressed by the policy The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, will address the following challenges: The research and development for majority of rare diseases is less as very little is known about pathophysiology of these diseases. The patient pool of rare diseases is less. Lack of availability and accessibility of medicines to rare diseases. Cost of treatment of rare disease is highly expensive. Way Forward: There is an immediate need to create awareness amongst the general public, patients & their families and doctors, training of doctors for early and accurate diagnosis. As resources are limited and have multiple uses, the policy makers have to make a choice of prioritizing certain set of interventions over others. There should be policy measures for supporting R&D and drug development for rare diseases. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements and Identify the tiger reserve: It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger. It is located in the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Mudumalai tiger reserve Bandipur tiger reserve Kaval tiger reserve Sathyamangalam tiger reserve Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following: Income Tax Service Tax Minimum Alternate Tax Capital Gain Tax Which of the above are examples of direct taxes? 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: GI Tag item and State Basohli Painting – Bihar Nagri Dubraj Rice – Odisha Langda mango – Uttar Pradesh How many pair/s given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 27] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 27-> Click Here