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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gir calf and breed Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, India’s first cloned desi Gir female calf, Ganga was produced at NDRI. About Gir calf and breed:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE NEW MACDONALD PHARM | SCQ (ubc.ca) This breed is otherwise known as Desan, Gujarati, Kathiawari, Sorthi, and Surati. It originated in the Gir forests of South Kathiawar in Gujarat. It derives its name from the Gir forest, which is the natural habitat of the breed. Gir cattle is a dairy cattle breed and is mainly raised for milk production in India. Under a project by National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal to work on cloning of indigenous cow breeds such as Gir and Sahiwal, India’s first cloned Gir female calf named ‘Ganga’. Distribution:- The native tract of Gir cattle is the Gir hills and forests of Kathiawar. It includes the Amreli, Bhavnagar, Junagadh and Rajkot districts of Gujarat. The breed is also known as Bhodali, Gujarati, Sorthi, Surti, Kathiawari and Desan. Export:- Gir cattle are also very popular outside India. United States, Mexico, Venezuela and Brazil have imported this breed. Process:- To clone the Gir, oocytes are isolated from live animals using ultrasound-guided needles, and then, matured for 24 hours under control conditions. The somatic cells of elite cows are used as donor genomes, which are fused with OPU-derived enucleated oocytes. Following chemical activation and in-vitro culture, the developed blastocysts are transferred into recipient mothers to deliver the Gir calf. About National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI):- ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is located in Karnal, Haryana. It is one of the premier Institutes in the dairy sector. It has played a crucial role in India’s development in milk production with its continuous research. The Institute has the distinction of being a Deemed University for implementing its academic programmes since 1989. The Institute provides high-quality education in the field of dairying, which has no parallel in Asia The Institute has been ranked first among all Agricultural Universities of India including 4 Deemed Universities consecutively three times in the years 2016-17, 2017-18 and 2018-19. The Institute has also conferred the ‘Sardar Patel Outstanding ICAR Institute award’ in 2014. It was awarded Agriculture Leadership Award 2013 for setting up a benchmark in dairy research by contributing to research efforts to augment milk productivity, value addition, quality and safety of milk and economic and marketing aspects related to dairying. Prior to this, the Institute also received Education Leadership Award in recognition of the talent and leadership among educational institutes across India. MUST READ: New Breeds of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperm of a prospective parent. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (2020) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells Development of stem cells into functional embryos Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring Institute of Cost Accountants of India Syllabus Prelims –Economy (Important Institutions) Context: Recently, the Delhi HC restrained the Institute of Cost Accountants of India from using the ICAI acronym. About the Institute of Cost Accountants of India:- It was first established in 1944 as a registered company under the Companies Act. Objectives: the objects of promoting, regulating and developing the profession of Cost Accountancy. In May 1959, the Institute was established by a special act of Parliament, namely, the Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959 as a statutory professional body. The Institute of Cost Accountants of India is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy. Cost Accountant: a person who offers to perform or perform services involving the costing or pricing of goods and services or the preparation, verification or certification of cost accounting and related statements. The head office is situated in Kolkata. Objectives of the Institute:- To develop the Cost and Management Accountancy function as a powerful tool of management control in all spheres of economic activities. To promote and develop the adoption of scientific methods in cost and management accountancy. To develop the professional body of members. To keep abreast of the latest developments in cost and management accounting principles To exercise supervision for the entrants to the profession  To ensure strict adherence to the best ethical standards by professionals. To organise seminars and conferences on subjects of professional interest. To carry out research and publication activities covering various economic spheres. Publishing of books and booklets for spreading information of professional interest. MUST READ: Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Britain agreed to join the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP). About the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP):- IMAGE SOURCE: The Trade File – Cosmetics Alliance Canada CPTPP is a free trade agreement (FTA) that was agreed upon in 2018 between 11 countries. These include Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam. It does not have a single market for goods or services, unlike the European Union. The CPTPP incorporates, by reference, the provisions of the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) agreement, with the exception of a number of provisions pertaining mainly to intellectual property and investor-state dispute settlement, whose application will be suspended once the CPTPP comes into force. Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) agreement : It was originally concluded by 12 countries. These include Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States and Vietnam. It was signed in 2016, by all 12 parties. In January 2017, the United States notified TPP signatories of its intention to not ratify the TPP, effectively withdrawing from the TPP. Significance:- CPTPP is helping to create jobs and strengthen economic relations. It is an ambitious and high-standard free trade agreement covering virtually all aspects of trade and investment. The agreement features ambitious market-access commitments in trade in goods, services, investment, labour mobility and government procurement.  The agreement also establishes clear rules that help create a consistent, transparent and fair environment.  It covers virtually all sectors and aspects of trade in order to eliminate or reduce barriers. MUST READ: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known (2020) G20 ASEAN SCO SAARC Kala-azar Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, IACS’s novel compound was found to be treating drug-resistant kala-azar infections. About Kala-azar:- IMAGE SOURCE: Kala-Azar: Oral Nano Medicine (10pointer.com) It is caused by the protozoa parasite Leishmania. It is one of the three conditions in the disease group called leishmaniasis. It is a Neglected Tropical Disease. It is the second-largest parasitic killer in the world after Malaria. It is a zoonotic infection transmitted by the sand fly, a blood-sucking pest, found in moist (humid) mud and sand and close to livestock. The parasite is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly. This type of leishmaniasis affects the internal organs, usually the spleen, liver and bone marrow. The parasite primarily infects the reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in bone marrow, spleen and liver. Symptoms:- Some people have no symptoms.  For others, symptoms may include fever, weight loss and swelling of the spleen or liver. Treatment:- Medication exists to kill the parasites.  If left untreated, severe cases are typically fatal. Up to 20% of the patients who are correctly treated and cured, develop a skin condition called Post-Kala-Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) which surfaces within months to years after treatment. These patients can contain large amounts of parasites in their skin lesions, making them an important source of transmission. Initiatives of governments of India to Eliminate this Disease:- Development of a plan for the “unreached poorest” or underprivileged sections in endemic areas. Leveraging of Kala-azar elimination programme within POSHAN Abhiyaan for maximum benefit at the community level. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under the flagship program of the Prime Minister Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), along with rural electrification, testing, treatment and periodic high-level review, incentivising through award distribution. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under State Schemes. Involvement of Rural Health Practitioners (RHPs). Coordination with the rural development department and engage with Panchayati Raj functionaries for awareness, community engagement, environment management and social empowerment. Supporting the states in active case detection, surveillance, and treatment as well as supply of diagnostic kits, medicines, and sprays. MUST READ: Marburg Viral Disease Outbreak SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2017) Genetic predisposition of some people. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases. Using antibiotics in livestock farming. Multiple chronic diseases in some people. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 and 3 only 1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Eravikulam National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Eravikulam National Park got a terrarium inside its premises. About Eravikulam National Park:- IMAGE SOURCES: Map showing the situation of Eravikulam National Park and Parambikulam… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It is located in the Eravikulam and Idukki districts of Kerala It is located in the High Ranges (Kannan Devan Hills). It hosts South India’s highest peak, Anamudi. It is famous for Nilgiri Tahr. Another speciality of Eravikulam national park is the Neelakurinji flower that blooms every 12 years. In 1975 the government declared the region as Eravikulam Wildlife Sanctuary. In 1978 the region was declared a National park. Vegetation: Grasslands, Shrub Land, and Shola Forests are the three major plant species present. It serves as a catchment area for both east-flowing rivers (tributaries of the Pambar) and west-flowing rivers (tributaries of the Periyar and Chalakkudy). Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Indian muntjac, gaur and sambar deer are the other animals found in the national park. Flora:   The Park contains three major types of plant communities namely grasslands, shrublands, and woods. About Ferns:- A fern is a member of a group of vascular plants. Vascular plants: plants with xylem and phloem. They reproduce via spores. They have neither seeds nor flowers. They have specialized tissues that conduct water and nutrients and in having life cycles in which the sporophyte is the dominant phase. They have complex leaves called megaphylls. Significance:- They are used for food, medicine, and as biofertilizers. They are used as ornamental plants and for remediating contaminated soil. They have been the subject of research for their ability to remove some chemical pollutants from the atmosphere. Some fern species, such as bracken (Pteridiumaquilinum) and water fern (Azollafiliculoides) are significant weeds worldwide.  Some fern genera, such as Azolla, can fix nitrogen and make a significant input to the nitrogen nutrition of rice paddies. They also play certain roles in folklore. MUST READ: Silent Valley National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 3, 5 and 6 only 2, 4, 5 and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 GSAT-7B satellite Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the defence ministry signed a ₹3,000-crore contract with NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) for the GSAT-7B satellite. About GSAT-7B satellite:- It is a communication satellite. It is a part of the GSAT-7 series. It is the first-ever in the five-tonne category that will be designed indigenously by the ISRO. GSAT 7 series satellites are advanced communication satellites developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to meet the communication needs of the defence services. The GSAT 7B will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army. It is a geostationary satellite. It will considerably enhance the communication capability of the Indian Army. MUST READ: OneWeb Satellites SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Krishi Udan Scheme Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Minister of State for Civil Aviation Gen.V K Singh talked about the Krishi Udan Scheme in the Rajya Sabha. About Krishi UDAN Scheme:- It was launched in August 2020, on international and national routes.  Objective: to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products so that it improves their value realisation. The scheme aims to ensure seamless, cost-effective, time-bound air transportation and associated logistics for all Agri-produce originating especially from Northeast, hilly and tribal regions of the country. It is a convergence scheme. It includes eight Ministries/Departments. These are namely the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce. There is no specific budget allocation under Krishi Udan Scheme. Implementing Agency:- The enhanced version of the Krishi UDAN scheme was formulated with support from AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited (AAICLAS) – AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited (AAICLAS): a 100% subsidiary of the Airports Authority of India and Invest India, India’s national Investment Promotion & Facilitation Agency It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry MUST READ: Krishi UDAN 2.0 and  Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Anganwadi Services Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Women and Child Development Ministry informed the Parliament on the contribution of the MGNREGA  scheme to the  building of Anganwadi centres. About Anganwadi Centres: Anganwadi is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the States / UTs which serves as a rural child and maternal care centre in India. It was started by the Government of India In 1975 as part of the Integrated Child Development Services program to combat child hunger and malnutrition. Anganwadi centres provide a package of six services: supplementary nutrition, pre-school non-formal education, immunisation, health check-up, nutrition and health education, and referral services. The beneficiaries under the Anganwadi Services Scheme are identified on the basis of Aadhaar. Significance of Anganwadi scheme: Affordable and accessible healthcare: Today in India, about 2 million Anganwadis workers are reaching out to a population of 70 million women, children and sick people, helping them become and stay healthy. Anganwadi workers are the most important and soft-ignored essential link of Indian healthcare. Eradicating Malnourishment: One-third of the world’s stunted children live in India. Anganwadis are integral for the success of ICDS programme that caters to the nutrition, health and pre-education needs of children till six years of age as well as the health and nutrition of women and adolescent girls. Local Connect & Community Mobilisation: Anganwadi workers have the advantage over the physicians living in the same rural area, which gives them insight into the state of health in the locality and assists in identifying the cause of problems and in countering them. Ensuring Access to Government Programmes: Anganwadi workers are India’s primary tool against the menace of child malnourishment, infant mortality, and lack of child education, community health problems and in curbing preventable diseases. These community health workers have been point-persons for rural communities to access key health services and benefits. Health Crisis Management: With little training and immense risk, they went to households to spread awareness on COVID-19 as well as carry out tasks like contract tracing. Challenges Faced by Anganwadis: Lack of Skill Set:-Despite being the major source of nutrition advice, Anganwadis staff may be lacking in technical skills. Knowledge of critical health behaviours such as complementary feeding and handwashing was poor among mothers listed as Anganwadis workers. Lack of Resources: Anganwadi personnel frequently lack the resources or training necessary to deliver ECCE. Lack of Time: Administrative obligations consume a large amount of time, and fundamental services such as pre-school education suffer as a result. Lack of Infrastructure: Infrastructure is frequently lacking in Anganwadis. According to NITI Aayog, only 59% of Anganwadis had enough seating for children and employees, and more than half were unsanitary. Issues in Urban Areas: According to NFHS-4 statistics, the use of early childcare services at Anganwadis in urban regions is just 28 percent, compared to 42 percent in rural areas. Govt measures taken for Strengthening of Anganwadis: Convergence with MNREGA : the government has taken up Construction of 4 lakh AWC buildings across the country under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in convergence with Anganwadi Services (ICDS Scheme). Mobile Phones: Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) have been provided with Smart Phones for efficient service delivery. Streamlined guidelines were issued covering several aspects such as quality assurance, roles and responsibilities of duty holders, procedure for procurement, integrating AYUSH concepts and Data management Increased Training: the Ministry has formulated a comprehensive training strategy for the functionaries of Anganwadi Services. Training is imparted to the functionaries on a regular basis. Anganwadi Workers are provided job training for 26 working days. During this job training, the knowledge, understanding and skills of Anganwadi Workers on various Acts, Policies, Programmes related to women and children, setting up vibrant Anganwadi Centres and conducting Early Childhood Care and Education activities, . ICT Integration: a robust ICT enabled platform named Poshan tracker has been designed to capture real-time data on implementation and monitoring of Anganwadi Services across the country. The Poshan Tracker management application provides a 360 – degree view of the activities of the Anganwadi Centre (AWC), service deliveries of Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) and complete beneficiary management. Way Forward: AWCs play an important role in improving basic child learning and health needs for the poor people and help the government to implement its various programs especially related to child and women development. The steps like Saksham Abhiyan and technological up-gradation by states like Gujarat are positive steps but not sufficient considering issues AWCs are grappling with. Hence, the government must resolve the issues and improve the functioning of AWCs through better schemes and adhering to recommendations of think tanks like NITI AYOG. Source:  The Hindu Additional Information: Integrated Child Development Services Launched on 2nd October, 1975, Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) is the only major national program that addresses the needs of children under the age of six years. It seeks to provide young children with an integrated package of services such as supplementary nutrition, health care and pre-school education. The scheme is under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Integrated Child Development Services is Centrally-Sponsored and will provide the following six services to the beneficiaries: Supplementary Nutrition (SNP) Health & Nutrition Check-Up Immunization Non-Formal Education for Children in Pre-School Health and Nutrition Education Referral services Changes in UPI Transaction Fees: Impact on Your Wallet Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has allowed prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) to be part of the interoperable Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ecosystem. The NPCI has recently introduced interchange fees of up to 1.1 per cent on merchant UPI transactions done using prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) from April 1, 2023. Key highlights of the changes: Applicability: The new NPCI guidelines on wallet interoperability establish interchange fee for wallet usage, which will be paid to issuers of wallets such as Paytm, PhonePe and Google Pay, among others. They also include charges for UPI-wallet-loading that will be paid by wallet issuers to remitter banks or the bank accounts from which the amount is being debited. Benefit for wallet players: The inter-operability norms will enable universal acceptance of wallets across all UPI QR codes and devices, thus increasing the salience or relevance of wallets. It will also ensure uniformity and parity by clearly defining the interchange fees on wallet payments as against the current practice of bilateral agreements between wallet issuers and payment platforms. Interchange fees: The interchange rates vary according to merchant category codes, in the range of 0.5 per cent to 1.1 per cent. Categories such as fuel, education, agriculture and utility payments attract a lower interchange of 0.5-0.7 per cent; convenience stores across food shops, specialty retail outlets and contractors, have the highest charge of 1.1 per cent. Wallet transactions: The interchange fees are paid by merchants to wallets or card issuers and are usually absorbed by merchants. Smaller merchants and shopkeepers are unlikely to be impacted as it is applicable only on payments of over Rs. 2,000. MDR or merchant discount rate is applicable on wallets-on-UPI in certain cases and this move may lead to higher MDRs imposed on merchants, depending on payment companies’ ability and willingness to pass on the interchange. Impact on Customers: The norms are expected to increase the appeal, scope, role and usability of wallets as they can now be used to make UPI payments across QR codes and devices, increasing payments alternatives for customers. Consumers will also be able to load their wallets from anywhere including credit or debit cards, BNPL (Buy Now Pay Later) and net banking, among others, thus creating a mechanism to use any instruments for UPI transactions, albeit directly or indirectly. Currently, MDR for bank-to-bank UPI transactions is zero. About Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs): PPIs are instruments that facilitate purchase of goods and services, conduct of financial services, enable remittance facilities, etc., against the value stored therein. Prepaid payment instruments’ examples include smart cards, online accounts, online wallets, stripe cards, paper vouchers, etc. The primary objective of these instruments is to get access to the amount already prepaid. So, one can purchase the required goods without any physical exchange of cash or card. Digital Transactions in India Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Digital Economy & Digital Payment Division has been entrusted with the responsibility of leading this initiative on “Promotion of Digital Transactions including Digital Payments”. MeitY is coordinating with multiple stakeholders including Banks, Payment Service Providers, Central Ministries/Departments and States/UTs, for promotion of digital payments across the country. Major digital payment modes: Bharat Interface for Money-Unified Payments Interface (BHIM-UPI), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) have undergone significant growth in the last five years. Coordinated efforts of the Government with all stakeholders have led to a significant growth in digital payments, as given below: Significance of digital payments: Enhanced financial inclusion: Digital payments offer anytime, anywhere access to accounts, making it easy for citizens to receive and make payments using their phones. Recently launched UPI 123PAY enables feature phone users to make digital transactions through UPI in assisted voice mode, facilitating digital transactions and financial inclusion in rural areas. Instant and convenient mode of payment: Digital modes like BHIM-UPI and IMPS enable instantaneous transfer of money to the beneficiary account. BHIM-UPI has enabled access to multiple bank accounts in a single mobile app. Improved speed and timely delivery: Digital payments can be virtually instantaneous, regardless of the sender and receiver’s location. National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) system: The NETC system enables electronic payments at toll plazas using Radio Frequency Identification technology. Increased transparency in government system: Benefits are directly transferred to the target beneficiary account through digital modes of payments, eliminating leakage and ghost recipients. Bharat Bill Payment System: The BBPS provides an interoperable and easily accessible bill payment service to consumers via multiple channels like Internet banking, mobile banking, mobile apps, BHIM-UPI, etc. Challenges of digital transactions: Digital illiteracy: A significant portion of the population, especially in rural areas, may not be familiar with digital payment systems and may face difficulties in using them. Security concerns: Digital payments can be vulnerable to cyber threats and frauds. Malicious actors can steal sensitive financial information and make unauthorized transactions. Connectivity issues: Digital transactions require a stable internet connection, which may not be available in all areas. This can cause delays and disruptions in the payment process. Technical glitches: Technical glitches can occur during digital transactions, leading to failed transactions or incorrect transfers. Transaction fees: Some digital payment systems may charge transaction fees, which can discourage people from using them. Dependence on technology: Over Reliance on digital payment systems can make people vulnerable to disruptions in case of technical failures or system outage. Limited acceptance: Not all merchants and service providers may accept digital payments, particularly in remote areas. Way Forward: The digital payment landscape in India has been transformed and India has emerged as a leader in the creation of digital assets, which can serve as an example to many other nations.  The Government of India needs to make more efforts to help India attain the status of one of the most efficient payments markets in the world. There is a need for regulatory intervention to explore alternative payment methods, such as digital wallets and UPI, which offer lower transaction fees. Overall, the benefits of digital transactions outweigh the challenges, and as technology continues to evolve, we can expect to see further innovation in the payments landscape. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Krishi Udan Scheme: The scheme aims to ensure seamless, cost-effective, time-bound air transportation and associated logistics for all Agri-produce in the country. It is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The Eravikulam National Park is located in Tamil Nadu Kerala Goa Odisha Q.3) Consider the following countries: Australia Canada USA Malaysia Russia Which of the above are part of the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)? 1 3 and 5 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 3 4 and 5 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 26-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Kangra tea Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the European Commission grants a GI tag for Himachal’s Kangra tea. About Kangra tea:- In 1849, Dr Jameson, then superintendent of the Botanical Tea Gardens, pronounced the region ideal for tea cultivation.  Being one of India’s smallest tea regions makes Kangra green and black tea all the more exclusive.  While the black tea has a sweet lingering aftertaste, the green tea has a delicate woody aroma. It is hand-plucked and processed with traditional methods to bring out its full potential. It is exported to Kabul and Central Asia via Peshawar. Kangra tea is a registered Geographical Indication (GI). Tea Attributes: The first flush of Kangra tea is known for its quality, unique aroma and tinge of fruity flavour. A little milder than Darjeeling tea in terms of flavour. It has more body and liquor. Elevation: Teas are grown at elevations ranging from 900 to 1400 metres above sea level. Annual Rainfall: 270 to 350cm. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 has been notified. About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Apply Post Office and Bank – Sarkari Yojana – TheHowPedia It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of Independence.  It will be made available for a two-year period up to March 2025. It will be under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years. The deposit can be made in the name of a woman or a girl child. The maximum deposit amount has been kept at ₹2 lakhs and the scheme will have a partial withdrawal facility as well. Eligibility:- Application for opening an account under the scheme can be made by a woman for herself or by the guardian on behalf of a minor girl. Deposit limit:- Any number of MSSC accounts can be opened by a woman, or in the name of a minor girl by the guardian, subject to the maximum limit of Rs 2 lakh. Interest Rate:- The Government has notified 7.5% interest on deposits in an MSSC account. The interest will be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account. Maturity and Payment:- The notification said that the deposit shall mature on completion of two years from the date of the deposit. The eligible balance may be paid to the account holder on an application in Form-2 submitted to the accounts office on maturity. Partial Withdrawal:- An MSSC accountholder will be allowed to withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible balance once after the expiry of one year from the date of opening of the account but before the maturity of the account. The notification further said that in case of an account opened on behalf of a minor girl, the guardian may apply for the withdrawal for the benefit MUST READ: SAMARTH initiative for women SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Summit for Democracy 2023 Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, President Joe Biden announced the opening of his second Summit for Democracy. About Summit for Democracy 2023:- It is hosted by the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). Objectives: to renew democracy at home and confront autocracies abroad. The Summit comprises a series of events and a Year of Action (YoA) led by the US Government to support democratic renewal around the world.  The Summit for Democracy as a process is an extraordinary opportunity to galvanize attention and mobilize international action. This is the second Summit for Democracy, the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). It  unveils new efforts to advance democracy abroad like: Presidential Initiative for Democratic Renewal (PIDR)  USAID is contributing eight new initiatives, many of which are focused on policy reforms, to the PIDR. The PIDR comprises five lines of effort in response to significant challenges to democracy in the 21st Century. This includes the Partnerships for Democratic Development (PDD), which provides multi-year support to countries that demonstrate sustained democratic progress. The USAID has announced the first wave of nine PDD partner countries: Armenia, Dominican Republic, Ecuador, Malawi, Nepal, North Macedonia, Paraguay, Timor-Leste, and Zambia. MUST READ: 2022 Resilient Democracies Statement SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often seen in the news, is (2015) a strategy to tackle regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization. a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit Indira Gandhi Canal Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recent reports suggest that the closure of the Indira Gandhi Canal for repairs may impact Rajasthan’s drinking water, and irrigation needs. About Indira Gandhi Canal:- IMAGE SOURCE: https://nwa.mah.nic.in/sdmc/irrigation/04_projects.htm Indira Gandhi canal is the longest in India It was constructed from 1952 to 2010. It was originally known as the Rajasthan canal. It was renamed in 1984 as a tribute and honour after the assassination of Indira Gandhi. The origin of this canal is from the Harike barrage, Harike situated in Punjab. It is built on Sutlej and Beas rivers.  Its length is connected with Rajasthan and Punjab Indira Gandhi canal was constructed to develop agricultural activities in the desperation of Rajasthan. Objective: The Indian government has decided to build a canal on the Sutlej and Beas so that farmers can get water to harvest different kinds of crops for food. This is the largest canal in Rajasthan.  It starts from Haryana in Punjab and to Lohgarh district in Rajasthan. The canal water flows through seven districts of Rajasthan that include Churu, Jaisalmer, Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Sri Ganganagar. There are two stages to the construction process:- STAGE – I The command area lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh, and the northern part of the Bikaner districts. STAGE – II The command area spans the districts of Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur, and Churu. MUST READ: Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is a such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum Ravi Sutlej Q.2) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: (2017) The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims –Polity (Important Organizations) Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to inaugurate the Diamond Jubilee Celebrations of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):- Background:- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).  Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hue and cry notice Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, a ‘hue and cry’ notice was issued against Amritpal Singh. About Hue and cry notice:- It is issued by the Police.  It is issued when it requires the help of the public in cases such as: locating missing persons identifying unclaimed bodies looking out for a suspect It traces its origin to 1285. England’s King Edward I signed the “Statute of Winchester” to deal with security and peacekeeping on a local level by revamping the existing police system. The ‘hue and cry’ rule simply means that if a suspect or a criminal is found running down the street in front of some bystanders, each of them needs to yell out to help the police identify and catch them. MUST READ: Guidelines on arrests and bail orders SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO successfully carried out the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission. About Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX):- RLV-LEX involves taking an unmanned, winged prototype to an altitude of about 2.3 km to 2.4 km on a helicopter and releasing it to land. It must travel the distance autonomously, gain velocity, maintain control and come in like any typical aircraft, touching down with the rear wheels first. The first in the series of experimental flights is the hypersonic flight experiment (HEX). It was followed by the landing experiment (LEX), return flight experiment (REX) and scramjet propulsion experiment (SPEX). A reusable launch system is a launch system that allows for the reuse of some or all of the component stages. The vehicle returns to earth intact after a mission. Benefits of RLV:- Cheaper access to space is what makes an RLV attractive Challenges of RLV:- Reusable stages weigh more than equivalent expendable stages. After the launcher lands, it may need to be refurbished to prepare it for its next flight. This process may be lengthy and expensive. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements(2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2016) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Textiles has launched the Foreign Trade Policy 2023. The Key Approach to the Foreign Trade Policy is based on 4 pillars: Incentive to Remission, Export promotion through collaboration – Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions, Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives and Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining SCOMET policy. Key Features of Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Source:            The Hindu The new policy will have no sunset date (ending date) and will be tweaked based on the emerging world trade scenario and industry feedback. While the policy will be open-ended, the schemes sanctioned under it will be time bound. There are no major new schemes, barring a one-time amnesty under the existing Advance Authorisation and Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) schemes, that allow imports of capital goods subject to specified export obligations. The Policy had opened up a new area of potential exports called  “merchanting trade”. Merchanting trade refers to shipment of goods from one foreign country to another foreign country without touching Indian ports, involving an Indian intermediary.  This will also enable exports of restricted goods Four towns in Uttar Pradesh — Faridabad, Moradabad, Mirzapur and Varanasi — were announced as centres of export excellence for their performance in the apparel, handicrafts, handmade carpets and handlooms, respectively. The policy also plans to launch a special advance authorisation scheme for the clothing and apparel sector so that they can react to market demands and fashion trends faster. It is also looking to lower qualification thresholds for star ratings which recognise exporters based on export performance. The importance of simplifying the SCOMET( Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment, and Technologies) Licensing Procedure which aims at streamlining the export of dual-use items. Special one-time Amnesty Program for Export Obligations Default. The dairy industry will be excused from maintaining average export obligations under the new foreign trade strategy, and a particular advance authorization procedure has been extended to textiles and clothing. Challenges: Low credit access: Indian exporters have very low access to trade finance and export credit. This is especially true for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), even though they account for close to half of India’s total exports. The financial support Indian exporters receive is far less than in other countries. Export credit agencies doled out $7.6 billion in funds in India while the figure for China stood at $39.1 billion. Inadequate Infrastructure: Infrastructure is India’s weakest link. In data firm Statista’s ranking of 100 countries based on the quality of their infrastructure in 2019, India’s score was 68.1. To put this in perspective, top-ranked Singapore scored 95.4 while bottom-ranked Bolivia was 10-odd points behind India, at 57.1. . Bureaucracy: The export process in India is more time-consuming than in many other countries due to a high documentation requirement. Indian exporters must prepare a large set of documents for each stage of the shipping process. It is also important to plan ahead because certification authorities at Indian ports are not available round the clock or on all days of the week. Pendencies: There is long list of pending cases of redemption with respect to Advance Authorization scheme due to pre-import conditions. This needs to be sorted out immediately by withdrawing the pre-import condition retrospectively. Govt Initiatives for Improving Exports: Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP): It is a fully automated route for Input Tax Credit (ITC) in the GST (Goods and Service Tax) to help increase exports in India. ITC is provided to set off tax paid on the purchase of raw materials, consumables, goods or services that were used in the manufacturing of goods or services. This helps in avoiding double taxation and the cascading effect of taxes. Merchandise Exports from India Scheme: MEIS was introduced in the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-20, under MEIS, the government provides duty benefits depending on product and country. Rewards under the scheme are payable as percentage of realised free-on-board value (of 2%, 3% and 5%) and MEIS duty credit scrip can be transferred or used for payment of a number of duties including the basic customs duty. Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies: The scheme was offered for embedded state and central duties and taxes that are not refunded through Goods and Services Tax (GST). It was available only for garments. It was introduced by the Ministry of Textiles. Common Digital Platform for Certificate of Origin has been launched to facilitate trade and increase Free Trade Agreement (FTA) utilisation by exporters. Source:   The Hindu Vaikom Satyagraha Syllabus      Mains – GS 1 (History) Context: Recently, Kerala Chief Minister and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister jointly inaugurated the centenary year celebrations of the anti-caste struggle Vaikom Satyagraha. About Vaikom Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha was a historic non-violent movement against untouchability and caste discrimination in the country. The Satyagraha took place between March 30, 1924 and November 23, 1925 and also marked the start of temple entry movements across India. The movement was spearheaded by Congress leader T.K. Madhavan, as an opposition against social injustice. Apart from Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon (then secretary of Kerala Congress) and Congress leader and educationist K. Kelappan are considered the pioneers of the Vaikom Satyagraha movement. Vaikom is situated on the western side of Kottayam district in the Indian state of Kerala. It shares its border with Vembanad Lake. Its importance in Indian history is due to the Vaikom Satyagraha against untouchability, in which Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ramasamy The Satyagraha aimed at securing freedom of movement for all sections of society through the public roads leading to the Sri Mahadevar Temple at Vaikom. Situation Prior to Vaikom Satyagraha The Kingdom of Travancore had rigid and oppressive caste system. The people belonging to the oppressed classes, especially the Ezhavas, had no right to walk on the four roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva temple. The injustice meted out to the depressed classes was brought to the notice as a resolution at the Kakinada meet of All India Congress Committee. The Congress Untouchability Committee formed by the Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee in January 1924, decided to take up this issue. K Kelappan (Kerala Gandhi), T K Madhavan, Velayudha Menon, K Neelakantan Namboothiri and TR Krishnaswami Iyer were members of the committee. The committee decided to launch a ‘Kerala Paryatanam’ to urge temple entry and also advocate the opening of all public roads for everyone regardless of caste or creed. Role of Periyar: Periyar accepted the request of leaders such as Neelakandan Nampoothiri and George Joseph and led the protest making the protest successful. Vi. Kalyanasundaram (Thiru.Vi.Ka.) conferred the title Vaikom Veerar (Hero of Vaikom) on Periyar. Tamil Nadu played a pivotal role in Vaikom Satyagraha, which symbolised a struggle by the untouchables. Emperumal Naidu and Sivathanu Pillai were prominent leaders in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu. Reach of the movement The movement was backed by Gandhiji, ChatampiSwamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru. Prominent Leaders in Kerala such as Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon and George Joseph launched the movement. Periyar and KovaiAyyamuthu from Tamil Nadu worked in tandem with leaders in Kerala despite facing repressive action. The campaign gained popularity throughout India, and supporters arrived from around the country. Punjab’s Akalis helped by establishing kitchens to feed the Satyagrahis. Even Muslim and Christian authorities backed the initiative. Impacts of the Vaikom Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha was a testing ground for the Gandhian Principles of Satyagraha. In 1925, Gandhiji wrote to H. Pitt, then Police Commissioner of Travancore to resolve the ongoing matter. Thus, Pitt intervened and a settlement was signed between the Government and Gandhiji. In 1925, the Government agreed to nullify the prohibitory orders passed in February 1924, and Gandhiji gave his consent to withdraw the Satyagraha. It was announced by the government that roads (pathways) on three sides of the Shiv shrine or Mahadev temple of Vaikom (north, south, and west) would be open for all public but the road on the eastern side i.e the roads leading to that eastern approach would be reserved for Savarnas only. Many historians believed the Vaikom Satyagraha had not given the desired outcome, while considered the settlement was humiliating as compared to the enigma of the revolutionary cause. However, this movement laid the foundation which ultimately laid the fruit to end orthodox colonialism. The Vaikom Satyagraha proclaimed its significance almost a decade later when in November 1936, the historic Temple Entry Proclamation was passed, which lifted the age-old orthodox ban on the entry of marginalized depressed castes into the temples of Travancore. It was also a great opportunity for the Indian National Congress Party to Grow in Kerala. It became the first struggle for human rights in India. The Vaikom Satyagraha had a significant impact on Indian society and politics. It led to the formation of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP), a social reform organization that worked for the upliftment of the lower castes in Kerala. Way Forward: The Vaikom Satyagraha was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement that brought attention to the injustices of the caste system and the need for social reform. The protest helped pave the way for a more inclusive and equitable society and demonstrated the power of nonviolent resistance in achieving social change. The movement has been documented in history as one of the most non-violent struggles against caste oppression and discrimination. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements regarding Hue and cry notice: It is issued by the District Magistrate It is issued when it requires the help of the public in cases such as locating missing persons, identifying unclaimed bodies and looking out for a suspect Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC): It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of Independence. It will be under the Ministry of Finance. The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following: K. Madhavan, P. Kesava Menon George Joseph Who among the above personalities associated with Vaikom Satyagraha? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st  

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 25] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 25->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Yoga Day Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture About International Yoga Day : The UN proclaimed 21st June as IDY by passing a resolution in December 2014. It was during the 69th session of the General Assembly. About Yoga and UNESCO Intangible Heritage Sites:- Intangible cultural heritage means the traditions or living expressions inherited from our ancestors and passed through generations as a way of life. These include oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, and festive events. The Convention of the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was adopted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in 2003 and entered into force in 2006. Salient features of Intangible Cultural heritage:- Traditional, contemporary and living at the same time Inclusive Representative Community-based The Purpose of the Convention:- to safeguard the expressions of intangible cultural heritage that are endangered by the processes of globalization to ensure respect for the intangible cultural heritage of the communities, groups and individuals to raise awareness at the local, national and international levels of the importance of the intangible cultural heritage. The Committee to the Convention publishes three lists of intangible cultural heritage: Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding Register of good safeguarding practices UNESCO World Intangible Cultural Heritage List 2021 Kutiyattam: Sanskrit theatre-2008 Vedic chanting-2008 Ramlila: the traditional performance of the Ramayana-2008 Ramman: religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India-2009 Chhau dance-2010 Kalbelia: folk songs and dances of Rajasthan-2010 Mudiyettu: ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala-2010 Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India-2012 Sankirtana: ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur-2013 Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India-2014 Nawrouz-2016 Yoga-2016 Kumbh Mela-2017 Durga Puja in Kolkata-2021 IMAGE SOURCE: Click here MUST READ: India’s list of World Heritage Sites SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2017) Traditions                                       Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival           Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra             Gonds Wari-Warkari                         Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only None of the above INDIASOFT Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The 23rd edition of INDIASOFT was inaugurated recently. About INDIASOFT:- It is held consecutively since 2001. It has emerged as the favourite meeting ground for Indian tech developers and global consumers. Purpose: With more than 1000 IT and tech companies converging to meet and connect with each other, the show brings to the fore competencies of the Indian software and tech industry. Provides multiple opportunities to forge business alliances, spread first-hand information about the latest innovations and help build a vibrant and dynamic tech world. MUST READ:  Indian Deep Tech and a case for a strategic fund SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Concerning foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Concerning the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has formulated National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) as a separate and independent scheme to motivate farmers to adopt chemical-free farming and enhance the reach of natural farming. About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):- Formulated as a separate and independent scheme from 2023-24 by upscaling the Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP). The scheme is from 2023 to 2026. Mission Objectives:- To promote an alternative system of farming for freedom from externally purchased inputs, cost reduction and thereby increasing income of farmers. To popularize integrated agriculture-animal husbandry models based on desi cow and local resources. To collect, validate and document Natural Farming practices. To undertake activities for awareness creation, capacity building, promotion and demonstration of Natural Farming. To create standards, certification procedures and branding for Natural Farming products for national and international markets. Benefits to farmers:- Incentive to farmers for one-time on-farm manure production infrastructure:- A financial assistance of Rs. 15000/- per ha @ Rs. 5000/- per ha/year for three years Training of Farmers by Champion farmers and CRP Farmer Producer Organisations (FPO) formation for farmers practicing Natural Farming: 100 FPOs in the Gangetic belt Another 400 FPOs across the country Farmer Field School:– It will involve activities to create awareness. About Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana – Bing images It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). It is a sub-mission under the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), which falls within the umbrella of the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). Objectives:- To improve farmers’ profitability, availability of quality food and restoration of soil fertility and farmland ecosystem as well as generate employment. Contribute to rural development. Promoting traditional indigenous practices, which give freedom to farmers from externally purchased inputs. It focuses on on-farm biomass recycling with major stress on biomass mulching Use of cow dung–urine formulations and Exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs either directly or indirectly. Under BPKP, financial assistance of Rs 12200/ha for 3 years is provided for cluster formation, capacity building and continuous handholding by trained personnel, certification and residue analysis with a vision of covering 12 lakh ha in 600 major blocks of 2000 hectares in different states. The scheme is compliant with PGS-India certification under the PGS India programme. 8 States opted: Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh,  Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 FAME II scheme Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology and Governance Context: Recently the Committee on Estimates (2022-23) for evaluation of electric vehicle policy suggested an extension of the FAME II scheme that was to end next year. About the FAME II scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: Policy – Transforming India (mygov. in) Launched in 2015, a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan. Implementation by: Department of Heavy Industries, Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Objective:- To encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies. It aims to promote the manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and to ensure sustainable growth of the same It has two phases of the scheme: Phase I: started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March 2019 Phase II: started from April 2019, will be completed by 31st March 2022 The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug-in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles. FAME-II: some modifications were made to the original scheme. To drive adoption of electric vehicles Introduction of a demand incentive of Rs. 15,000 per kWh for electric two-wheelers with a maximum cap at 40% of the vehicles’ cost. Phase 2 of the scheme was approved for a period of three years starting from April 2019. It aims to generate demand by way of supporting e-buses, e 2-wheelers, e three- wheelers Launch of aggregate demand for 300,000 electric three-wheelers by Energy Efficiency Services Limited. MUST READ: Electric buses under FAME scheme sanctioned SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Malaria Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has certified Azerbaijan and Tajikistan as malaria-free. About Malaria:- IMAGE SOURCE: A Happy Ending To Malaria Story? – Scientific Animations IMAGE SOURCE: malaria – Bing images It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well as Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Transmission: The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: Malaria Vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Mangroves in India Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies report that an alarming 50 per cent of the world’s mangrove forests have disappeared in the last five decades due to coastal developments. About Mangroves in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Environmental Information System (casmbenvis.nic.in) It is a small tree or shrub It grows along coastlines taking root in salty sediments, often underwater. They are found in marshy intertidal estuarine regions. They can survive a high degree of salinity through several adaptive mechanisms. Mangrove forests also contribute to climate change mitigation by absorbing large amounts of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere and storing them in their soils i.e., up to four times more carbon than other tropical forests. Mangroves are key habitats for coastal biodiversity. They are also important in coastal erosion mitigation and storm damage reduction. Geographical Location:- Mangroves are found only along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil. Asia has the largest number of mangroves worldwide. India’s contribution is 45.8% total mangrove cover in South Asia. According to the India State of Forest Report, 2019, the mangrove cover in India is 4,975 sq km, which is 15% of the country’s total geographical area. West Bengal has the highest percentage of area under total Mangrove cover followed by Gujarat and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Sundarbans in West Bengal are the largest mangrove forest regions in the world. It is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. MUST READ: Mangrove Breakthrough SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Q.2) With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and are the names of (2021) Glaciers Mangrove areas Ramsar sites Saline lakes Akash Weapon System Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Prime Minister termed the signing of the contract for the procurement of the Akash Weapon System for the Indian Army, a welcome development. About Akash Weapon System:- AKASH is a Short Range Surface Air Missile system. It is a Russian-made missile system. It was planned and developed as part of India’s Integrated Guided-Missile Development Program (IGMDP The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) created it, and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). produced it It can track aeroplanes up to 50–80 kilometres away and at altitudes of 18,000 metres. It can destroy aerial targets such as fighter jets, cruise missiles, and air-to-surface missiles, as well as ballistic It is to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks. AKASH Weapon System can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or Autonomous Mode. It has built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) features. The entire weapon system has been configured on mobile platforms. AKASH Weapon Systems has been inducted and is operational with the Indian Air Force (IAF) as well as the Indian Army (IA). MUST READ: Akash Prime missile SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘IndARC’ is sometimes seen in the news, is the name of? (2015) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim a scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region. Q.2)Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Misogyny in the matrimonial market Syllabus GS-1: Society (Women’s Issues) Context: In a recent study, carried out on a large matrimonial website to understand the marital preferences of men, it was found that there exists a striking penalty for employed women in the “marriage market”, especially in north India. India was ranked 143 out of 146 countries in 2022 in the Global Gender Gap Report’s category for economic participation and opportunity category for women. In contrast to countries at similar income, education and fertility levels, female labour force participation rates in urban India at 24 per cent continue to be the lowest (Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS 2017-18)). Can partner preferences in the marriage market influence women’s labour market decisions? In a setting with near-universal marriage, the preferences of potential spouses or their families may loom large for Indian women. If men systematically discriminate against employed women when it comes to choosing a life partner, this could contribute to women who might otherwise wish to work, choosing not to. Let us observe the findings of the study: The ones who were employed received nearly 15 per cent fewer responses from male suitors relative to those who were not working. The preference for non-working female partners holds across all education groups of female profiles. Moreover, women employed in “masculine” occupations were additionally 3 per cent less likely to receive responses compared to women employed in “feminine” occupations. Lastly, a woman in a “masculine” job who stated a preference to continue to work after marriage was less likely to elicit male interest, relative to a woman in a “feminine” job who preferred to continue working. Profiles of working women elicited less interest from men even when their caste, education levels and family incomes matched those of the men. These results are driven by responses from higher caste men in Delhi, where patriarchal norms are more salient. Further, the level of discrimination against working women was higher by male suitors with lower education levels, who are more representative of the average male population in India. What do these findings indicate? Reinforcement of gendered patterns: These patterns are likely to reinforce the gendered patterns that typify the Indian workforce, making it harder for women to work, especially in occupations where they are not already well represented. Letting go of additional income: It is worth remembering that having a spouse who works is likely to increase household income significantly. By penalising women for making this choice, men are expressing a preference that is strong enough that they are willing to give up additional household income. Gender gap in time spent in domestic work: In urban India, married women spend almost 7.5 times more time on domestic work as compared to married men. Women in north India, and especially amongst high castes, spend more time on domestic work relative to women in the south (Time Use Survey, 2019). Working Schedules and their interpretations: Male-dominated occupations may be characterised by more inflexible working schedules. Women who work, in general, and those who work in male-dominated occupations, may even be considered “sexually impure” due to greater interactions with men at work. Conclusion A developing country like India, seeking to achieve rapid economic growth can ill afford educated women staying out of the workforce. Changing norms and attitudes of men (besides women) is critical to increasing women’s participation and reducing their occupational segregation. table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 24] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 24-> Click Here