IAS Baba

Jan 31, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Monetary Fund (IMF) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has increased its GDP growth estimate for India to 6.7 per cent for the current financial year. Background:- It is 40 basis points higher than its previous forecast of 6.3 per cent. About the International Monetary Fund (IMF):- It is an international organizationthat works to achieve sustainable growth and prosperity for all of its member countries. Established in 1944 HQ:Washington, D.C. (United States of America) Members: 190 India is a member. Any other state, whether or not a member of the UN, may become a member of the IMF. Structure:– At the top of its organization is the Board of Governors. The day-to-day workof the IMF is overseen by its 24-member Executive Board. The Managing Directoris the head of the IMF staff and Chair of the Executive Board. S/he is assisted by four Deputy Managing Directors. Funding:the IMF’s resources mainly come from the money that countries pay as their capital subscription (quotas) when they become Objectives of IMF:- Foster global monetary cooperation. Secure financial stability. Facilitate international trade. Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth. Reduce povertyaround the world. ( Role of IMF) Macroeconomic growth. Policy advice & financingfor developing countries. Promotion of exchange rate stability, and an international payment system. Functions:- Lending The IMF provides loans including emergency loansto member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. The aim is to help them rebuild their international reserves, stabilize their currencies, continue paying for imports, and restore conditions for strong economic growth while correcting underlying problems. Surveillance The IMF monitors the international monetary systemand global economic developments. It identifies risks and recommends policiesfor growth and financial stability. Capacity Development The IMF provides technical assistance and training to governments, including central banks, finance ministries, revenue administrations, and financial sector supervisory agencies. FLAGSHIP PUBLICATIONS:- World Economic Outlook Global Financial Stability Report Fiscal Monitor MUST READ: IMF and World Economic Outlook SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a national exhibition and programme of environment-friendly activities on the LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) themes is being organized on 9th & 10th February 2024, at India Gate, Delhi. Background:- The event will highlight how the youth can inspire behavioural change that leads to individual and collective action towards an environmentally conscious lifestyle. About LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment):- LiFE is an India-led global movement to nudge individuals to take simple yet effective environment-friendly actions in their daily lives. Aim: to bring individual behaviours to the forefront of the global climate action LiFE envisions replacing the prevalent ‘use-and-dispose’ economy with a circular economy, which would be defined by mindful and deliberate utilisation. Approach:- Focus on Individual Behaviours: Make Life a mass movement (Jan Andolan) by focusing on behaviours and attitudes of individuals and communities. Co-create Globally: Crowdsource empirical and scalable ideas from the best minds of the world, through top universities, think tanks and international organisations. Leverage Local Cultures: Leverage climate-friendly social norms, beliefs and daily household practices of different cultures worldwide to drive the campaign. Objectives :- It aims to promote an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on ‘mindful and deliberate utilization’ instead of ‘mindless and wasteful consumption’. It aims to utilise the power of collective action. It aims to nudge individuals across the world to undertake simple climate-friendly actions in their daily lives. It aims to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People’ (P3). Pro-Planet People’ (P3): to have a shared commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles. It seeks to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding climate. MUST READ: National Clean Air Programme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, PFRDA has invited bids for the selection of a System Integrator (SI) for the design, development, implementation and maintenance of PFRDA-TRACE (Tracking Reporting Analytics & Compliance E-Platform). Background:- PFRDA-TRACE will serve as a comprehensive tool for submitting regulatory and supervisory compliance reports by intermediaries. About Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):- The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is a statutory regulatory body established under the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 2013. It was established to oversee the National Pension System (NPS) and regulate India’s pensions sector. Functions:- The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is a legislative body created by Parliament to regulate, promote, and maintain the orderly expansion of the National Pension System (NPS) and pension schemes covered by this Act. It is a central autonomous body that functions as a quasi-government organisation with executive, legislative, and judicial powers similar to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI). PFRDA administers and regulates the National Pension System (NPS) and also administers the Atal Pension Yojana. It is responsible for appointing numerous intermediary agencies, such as Pension Fund Managers and the Central Record Keeping Agency (CRA), among others. MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Oman Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today praised a Republic Day joint India-Oman musical performance performed at the Embassy Reception at Indian embassy in Oman. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X : “Very creative. I appreciate all those who were a part of this effort.” About Oman:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Capital: Muscat. Oman, occupies the southeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula at the confluence of the Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea. In contrast to the stark interior, the coastal regions are much more hospitable. Oman’s lush northern coast lies between the sea and inland mountains. Northern Oman is dominated by three physiographic zones. The long narrow coastal plain known as Al-Bāṭinah stretches along the Gulf of Oman. The high, rugged Ḥajar Mountains extend southeastward, parallel to the gulf coast, from the Musandam Peninsula to a point near Cape al-Ḥadd at the easternmost tip of the Arabian Peninsula. Much of the range reaches elevations above 4,800 feet (1,463 metres). Mount Shams (“Sun Mountain”), at an elevation of 9,777 feet (2,980 metres), is the country’s highest point. The climate is hot and dry in the interior and hot and humid along the coast. Arabic is the official language. The population of Oman is primarily urban but has a number of traditional rural settlements. MUST READ: India-Oman Defence Relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q2). What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India. Dhenkanal Magji Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Dhenkanal Magji got the GI Tag. About Dhenkanal Magji:- Location: Odisha. Dhenkanal Magji is a type of sweet made from cheese from buffalo milk, with distinct characteristics in terms of appearance, taste, flavour, shape, and size. It also has unique nutritional values that distinguish it from other cheese-based sweets. Thousands of people were said to be earning their livelihood through animal husbandry, especially buffalo rearing, during the British era. The region was the hinterland of buffalo milk production and cheese was the third largest produce, after milk and curd. The Mandar-Sadangi area of Gondia block is believed to be the centre of origin of the sweet stuff, which has now been spread to the entire district. The sweet is prepared by draining moisture from the cheese and then frying it, finally forming balls from the mixture. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to pre-packed items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulation, 2011? (2016) List of ingredients including additives Nutrition information Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reaction Vegetarian/non-vegetarian Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 4 only INS Sumitra Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Navy’s INS Sumitra rescued fishermen hijacked by pirates along the east coast of Somalia and the Gulf of Aden. Background:- The Iranian-flagged Fishing Vessel (FV) Iman was hijacked by pirates along the East coast of Somalia and the Gulf of Aden. About INS Sumitra:- Designed and constructed: Goa Shipyard Limited. INS Sumitra is a new-generation naval offshore patrol vessel which has joined the Eastern Naval Command in Chennai. It is the fourth and last Saryu-class patrol vessel of the Indian Navy. It is based on an indigenous design . The ship has a range of 6,500 nautical miles. It is propelled by two diesel engines. It is capable of embarking one Dhruv/Chetak helicopter. It was commissioned in 2014 and is based in Chennai under the Eastern Naval Command. The primary role of the ship is to undertake surveillance of the country’s exclusive economic zone (EEZ) besides other operational tasks such as anti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, maritime security of offshore assets, and escort operations. It is designed to undertake fleet support operations, coastal and offshore patrolling, ocean surveillance and monitoring of sea lines of communications and offshore assets and escort duties. MUST READ: NAVDEX 23 and IDEX 23 SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea Q.2) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fueled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-ton nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2, and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: WARSHIP CATEGORY INS Kamorta PROJECT 28 INS Imphal Project 15B INS Mormugao Project-75 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 1947. Statement-II : It has 190 members. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Dhenkanal Magji, consider the following statements: The sweet is prepared by draining moisture from the cheese and then frying it, finally forming balls from the mixture. It also has unique nutritional values that distinguish it from other cheese-based sweets. It is a type of sweet made from cheese from buffalo milk. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Jan 31, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Jan 31, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 20] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 20 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. What do you consider as your primary source of inner strength? How has this helped you in tough times? Share a situation where you had to rely heavily on your inner strength. What did you learn about yourself in the process? How do you cultivate and maintain your inner strength? Discuss any practices or beliefs that you find particularly helpful. Set 2: Analyse the following issue: The I2U2 (India, Israel, UAE, and USA) grouping is a new diplomatic and economic collaboration. It aims to address various global challenges like food security, climate change, and energy sustainability. Let’s explore this – What potential benefits and challenges do you foresee for India in the I2U2 grouping? How can India leverage this partnership to advance its interests and contribute to global solutions? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Jan 30, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) 'K-shaped' recovery Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Recently, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman challenged the narrative that India’s economy has seen a ‘K-shaped’ recovery after the Covid-19 pandemic. Background:- Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman recently said that a narrative is being built that the Indian economy is not in good shape. About’K-shaped’ recovery:- A K-shaped recovery occurs when, following a recession, different parts of the economy recover at different rates, times, or magnitudes. This is in contrast to an even, uniform recovery across sectors, industries, or groups of people. Economic Recovery is the business cycle stage following a recession that is characterized by a sustained period of improving business activity. Economic recovery can take many forms, which is depicted using alphabetic notations. For example, a Z-shaped recovery, V-shaped recovery, U-shaped recovery, elongated U-shaped recovery, W-shaped recovery, L-shaped recovery and K-shaped recovery. A K-shaped recovery leads to changes in the structure of the economy or the broader society as economic outcomes and relations are fundamentally changed before and after the recession. This type of recovery is called K-shaped because the path of different parts of the economy when charted together may diverge, resembling the two arms of the Roman letter “K.” MUST READ: Expected Economic Recovery SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sagarmala Program Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) during the 75th Republic Day parade proudly unveiled its Tableaux, a visual representation of the visionary Sagarmala Program. Background:- This flagship program has significantly reduced turnaround times, enhancing cargo handling efficiency across ports. About Sagarmala Program:- Launched: The concept of Sagarmala was approved by the Union Cabinet on 25th March 2015. Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW). Objective: to promote port-led development in the country. Historical Background:- As part of the program, a National Perspective Plan (NPP) for the comprehensive development of India’s coastline and maritime sector has been prepared which was released by the Hon’ble Prime Minister, on 14th April 2016 at the Maritime India Summit 2016. Salient Features:- The vision of the Sagarmala Program is to reduce logistics costs for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment. This includes: Reducing the cost of transporting domestic cargo through optimizing modal mix Lowering logistics cost of bulk commodities by locating future industrial capacities near the coast Improving export competitiveness by developing port proximate discrete manufacturing clusters Optimizing time/cost of EXIM container movement. It aims to develop access to new development regions with intermodal solutions and promotion of the optimum modal split, enhanced connectivity with main economic centres and beyond through expansion of rail, inland water, coastal and road services. Components:- The Sagarmala Program broadly consists of 5 components which are: Port Modernization & New Port Development Port Connectivity Enhancement Port-linked Industrialization Coastal Community Development Promotion of Coastal Shipping & Inland Waterways in India. Benefits:- It will create jobs and bridge skill gaps in ports and the maritime sector.( Shipping Industry in India) MUST READ: Sagarmala Seaplane Services (SSPS) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?(2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. World Trade Organization (WTO) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the US blocked a fresh proposal to restart the dispute settlement mechanism at the World Trade Organization (WTO). Background:- This is the 73rd occasion when a proposal moved by Guatemala, a Central American country, on behalf of 130 members was not able to launch the selection processes. The US has been blocking the appointment of new judges to the WTO’s seven-member appellate court since 2017 on grounds of judicial activism at the WTO and concerns over US sovereignty. About World Trade Organization (WTO):- Established: 1995. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Members: 164 members. India is a member of WTO. (China’s Developing Status at WTO) The WTO operates the global system of trade rules. It helps developing countries build their trade capacity. It also provides a forum for its members to negotiate trade agreementsand resolve the trade problems they face with each other. Historical Background:- It was established following the Marrakesh Agreementwhich was ratified on April 15, 1994. The General Agreement on Tariff and Trade was substituted by the Marrakesh Agreement. The GATT was only a set of rules and multilateral agreements and lacked institutional structure. The GATT 1947 was terminated and WTO preservedits provisions in the form of GATT 1994 and continues to govern trade in goods. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. Functions of WTO:- Establishing and Enforcing Rules for International Trade Negotiating trade rules Overseeing WTO agreements Maintaining open trade Settling disputes Collaboration Between International Economic Institutions Safeguarding The Trading Interest of Developing Countries MUST READ: China’s Developing Status at WTO SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news: Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.3) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Idate Commission Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) emphasised the importance of executing the recommendations of the Idate Commission report. Background:- NHRC organized an open house discussion on the Protection of Nomadic, Semi Nomadic and De-Notified Tribes in India and forward trajectory. About Idate Commission:- Established: 2014. Headed by: Bhiku Ramji Idate. Objective: to compile a statewide catalogue of Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs). In May 2018, the National Commission for Denotified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes, submitted its report. The commission was constituted for a three-year temporary term. It had to submit its report identifying these communities state-wise, assessing their development status, and recommending ways to uplift them. Important Recommendations:- The report has called Denotified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes poorest of the poor, most marginalised and most downtrodden communities who are subject to social stigma, atrocity and exclusion. The commission has recommended giving protection to Denotified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes in the communities under the Atrocities Act. The Idate Commission has recommended a Constitutional amendment so that Scheduled NT/ DNT/ SNT can be added as a third category after Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Act. Assign individuals not identified in the SCs/STs/OBCs list to the OBC category. Create a permanent commission with legal standing for the DNTs, SNTs, and NTs. Form a distinct department to address the welfare of these communities in states with significant populations. Undertake a thorough survey of DNT families to determine their estimated numbers and distribution. Major Committees/Commissions for NTs, SNTs, and DNTs Communities:- The Criminal Tribes Inquiry Committee, 1947. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar Committee, 1949. Kaka Kalelkar Commission (also called first OBC Commission), 1953. The B P Mandal Commission, 1980. MUST READ: Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth SOURCE: NHRC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates(2021) The Right to Equality The Directive Principles of State Policy The Right to Freedom The Concept of Welfare Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sloth bears Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports show Sloth bears mostly coexist peacefully with humans in Karnataka. Background:- Enhancing habitat connectivity, minimising human-wildlife interaction zones, and implementing responsible waste management practices key to mitigating conflict, says survey. About Sloth bears:- Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus. Distribution:India, Sri Lanka, and southern Nepal. Population: 90% of the globalSloth Bear population is found in India. Habitat:dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs, and trees provide shelter. Size:5 to 6 feet (1.5 to 2 meters). Weight:90 to 140 kilograms. Food:They primarily eat termites and ants. They have poor senses of sightand hearing. They have a good sense of smell. Sloth bears’ nostrils can close completely, protecting the animals from dust or insects when raiding termite nests or beehives. Threats:- Habitat loss. Poaching for body parts. Human action: are sometimes captured for use in performances or hunted because of their aggressive behavior and destruction of crops. Protection Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES listing:Appendix I Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:Schedule MUST READ: Cheetah Reintroduction SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kashmiri saffron Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, As per recent reports Kashmiri saffron, can be the new silver. Background:- Selling now at ₹3.25 lakh per kg, this sought-after condiment from Kashmir is costlier than precious metal. About Kashmiri saffron:- Saffron production has long been restricted to a limited geographical area in the Union territory of Jammu & Kashmir. Pampore region, in India, commonly known as Saffron bowl of Kashmir, is the main contributor to saffron production. The unique characteristics of Kashmir saffron are its longer and thicker stigmas, natural deep-red colour, high aroma, bitter flavour, chemical-free processing, and high quantity of crocin (colouring strength), safranal (flavour) and picrocrocin (bitterness). In India, saffron Corms (seeds) are cultivated during the months of June and July and at some places in August and September. It starts flowering in It is known for medicinal properties such as lowering blood pressure, treating anemia, migraines, and aiding insomnia. Possesses cosmetic benefits, enhancing skin quality, reducing pigmentation, and minimizing spots. Integral part of traditional dishes. MUST READ: New genus of parasitic flowering plant SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have · psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? · Only one Only two Only three All four Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, French President Emmanuel Macron visits Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah in Delhi. Background:- During a banquet hosted by President Droupadi Murmu, Macron expressed gratitude for the warm welcome extended to his delegation and reaffirmed the longstanding friendship between India and France. About Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah:- Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah is located in Delhi’s Nizamuddin West area. It is the mausoleum of the famous Sufi saint, Nizamuddin Auliya (1238-1325 CE). Syed Muhammad Nizamuddin Auliya was one of the most famous Sufi saints from the Indian subcontinent region. Also known as Hazrat Nizamuddin and Mahbub-e-Ilahi (Beloved of God), he was a Sunni Muslim scholar and Sufi saint of the Chishti Order. It was built in the 14th Century C.E. It consists of a square chamber surrounded by verandas, which are pierced by arched openings. The dome is ornamented by vertical stripes of black marble and is crowned by a lotus-cresting. Towards the north side of Dargah, there is a stepwell. MUST READ: Ajmer Sharif Dargah SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: (2020) Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Kondana Rat Vulnerable Hog deer Least concern Kharai Camel Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : WTO was established following the Marrakesh Agreement which was ratified on April 15, 1994. Statement-II : The General Agreement on Tariff and Trade was substituted by the Marrakesh Agreement. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah , consider the following statements: It was built in the 12th Century C.E. It consists of a square chamber surrounded by verandas. It is the mausoleum of the famous Sufi saint, Nizamuddin Auliya. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Jan 30, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th January 2024

Jan 29, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022 Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Ministry of Education, released the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022. Background:- The total number of Universities / University level institutions registered is 1,168, Colleges 45,473 and Standalone Institutions 12,002. About All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022:- Conducted by: Ministry of Education. It was started in 2010-11. All India Survey of Higher Education is an annual web-based survey. Various parameters of data collection include teachers, student enrolment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure. Indicators of educational development such as Institution Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil-teacher ratio, Gender Parity Index, Per Student Expenditure will also be calculated from the data collected through AISHE. Significance:- These are useful in making informed policy decisions and research for the development of the education sector. Key findings from the report:- Enrolment in higher education increases to 4.33 crore in 2021-22from 4.14 crore in 2020-21 and 3.42 crore in 2014-15 (an increase of 91 lakh students, i.e., 26.5%since 2014-15). Female enrolment in Higher Education increases to 2.07 crore in 2021-22 from 1.57 crore in 2014-15(an increase of 50 lakh students, 32% increase). GER increases to 28.4 in 2021-22 from 23.7 in 2014-15; Female GER increases to 28.5 in 2021-22 from 22.9 in 2014-15 Female GER continues to be more than male GER for fifth consecutive year since 2017-18. Significant 44% increase in enrolment of SC students since 2014-15 (66.23 lakh in 2021-22 from 46.07 lakh in 2014-15) Notable increase of 51% in enrolment of Female SC Students in 2021-22 (31.71 lakh), compared to 2014-15(21.02 lakh) Substantial increase of 65.2% in enrolment of ST students in 2021-22(27.1 lakh), compared to 2014-15(16.41 lakh) Remarkable 80% increase in the enrolment of Female ST Students in 2021-22 (13.46 lakh), since 2014-15 (7.47 lakh) Increase of 45% in OBC Student enrolment in 2021-22 (1.63 crore) from 2014-15 (1.13 crore) Significant 3% increase in Female OBC Students in 2021-22 (78.19 lakh) since 2014-15 (52.36 lakh) Total Ph.D. enrolment has increased2% in 2021-22 (2.13 lakh) from 2014-15 (1.17 lakh) Female Ph.D. enrolment has doubled in 2021-22(0.99lakh) from2014-15(0.48 lakh) 3 % increase in Female Minority Student enrolment since 2014-15 (15.2 lakh in 2021-22 from 10.7 lakh in 2014-15) 341 Universities/University level institutions have been established since 2014-15 Female faculty/teachers have increased to 6.94 lakh in 2021-22 from 5.69 lakh in 2014-15 (an increase of 1.25 lakh, i.e., 22% since 2014-15) MUST READ: Gender gap in education SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the National Education Policy 2020 in India? (2020) It proposes sweeping changes in the education system from pre-primary to PhD and skill development. It states that universities from among top 100 in the world will be able to set up campuses in India. It expects that India will achieve 60% GER by 2030. It suggests NAAC to be merged with UGC and AICTE. Q2. Consider the following statements: (2018) As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only PM Young Achievers’ Scholarship Award Scheme for a Vibrant India (PM YASASVI) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, a total of ₹32.44 Crore has been released for Pre-matric Scholarships and ₹387.27 Crore for Post-Matric Scholarships to States/Union Territories (UTs) under the PM YASASVI scheme. Background:- These scholarships aim to assist students in pursuing their studies from pre-matriculation to post-secondary stages. About PM YASASVI:- Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Objective: To provide financial assistance to the OBC, EBC and DNT students studying at the post-matriculation or post-secondary stage to help them complete their education. Testing Agency: The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the YASASVI ENTRANCE TEST. Historical Background:- MSJ&E, a national testing agency founded by the government of India, is an autonomous, self-sufficient premier testing organization that conducts efficient and transparent standardized tests for the admission of applicants to premier higher education institutions. Consequently, the government has developed the PM Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme for a Vibrant India (YASASVI). Salient Features:- It is a Scholarship scheme for Other Backward Class (OBCs), Economically Backward Class (EBC) and Denotified Nomadic Tribes (DNT) Students.( Eklavya Model Residential School (EMRS) scheme) Components:- Pre-Matric Scholarships. Post-Matric Scholarships Top Class School Education Top Class College Education Construction of Hostels for OBC Eligibility:- Applicant students must be permanent residents of India to get benefits under the PM Yashasvi Scheme. Candidate students should belong to any one of OBC, EBC, DNT SAR, NT or SNT community. Only students studying in class 9 or class 11 will be considered eligible to get this scholarship. The family annual income of the applicant students should be a maximum of 2.5 lakh rupees to get this scholarship. Students of all genders will be eligible to get the benefits under PM Yashasvi Scheme 2023. Selection:- To get the benefits of this scheme, the candidate students have to pass the computer-based entrance test. Benefits:- Financial assistance of Rs 75,000 per year is provided to eligible students of class IX in the form of scholarship. An amount of Rs 125,000 per year is provided to the students of class 11th as financial assistance. MUST READ: New National Education Policy SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four International Court of Justice Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the International Court of Justice ruled that Israel must take steps to prevent genocide in Gaza. Background:- The International Court of Justice issued an interim ruling in a wider case about whether Israel is committing genocide against Palestinians in the enclave. About the International Court of Justice:- Established: June 1945. HQ: The Hague (Netherlands). The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America). The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ. Its official languages are English and French. MUST READ: International Criminal Court SOURCE: THE NEW YORK TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change Regulation of food prices and food security Gender parity in the workplace Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG BrahMos Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ECONOMY Context: India is to export BrahMos supersonic missile systems to Philippines in next 10 days. Background:- India is gearing up to export ground systems for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile, with the missiles expected to be dispatched to the Philippines by March this year. About BrahMos:- BrahMos is a joint venture between the DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya . It is a supersonic cruise missile. The missile derives its name from Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. On June 12, 2001, the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was first tested from a land-based launcher in BrahMos has been upgraded several times, with versions tested on land, air, and sea platforms. It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant engine in the first stage and a liquid ramjet in the second. BrahMos is equipped with stealth technology designed to make it less visible to radar and other detection methods. It has an inertial navigation system (INS) for use against ship targets and an INS/Global Positioning System for use against land targets. It is an air to surface missile with a flight range of around 300 km. However, India’s entry into the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) has extended the range of the BRAHMOS missile to reach 450 km-600km. MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) celebrated International Customs Day-2024. Background:- This year, the World Customs Organisation (WCO) has dedicated the International Customs Day to the theme of ‘Customs engaging traditional and new partners with purpose’. About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):- Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs. Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018. It is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:- Customs GST Central Excise Service Tax Narcotics in India. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. (Tax administration in India) Functions performed by the CBIC include:- Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST. Prevention of smuggling. Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview. MUST READ: International Customs Day, 2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a per cent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Western Equine Encephalitis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, an outbreak of Western Equine Encephalitis Virus occurred in Argentina. Background:- The present outbreak also comes in the context of an ongoing outbreak in horses in Argentina and Uruguay. About Western Equine Encephalitis:- It is a mosquito-borne infection. It is caused by the Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV), which belongs to the Togaviridae family of viruses with neurological symptoms in severe cases, and there is no specific antiviral treatment. The virus has an approximately 11.5 kilobases long single-stranded RNA genome and is a recombinant of the eastern equine encephalitis virus (EEEV) and a Sindbis-like virus. Passerine birds are thought to be the reservoir and equine species as intermediate hosts. Symptoms:- Fever Headache Nausea Vomiting Poor appetite Tiredness Weakness Transmission:- The primary mode of WEE virus transmission is through the bites of infected mosquitoes, which act as vectors. The principal vector is Culex tarsalis; however, there are multiple vectors that contribute to transmission, including Aedes melanimon, Aedes dorsalis, and Aedes campestris. Diagnosis:- The diagnosis of WEE infection requires confirmation through laboratory techniques since the clinical presentation is not specific. Western equine encephalitis is most common in the plains regions of the western and central United States. It also has been reported in Central America and South America. MUST READ: malaria SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DISEASE CAUSED BY Anthrax Bacillus anthracis Chickenpox Naegleria fowleri Meningoencephalitis Varicella zoster virus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : PM YASASVI is under the Ministry of Education. Statement-II : The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the YASASVI ENTRANCE TEST. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Western Equine Encephalitis, consider the following statements: It is a mosquito-borne infection. Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) belongs to the Togaviridae family. It is only found in western and central United States. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Jan 29, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th January 2024

Jan 29, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 19] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 19 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a friendship that has significantly influenced your life. What makes this friendship unique, and how has it shaped you? Discuss a challenge you faced in a friendship and how you resolved it. What did this experience teach you about relationships and communication? How do you think friendships evolve as we age? Share your thoughts on the importance of maintaining friendships throughout different life stages. Set 2: Analyse the following issue: India is aspiring to grow into a developed economy, and doing so in an environmentally sustainable way is a significant challenge. The green transition involves adopting clean energy, sustainable practices, and eco-friendly technologies. Let’s talk about this – How can India balance economic development with environmental sustainability? What steps are crucial for a successful green transition, and what challenges does India face in this journey? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Jan 27, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Purple Revolution Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/AGRICULTURE Context: Recently, CSIR’s Republic Day Tableau highlights the Purple Revolution through Lavender Cultivation in Jammu & Kashmir. Background:- Under the Viksit Bharat theme, Tableau highlights the Lab-to-Market success story of CSIR. About Lavender Cultivation:- The Ministry of Science and Technology initiated the Purple Revolution or Lavender Revolution in 2016. The Aroma Mission of the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research led the Purple Revolution. Objectives:– To promote the cultivation of aromatic crops for essential oils. To enable Indian farmers and the aroma industry to become global leaders. To provide benefits to the farmers in achieving higher profits, utilization of waste lands and protection of their crops from wild and grazing animals. Provided employment to women farmers Under this, the government aims to promote lavender crops by incentivising farmers to shift to the indigenous aromatic crop from other foreign alternatives. The nodal laboratory for the Aroma Mission is the CSIR-Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (CSIR-CIMAP), Farmers who produced lavender for the first time were provided free lavender seedlings as part of the goal. Those who had sown the crop before were paid 5-6 by the government per plant. Significance:- It is expected to enable Indian farmers and the aroma industry. Lavender cultivation has employed about 5,000 farmers and young entrepreneurs in geographically remote areas of J&K. It will promote the cultivation of aromatic crops for essential oils that are in great demand by the aroma industry. This will help in the production of an additional 700 tonnes of essential oil for perfumery, cosmetics and pharmaceutical industries. MUST READ: Accelerating the Green Revolution SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 India and France Relations Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, the President of India received the President of the French Republic at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Background:- Welcoming President Macron at Rashtrapati Bhavan, the President said that the leaders of two countries being guests of honour in each other’s successive National Day parade and celebrations is a historic moment, and a symbol of the depth of our friendship and the strength of our partnership. About India and France Relations:- India and France are long-standing strategic partners in the Indo-Pacific. The diplomatic relations between the two countries were established in 1947. The relations upgraded to the strategic level in 1998. Defence:- France is one of India’s key partners in the development of a self-reliant defence industrial and technological base. India and France are committed to cooperating in the co-development and co-production of advanced defence technologies, including for the benefit of third countries. An agreement for building six Scorpène submarines in India with French help was signed in 2005. The government-to-government agreement for 36 Rafale aircraft has taken place. Economic:- Bilateral trade of over USD 12 billion in 2021-22. France is the 11th largest foreign investor in India. Science and Technology:- For the first time, the two countries concluded a Joint Vision for Space Cooperation in 2018. As for nuclear energy, the two leaders must review progress in the joint construction of the world’s largest nuclear park in Jaitapur, Maharashtra. An agreement was signed about a decade ago for building six EPR (European Pressurized Reactors) nuclear power reactors with a total capacity of 9.6 GW for which negotiations have been on-going between the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL) and Areva. Environment:- The International Solar Alliance is set in motion jointly by India and France. France offered an extra $861.5 million by 2022 for solar projects in developing countries. Bilateral military exercises:- Exercise Shakti (Army) Exercise Varuna (Navy) Exercise Garuda (Air Force) IMEX 22 MUST READ: Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that Limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only· two All three None Tax-GDP ratio Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Direct tax-GDP ratio rose to 15-year high in FY-2023. Background:- Direct tax-to-GDP ratio, rose to a 15-year high of 6.11 per cent in the financial year 2022-23, time-series data released by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) under the Ministry of Finance. About tax-GDP ratio:- Tax to GDP ratio measures how much tax is collected in relation to the country’s GDP. It reflects the share of taxes in the overall output generated in the country. The tax-GDP ratio is used to determine how well the government controls a country’s economic resources. The tax-to-GDP ratio measures the size of a country’s tax revenue compared to its GDP. The higher the tax-to-GDP ratio, the better the country’s financial position. The direct tax-to-GDP ratio is the ratio of direct tax collected compared to national gross domestic product (GDP). Direct Tax is a tax levied directly on a taxpayer’s income, profit or revenue who pays it to the Government and cannot pass it on to someone else. Implications of increase in direct tax-GDP ratio:- Due to an increase in direct tax revenues, the State can spend on national security, welfare system, public goods, etc. The borrowing can be reduced and the fiscal deficit be reduced. Higher tax collections increase the capacity of the government to incur expenditure for welfare schemes. There will be decreased dependence on indirect taxes which are regressive in nature. There will be a decrease in social inequality. Significance:- The tax-to-GDP ratio is a key indicator of economic health. This signifies the efficiency of tax collection and the broadening of the tax base, reflecting a robust fiscal environment. MUST READ: Tax administration in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agulhas long-billed lark Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that, Agulhas long-billed lark is adapting and surviving despite farming taking over their nesting grounds in South Africa. Background:- Because it only occurs in a small part of South Africa, the Agulhas long-billed lark presents ecotourism value and forms part of South Africa’s unique biodiversity. About Agulhas long-billed lark:- Scientific Name: Certhilauda brevirostris. It is a small passerine bird. The Agulhas long-billed lark is only found in South Africa. It builds nests on the ground mainly in Renosterveld fynbos, a type of vegetation filled with grasses and wild spring flowers that is critically endangered by agricultural expansion. It is an endemic resident breeder in the Western Cape, South Africa. Its restricted range is centred on the Agulhas arable farmlands, from east of the Hottentots-Holland mountain range to Mossel Bay, and occupies a maximum of 15,000 km2 (5,800 sq mi). The Agulhas long-billed lark is 18–20 cm (7.1–7.9 in) in length. It is long-tailed and has a longish curved bill. It has a streaked buff-grey head and back, and the closed wings are grey. The underparts are cream-coloured with dark streaking on the breast and flanks. Conservation status:- IUCN: Near-threatened MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Sovereign AI Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, India is building its own ‘sovereign AI’. Background:- India has pitched itself as a country that has effectively used technology to develop and deliver governance solutions at a mass scale. About Sovereign AI:- Sovereignty in AI refers to a nation’s capability to exercise control and authority over AI technologies developed, utilized, or deployed within its jurisdiction. Sovereign AI emphasizes a nation’s desire to protect its interests, ensure ethical AI usage, promote national security, drive economic growth, and maintain control over critical AI infrastructure and applications. Governments need to create policies, laws, and regulations governing AI research, development, and deployment to ensure compliance with ethical standards, data privacy, security, and accountability. Nations need to formulate comprehensive strategies outlining AI development goals, investment plans, skill development, and ethical guidelines to drive innovation and competitiveness. Data Sovereignty is required. Sovereign AI involves efforts to develop AI technologies for national security, defense, and surveillance. It is important to incorporate ethical considerations into AI development and deployment.( A new global standard for AI ethics) India and Sovereign AI:- The government of India wants to establish sovereign AI, emphasizing the importance of developing its own AI ecosystem rather than relying solely on global players like Google and Meta. Objective: to leverage AI for economic development and offer a sanctioned AI compute infrastructure for various use cases. The focus will be not only on competing in generative AI models but also on addressing real-world applications in healthcare, agriculture, governance, language translation, and more. India’s Ministry of Electronics and IT has proposed the creation of an India Datasets platform as part of the National Data Governance Framework Policy. The platform aims to house non-personal and anonymized datasets from Central government entities, which have collected data from Indian citizens. The objective is to make this non-personal data accessible to startups and Indian researchers, fostering an environment for artificial intelligence (AI) and data-led research and startups in the country. MUST READ: ChatGPT and the AI challenge SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Bharat Ratna Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: As per recent announcements, former Bihar CM Karpoori Thakur to be conferred Bharat Ratna posthumously. Background:- Karpoori Thakur had made his debut as a legislator when he won the 1952 elections and remained one till his last Assembly election in 1985. Often remembered as the “voice of the oppressed and the downtrodden”, Thakur served as the chief minister of Bihar from December 1970 to June 1971 and from December 1977 to April 1979. Also called ‘jannayak’, he is widely considered as the pioneer of OBC and EBC reservations in the country. As the CM in 1978, Thakur implemented a layered reservation regime, despite resistance from the Bharatiya Jan Sangh, a major constituent of the then Janata Party government. About Bharat Ratna:- Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in the country. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. No formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a certificate signed by the President and a medallion. The award does not carry any monetary grant. In terms of Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. Dr.S. Radhakrishnan, C. Rajagopalachari and C.V. Raman were the first recipients of Bharat Ratna when it was instituted in 1954. There is no written provision that Bharat Ratna should be awarded to Indian citizens only. Bharat Ratna was awarded to a naturalised Indian citizen Mother Teresa in 1980 and two non-Indians — Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1987 and Nelson Mandela in 1990. (Gandhi Mandela Award) MUST READ: Ramon Magsaysay Award SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. (C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Nicobar White-tailed Shrew Critically Endangered Forest Owlet Least concern Ganges Shark Vulnerable How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The tax-to-GDP ratio measures the size of a country’s tax revenue compared to its GDP. Statement-II : The lower the tax-to-GDP ratio, the better the country’s financial position. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Bharat Ratna, consider the following statements: The award can be used as a prefix to the recipient’s name. S. Radhakrishnan, C. Rajagopalachari and C.V. Raman were the first recipients of Bharat Ratna when it was instituted in 1954. Bharat Ratna is awarded to Indian citizens only. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Jan 27, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

Posts