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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, WHO launched the Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) Initiative. About Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET):- IMAGE SOURCE: Epidemic vs. Pandemic: What Are the Differences? (verywellhealth.com) The Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) initiative of WHO(UPSC Prelims: WHO) It is an innovative approach to improving disease pandemic preparedness(UPSC Mains: Emerging issues in international relations during the COVID-19 pandemic). The first module of PRET focuses on respiratory pathogen pandemic preparedness. It presents an integrated and efficient respiratory pathogen pandemic planning approach (UPSC CSE: WHO and Traditional Medicine) covering both novel pathogens and those known to have pandemic potential. It enables coherence in addressing pathogen-agnostic and pathogen-specific elements for better preparedness. It gives an organizing framework including operational stages and triggers for escalation and de-escalation between pandemic preparedness and response periods. It describes the critical sectors for respiratory pathogen pandemic preparedness to trigger multisectoral collaboration. PRET incorporates the latest tools and approaches for shared learning and collective action established during the COVID-19 pandemic and other recent public health emergencies. It is an approach that applies a “mode of transmission lens” to preparedness for future pandemics. It will align the intersectoral stakeholders including leaders, implementing partners and Member States, around a common approach that leverages cross-cutting It provides a platform for national, regional and global stakeholders to collaborate to strengthen preparedness. Objectives of the PRET Global Meeting:- Making countries operationally ready to respond to infectious disease threats. Global approaches to pandemic preparedness to be tailored to address regional and country-level specificities. Global coordination, inter-country collaboration, and solidarity for global events such as pandemics. A multisectoral approach development. MUST READ:  H5N1 virus/Bird Flu SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. (2022) Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Seamounts Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, scientists have reported finding 19,325 new seamounts after poring through new high-resolution data. About Seamounts:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Features of the Ocean Floor PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:2365741 (slideserve.com) A seamount is an underwater mountain. They are formed through volcanic activity. They are hotspots for marine life. Like volcanoes on land, seamounts can be active, extinct or dormant volcanoes. Most seamounts are formed near mid-ocean ridges, where the earth’s tectonic plates are moving apart, allowing molten rock to rise to the seafloor. The planet’s two most-studied mid-ocean ridges are the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise. Some seamounts have also been found near intraplate hotspots and oceanic island chains with a volcanic and seismic activity called island arcs. Intraplate hotspots: regions of heavy volcanic activity within a plate Because seamounts are formed when the molten rock comes up from below the tectonic plates, they provide information about the mantle’s composition and about how tectonic plates evolve. (UPSC PRELIMS: Understanding PLATE TECTONICS)  They are good places for life because they can cause localised ocean upwelling. (UPSC MAINS: UPWELLING AND DOWNWELLING) Upwelling: the process by which nutrient-rich water from deep within the ocean moves up to the surface. A 2011 census had already mapped 24,000 seamounts across the world’s oceans. Since the 2011 seamount survey, altimetry has improved as:-  European Space Agency launched the CryoSat-2 and Envisat, and NASA and the French space agency jointly launched the Jason-1 geodetic missions. SARAL, a satellite that India and France developed together for oceanographic studies, made a significant contribution by further reducing radar noise and enabling the expansion of the seamount catalogue. (UPSC PRELIMS: Deep-Sea Mining) MUST READ: Mission Samudrayan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (2021) Brown forest soil Fissure volcanic rock Granite and schist Shale and limestone Q.2) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for MSME Shri Narayan Rane launched the revamped CGTMSE Scheme. About revamped CGTMSE Scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: CGTMSE: Home CGTMSE was established in 2000. It is jointly set up by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME), the Government of India and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: to catalyze flow of institutional credit to Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs).(UPSC CSE: Understanding Finance Related Problems of MSME Sector ) CGTMSE extends a helping hand by providing a guarantee to enable access credit leading to setting up viable micro and small enterprises.  It helps in transforming them from job seekers to job providers and meaningfully contributes to nation-building. (UPSC CSE: Empowering MSMEs digitally ) CGTMSE has been instrumental in providing: Guarantee cover to collateral and/or third-party guarantee free credit facilities The lender should cover the eligible credit facilities as soon as they are sanctioned.  Guarantee will commence from the date of payment of guarantee fee and shall run through the agreed tenure of the term credit in case of term loans / composite loans and for a period of 5 years. The working capital facilities alone are extended to borrowers, or for such period as may be specified by the Guarantee Trust on this behalf. CGTMSE has created a new landmark by touching the milestone figure of approving guarantees worth `1 lakh crore during FY 2022 – 23. A revamped measure introduced to the scheme:- CGTMSE has been provided with an additional corpus support of ₹9,000 crore in the Union Budget for FY 2023-24 to revamp its Scheme to provide a guarantee for an additional ₹2 lakh crore to Micro & Small Enterprises. () Other modifications included a reduction in guarantee fees for loans up to ₹1 crore by 50% bringing the minimum guarantee fee to the level of 0.37% pa only. Another major change announced was raising of ceiling for a guarantee from ₹2 crores to ₹ 5 crores and enhancing the threshold limit for claim settlement without initiation of legal action to ₹10 lakh. MUST READ: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements  (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation held a meeting with board members of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). About National Dairy Development Board (NDDB):- IMAGE SOURCE: CATECHIZE: List of Revolutions in the field of Agriculture in India (catechize20.blogspot.com) The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was founded in 1965. It was initially registered as a society under the Societies Act 1860. It was later merged with the erstwhile Indian Dairy Corporation, a company formed and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by the NDDB Act 1987. The NDDB is an institute of national importance established by an act of the Indian Parliament and thus is a statutory body. National Dairy Development Board Headquarters: Anand, Gujarat It is under the Ministry of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries. It was founded by Dr Verghese Kurien, often called ‘India’s milkman’. It was set up to replicate the success of Amul to the whole of India. (UPSC CSE: Understanding Dairy Cooperatives) Objective: to replace exploitation with empowerment, tradition with modernity, stagnation with growth, transforming dairying into an instrument for the development of India’s rural people. (UPSC CSE: National Dairy Plan ) Mission: of making dairying a vehicle for a better future for millions of grassroots milk producers. (UPSC CSE: Dairy Farming Sector)  The mission achieved thrust and direction with the launching of “Operation Flood“, a programme extending over 26 years and which used a World Bank loan to finance India’s emergence as the world’s largest milk-producing nation. Operation Flood: It was launched in 1970.  Operation Flood has helped dairy farmers direct their own development, placing control of the resources they create in their own hands. The bedrock of Operation Flood has been village milk producers’ cooperatives, which procure milk and provide inputs and services, making modern management and technology available to members. A National Milk Grid links milk producers throughout India with consumers in over 700 towns and cities, reducing seasonal and regional price variations while ensuring that the producer gets fair market prices in a transparent manner on a regular basis. Operation Flood’s objectives included:- Increase milk production (“a flood of milk”) Augment rural incomes Reasonable prices for consumers MUST READ: Women and Cooperative Dairy Farming SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Supreme Court passed an order on the matter of Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary. About Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Chandigarh’s Sukhna wildlife sanctuary remains unprotected as Punjab, Haryana delay on the eco-sensitive zone (mongabay.com) Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is in Chandigarh, and shares boundaries with Punjab and Haryana from the side of Mohali and Panchkula, respectively. (UPSC CSE: Understanding Wildlife Protection) It has an ESZ area of up to 1.75 km, and Birds Sanctuary, Sector 21, has an ESZ of around 100 metres.  It is situated at 1 Km in the North-East of Sukhna Lake.  It forms the part of Sukhna Lake catchment area falling in Shivalik hills. Shivalik hills are ecologically sensitive and geologically unstable. They are highly prone to soil erosion during rains. The soil in the Shivaliks is sandy, embedded with pockets of clay which is highly susceptible to erosion by surface runoff. Sukhna Lake was constructed in 1958 and in the sixties & early seventies, the rate of siltation of the lake was very high due to the high rate of soil erosion from its catchment area. The Punjab and Haryana High Court declared Sukhna Lake (Chandigarh) as a living entity in 2020.  Upto 1988, 66% of the original water holding capacity of the lake was lost due to siltation.  In order to minimize & control soil erosion from hilly catchment areas, various vegetative and engineering methods were adopted by Forest Department. These soil & water conservation measures undertaken on a sustained basis yielded very good results and the rate of siltation of the lake has reduced drastically. Soil conservation measures supplemented with massive afforestation led to the development of a very good forest in the hilly catchment area which is now an ideal habitat for a wide variety of fauna.  Consequently, this area had been notified as “Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary”. (UPSC Mains: Wildlife Diplomacy ) MUST READ: Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Wrestling Federation of India Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Recently, Delhi Police informed the Supreme Court that it will register an FIR against the President of the Wrestling Federation of India. About the Wrestling Federation of India:- The Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is the governing body of wrestling in India. It is headquartered in New Delhi, India. Affiliation: United World Wrestling (UWW) President: Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh Secretary: V.N. Prasood Tournaments:- Pro Wrestling League In 2015, WFI established a Pro Wrestling League tournament to promote the sport. (UPSC CSE: Reformig Sports in India) National Wrestling Championship The National Championships are held annually for Senior and Junior levels. (UPSC MAINS: Social change through sports) MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Washington Declaration Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the 70th anniversary of the Washington Declaration was commemorated. About Washington Declaration:- Washington Declaration is a security alliance between the United States and the Republic of Korea. 26th day of April, 2023 marked the 70th anniversary of the U.S.-ROK Alliance. The Alliance commits to engage in deeper, cooperative decision-making on nuclear deterrence, (UPSC Prelims: Nuclear Weapons)including through enhanced dialogue and information sharing regarding growing nuclear threats to the ROK and the region. Recent developments:-  The two Presidents announced the establishment of a new Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) to strengthen extended deterrence, discuss nuclear and strategic planning, and manage the threat to the non-proliferation regime(UPSC Mains: Nuclear Disarmament) posed by the Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (DPRK). In addition, the Alliance will work to enable joint execution and planning for ROK conventional support to U.S. nuclear operations in a contingency and improve combined exercises and training activities on the application of nuclear deterrence on the Korean Peninsula.  In keeping with the Presidents’ commitments, the Alliance has established a new bilateral, interagency table-top simulation to strengthen our joint approach to planning for nuclear contingencies. MUST READ: NATO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India pushed to widen the scope of the common reporting standard (CRS) in the existing OECD’s Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework. About the Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework:- It provides for the automatic exchange of a predefined set of information between tax authorities. The AEOI Standard requires the annual exchange of information on financial accounts held by non-resident individuals and entities in a pre-defined format. The information exchanged includes details about the financial account and details about the account holder. Under the AEOI framework, signatory countries follow a CRS and obtain information from their financial institutions and automatically exchange that information with other jurisdictions on an annual basis. The AEOI Standard provides a powerful tool to help deter and identify offshore tax evasion through holding financial assets abroad. Indian Scenario:  India currently has AEOI with 108 jurisdictions for receiving financial information and with 79 jurisdictions for sending information automatically. In August 2022, the OECD also approved the Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF). About Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF):- It provides for the reporting of tax information on transactions in crypto assets (UPSC Prelims: Understanding Cryptocurrency) in a standardised manner, with a view to automatically exchanging such information. The CARF aims to ensure the collection and automated exchange of information on crypto assets with jurisdictions of taxpayers’ residences every year in a standardized manner. The framework defines crypto assets as any assets that are held and transferred in a decentralized manner, without the involvement of traditional financial intermediaries. These assets are issued in the form of crypto derivatives, stablecoins, or certain non-fungible tokens. This definition does not include entities that use cryptography only to keep records and does not have ownership rights. It also does not include Central Bank Digital Currency, which has separate reporting requirements. Intermediaries and other service providers enabling the exchange and transfer of crypto-assets(UPSC CSE: Crypto Asset Regulation ) like brokers and ATM operators are included within the scope of this framework. CARF also outlines the data that needs to be reported and the due diligence to be conducted by crypto-asset users. The framework mandates that the crypto asset firms must report to the country in which they operate. They must report about exchanges between relevant crypto assets and fiat currencies, and the exchanges between one or more types of crypto assets as well as other transfers of crypto, including retail payment transactions. The framework requires individual and entity customers and persons to identify themselves. MUST READ: Cryptojacking SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 The third-gen web is about public good Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The 2021 report by the U.S.- India Strategic Partnership Forum states that the third-gen web will be crucial for India to realise its $1.1 trillion digital asset opportunity by 2032. About ‘third-gen web’: Source:  https://flatworldbusiness.wordpress.com/ Web3 is decentralised, privacy-oriented, blockchain-driven and crypto-asset friendly. It also advocates decentralising data storage systems from the single entity or an organisation. It uses file-sharing systems such as the Inter-Planetary File System which are cryptographically protected, more secure and capable of functioning off internet and off blockchains. Web3’s boldest element is the strategic role it assigns to non-custodial wallets that function as digital passports for users to access blockchain-enabled transaction platforms. These wallets aid the creation of a ‘ownership economy,’ whereby creators themselves control their content. Fundamentally, they work as digital proof of identity. Web3 seeks to replace micro-economic organisations with decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs). Significance of WEB 3.0: Web3 is autonomous and reliable, as the data will no longer depend on these large companies or institutions, but on each individual. Web3 seeks to radically transform the manner in which data is generated, monetised, shared and circulated. Non-custodial wallets/digital passports: Web3’s boldest element is the strategic role it assigns to non- custodial wallets that function as digital passports for users to access blockchain-enabled transaction platforms. These wallets aid the creation of an ‘ownership economy,’ whereby creators themselves control their content. Fundamentally, they work as the digital proof of identity. Decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs): Web3 seeks to replace micro-economic organisations with decentralised autonomous organisations (DAOs). Role of digital tokens and cryptocurrencies: At a more macro level, it seeks to create a distributed economic system, where special classes of native digital tokens and cryptocurrencies would form the media of monetary circulation. In general, Web3 platforms would serve to raise the efficiency of peer-to-peer transactions. Benefit of the third-generation web for India: Design-related innovations of India’s handicraft industry are not protected by Intellectual Property rights. The digital tokens minted by Web 3 platforms would enable our handcraft enterprises to secure their innovations. Web 3-based instruction tools enable the rapid dissemination of grassroots innovations from master artisans to fellow members. It would improve the economic fortunes of craftsmen and artisan communities in north-east, western and peninsular India. India’s major digital public infrastructure push and the large-scale deployment of Internet of Things (IoT) in rural development projects offer major possibilities for deploying Web 3 in rural areas. Web 3.0 can also yield insights from large volumes of community data, generated by IoT-enabled development programmes such as the Jal Jeevan Mission. Web 3.0’s natural advantage of facilitating ‘analytics at the edge’ provides considerable scope for mapping the water use habits of communities. India’s National Blockchain Strategy 2021 proposes to explore tokenization and apply blockchains solutions for development programmes. A third-gen web strategy can be helpful in achieving it. Challenges: From a policy perspective, the next-gen web is complex. Part of the problem lies with the diverse descriptors employed by experts. Another constraint today is the inability of data analytics capabilities to catch up with the pace of data generation in rural areas. India has a rapidly expanding pool of data analytics and web design talent. By providing incentives for decentralised analytics and tokenising them (as envisaged in Web 3), it is possible to draw upon the talent pool for the benefit of rural communities. India’s Digital Infrastructure: India is in an evolving process of building a large citizen-scale digital public infrastructure. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to solutions and systems that enable the effective provision of essential society-wide functions and services in the public and private sectors. The Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been promoting simplification and transparency to increase the speed of interaction between individuals, markets, and the government. With the commencement of the Digital India mission in 2015, our payments, provident fund, passports, driving licences, crossing tolls, and checking land records all have been transformed with modular applications built on Aadhaar, UPI, and the India Stack. Way Forward: India’s National Blockchain Strategy 2021 proposes to explore tokenisation and apply blockchains solutions for development programmes. It will be a natural progression for India to craft a third-gen web strategy that optimises public interest. Such a strategy should seek to combine the features of Web3 and Web 3.0. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) framework and Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF) often mentioned in the news are Initiatives of World Bank World Economic Forum Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development European Union Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI): It is the governing body of wrestling in India It is headquartered in Bengaluru It is affiliation to the United World Wrestling (UWW) Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Uttar Pradesh Haryana Gujrat Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 48] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 48-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Oil hypocrisy Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Oil hypocrisy of countries imposing sanctions on Russia came to the surface. About the Oil hypocrisy:- IMAGE SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH Recent reports show that the countries that banned Russian oil imports(UPSCPrelims: Understanding EU ban on Russia’s Oil) instead imported oil commodities worth €42 billion from India, China, United Arab Emirates, Singapore and Turkey after the war started 2022. These five countries were thus identified as ‘laundromats’. The five countries are responsible for 70 per cent of Russia’s crude oil exports. India emerged as the leading exporter of refined oil products at 3.7 million tonnes to Price Cap Coalition countries in 2022. This is an increase of 0.3 million tonnes from the previous year. This was followed by China at three million tonnes and the United Arab Emirates at 2.9 million tonnes. The Price Cap Coalition comprising Australia, Canada, the European Union, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States imposed a maximum price of $60 a barrel of oil transported by vessels owned or insured by some countries in the alliance to third-party countries, with the intention to dent Russia’s financing of the war(UPSCPrelims: Russia-Ukraine War impact, beyond oil).  Since the beginning of the invasion, demand for Russian crude oil has increased significantly by China, India, Turkey, UAE and Singapore. The EU was the largest importer of oil products from these laundromat countries worth €17.7 billion, despite partially banning crude oil imports from Russia last year. This was followed by Australia (€17.7 billion), the USA (€6.6 billion), the UK (€5 billion) and Japan (€4.8 billion). MUST READ: The new energy disorder SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Union Minister for Women and Child Development and Minority Affairs opened a Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) account recently. About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC):- IMAGE SOURCE: Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Form Interest Calculator – Sarkari Yojana – TheHowPedia Mahila Samman Savings Certificate Scheme was announced in the 2023-24 Union Budget (UPSCPrelims: Union Budget Summary 2023-24 ) to commemorate ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’. It is a one-time savings scheme(UPSCPrelims: Understanding Small savings schemes) for women. Objective: to empower women by increasing their participation in investments. It is a significant step towards financial inclusion and empowerment of women including girls. The two-year tenure scheme offers an attractive interest rate of 7.5 per cent compounded quarterly It will have flexible investment and partial withdrawal options with a maximum ceiling of Rs two lakh. The scheme is valid for a two-year period up to 31st March 2025. The scheme has been made available in all 1.59 lakh post offices from April 01, 2023. Deposit limits:- One can start investing in this scheme with a minimum amount of Rs. 1,000 or any other amount in multiples of Rs. 100. But one cannot make additional deposits after that. Under this scheme, one can open multiple accounts, but the maximum total investment should be Rs 2 lakh only. And each account opened should have a three-month gap between the opening date of the existing account and the new account. Eligibility Criteria:- The scheme is exclusively available to women. Any woman above 18 years of age can invest in this scheme by herself.  Also, in the case of minors, the guardian can open the account on behalf of the girl. Tax Benefits of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate:- No information has been provided by the government related to its taxability. Unless more details emerge, normal taxation as per the slab rate can be assumed for this scheme. MUST READ: Mission Shakti SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nuclear liability law Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The issues regarding India’s nuclear liability law came to continue to hold up the plan to build six nuclear power reactors in Maharashtra’s Jaitapur. About Nuclear liability law:- IMAGE SOURCE: jaitapur nuclear power plant map – Brainly.in The laws on civil nuclear liability ensure that compensation is available to the victims for nuclear damage caused by a nuclear incident or disaster and set out who will be liable for those damages.  The international nuclear liability regime consists of multiple treaties and was strengthened after the 1986 Chornobyl nuclear accident(UPSC Prelims: Place in news-Chornobyl). Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC): it is an umbrella convention adopted in 1997. Objective: Establish a minimum national compensation amount. India was a signatory to the CSC, Parliament ratified the convention in 2016. To keep in line with the international convention, India enacted the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA) in 2010, to put in place a speedy compensation mechanism for victims of a nuclear accident(UPSC CSE: Understanding India’s Nuclear Doctrine).  The CLNDA provides for strict and no-fault liability on the operator of the nuclear plant, where it will be held liable for damage regardless of any fault on its part. It establishes legal liability for nuclear harm as well as rapid compensation for victims of nuclear disasters. It specifies the experts who will assess claims of nuclear injury, sanction compensation, and provide financial assurance. It also specifies the amount the operator will have to shell out in case of damage caused by an accident and requires the operator to cover liability through insurance or other financial security. The operator’s maximum liability under Section 6(2) of the Act is Rs. 1500 crore. In case the damage claims exceed ₹1,500 crore, the CLNDA expects the government to step in, in accordance with Section 7(1)(a) of the CLND Act. However, it has limited the government liability amount to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) or about ₹2,100 to ₹2,300 crores. It specifies the limitations on the amount and time when an action for compensation can be brought against the operator. Section 7 (2) of the CLND Act provides that the Central Government may establish a “Nuclear Liability Fund” by charging such amount of levy from the operators, in such manner, as may be prescribed. Any violations of the terms of the act could result in fines. India currently has 22 nuclear reactors(UPSC CSE: Understanding India’s Nuclear Energy).  All the existing reactors are operated by the state-owned Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is a Public Sector Enterprise. It is under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. The Company was registered as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 1956.  Objective: operating atomic power plants and implementing atomic power projects for generation of electricity in pursuance of the schemes and programmes of the Government of India under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. NPCIL is responsible for design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors. Mission: To develop nuclear power technology and to produce nuclear power as a safe, environmentally benign and economically viable source of electrical energy to meet the increasing electricity needs of the country’. Objectives:- To maximise the power generation and profitability from nuclear power stations with the motto ‘safety first and production next’. To increase nuclear power generation capacity in the country, consistent with the available resources in a safe, economical and rapid manner, in keeping with the growth of energy demand in the country. To continue and strengthen QA activities relating to nuclear power programme. To develop personnel at all levels to further improve their skills and performance consistent with the high technology. To strengthen the environmental protection measures relating to nuclear power generation. MUST READ: Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The Union Minister of Science and Technology recently launched the SUPREME initiative. About Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME):- The Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME), is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology. (UPSC CSE: Science and Technology and Indian culture ) It extends financial support for repair, upgradation, maintenance, retrofitting, or acquiring additional attachments to increase the functional capabilities of existing analytical instrumentation facilities. Eligibility: Different facilities created under the projects/ Analytical instrumentation facilities (AIFs) with the support of DST only will be considered for funding support under this Scheme. UGC recognized Central Universities/ State Funded Universities/Deemed Universities /Private Universities among others are also eligible to apply under this scheme(UPSC Mains: Analyzing India’s Higher Education sector). Duration: The duration of support will be for a period not exceeding 3 years. Funding Pattern: The funding pattern in the scheme would be 75:25 for all private and government-owned institutions (except for state-funded institutions for which 100% funding would be considered). MUST READ: Foreign Universities in India PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Interbank Consortium (SCO IBC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India appealed to SCO Interbank Consortium members to increase cooperation among themselves. About SCO Interbank Consortium:- IMAGE SOURCE: SCO 2019: Opportunities and challenges for India | bilaterals.org The SCO Interbank Consortium was established by the member countries of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2005. (UPSC Prelims: Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) ) It provides funding and bank services for investment projects sponsored by the governments of the SCO member states. (UPSC Mains: Significance of SCO for India) Objective: to provide financial services, promote trade, and facilitate investment among the member states. The SCO IBC Council meets ad hoc upon the consensus of all of the parties at least once per year. The Presidency of the Council is carried out on a rotational basis. It consists of major banks from the member countries, such as the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China, the National Bank of Kazakhstan, and the Bank of Russia. The first meeting of the SCO Interbank Association was held in Beijing on 21–22 February 2006. MUST READ: 21st SCO Council Meet SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank  Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 North Sea Summit Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, nine European countries signed a declaration at the North Sea Summit. About North Sea Summit:- IMAGE SOURCE: North Sea – Kids | Britannica Kids | Homework Help The second edition of the  North Sea Summit was held in the city of Ostend in Belgium. Participant countries included: Belgium, Denmark, France, Germany, Ireland, Luxembourg, Netherlands Norway, and the United Kingdom Objective: to make the North Sea the largest green energy (UPSC CSE: Green Energy as a driving force) centre in Europe by accelerating the deployment of offshore wind turbines. The summit set ambitious targets including the production of at least 120 gigawatts (GW) of offshore wind energy(UPCS CSE: Understanding Wind Energy) in the North Sea by 2030 The first summit was held in 2022 in Denmark. It resulted in the Esbjerg Declaration MUST READ: Black Sea Security ties SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement        set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention –    Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue –     Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition –       Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 European Free Trade Association (EFTA) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India and EFTA countries discussed the resumption of talks for a trade pact. About European Free Trade Association (EFTA):- European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organisation established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention. Objective: Promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally. EFTA currently has 4 member countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The EFTA countries have developed one of the largest networks of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). (UPSC Prelims: Understanding Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) ) These FTAs span over 60 countries and territories, including the European Union (EU). In contrast to the EU(UPSC CSE: India-EU trade relations), EFTA is not a customs union. This means that the individual EFTA States are free to set their own customs tariffs and arrange other foreign trade measures vis-à-vis the non-EFTA States. Governance Structure:- EFTA’s highest governing body is the EFTA Council. The headquarters of the EFTA Secretariat is located in Geneva. EFTA Surveillance Authority (ESA): monitors compliance with European Economic Area (EEA) rules in Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway. EFTA Court: is based in Luxembourg and has the competence and authority to settle internal and external disputes regarding the implementation, application or interpretation of the EEA agreement. MUST READ: India-EU: Trade talks SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its form 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Q.2) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (2017) European Union Gulf Cooperation Council Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development Shanghai Cooperation Organization Indiahandmade portal Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the government launched a new e-commerce portal ‘Indiahandmade’. About Indiahandmade:- Indiahandmade Portal is an e-commerce portal(UPSC CSE: Understanding e-commerce) launched by the Indian Government. Objective: Empower artisans and weavers by providing them with a platform to sell their products directly to customers. This initiative is part of the government’s efforts to promote local artisans and craftsmanship and support the “Vocal for Local” movement. (UPSC Mains: understanding ‘vocal for local’ strategy) It provides a platform for artisans and weavers to showcase their products to a wide customer base. It connects artisans and weavers directly to buyers through a common platform. Indiahandmade Portal offers an opportunity for weavers and artisans to become future e-entrepreneurs. The portal provides free handholding to sellers from registration to order fulfilment, helping them with logistics, payments, and other aspects of online selling.  This empowers weavers and artisans with the necessary tools and support to become successful e-entrepreneurs and grow their businesses. The portal does not charge any commission from sellers, ensuring that artisans and weavers receive the full value of their products.  Free shipping is provided to customers, making it convenient and cost-effective for them to purchase products from the portal. It also provides a return option to customers, ensuring a seamless buying experience. Multiple payment gateways are available for customers to pay online, providing flexibility and convenience in payment options.  The portal complements the PM-VIKAS initiative by providing a platform for artisans and weavers to showcase their products and sell them directly to customers.  PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman Yojana (PM-VIKAS): aims to provide small artisans and craftsmen with training on quality, scale, and reach, as well as access to advanced skill training, modern digital techniques, brand promotion, linkage with local and global markets, digital payments, and social security. MUST READ: Empowering MSMEs digitally SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Achieving Universal Health Care Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Universal Health Care can help to address the current health disparities that exist in India, as it would ensure that everyone, regardless of their social status, has access to essential health services. About Universal Health Coverage/Care: The United Nations defines UHC as “everyone, everywhere should have access to the health services they need without risk of financial hardship.” Sustainable Development Goals target 3.8 also focuses on achieving universal health coverage. In the context of India, this includes health promotion, prevention, treatment, rehabilitation, and palliative care, without experiencing any financial hardship or risk of impoverishment. The Evolution of Universal Health Care: In 1977, the World Health Assembly endorsed the slogan “Health for All by 2000,” implying universalization. Thus, nobody is denied this and everybody is eligible without being discriminated against on the basis of financial status, gender, race, place of residence, affordability to pay, or any other factors. India committed itself to this goal through its National Health Policy in 1983. India’s Initiatives for UHC: National Health Mission (NHM): NHM was launched by the Union Government in 2013 subsuming the National Rural Health Mission (2005) and the National Urban Health Mission (2013). Main components: Health System Strengthening Reproductive-Maternal- Neonatal-Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases NHM envisages achievement of universal access to equitable, affordable & quality health care services that are accountable and responsive to people’s needs. Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0: Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 is an Integrated Nutrition Support Programme. It seeks to address the challenges of malnutrition in children, adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers through a strategic shift in nutrition content and delivery and by creation of a convergent eco-system to develop and promote practices that nurture health, wellness and immunity. Components: Nutrition Support for POSHAN through Supplementary Nutrition Programme (SNP); Early Childhood Care and Education [3-6 years] and early stimulation for (0-3 years); Anganwadi Infrastructure including modern, upgraded Saksham Anganwadi; and Poshan Abhiyaan aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum r National Food Security Act (NFSA): The Union Government provides food grains at low cost under the NFSA. The act aims to ensure people’s food and nutritional security by assuring access to enough high-quality food at reasonable prices. Advantages of Universal health coverage in India: Improved access to health services: UHC would ensure that all Indians have access to necessary healthcare services, including preventive care, treatment, and rehabilitation, regardless of their financial status or geographic location. Better health outcomes: Access to healthcare services will improve health outcomes and reduce mortality rates by diagnosing and treating illnesses and diseases at an earlier stage. Reduced financial burden: UHC would protect individuals and families from catastrophic healthcare expenses, reducing the financial burden on households and preventing them from falling into poverty due to healthcare costs. Increased government accountability: UHC would increase government accountability in healthcare, as the government would be responsible for ensuring that all citizens have access to essential health services. Increased productivity: Improved health outcomes would lead to increased productivity and economic growth as a healthy workforce is more productive. Challenges in Implementing UHC in India: Inequitable Access to Health Insurance: The lowest coverage of health insurance is among households with the lowest wealth quintile and underprivileged sections, indicating a lack of equitable access to health insurance. The NFHS-5 results paint a different picture for India, where insurance coverage is lowest (36.1%) among households with the lowest wealth quintile. Lack of Financial Protection: Despite the existence of schemes like Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram, the average out-of-pocket expenditure per delivery in public health facilities is still high, particularly in urban areas. The latest report of NFHS revealed that the average out-of-pocket expenditure per delivery in a public health facility is Rs. 2,916, which in the case of urban and rural stands at Rs. 3,385 and Rs. 2,770. Inclusion and Exclusion Errors in Health Insurance Policies: Recent studies have shown that like earlier health insurance policies, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) is also not free from inclusion and exclusion errors, which could lead to the inclusion of ineligible households and exclusion of eligible households. Availability of Services: Although 56% of empanelled hospitals under the PMJAY are in the public sector, 40% are in the private for-profit sector, indicating that the availability of services may be concentrated in areas with previous experience implementing publicly funded health insurance schemes. Inadequate Infrastructure: In many low- and middle-income countries, the lack of proper infrastructure is a significant challenge to achieving UHC. This includes inadequate health facilities, inadequate equipment, and inadequate medical supplies. There is a shortfall of 79.5% of specialists at the Community Health Centers (CHCs) as compared to the requirement. Poor Health Education: Lack of education and awareness regarding healthy lifestyles and preventive health measures can lead to an increase in preventable illnesses and conditions. Way Forward: India’s National Health Mission, with concurrent intersectoral thrusts on Poshan Abhiyan, National Food Security, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, etc., is a better model of fully tax-funded Universal Health Care. Thus, moving forward with a newer concept of Universal Health Care is necessary to encompass primary, secondary, and tertiary care for all who need it at an affordable cost without discrimination. Source:  The Hindu MUST READ:   India’s Healthcare Sector Welcome to the brain economy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: emergence of brain economy in recent times, that is Technology driven knowledge based economy, which will change the way we look at labour, capital and skills. About Brain Economy: Source:   https://www.nature.com The Brain Economy refers to the shift towards a knowledge-based economy where the primary source of economic growth is driven by innovation and creativity, and the ability to generate, process, and use knowledge effectively. Advantages of the brain economy Higher Productivity: With advancements in technology and automation, the brain economy has the potential to significantly increase productivity and efficiency. Improved Quality of Life: Brain-based work can create jobs that are less physically demanding and more intellectually stimulating. This can lead to an improved quality of life for those who work in the brain economy. Increased Innovation: Brain-based work is about rapid innovation and creation, driven by technology. This can lead to new products, services, and technologies that can enhance people’s lives. Amazon, for example, has brains that create new offerings, skills that maintain their vast data centres and bodies that deliver packages to homes. Increased Collaboration: The brain economy requires collaboration across different fields, disciplines, and cultures. This can lead to increased cooperation and understanding among people from diverse backgrounds. Consistency in Social Progress: Technology and brain power can be used to address social and environmental challenges, such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and healthcare. Much Flexibility: With technology, brain-based work can be done from anywhere, at any time, providing greater flexibility for workers and businesses. Easy Access to Information: Technology has made it easier than ever to access information and knowledge, which can help to create a more informed and educated society. Personal Development: Brain-based work requires continuous learning and personal development, which can lead to increased self-awareness, creativity, and adaptability. Challenges for the brain economy: Inequality: The brain economy has the potential to exacerbate inequality by assigning exponentially differential values to body, skill, and brain. This can lead to a widening gap between those who have access to education and training in advanced technology and those who do not. Ethical dilemmas: As technology continues to evolve and become more integrated into the brain economy, ethical dilemmas around privacy, inclusivity, fairness, and the impact on social issues such as gender parity and wealth sharing may arise. Regulatory challenges: The fast-paced nature of technology development in the brain economy may pose regulatory challenges for policymakers and regulators. There may be a need for more agile and responsive regulatory frameworks to keep pace with technological developments. Access to technology: Not everyone may have access to the technology required to participate in the brain economy, leading to a digital divide and further exacerbating inequality. Job displacement: The rise of the brain economy may result in the displacement of jobs that require physical labor or lower levels of skill, leading to job losses in certain sectors. This may also require significant retraining and upskilling of workers in order to adapt to the new demands of the economy. Societal impacts: The widespread adoption of technology in the brain economy may have significant societal impacts, such as changes to the nature of work, social relationships, and human behavior. It will be important to monitor these impacts and take steps to mitigate any negative effects. Environmental impact: The growth of the brain economy may lead to increased energy consumption and environmental impact, particularly as new technologies such as quantum computing and genetic engineering become more prevalent. It will be important to consider the environmental impact of these technologies and take steps to mitigate any negative effects. Way Forward: There is a need to abandon outdated stereotypes of evil corporations, sinful profits and inhuman technology. The myth of man vs machine needs to be ended. Technology doesn’t destroy jobs, instead It creates jobs, liberates people and drives social progress. The education architecture of the country needs to be revamped. Students and teachers in primary and secondary education need to be equipped with technology. Failures in experimentation and creation in schools should be celebrated. Multidisciplinary research universities should be created on a war footing. Courses in different aspects of technology must be made mandatory for all liberal arts programmes, just like liberal arts courses should be made mandatory in all science and technology departments. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following countries: Belgium Sweden France Finland the United Kingdom which of the above countries borders with the North Sea? 1 3 and 4 only 2 4 and 5 only 1 3 and 5 only All of the above Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Support for Up-gradation Preventive Repair and Maintenance of Equipment (SUPREME) Initiative: It extends financial support for repair, upgradation, maintenance, retrofitting, or acquiring additional attachments to increase the functional capabilities of existing analytical instrumentation facilities. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to India’s Nuclear Energy, which of the following statements is not correct? India is signatory to the Convention on Supplementary Compensation which ensures compensation is available to the victims for nuclear damage caused by a nuclear incident or disaster India currently has 25 nuclear reactors All the existing reactors are operated by the state-owned Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) NPCIL works under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 47] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 47-> Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, UNPFII called for inclusion of indigenous people in socio-economic development, and conservation of the environment. About United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII):- IMAGE SOURCE: Fourth World: Least Developed Countries And A Look At Their Economy (valuewalk.com) The United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) is a high-level advisory body to the Economic and Social Council. The Forum was established on 28 July 2000 by resolution 2000/22. It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights. The first meeting of the Permanent Forum was held in May 2002, with yearly sessions thereafter. The Forum usually meets for 10 days each year, at the UN Headquarters in New York. The Permanent Forum is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with indigenous peoples’ issues. The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and the Special Rapporteur on the Rights of indigenous peoples. The UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues is the largest international gathering of Indigenous Peoples, with more than 1000 participants expected to attend. The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023.  It has the theme “Indigenous Peoples, human health, planetary and territorial health and climate change: a rights-based Approach”. MUST READ: United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements (2016) The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Manamadurai pottery Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu’s Manamadurai pottery got a GI tag. About Manamadurai Pottery:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Ceramic Pottery PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:5649934 (slideserve.com) Manamadurai, a small village in the Sivagangai district of Tamil Nadu, is known for its pottery making. The tradition has been passed down from generation to generation, and today, Manamadurai pottery is recognized worldwide for its unique style and craftsmanship. The main raw material used for making Manamadurai pottery is mud. The clay used for the pottery is enriched by the Vaigai River which runs through the village. The Vaigai River contributes to the quality of the clay used in the pottery, making it ideal for the process. The making of Manamadurai pottery involves the use of the five elements of nature, namely, earth, water, fire, air, and space. These elements are believed to give the pots a unique quality that cannot be replicated by modern machinery. To improve the quality of the pottery, sand is added to the clay mixture. Lead, graphite, calcium lime, ash, red lead, sodium silicate, manganese, iron, and plasticizing are added to the mixture to make the pottery strong. Pot making requires expertise and is one of the most critical factors in proportion. The bottom of the pot has to be perfectly round, and the circumference of the pot and the neck should be proportionate. MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                   Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh       Terracotta art Ganeshwar                 Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                               Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls                   Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery                    Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris             Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Zero Shadow Day Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Bengaluru saw Zero Shadow Day. About Zero Shadow Day:- IMAGE SOURCE: YOUTH TREND ‘Zero Shadow Day’ is an astronomical event that occurs twice a year on specific dates in some parts of the world. It is a phenomenon that occurs when the Sun is directly overhead.  The shadows of vertical objects such as poles, trees, and buildings disappear completely for a brief period of time during this. There are two zero shadow days every year in May and July/August, observed in places that lie between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn. One fall during the Uttarayan (when the Sun moves northwards). The other is during Dakshinayan (when the Sun moves southwards). It lasts for a small part of a second, but the effect can be seen for a minute to a minute-and-a-half. Ramanujam explained that the Sun’s location moves from 23.5°N to 23.5°S of Earth’s equator and back. All places whose latitude equals the angle between the Sun’s location and the equator on that day experience zero shadow day, with the shadow beneath an object at local noon. MUST READ: Aditya-L1 Mission SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Thirunelly temple Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) has urged the government to conserve the Thirunelly temple. About Thirunelly temple:- IMAGE SOURCE: temple architecture types – Bing images The Thirunelly Maha Vishnu temple is an iconic temple in Wayanad, Kerala near Brahmagiri hills.  It is also known as ”Sahyamala Kshetram” and ”Kashi of the South”. Thirunelly Temple embodies classical, traditional Kerala architecture.  A famous pilgrim centre, this temple, which is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. It is considered an important pilgrimage centre for Hindus. It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, the holy river, which is believed to have the power to wash away sins, Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha. The temple has a unique circular structure made of granite stones, which is believed to have been constructed by Lord Brahma himself. The shrine is shielded with 30 granite columns and the ground is paved with huge square pieces of granite. It has beautiful architecture and features intricate carvings, mural paintings, and sculptures. Thirunelli Temple is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death. On the western side of the temple is the cave temple Gunnika, dedicated to Lord Shiva. MUST READ: Srisailam Temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Tughlaqabad Fort Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Delhi HC asked the ASI to remove encroachments around the Tughlaqabad Fort. About Tughlaqabad Fort:- The Tughlaqabad Fort in Delhi which is in complete ruins now, was built by Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq. Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq: The first Sultan of the Tughlaq Dynasty in 1321. Curse of the Tomb: The legend has it that Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq wanted a powerful fortress which could stand up to a Mongol assault. Hence, soon after he ascended the throne, he began to work on the township and made it mandatory for all the workers of Delhi to work on the fort.  Around the same time, Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, a mystic Sufi Saint was building a Baoli (step well) at his khanqah (dwelling place). The workers worked all day at the fort and night, they would work on the Baoli. This angered the Sultan. He banned the supply of oil to Nizamuddin so that the lamps could not be lit at the construction site of the Baoli. It infuriated Nizamuddin Auliya and he used his mystical powers to turn the water of the well into oil. He also cursed Tughlaqabad saying, “Ya rahe ujjar ya base gujjar,” (either it will be left desolate or occupied by the nomadic herdsmen). The fortified city was built in four years on the rocky terrain, as a defence mechanism. It is in two parts, the citadel and palaces along the southern walls forming one unit and the city to the north the other. Across the main entrance from the south is Ghiyathu’d-Din’s tomb is located. It is faced with red sandstone relieved by marble, and with batter on the exterior. It is enclosed within high walls forming an irregular pentagon. Ghiyathu’d-Din’s successor, Muhammad Tughluq (1325-51), added the small fortress of ‘Adilabad’ on the hill south of Tughluqabad, with which it shares the main characteristics of construction. MUST READ: Raigad fort SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022) The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the northwest of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Quasars Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies show that Galaxy mergers ignite ‘quasars’. About Quasars:- IMAGE SOURCE: Quasars INFO – Bing images Quasars are the brightest and the most powerful objects in the universe. A quasar is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN), in which a supermassive black hole with mass ranging from millions to billions of times the mass of the Sun is surrounded by a gaseous accretion disk. As gas in the disk falls towards the black hole, energy is released in the form of electromagnetic radiation. The power radiated by quasars is enormous.  The most powerful quasars have luminosities thousands of times greater than a galaxy such as the Milky Way. Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre which sucks in surrounding objects. Quasars are formed by the energy emitted by materials spiralling around a black hole right before being sucked into it. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Wheat blast Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent spread of the Wheat blast threatens food security globally. About Wheat Blast:- The wheat blast is a fungal disease.  It affects wheat production in tropical and subtropical regions. It is caused by Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT).  It was identified in Brazil in 1985. The fungus infects wild and cultivated grasses, most notably rice and wheat. It spreads through infected seeds, and crop residues as well as by spores that can travel long distances in the air. It spread to major-wheat producing areas in the country and then to other South American countries like Bolivia, Paraguay, and Argentina. Asia’s first outbreak of this pathogenic wheat blast was reported in Bangladesh in 2016. MUST READ: India and Wheat Exports SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ajeya Warrior 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, the exercise ‘Ajeya Warrior 2023’ took place. About Ajeya Warrior 2023:- It is a bilateral training exercise between the armies of India and the UK. This is the 7th edition of the exercise. It aims to improve interoperability between the two forces while carrying out operations in accordance with UN mandates. The exercise will witness the participation of an infantry company from India and a unit of equal strength from the British Army. The soldiers of both countries will practice using each other’s weapons, war tactics, equipment, war strategies, and procedures for conducting combined military operations in difficult situations. In addition, there will also be a number of expert academic discussions on a range of topics of common interest, such as the combined arms concept, operation logistics, sharing of joint force experience, etc. MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (2016) European Union Gulf Cooperation Council Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development Shanghai Cooperation Organization Q.2) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (2016) ASEAN BRICS EU G20 Gig Workers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Rajasthan Government is about to bring the Rajasthan Platform-based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023, which has stringent provisions against errant aggregators, including barring them from operating in the State. About Gig Economy: A gig economy is a free market system in which organisations hire or contract workers for a short span of time. Simply put, the positions are temporary to meet the company’s requirements by having short-term engagements. Startups like Ola, Uber, Zomato, and Swiggy have established themselves as the main source of the gig economy in India. India and Gig Economy: In 2020, 7.7 million workers were engaged in the gig economy. The gig workforce is expected to expand to 5 million workers by 2029-30. At present about 47% of the gig work is in medium skilled jobs, about 22% in high skilled, and about 31% in low skilled jobs. Trend shows the concentration of workers in medium skills is gradually declining and that of the low skilled and high skilled is increasing. It may be expected that while the domination of medium skills would continue till 2030, gig work with other skills will emerge. About Gig workers: According to the Code on Social Security, 2020 (India), “A gig worker is a person who performs work or participates in work arrangements and earns from such activities, outside of the traditional employer-employee relationship.” They are independent contractors, online platform workers, contract firm workers, on-call workers and temporary workers. Reasons for a rise in Gig Workers: Post Pandemic: The trend accelerated during the 2020 COVID-19 pandemic, the gig economy experienced significant increases as gig workers delivered necessities to home-bound consumers, and those whose jobs had been eliminated turned to part-time and contract work for income. Freedom to work from anywhere: These types of positions facilitate independent contracting work, with many of them not requiring a freelancer to come into an office. Wide Range of Applicants: Employers also have a wider range of applicants to choose from because they don’t have to hire someone based on their proximity. Rise of Technology and Internet: Rise of fast internet and smartphones have made it easier to work from anywhere easily. Convenient for Small Organisations: Employers who cannot afford to hire full-time employees to do all the work will often hire part-time or temporary employees to take care of busier times or specific projects. More income with more work: People often find they need to move or take multiple positions to afford the lifestyle they want. It’s also common to change careers many times throughout a lifetime, so the gig economy can be viewed as a reflection of this occurring on a large scale. Benefits Employers: Employers do not need to provide related benefits, such as medical insurance, Provident Fund, and year-end bonuses which make it a better option for them to pay only for work on a unit basis. Work for All: Students can choose lower-skilled jobs and work without academic or professional qualifications. Retirees, housewives, etc. may find it difficult to find part-time jobs on weekdays, but now they can make good use of their spare time to earn extra money. Issues related to Gig Workers in India: Lack of Job and Social Security: Many gig workers in India are not covered by labour codes and do not have access to benefits such as health insurance and retirement plans. Additionally, gig workers often do not receive the same level of protection as traditional employees in the event of injury or illness. Digital Divide: The gig economy heavily relies on technology and internet access, this creates a barrier for those who lack access to these resources, and further exacerbates income inequality. Lack of Data: There is a lack of data and research on the gig economy in India which makes it difficult for policy makers to understand its size, scope, and impact on the economy and workforce. Exploitation by Companies: Gig workers in India are often paid less than traditional employees and may not have the same legal protections. Some companies may also exploit gig workers by misclassifying them as independent contractors to avoid liability and avoid paying taxes. Steps Taken by Government of India for Gig Workers Code of Social Security, 2020: The Government has formulated the Code on Social Security, 2020 which envisages framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. However, these provisions under the Code have not come into force. Platform workers are those whose work is based on online software apps or digital platforms. Non-platform gig workers are generally casual wage workers and own-account workers in the conventional sectors, working part-time or full time. e-Shram Portal: The Government has also launched e-Shram portal in 2021 for registration and creation of a Comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers including gig workers and platform workers. It allows a person to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, which is spread across around 400 occupations. Way Forward: Social Security Blanket: The government should ensure that gig workers have access to social security programs such as pension schemes and health insurance to ensure financial security for older workers. Education and Training: The government should invest in education and training programs for gig workers to improve their skills and increase their earning potential. Encourage Fair Competition and Innovation: Government can encourage fair competition by having regulations that prevent companies from misclassifying workers as independent contractors and by enforcing fair trade practices. Source:  Hindustan Times 50 Years of Kesavananda Bharati Case and its Legacy Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The seminal ruling in Kesavananda Bharati, in which the Supreme Court laid down the “basic structure” doctrine on the limits of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, recently completed 50 years. The Supreme Court’s 13 judges bench in the Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973 articulated the “doctrine of basic structure”. According to this doctrine, the Parliament cannot use its amending power under Article 368 to destroy the basic structure of the Indian constitution such as democracy, secularism, federalism, judicial independence, etc. The basic structure doctrine is a judicial principle that limits the power of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution. The significance of this case: Established Supremacy of the Constitution: It established the supremacy of the Constitution over the Parliament and the executive and limited their power to amend the Constitution without affecting its basic features. Protected Fundamental Rights: It preserved the democratic and federal nature of the Constitution and protected the rights and freedoms of the citizens from arbitrary or authoritarian amendments. Judicial Review: It asserted the judicial review power of the Supreme Court to examine the validity of any constitutional amendment and strike it down if it violated the basic structure doctrine. Primacy of Fundamental Rights over DPSPs: It resolved the conflict between the fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy, and harmonized them by giving primacy to the former over the latter. Judiciary power to define “basic structure”: It paved the way for subsequent judgments that expanded and enriched the basic structure doctrine, such as the Minerva Mills case (1980), which added secularism and judicial independence as basic features, and the Indira Gandhi case (1975), which invalidated the 39th Amendment that sought to immunize the election of the Prime Minister from judicial scrutiny. Doctrine of Basic Structure: The Constitutional Bench in Kesavananda Bharati case ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution. However, the court did not define the term ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism, democracy — as being its part. The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include – The supremacy of the Constitution, The rule of law, Independence of the judiciary, Doctrine of separation of powers, Sovereign democratic republic, The parliamentary system of government, The principle of free and fair elections, Welfare state, etc. An example of the application of basic structure is the SR Bommai case (1994). In this case the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of BJP governments by the President following the demolition of the Babri Masjid, invoking a threat to secularism by these governments. Application of the doctrine in 50 years: Since 1973, the year of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Constitution has been amended more than 60 times. In these five decades, the Supreme Court has tested constitutional amendments against the doctrine of basic structure in at least 16 cases. In nine of these 16 cases, the Supreme Court has upheld constitutional amendments that had been challenged on grounds of violation of the basic structure doctrine. Six of these cases relate to reservations — including the quota for Other Backward Classes (OBC) and Economically Weaker Section (EWS), and reservations in promotions. National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC): The Supreme Court has struck down a constitutional amendment entirely just once — The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014. The Act established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), the body that would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges, replacing the current Collegium system. The amendment was struck down by a five-judge Constitution Bench in 2015 on the grounds that it threatened “judicial independence”, which the court ruled was a basic feature of the Constitution. Partially struck down: In six instances since 1973, including the Kesavananda ruling itself, the Supreme Court has “partially struck down” a constitutional amendment. In all these cases, the provision that was struck down related to the denial of judicial review. Just one of these six rulings involve an amendment that was not made during the Indira Gandhi era — in Kihoto Hollohan, which dealt with the Tenth Schedule. Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others (1992): The Supreme Court upheld The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act that introduced the Tenth Schedule or the so-called “anti-defection law” in the Constitution. The only portion of the amendment that was struck down was the one that stated that the decisions of the Speaker relating to disqualification cannot be judicially reviewed. In 2021, a three-judge Bench of the court struck down a portion of The Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011, but on procedural — not basic structure — grounds. The amendment changed the legal regime for cooperative societies Way Forward: The Basic Structure Doctrine is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution, which has been instrumental in ensuring the preservation of the fundamental principles of democracy and protecting the rights of citizens. Its establishment in the Kesavananda Bharati case is a testament to the strength and resilience of India’s democratic institutions and the judiciary’s commitment to upholding the Constitution. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Thirunelly temple: It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, , Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha. It is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death. Which of the statements given above i/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the statements given below is not correct regarding the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII)? It is a high-level advisory body to the UN Economic and Social Council. It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights. The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023. It has the theme ““Indigenous peoples, business, autonomy and the human rights principles of due diligence including free, prior and informed consent”. Q.3) Manamadurai pottery recently receives Geographical Indication Tag belong to Kerala Odisha Tamil Nadu Telangana Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 46] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 46-> Click Here