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[DAY 2] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 2 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) World Bank index on the life cycle of working women Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, India scored 74.4 on the World Bank index on the life cycle of working women. About the World Bank index on the life cycle of working women: The Index is an annual study conducted by the World Bank that measures the laws and regulations affecting women’s economic opportunities across 190 economies. The Index considers eight indicators measuring women’s interactions with the Law during their business. These are: Mobility Workplace Pay Marriage Parenthood Entrepreneurship Assets Pension. The index is divided into three categories: Starting a job, During employment, and After employment. Each category includes a set of indicators that measure the specific challenges and opportunities faced by women at different stages of their careers. Objective : The purpose of the index is to provide policymakers and stakeholders with data and insights that can be used to inform policies and programs aimed at improving women’s economic opportunities and outcomes. India’s performance: India has scored 4 out of 100 in the World Bank Index on the life cycle of working women, which measures factors like laws, regulations, and practices affecting women’s economic participation. This score places India at 140th out of 190 countries surveyed in the index. India’s score on the index that assesses the life cycle of the working woman dropped to 74.4. In the 2023 index only 14 (Belgium, Canada, Denmark, etc) economies scored a perfect 100. The primary reason for this was that the laws concerning wages and pensions were not providing equality among men and women. India’s score was above the regional average for South Asia (63.7) but lower than that of Nepal (80.6), which was the highest in the region. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically? (2015) The Asian Development Bank The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development The US Federal Reserve Bank The World Bank Q.2) India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (2016) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) World Economic Forum World Bank World Trade Organization (WTO) Samarth Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity (Government Schemes ), Economy Context: Recently, the government announced its plans to rope in more industry partners to increase the pace of training under its flagship SAMARTH scheme for skill development in the textile sector. About the SAMARTH scheme : Samarth is a demand-driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of the Ministry of Textiles. The implementation period of the scheme: is up to March 2024. The training programme and course curriculum have been rationalized keeping in view the technological and market demand of the domestic and international economies. In addition to the entry-level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in the Apparel & Garmenting segments. Samarth also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of the traditional textile sector such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute. Objectives : to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Implementation : The Samarth scheme is implemented through Implementing Partners (IPs) comprising of Textile Industry/ Industry Associations, State government agencies and Sectoral Organizations of the Ministry of Textiles like DC/ Handloom, DC/Handicrafts and Central Silk Board. Advanced features : Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS), Training of Trainers (ToT), CCTV recording of the training programme, a dedicated call centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web-based Management Information System (MIS), on-line monitoring of the training process etc. The State, District, and Training Centre-wise information/ data in the dashboard is available in the public domain. Source: THE ECONOMIC TIMES Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Yellowstone national park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography, Environment, and Ecology Context: Recently, Yellowstone celebrated its  151st anniversary. About Yellowstone national park : Yellowstone National Park is an American national park located in the western United States. Salient features : Yellowstone National Park was the first national park in the US and is also widely held to be the first national park in the world. The park is known for its wildlife and its many geothermal features, especially the Old Faithful geyser, one of its most popular. The subalpine forest is the most abundant. It is part of the South-Central Rockies forests ecoregion. The rivers of the Snake-Columbia basin, Green-Colorado basin, and Missouri River Basin all begin as snow on the Continental Divide as it weaves across Yellowstone’s peaks and plateaus. Yellowstone Lake is one of the largest high-elevation lakes in North America and is centered over the Yellowstone Caldera, the largest supervolcanic on the continent. Caldera : A large bowl-shaped volcanic depressionis more than one kilometre in diameter and rimmed by in facing scarps. It is usually formed by the collapse of the top of a volcanic cone or group of cones because of the removal of the support formerly furnished by an underlying body of magma (molten rock). Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: ( 2020) River                                    Flows into Mekong –                   Andaman Sea Thames –                     Irish Sea Volga –                     Caspian Sea Zambezi –                  Indian Ocean Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1,2 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2019) Sea                   Bordering country Adriatic Sea : Albania Black Sea: Croatia Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan Mediterranean : Sea Morocco Red Sea:  Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23) and INS Trikand Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: INS Trikand will be participating in the International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23) which will be held in the Gulf region. About International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23): IMX/CE-23 is one of the largest multinational maritime exercises in the world. This is Indian Navy’s maiden IMX participation. The International Maritime Exercise is coordinated by the US-led Combined Maritime Forces (CMF). Combined Maritime Forces (CMF) – a 34-nation naval group that seeks to promote security, stability, and prosperity. India became an associate member of CMF in 2022. It  marks the second occasion where an Indian Naval ship is participating in an exercise conducted by the CMF. Earlier, INS Trikand had participated in the CMF-led Operation Sea Sword 2 in 2022. About INS Trikand: ‘INS Trikand’ is a Stealth Frigate. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2013. It is the last of the three “Follow On Talwar Class” frigates built in the Russian Federation. The other ships of the class:  INS Teg and INS Tarkash INS Trikand carries a state-of-the-art combat suite which includes the supersonic BRAHMOS missile system, advanced Surface to Air missiles Shtil, upgraded A190 medium range gun, Electro-optical 30 mm Close-in Weapon System, Anti-Submarine weapons such as torpedoes and rockets and an advanced Electronic Warfare system. The weapons and sensors are integrated through a Combat Management System ‘Trebovanie-M’, which enables the ship to simultaneously neutralize multiple surfaces, sub-surface and air threats. The ship also incorporates innovative features to reduce radar, magnetic, and acoustic signatures, which have earned this class of ships the sobriquet of ‘Stealth’ frigates. The ship is powered by four gas turbines and is capable of speeds in excess of 30 knots. The ship can carry an integrated Kamov 31 helicopter which is best suited for airborne early warning roles. Source: PIB  Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Methane Global Tracker report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Agencies and reports , Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) released its annual Methane Global Tracker report. About Methane Global Tracker report: It is an annual report published by the International Energy Agency (IEA). Background : Methane is a greenhouse gas responsible for 30% of warming since preindustrial times, second only to carbon dioxide. Methane is 80 times more potent at warming than carbon dioxide. Key Findings of the report : The report shows that 75% of methane emissions can be reduced with cheap and readily available technology. Global Methane Pledge – 150 countries have joined the Global Methane Pledge which aims to reduce methane emissions from human activity by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. India has committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33-35% below 2005 levels by 2030. The energy sector accounts for around 40% of total average methane emissions. 80% of available options to curb methane emissions can be implemented at net zero cost. Implementing methane reduction measures would cost less than 3% of the net income received by the oil and gas industry in 2022. Reduction of 75% of natural gas wastage could lower global temperature rise by nearly 0.1 degree Celsius by mid-century. About the International Energy Agency (IEA) : It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Headquarters:  Paris The IEA is made up of 31 member countries. Objective:  to promote reliable, affordable, and clean energy for its member countries and the rest of the world. The Agreement on an International Energy Program (IEP Agreement) established the mandates and structure of the IEA under the umbrella of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Eligibility Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must have crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply. India became an Associate member of IEA in 2017. India inked a Strategic Partnership Agreement with the IEA to strengthen cooperation in global energy security, stability, and sustainability in 2021. India’s current strategic oil reserves equal 9.5 days of its requirement. India is not a member of the OECD but a key economic partner. IEA invited India to deepen its cooperation with IEA by becoming a full Member. Key publications of IEA : World Energy Outlook (WEO) Net Zero by 2050: a roadmap for the global energy sector Energy Technology Perspectives (ETP) Global EV Outlook (GEVO) Oil Market Report World Energy Investment Clean Energy Transitions Programme MUST READ Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q3. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea National Commission for minorities Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the National Commission for Minorities rescued stranded Indians from Libya. About the National Commission for minorities : It was established by the Union Government in 1992 under the National Commission for Minorities Act. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains are six religious communities that have been designated as minority communities by the Union Government in India’s Gazette. Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians, and Muslims were notified in 1993 Jains were added later in 2014. According to the 2001 Census, these six communist countries account for 18.8% of the country’s population. Composition: NCM consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and five members. All the members shall be from amongst the minority communities. A total of 7 persons to be nominated by the Central Government should be from amongst persons of eminence, ability, and integrity. Tenure: Each Member holds office for a period of three years from the date of assumption of office. The Chairperson or a member can resign from office by writing to the Central Government. Removal of Office of Chairperson The Central Government shall remove a person from the office of Chairperson or the member if they: Become an undischarged insolvent. Are declared having an unsound mind by a competent court. He refused to act or become incapable of acting. Have been convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offense which in the opinion of the Central Government involves moral turpitude. Absent from three consecutive meetings without obtaining leave of absence. Abused the position of chairperson or member in the opinion of the Central Government. Detrimental to the interest of minorities or public interest. However, No person shall be removed under this clause until the person has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter. Functions: Recommending Union and State Government regarding Implementation of Safeguards for the minorities. Address the complaints regarding the deprivation of rights of minorities and take up such matters with the rightful authorities. The commission shall perform any of the functions mentioned above and have all powers of civil court. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? (2014) The Finance Commission The National Development Council The Union Ministry of Rural Development The Union Ministry of Urban Development The Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hindu growth rate Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims –  Economy Context: Recently, former RBI Governor ,Raghuram Rajan claimed that India is ‘dangerously close’ to the Hindu rate of growth. About Hindu growth rate : Hindu rate of growth is a term describing low Indian economic growth rates from the 1950s to the 1980s, which averaged around 4%. The term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ was coined by Professor Rajkrishna, an Indian economist, in 1978 to characterize the slow growth and to explain it against the backdrop of socialistic economic policies. The term came into being to show India’s contentment with the low growth rate, post-independence. The word “Hindu” in the term was used by some early economists to imply that the Hindu outlook of fatalism and contentedness was responsible for the slow growth. Many economists believed that the so-called Hindu rate of growth was a result of socialist policies implemented by the then-staunch secular governments and had nothing to do with Hinduism. A small growth rate alone does not characterize the Hindu rate of growth. A prolonged low growth rate, albeit not an economic contraction, is not sufficient to be deemed as the Hindu rate of growth. In addition to growth being low and extending over a long period of time, the term also captures a low per-capita GDP, by factoring in the population growth. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (2021) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks Increase in the banking habit of the people Increase in the population of the country Rupee appreciation and depreciation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Rupee gained 8 paise to close at 82.50 against the U.S. dollar recently. About depreciation : Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. Rupee depreciation means that the rupee has become less valuable with respect to the dollar. It also means that the rupee is now weaker than what it used to be earlier. Factors affecting depreciation : Wear and Tear due to Use or Passage of Time: It is the deterioration that is followed by a decrease in the value of an asset, resulting from its use in business operations to earn revenue. Some orders of means lose their value after the agreement directing their use in business comes to an end after the expiry of the predetermined period. Obsolescence It is another factor driving the depreciation of fixed assets. It means being “out-of-date”. An actual asset that is becoming outdated on account of the availability of a better type of asset is referred to as obsolescence. Abnormal factors that are responsible for the drop in the use of the asset like accidents due to the earthquake, fire, cataracts, etc., Accidental loss is endless but not continuing. About appreciation : It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency  in a floating exchange rate system. Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy. Factors affecting appreciation : Appreciation is directly linked to demand. If the value of the currency appreciates (or goes up), demand for the currency also rises. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following statements: (2021) The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing Following an expansionary monetary policy India’s Health Sector Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Government of India and World Bank signed two complimentary loans worth $1 billion to support and enhance India’s healthcare infrastructure. About India’s healthcare sector at glance: In the Economic Survey of 2022, India’s public expenditure on healthcare stood at 1% of GDP in 2021-22 against 1.8% in 2020-21 and 1.3% in 2019-20. India had 7 physicians per 1,00,000 people in 2017 (in contrast to 98 in Pakistan, 100 in Sri Lanka and 241 in Japan). 53 beds per 1,00,000 people(in contrast to 63 in Pakistan, 79.5 in Bangladesh, 415 in Sri Lanka and 1,298 in Japan). 7 nurses and midwives per 1,00,000 people(in contrast to 220 in Sri Lanka, 40 in Bangladesh, 70 in Pakistan, and 1,220 in Japan). India has among the highest out-of-pocket (OOP) expenditures of all countries in the world- 62% of the total health expenditure in India is OOP. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), India ranks 184 out of 191 countries in health spending. The US spends over 16% of its total GDP on healthcare, while Japan, Canada, Germany etc. spend over 10% of their GDP on healthcare. Health Index for states developed by Niti Aayog: The Health Index for States developed by Niti Aayog in consultation with the health ministry and the World Bank has rankings for large states, smaller states and Union territories. It is based on 23 health parameters ranging from mortality rate and sex ratio to functioning cardiac care units. In 2019, Kerala was the top performer followed by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. The index results indicated that states even with a lower economic output are performing better on health and well-being. Challenges associated with India’s healthcare sector: Low Budget Spending: India’s public expenditure on healthcare is only 2.1% of GDP in 2021-22 while Japan, Canada and France spend about 10% of their GDP on public healthcare. Unequal distribution: India’s health care system is concentrated in urban areas with very little presence in the rural areas where majority of the population lives. Lack of Medical Research: In India, R&D and cutting-edge technology-led new projects receive little attention. Low doctor-patient ratio: The doctor patient ratio in India is about 1:1500 much higher than the WHO norm of one doctor for every 1,000 people. Lack of Affordability: The contribution of private sector in healthcare expenditure in India is around 80 percent while the rest 20 percent is contributed by Public Sector. The private sector also provides for 58 percent of the hospitals and 81 percent of the doctors in India. Govt of India Initiatives to improve healthcare sector in the country: Pradhan Mantri-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): it aims to strengthen India’s health infrastructure and improve the country’s primary, secondary and tertiary care services. Ayushman Bharat : Follows a two- pronged approach by Creation of health and wellness centres to bring health care closer to homes. formulation of a Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) to protect poor and vulnerable families against financial risk arising out of health episodes. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: aims to connect the digital health solutions of hospitals across the country. Under this, every citizen will now get a digital health ID and their health record will be digitally protected. National Ayush Mission: it is a centrally sponsored scheme for the  development of traditional medicines Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY):aims to correct regional imbalances in the availability of affordable/reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country. Way Forward: There is an urgency to focus on all the three levels of primary, secondary and tertiary healthcare, it is imperative that the government look towards improving primary health care as a public good. The lesson emerging most unequivocally from the pandemic experience is that if India does not want a repeat of the immeasurable suffering and the social and economic loss, we need to make public health a central focus. There is also a need to declutter policy dialogue and provide clarity to the nomenclatures.  India needs to move beyond the doctor-led system and Para medicalise several functions. India should focus on technology upgradation and preventive care to further its march towards healthy India. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indian Tea Industry Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea, and ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry. About Indian Tea Industry: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer after China and 4th largest exporter of Tea in the world. India is also the largest consumer of black tea and accounts for 18% of the total World tea consumption. The main tea-growing regions are in the Northeast (including Assam) and in north Bengal (Darjeeling district and the Dooars region). Tea is also grown on a large scale in the Nilgiris in south India. Ideal climate condition for tea cultivation: Originate in tropical and subtropical climates. Major tea growing regions are mainly concentrated in Asia, Africa, South America. Tea requires cool to warm temperatures with at least 5 hours of sunlight per day. The average annual temperature for tea plants to grow well is in the range of 15 – 23°C. The rainfall needed is between 150-200 cm. Market Size of Tea Industry in India: In 2020, nearly 10 million tons of tea was consumed in the country. The market in the country is projected to witness a further growth in the forecast period of 2022-2027, growing at a CAGR of 4.2%. In 2026, the tea industry in India is expected to attain 1.40 million tons. Tag for Geographical Indication (GI) The first GI tag product was Darjeeling Tea, also known as the “Champagne of teas” due to its floral aroma. Green and white tea, the other two Darjeeling tea varieties, also have GI tags. The Indian tea industry is being developed and promoted by the Tea Board of India. About Tea Board of India: The genesis of the Tea Board India dates back to 1903 when the Indian Tea Cess Bill was passed. The present Tea Board was set up under Section 4 of the Tea Act 1953. It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. The Board is constituted of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea producing states, and trade unions . HQ: Kolkata The Board is reconstituted every three years. Earlier, the Tea Board had offices in Cairo and Kuwait. But these two offices were relocated to Dubai. Issues associated with the Indian Tea sector: Stiff competition and improved standards in the world market – due to low product prices from Kenya and other countries – increasing demand for organic tea and quality assurance that entails environmental justice. Decline in productivity and quality – Tea bushes must be replanted every five years, but most Tea bushes older than 20 yrs.; uneven rainfall due to climate change – is affecting the productivity and quality of Indian Tea leading to lower prices at Tea auctions. Poor worker conditions and low wages – despite the provisions of the Plantation Labor Act, 1951 most workers and their families live in unsanitary conditions and receive low wages – this issue needs to be addressed given the fact that “starvation deaths” in North Bengal caught the international media attention. Small Tea Growers – the challenges faced by the Small Tea Growers’ sector is as follows Not getting the right green leaf price Unlike large estates, STG’s are not able to capitalize on scale and marketing of product as a collective is difficult – since it is unorganized Issue of workers’ rights – since STG’s are not governed by the PLA, 1951 Most of them are not recognized by the Tea Board of India due to landownership regulations and related procedural problems – this means lesser data available on the state of the STG’s making it difficult for policy coordination Some global factors like the decline in demand from European markets in the wake of the Russia-Ukraine war have compounded the problem. Suggestive measures: The One District and One Product (ODOP) program can aid in promoting Indian Tea’s fame. The “AROMA” of tea needs to be improved in order for the industry to become profitable, viable, and sustainable. Support small farmers to raise production to satisfy domestic and international demand while improving quality and sustainability. Create infrastructure to boost exports and concentrate on high value markets like the EU, Canada, South America, and the Middle East to re-energize. Promote GI tea and organic tea using brand marketing and promotion. Modernization: To help local supply networks be strengthened and tea producers to become self-sufficient Adaptability: Focus on the importance of a risk proof ecosystem, that is, the need for sustainable solutions to make tea plantations meet the challenges of climate change. India being the second largest producer of Tea has numerous opportunities to develop the Tea Industry as it is providing employment to a huge number of people in the north eastern states. A win-win for all and therefore a truly sustainable and transparent model — is the key requirement for a highly labour-centric industry like tea plantations. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following States: Andhra Pradesh Kerala Himachal Pradesh Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States? (2022) Only one State Only two States Only three States All four States Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following organizations recently released Index on the life cycle of working women? World Bank Ministry of Women and Child Development Un Women NITI Aayog Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA): It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Presently the IEA is made up of 61 member countries. India became a member of IEA in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) The Yellowstone national park often mentioned in the news is in Australia United States of America Japan Brazil Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’6th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 1] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 1 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations About Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC): It is a regional organization that was established in 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation). It became renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the inclusion of Myanmar. It became a  seven Member organization with the admission of Bhutan and Nepal in 2004. The BIMSTEC Charter was signed and adopted during the ‘Fifth BIMSTEC Summit’ held in the virtual format in Colombo, Sri Lanka, in 2022. It is headquartered in Dhaka, Bangladesh. H. E. Mr. Tenzin Lekphell assumed office as the Secretary-General of BIMSTEC in 2020 as the third BIMSTEC Secretary-General. Chairmanship-the Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States. India hosted the first meeting of Governing Board of BIMSTEC Energy Centre in Bengaluru in 2023. BIMSTEC Principles Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be based on respect for the principle of sovereign equality, territorial integrity, political independence, non-interference in internal affairs, non-aggression, peaceful co-existence, mutual respect, and mutual benefit. Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be complementary to and not be a substitute for bilateral, sub-regional, regional, or multilateral cooperation involving the Member States. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 ,2, and 3 Sisupalgarh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the ancient city of Sisupalgarh was in news due to the damages by the Land mafias. About Sisupalgarh: It is located near the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It was once the capital of Kalinga, which is the ancient name of Odisha. It dates back prior to the Mauryan period. It is a 2,000-year-old fortified city. It is considered one of the largest and best-preserved ancient fortifications in India. The remains of the fortification were discovered in 1948 by the Indian archaeologist B.B. Lal. Features of Sisupalgarh : It was designed and constructed in a complete square shape that was surrounded by defensive walls. Each side spreads for over half a mile, and the interior is full of stone ruins and sculptures. The walls of the fortification are a little over nine meters (30 feet) tall. There were eight gateways into the city, two on each of the four sides of the wall. The gateways were connected by streets in a grid-like arrangement with the palace in the center. The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone. There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater. Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space. It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka. The construction of Sisupalgarh was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which in Odia is known as the GadaKhai concept. Jala Durga is a type of Durga or fort, which must be situated within a water body. It is divided into two categories, viz., the Anterdvipa (Island fort) and the Sthala Durga (Land fort). Antardvipa-Durga (island fortress) is surrounded by natural (sea or river) water bodies. Sthala-Durga (plain fortress) is surrounded by artificial moats or irrigated by a river. MUST READ Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place           Well-known for (1) Burzahom              Rock-cut shrines (2) Chandraketugarh  Terracotta art (3) Ganeshwar Copper artifacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.  Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Battle of Bakhmut Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –  International Relations Context:  Bakhmut has been  in news recently, regarding the Russian-Ukrainian war. About the Battle of Bakhmut: Bakhmut is a city in the eastern Ukraine region of Donetsk Bakhmut is currently in ruins, having been the focal point of Russian assaults and a site of dogged defence by the Ukrainian military. The industrial city, is known for its salt and gypsum mines. It’s also the site of a winery established on the order of Soviet dictator Joseph Stalin in 1950. Background : Bakhmut has been caught up in conflict since 2014, when Russia-backed separatists launched a push to capture Donetsk. The separatists briefly seized parts of the city that year, before Ukrainian forces drove them out. Bakhmut is proximate to multiple important roads which may have some strategic value to the Russian advance. It’s an important transport hub, a lot of supply lines go through there and Russia could use it as a base. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?(2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) Chin China Israel Iraq Yemen Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity (Government Schemes ), Geography Context: Recently, the Government of India has constituted Greater Panna Landscape Council(GPLC). About Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC): It has been constituted under the chairmanship of the Chief Secretary, Govt of Madhya Pradesh. Objective: To ensure systematic and time-bound implementation of the Greater Panna Landscape Management plan. Its goal is to ensure a “win-win” situation for conservation through integration with the development process based on a balanced approach and considering the diverse stakes. About Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) :   Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP), the first interlinking of rivers project. It is  under National Perspective Plan (NPP). It would be a game-changer for the socio-economic prosperity of the Bundelkhand region, which faces recurrent drought situations. The project is aimed at not only providing water security in the Bundelkhand but also ensuring the overall conservation of the region and especially for landscape-dependent species such as tigers, vultures, and gharial. Apart from taking mitigation measures as per the approved Environmental Management Plan, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has prepared a comprehensive Integrated Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) for the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity not only in Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) but also in surrounding areas. The Integrated Landscape Management Plan under the Ken-Betwa Link Project is one of the major and unique conservation measures being initiated in the conservation history of India. Implementing Agency: A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) called Ken-Betwa Link Project Authority (KBLPA) will be set up to implement the project. About Ken and Betwa Rivers: Ken and Betwa rivers originate in MP and are the tributaries of Yamuna. The river originates near the village of Ahirgawan on the north-west slopes of Kaimur Range in the district of Jabalpur. Important tributaries of the Ken River:  Sonar, Bearma, Kopra, Bewas, Urmil, Mirhasan, Kutni, Kail, Gurne, Patan, Siameri, Chandrawal, Banne, and others. Sonar, the longest tributary. Ken meets with Yamuna in the Banda district of UP and with Betwa in the Hamirpur district of UP. Ken River passes through the Panna tiger reserve. Betwa River, Sanskrit Vetravati (“Containing Reeds”), rises in the Vindhya Range just north of Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh. It flows generally northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh states and empties into the Yamuna River just east of Hamirpur. The Jamni and Dhasan rivers are the main tributaries. About Panna Tiger Reserve: It is a national park located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It was declared in 1994 as the twenty-second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh. Panna was given the Award of Excellence in 2007 as the best-maintained national park of India by the Ministry of Tourism of India. In 2020, UNESCO included Panna National Park of Madhya Pradesh under its list of Biosphere reserves Among the animals found here is the tiger, leopard, chital, chinkara, nilgai, sambhar, and sloth bear. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a frog endemic to the higher altitudes of Western Ghats was rediscovered after 89 years. About Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus): Uperodon montanus, also known as Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog, Jerdon’s ramanella, mountain dot frog, mountain globular frog, or Malabar Hill frog. It is a species of narrow-mouthed frog (family Microhylidae) It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. This species is found in Moist deciduous forests, Semi-evergreen forests, and Evergreen forests. It is classified as ‘Near Threatened’ in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.  Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) Consider the following animals  (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) and Hallmark Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government of India recently announced that the sale of gold jewellery and gold artefacts hallmarked without a six-digit alphanumeric shall not be permitted from April 1, 2023. About Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS): BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 It works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. It was formerly the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), set up under the Resolution of the Department of Industries and Supplies in 1946. The ISI was registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. A new Bureau of Indian standard (BIS) Act 2016 was brought into force in 2017. BIS has its Headquarters in New Delhi. President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Vice President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Objectives:  harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BIS is involved in various activities as given below: Standards Formulation Product Certification Scheme Compulsory Registration Scheme Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme Hall Marking Scheme Laboratory Services Laboratory Recognition Scheme Sale of Indian Standards Consumer Affairs Activities Promotional Activities Training Services, National & International level Information Services About Hallmark: Hallmarks are thus official marks used in many countries as a guarantee of the purity or fineness of precious metal articles. The principle objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme : to protect the public against adulteration to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness. Who issues Hallmark: Bureau of Indian Standards For which products: Gold and silver jewellery Applicable since: It is applicable for gold since 2000 and for silver since 2005. Procedure For Obtaining Registration by Jeweller for Sale of Hallmarked Jeweller / Artefacts Any jeweller willing to obtain a certificate of registration for selling Hallmarked Gold and Silver Jewelry/artefacts shall apply online in the BIS portal. The certificate of registration is granted instantly to the jeweller without the need to upload any document or pay any fees for the same. The certificate of registration stands valid for a lifetime.  About  Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID): HUID is a six-digit alphanumeric code . It is given to every piece of jewellery at the time of hallmarking and is unique for each piece. It is being implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) in a phased manner. Hallmarking & HUID are mandatory for 14-, 18- and 22-carat gold jewellery and artefacts. The Government has made it mandatory the introduction of a HUID number in every piece of jewellery. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (SC) has stated the rules for appointment of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs). Highlights of the Supreme Court rulings: A high-power committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India. In case no leader of Opposition is available, the leader of the largest opposition Party in the Lok Sabha in terms of numerical strength will take in that position. This is an example of violation of the separation of powers between legislature and the judiciary. Earlier, Vishaka guidelines formed by the SC was one such example. For funding of ECI, government should create a permanent Secretariat and expenditure be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. About Election Commission India: The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country. It is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission. Constitutional Provisions: Its powers, appointment and duties are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act. Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission. Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the ground of religion, race, caste or sex. Article 326: Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to legislature. Article 328: Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature. Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. Composition of Election Commission: Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote. Appointment ,Tenure and Privileges of Commissioners: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament. Removal of Election Commissioners: They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. Issue in Removal of other Commissioners: The Constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Power and Functions of ECI: Determining the Electoral Constituencies’ territorial areas throughout the country. Preparing and periodically revising electoral rolls and registering all eligible voters. Notifying the schedules and dates of elections and scrutinising nomination papers. Granting recognition to the various political parties and allocating them election symbols. The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power. Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. Further, the cases of persons found guilty of corrupt practices at elections which come before the Supreme Court and High Courts are also referred to the Commission for its opinion on the question as to whether such person shall be disqualified and, if so, for what period. The opinion of the Commission in all such matters is binding on the President or, as the case may be, the Governor to whom such opinion is tendered. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law. The Commission has also the power for removing or reducing the period of such disqualification as also other disqualification under the law. Significance of current Judgement: The functional autonomy of the CEC and the EC has a direct link with the process by which they are selected. As stated by the Court, “a vulnerable Election Commission would result in an insidious situation and detract from its efficient functioning.” The SC’s verdict, apart from ensuring fairness in the process, can act as a constitutional lesson in India’s troubled times. It found that in India, there is “an unrelenting abuse of the electoral process”. The judgment recognises the fine distinction between conventional democracy and constitutional democracy. In the former, the majority alone matters. In the latter, it is the Constitution that matters. In the judgment, the country finds an activist judiciary after a long time. This revival of judicial activism is well supported by legal reasoning and binding precedents. It has come out during a dark phase of majoritarianism with an aggrandising executive. This adds to the intrinsic value of the judgment. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements : The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 On regulating online sale of drugs in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: All-India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists threatens a country-wide agitation against e-pharmacies. Recently, the Ministry of Health has pulled up at least 20 companies including Tata-1mg, Flipkart, Apollo, PharmEasy, Amazon and Reliance Netmeds, by issuing them a show cause notice, for selling medicines online. About E-Pharmacy: E-pharmacy, or online pharmacy, refers to a platform that allows customers to purchase medicines and other healthcare products online. E-pharmacies operate through websites or mobile apps where users can upload their prescriptions, select the products they need, and place orders. The products are then delivered to the customers’ doorstep leading to such mode becoming increasingly popular due to their convenience, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness. However, they also pose regulatory challenges and concerns related to the safety, authenticity, and quality of medicines sold online. Draft e-pharmacy rules: The draft e-pharmacy rules were introduced in 2018, and were intended to whip e-pharmacy businesses into shape, but were shoved into cold storage. E-pharmacies made a bang in the market in 2015 by offering hefty discounts on medicines and calling themselves facilitators of doorstep delivery. However, companies like PharmEasy are building a supply chain from the ground up by buying out big and small wholesale drug distributors. Since 2015, e-pharmacies have recorded losses year-on-year. Tata-1 Mg posted a loss of ?146 crore in FY22, whereas PharmEasy’s losses widened to ?2,700 crore in the same fiscal. Both e-pharmacies and offline retail pharmacists have realized that it is futile to stick to any one way of doing business. Associated concerns: The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately. It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines. The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under. Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist. Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales. Significance E-pharmacies are a part of the government’s intent to build digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy. The potential of India’s over $344 million e-pharmacy market is promising and is expected to grow at an enviable 40-45% owing to its surging internet connectivity, mobile phone penetration, government initiatives, and rising investments. E-pharmacies can provide access to affordable and genuine medicines, especially in areas where traditional pharmacies may not be accessible. Associated challenges: The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately. It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines. The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under. Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist. Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales. Laws regulating e-pharmacies: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) first banned the online sale of medicines in 2015. The latest draft New Drugs, Medical Devices, and Cosmetics Bill, 2022, has comprehensive provisions including: Periodic inspections, complaint redressal mechanisms, monitoring e-pharmacies, and others. Indian regulations require that pharmacies, both online and offline, be registered with the central drugs regulator CDSCO and have permits from state regulators for sales and distribution. Previously, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry developed a self-regulation code for e-pharmacies in 2016. Way Forward: In recent years, the market penetration of e-pharmacies has seen a growth from 3% to 5%. It is an important option for consumers for buying chronic care medicines for diabetes, high blood pressure, cardiac issues, and so on. Hence, an outright ban on heaving e-pharmacies to the hellbox must be avoided. It goes against the government’s intent of building digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy. Therefore, It is crucial for the government and stakeholders to work together towards ensuring that e-pharmacies operate efficiently and legitimately, while protecting the health and safety of the public. Source: The Hindu    Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following countries: India Sri Lanka Pakistan Nepal Myanmar Which of the above are part of  Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)? 1 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 4 and 5 only 2 3 and 5 only All of the above Q.2) The construction of site was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which is known as the GadaKhai concept. It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka. The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone. There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater. Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space are other features of the site. Which of the following sites described in the above passage? Sisupalgarh Rakhigarhi Vadakkupattu Adichanallur Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS): BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. BIS has its Headquarters in Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’4th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[New Batch] PRELIMS PINNACLE – Your Roadmap to Success in UPSC Prelims 2023 – Starts 8th March

PRELIMS PINNACLE YOUR DEFINITE ROADMAP TO SUCCESS IN PRELIMS 2023 Every successful aspirant has been through this ordeal. Late nights under the night lamp. Countless cups of chai/coffee. The fear of not even crossing the first stage of the exam. The peer pressure. The dream to fulfill their parents’ wishes — the desire to reach the top. But they did not have ONE thing that you have. IASbaba’s Prelims Pinnacle Course - 2023 If you are thinking that it is just like the n numbers of crash courses out there in the market, then you need to read this.  How normal it is to make you cram 1000 different things without rest? How normal it is to make you study EVERYTHING on the planet without giving you time to absorb it? If you are thinking that it is just like the n numbers of crash courses out there in the market, then you need to read this. But luckily, those days are gone…. Although we wouldn’t like to brag we have been a differentiator here right from the beginning. If you have been following IASbaba, you must have observed something: each course we build is truly in response to our students’ wishes and requirements. The same goes for Prelims Pinnacle Course 2023. Prelims Pinnacle Course 2023: Your Definite Roadmap to Success in Prelims 2023 Prelims is near. Time is less. But let us not forget that with the right approach, one can easily hope to clear the Prelims stage. This is where we come into the picture. Let’s tell you how we are going to help you clear Prelims 2023 successfully: Comprehensive HQ Video Lectures, covering the entire prelims syllabus - Static Subjects & Current AffairsDetailed but Crisp Handouts for Easy RevisionHigh-Quality Prelims Tests covering Static Subjects, CSAT, and Current AffairsRegular live doubt-clearing sessions by facultyExclusive Focus on Current Affairs & CSAT If you have sincerely attempted all the tests and learned the concepts therein, your chances of success in Prelims increase manifold. And that’s what is the FIRST step to the Ladder – CRACKING PRELIMS; if you want to reach the next level. Download The ScheduleRead Complete Details -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Porter prize Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims – Polity (Government policies), Science and Technology (Health) Context: The Union Health and Family Welfare Ministry received the Porter Prize 2023 recently. About Porter prize: Porter Prize is named after award-winning economist Michael E. Porter. The award recognized the Government’s strategy in managing COVID-19, along with the approach, and involvement of various stakeholders, especially the involvement of ASHA workers in the industry to create PPE Kits. The award was presented to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) at an event organized by Institute for Competitiveness (IFC) and Stanford University. The theme of the two-day conference was “The Indian Economy 2023: Innovation, Competitiveness, and Social Progress”. Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Social Stock Exchange Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the National Stock Exchange of India received final approval from the markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to set up a Social Stock Exchange (SSE). About Social Stock Exchange: Social Stock Exchange(SSE) is a platform that allows investors to invest in select social enterprises or social initiatives. The Union Budget ( 2019 –20 )proposed to initiate steps for creating a stock exchange under the market regulator’s ambit. SEBI constituted a group under the chairmanship of Tata group veteran Ishaat Hussain in 2019. In 2020, SEBI again set up the Technical Group(TG) under Harsh Bhanwala, ex-Chairman, NABARD for getting further expert advice and clarity on SSE. The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a novel concept in India and such a course is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channeling greater capital to them. Global Examples: SSE exists in countries such as Singapore, and the UK among others. These countries allow firms operating in social sectors to raise risk capital. Objectives: The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchangeand help social enterprises raise funds from the public through its mechanism. Salient Features:  Retail investors can only invest in securities offered by for-profit social enterprises (SEs) under the Main Board. In all other cases, only institutional investors and non-institutional investors can invest in securities issued by SEs. Eligibility:  Any non-profit organization (NPO) or for-profit social enterprise (FPSEs) that establishes the primacy of social intent would be recognized as a social enterprise (SE), which will make it eligible to be registered or listed on the SSE. NPOs can raise money either through the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments from private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds. About Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments : These are issued by a Not-for-Profit Organisation (NPO) which will be registered with the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) segment of a recognized stock exchange. The Finance Ministry has declared zero coupons zero principal instruments (ZCZP) as securities for the purposes of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. These instruments will be governed by rules made by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) About Zero-coupon bond: It is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full-face value. The difference between the purchase price of a zero-coupon bond and the par value indicates the investor’s return. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Self-incrimination Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: In a recent episode the Supreme Court refused to hear a plea by Delhi Deputy Chief Minister seeking bail in the excise policy case. About Self-incrimination: It is a declaration or an act that occurs during an investigation where a person or witness incriminates themselves either explicitly or implicitly is known as self-incrimination. This right is based on the Latin maxim that ‘No one is obligated to blame himself’.  Provisions for self-incrimination in the Indian constitution : Article 20- grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether a citizen or foreigner or a legal person like a company or a corporation. It contains three provisions in that direction: It contains provisions related to No ex-post-facto law, No double jeopardy, and No self-incrimination. No self-incrimination means no person accused of any offense shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence. Exceptions: It does not extend to the compulsory production of material objects, the compulsion to give a thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and compulsory exhibition of the body. It extends only to criminal proceedings and not to civil proceedings or proceedings which are not of criminal nature. Judicial rulings on self-incrimination : The State of Bombay versus Kathi Kalu Oghad 1961: The Supreme Court ruled that obtaining photographs, fingerprints, signatures, and thumb impressions would not violate the right against self-incrimination of an accused. Selvi v State of Karnataka case, 2010 In this case the Supreme Court held that a narcoanalysis test without the consent of the accused would amount to a violation of the right against self-incrimination.  Ritesh Sinha versus State of Uttar Pradesh 2019: In this case, the Supreme Court broadened the parameters of handwriting samples to include voice samples, adding that this would not violate the right against self-incrimination. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: (2022) Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Role of a Whip Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: A five-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud is hearing petitions filed in the wake of last year’s political crisis in Maharashtra. About the Role of a Whip: A whip is an official of a political party whose task is to ensure party discipline in the legislature. Whips are the party’s “enforcers”. The whip ensures that the members of the political party vote according to the party, rather than according to their own individual ideology or the will of their donors or constituents. Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party and serves as an assistant floor leader. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) a political party has a constitutional right to issue a whip to its legislators. Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu case, 1992 The Supreme court held that the application of the Tenth Schedule is limited to a vote on a “motion of confidence” or “no-confidence” in the government or where the motion under consideration relates to a matter which was an integral policy and programme of the political party. Paragraph 2(1)(b) provides for a lawmaker’s disqualification “if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction Historical background : In India, the concept of the whip was inherited from colonial British rule. The office of ‘whip’, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Defiance of Whip A legislator may face disqualification proceedings if they disobey the whip of the party unless the number of lawmakers defying the whip is 2/3rds of the party’s strength in the house. This disqualification is decided by the Speaker/Chairman of the house. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide on a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Vaibhav fellowship Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Centre unveiled the ‘VAIBHAV Fellowship’ for NRI researchers. About the Vaibhav fellowship : The fellowship offers NRI researchers an opportunity to work for a minimum of one month to a maximum of two months a year with a research institution or an academic institution in India. The duration of the fellowship is three years with the government offering the researchers an amount of up to Rs 37 lakh for the entire period. Objective: The VAIBHAV Fellowship aims at improving the research ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational and Scientific Institutions by facilitating academic and research collaborations between Indian Institutions and the best institutions in the world through the mobility of faculty/researchers from overseas institutions to India. Eligibility: (for Scientists) The applicant should be a Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), currently living abroad. The applicant must have obtained Ph.D./M.D/M.S degree from a recognized University. Applicant must be a researcher engaged in an overseas academic / research / industrial organization with a proven track record of research & development working in the top 500 QS World University Ranking. Plan to pursue research work for a minimum of 1 month to a maximum of 2 months a year in a research institution / academic institution in India, spread over 3 years. Applicants can submit their proposals only once in a calendar year. Eligibility: (for Institutions) Higher Educational Institutions / Universities ranked in the top 200 in NIRF overall rankings and have NAAC ‘A” grades (3.0 and above) and scientific institutes. Nature & Duration of Support: The fellowship is tenable only in India. It can be implemented in any of the recognized academic institutions, national laboratories and other recognized R&D institutions. The host institution should provide the necessary administrative and infrastructural support The fellowship is for 1-2 months each year for a period of 3 years. The fellows will be entitled to receive the grants as given below: Fellowship of USD 5000 (in equivalent Indian currency) International Travel from a place of their institute to a place of work in India in business class Accommodation in 3 or 4-star hotel Contingency Rs 1,00,000 per year Domestic Travel for academic purposes up to two stations in a year Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  Previous Year Questions Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q3) Recognition of the Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) (Amendment) Bill Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims – Art and Culture  About Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) (Amendment) Bill : It is an Act to provide for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance, for the regulation of archaeological excavations, and for the protection of sculptures, carvings, and other like objects. It extends to the whole of India. The AMASR Act, of 1958, was amended in 2010 to declare the 100-meter radius of protected monuments as prohibited areas and the next 300-meter radius as regulated areas. About the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment) Bill, 2017  : It was introduced to amend the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, of 1958. The Act defines a ‘prohibited area’ as an area of 100 meters around a protected monument or area. The central government can extend the prohibited area beyond 100 meters. The Act does not permit construction in such prohibited areas, except under certain conditions. The Act also prohibits construction in ‘prohibited areas’ even if it is for public purposes. The Bill was intended to amend this provision to permit the construction of public works in ‘prohibited areas’ for public purposes. The Bill introduces a definition for ‘public works. Procedure for seeking permission for public works: As per the Bill, the relevant central government department, that seeks to carry out construction for public purposes in a prohibited area, should make an application to the competent authority. If there is any question related to whether a construction project qualifies as ‘public works’, it will be referred to the National Monuments Authority.  This Authority will make its recommendations, with written reasons, to the central government. The decision of the central government will be final.  If the decision of the central government differs from that of the Authority, it should record its reasons in writing. This decision should be communicated by the competent authority, to the applicant, within 10 days of receiving it. Impact assessment of proposed public works: The Bill empowers the National Monuments Authority to consider an impact assessment of the proposed public works in a prohibited area, including its (i) archaeological impact; (ii) visual impact; and (iii) heritage impact. The Authority will make a recommendation, for the construction of public works to the central government, only if it is satisfied that there is no reasonable possibility of moving the construction outside the prohibited area. The bill was referred to the Select Committee in 2018. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements (2018) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram? (2016) Both were built in the same period. Both belong to the same religious denomination. Both have rock-cut monuments. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the statements given above is correct Internet shutdown report and Operation Blue Star Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity  About the Internet shutdown report: The report was published by Access Now, a New York-based advocacy group that tracks internet freedom. It claims that India imposed the highest number of internet shutdowns globally in 2022. As per the report, this is the fifth consecutive year that the world’s largest democracy of more than 1.3 billion people has topped the list. Key Highlights of the report: Nearly 60% of India’s internet shutdowns last year occurred in Indian-administered Kashmir, where authorities disrupted access due to “political instability and violence. Apart from Jammu and Kashmir, authorities in the states of West Bengal and Rajasthan imposed more shutdowns than other Indian regions in response to “protests, communal violence, and exams. The disruptions “impacted the daily lives of millions of people for hundreds of hours in 2022.” Internationally, the right to access the Internet can be rooted in Article 19 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights . About Internet Shutdowns: Internet shutdowns are absolute restrictions placed on the use of Internet services due to an order issued by a government body. It may be limited to a specific place and to a specific period, time, or a number of days.  Sometimes it can even extend indefinitely. About operation blue star: It is a code name given to an Indian Military Operation to remove the separatists who were hidden inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar in 1984. The operation was ordered by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, primarily to take control of the Harmandir Sahib Complex in Amritsar (popularly known as the Golden Temple). Bhindranwale was seen as a supporter of the creation of Khalistan. This operation aimed to eliminate Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale from the Golden Temple complex and regain control over Harmandir Sahib. The operation had two components to it, Operation Metal which was the invasion of the temple complex, and Operation Shop which was confined to the countryside of the state. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May, 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Disqualification of Members of Parliament Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently, the debate has surrounded whether disqualification for conviction is final or whether it can be revoked. About disqualification Constitutional provisions: The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution. It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions. If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make laws determining conditions of disqualifications. There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures. The Representation of the People Act, 1951: Disqualification on Imprisonment: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years. Exception for sitting members: There is an exception for sitting members; they have been provided a period of three months from the date of conviction to appeal; the disqualification will not be applicable until the appeal is decided. About Disqualification on Ground of Defection: The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law: If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House; If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party; If any independently elected member joins any political party; and If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months. Decision of Presiding officer: The question of disqualification under the tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. Important Supreme Court Judgements: 2002– Union of India (UOI) v. Association for Democratic Reforms: The SC held that every candidate, contesting an election to the Parliament, State Legislatures, or Municipal Corporation, has to declare their criminal records, financial records, and educational qualifications along with their nomination paper. 2005- Ramesh Dalal vs. Union of India: The SC held that a sitting MP or MLA shall also be subject to disqualification from contesting elections if he is convicted and sentenced to not less than 2 years of imprisonment by a court of law. 2013- In Lily Thomas v. Union of India: The SC held that Section 8(4) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is unconstitutional which allows MPs and MLAs who are convicted to continue in office till an appeal against such conviction is disposed of. The court held that MP/MLA convicted for two years or above would be disqualified immediately. 2015 – Krishnamurthy v. Sivakumar & Ors: The SC held that disclosure of criminal antecedents (especially heinous crimes) of a candidate at the time of filing of nomination paper as mandated by law was a categorically imperative. Can the disqualification be removed? Yes, the Supreme Court has the power to stay not only the sentence but also the conviction of a person. In some rare cases, conviction has been stayed to enable the appellant to contest an election. But the Supreme Court has made it clear that such a stay should be very rare and for special reasons. The RPA itself provides a remedy through the Election Commission. Under Sec. 11 of the Act, the EC may record reasons and either remove or reduce the period of, a person’s disqualification. The EC exercised this power for Sikkim Chief Minister P.S. Tamang, who served a one-year sentence for corruption, and reduced his disqualification so as to contest a byelection and remain in office. Is there legal protection for legislators against disqualification? Under Section 8(4) of the RPA, legislators could avoid immediate disqualification until 2013. Section 8(4) allowed convicted MPs, MLAs, and MLCs to continue in their posts, provided they appealed against their conviction/sentence in higher courts within 3 months of the date of judgment by the trial court. In other words, the mere filing of an appeal against conviction will operate as a stay against disqualification. But in Lily Thomas vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court in July 2013 struck down section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951 and declared it ultra vires, and held that the disqualification takes place from the date of conviction. Way Forward: The introduction of the tenth schedule in the Indian Constitution was aimed at curbing political defections. Though the law has succeeded in a reasonable way but due to some of its loopholes, it has not been able to achieve the best it can. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (2014) Second Schedule Fifth Schedule Eighth Schedule Tenth Schedule Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) Open in new window Syllabus   Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has suspended the FCRA registration of Think tank Centre for Policy Research (CPR). About Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA): The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs. The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”. The FCRA was amended in 2010 and 2020 by the government to give tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilization of foreign funds by NGOs. FCRA Registration: NGOs that want to receive foreign funds must apply online in a prescribed format with the required documentation. FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs. Following the application by the NGO, the MHA makes inquiries through the Intelligence Bureau into the antecedents of the applicant, and accordingly processes the application. Important highlights of the FCRA: FCRA Requirements: Broadly, the FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be: registered under the Act, to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi, and to utilize those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act. They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO. Changes in FCRA Rules: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in 2022 changed FCRA rules and increased the number of compoundable offences under the Act from 7 to 12. The amendment also gave exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 10 lakh – the earlier limit was Rs 1 lakh — received from relatives abroad, and increase in time limit for intimation of opening of bank accounts. Validity of FCRA Approval: Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired. Once expired, the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilize its existing funds without permission from the ministry. Significance of regulating foreign contributions in India: Preventing interference in Indian affairs: The FCRA was enacted to prevent foreign powers from interfering in India’s affairs by regulating foreign donations to individuals and associations. Transparency and accountability: The FCRA ensures transparency and accountability which is important to prevent misuse of funds. National security: The FCRA also helps in safeguarding national security interests by preventing foreign entities from funding activities that could be detrimental to India’s security. Promoting social and economic development: Foreign contributions can be an important source of funding for social and economic development in India. Challenges of regulating foreign contributions: Administrative Delays: The registration and renewal process under the FCRA can take a long time which delays their work and impact their ability to receive funding. Stringent Compliance Requirements: The FCRA registration process can be time-consuming and requires extensive documentation, while the rules on the utilization of funds are also strict. Political Interference: The government’s discretionary powers to cancel registrations or freeze accounts of NGOs have been misused in some cases to target NGOs critical of the government, leading to accusations of political interference Ambiguity in the Law: There is often ambiguity in the interpretation of the FCRA, leading to NGOs being exploited by authorities to target NGOs and curtail their activities. Lack of Clarity: There is a lack of clarity on the compliance requirements for foreign corporations and foundations operating in India leading to concerns about the transparency of their funding activities and potential influence on Indian civil society. Way Forward: Thus, It is an important law in India that seeks to regulate the receipt and utilization of foreign funds by individuals and NGOs in a manner consistent with the values of a modern democratic republic. While the FCRA has undergone amendments, the challenges in its implementation remain, such as the difficulty in balancing the need for transparency and accountability with the need to protect the autonomy of civil society organizations. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding VAIBHAV Fellowship’ for NRI researchers: The fellowship offers NRI researchers an opportunity to work for a minimum of one month to a maximum of two months a year. The fellowship is tenable only in India. The applicant must have obtained Ph.D./M.D/M.S degree from a recognized University. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Social Stock Exchange(SSE): It is a platform that allows investors to invest in select social enterprises or social initiative The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchange s. Reserve Bank of India regulates SSE in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Protection in respect of conviction for offenses is guaranteed under which of the following articles? Article 19 Article 20 Article 21 Article 22 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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