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[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine DECEMBER 2022

Archives Hello Friends,This is DECEMBER 2022 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of DECEMBER 2022.We regret the delay in uploading December 2022 Magazine.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you Download The Magazine - December 2022 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: ChatGPT Private Member’s Bill for Women’s Reservation DNA Technology Regulation Bill Ratnagiri’s pre-historic rock art GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) Role of Micro Financial Institutions in financial Inclusion State of Finance for Nature report PM SVANIDHI SCHEME And Much More.... Download The Magazine - December 2022 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Skye UTM Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways unveiled Skye UTM, confirmed as the most cutting-edge unmanned traffic management system in the world. About Skye UTM: It is a Cloud-based aerial traffic management system. It integrates unmanned air traffic with manned aviation airspace. It is capable of handling 4,000 flights per hour. In a day, it can handle 96,000 flights. It will help drone operators with situational awareness, autonomous navigation, traffic management and risk assessment. It will aid in real-time monitoring and speed up highway construction while keeping a check on fatal road accidents. It will display real-time UAV movements and provide verified paths. It captures over 255 parameters of UAV movements and stored them in its ‘Blackbox’. Blackbox: small machine on an aircraft that records the details of each flight and is useful for finding out the cause of a plane crash It will offer the first 3D view of drone airspace. Source:  Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following communication technologies: Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The Union government has proposed a mega project to merge two projects – Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) and the Parbati-Kalisindh-Chambal River Link. About Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP): It is a project aimed at harvesting surplus water available during the rainy season in southern Rajasthan and using it in the water-scarce south-eastern districts of the state. Districts covered: Jhalawar, Baran, Kota, Bundi, Sawai Madhopur, Ajmer, Tonk, Jaipur, Karauli, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa, and Dholpur. Rajasthan’s geographical area of 342.52 lakh hectares equals 10.4 per cent of the entire country but holds only 1.16 per cent of India’s surface water and 1.72 per cent of groundwater. Among the state’s water bodies, only the Chambal River basin has surplus water, but this water cannot be tapped directly because the area around the Kota barrage is designated as a crocodile sanctuary. The project will have components including diversion structures, intra-basin water transfers, linking channels, and building pumping main feeder channels to create a network of water channels. Although the project was approved by the Central Water Commission in 2017 it had been put in limbo by the Jal Shakti Ministry of the central government till the “inter-state issues” are resolved between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. Source:   Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs        :     States Ghataprabha :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon :     Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs microLED display Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Apple has recently shifted to microLED display technology. About microLED display: They are self-illuminating diodes. They are brighter and has better colour reproduction than Organic Light Emitting Diode (OLED) display technology. It is filled with small sapphires that have strong light. Sapphires shine on its own forever. The picture in it is generated by many individual light-emitting diodes. It is as small as cutting a centimetre of hair into 200 smaller piece Each microLEDs are semiconductors that receive electric signals. Combined microLEDs forms a module which are then combined to form screens. They are resolution-free, bezel-free, ratio-free, and size-free. It does not require backlighting or colour filters to produce red, green, and blue colours. Source: The Hindu   Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NAMASTE Scheme Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims: Polity and Governance Context: Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for the National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE). About NAMASTE Scheme: It was launched in 2022 as a Central Sector Scheme. The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices. Objectives of the scheme: Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India. All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers. No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter. Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises. Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work. What are the Key Features of the Scheme to be Implemented in all ULBs? Identification: NAMASTE envisages identifying the Sewer/Septic Tank Workers (SSWs). Occupational Training and distribution of PPE Kits to SSWs. Assistance for Safety Devices to Sanitation Response Units (SRUs). Extending Health Insurance Scheme Benefits to identified SSWs and their families under the Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY). Livelihood Assistance: The Action Plan will promote mechanization and enterprise development by providing funding support and subsidy (capital +interest) to the sanitation workers, to procure sanitation related equipment’s. IEC (Information Education and Communication) Campaign: Massive campaigns would be undertaken jointly by the ULBs & NSKFDC (National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation) to spread awareness about the interventions of NAMASTE. Source:     NewsOnAIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Inclusive Forum on Carbon Mitigation Approaches Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OEDC) launched Inclusive Forum on Carbon Mitigation Approaches. About Inclusive Forum on Carbon Mitigation Approaches: It aims to help improve the global impact of emissions reduction efforts around the world through better data and information sharing, evidence-based mutual learning and inclusive multilateral dialogue. Objectives of the Forum: To take stock of mitigation policy instruments that countries use to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and estimate the emissions. To develop and apply a consistent methodology to assess the effects of mitigation policies and policy packages on emission reductions at the country level. First meeting: Paris, France It will help policymakers to showcase and discern good practices and adopt and adapt mitigation policies. It will complement other international efforts on climate policy data, including in the context of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change Enhanced Transparency Framework. 133 countries around the world, representing around 91% of global GDP and covering around 83% of global emissions, have adopted net-zero carbon emissions targets. Source: OECD Blackbuck Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Environment and Ecology Context: The blackbuck population has increased threefold in Odisha’s Ganjam district. About Blackbuck: The Blackbuck (Antilope cervicapra), or the Indian Antelope, is a species of antelope native to India and Nepal. The blackbuck is a diurnal antelope (active mainly during the day). Protection Status: Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I IUCN Status: Least Concern CITES: Appendix III It has been declared as the State Animal of Punjab, Haryana, and Andhra Pradesh. Habitat of Blackbuck They inhabit grassy plains and thin forest areas with easily available water resources. It inhabits several protected areas of India, including: Gir National Park, Gujarat Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, Bihar Kanha National Park, Madhya Pradesh Ranthambore National Park, Rajasthan Ranebennur Blackbuck Sanctuary, Karnataka Vallanadu Wildlife Sanctuary, Tamil Nadu Threats: Habitat Fragmentation, Deforestation, Natural Calamities, Illegal Hunting.  Blackbucks were sighted in the Balukhand-Konark wildlife sanctuary in the Puri district through 2012-13 Balukhand Wildlife Sanctuary:  The Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Odisha,  along the Bay of Bengal coast, between the towns of Puri and Konark. Important Species found: Blackbuck and Spotted Deer. Source:          Down to earth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Rakhigarhi Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Rakhigarhi is an endangered Harappan site in Haryana. About Rakhigarhi: Rakhigarhi is an archaeological site located in Hisar district (Haryana), in the Ghaggar-Hakra river plain. Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site in the Indian subcontinent Dating back to 2600-1900 BCE. The site is in danger of being destroyed by rampant soil mining, encroachment, and theft of excavated artefacts for sale. Major Findings of the Site: Settlements: It is a mature Harappan phase and is represented by a planned township having mud-brick as well as burnt-brick houses with a proper drainage system. Seals and Pottery: A cylindrical seal with five Harappan characters on one side and a symbol of an alligator on the other is an important find from this site. The ceramic industry was represented by red ware, which included dish-on-stand, vase, perforated jar among others. Rituals and Burials: Animal sacrificial pits lined with mud-brick and triangular and circular fire altars on the mud floor Two female skeletons, who were buried with a plethora of pottery and adorned jewellery like jasper, agate beads and shell bangles, have been excavated. Other Antiquities: Blades; terracotta and shell bangles, beads of semi-precious stones, and copper objects; animal figurines, toy cart frame and wheel of terracotta; bone points; inscribed steatite seals and sealings. Source –Times of India Previous Year Questions (PYQ) Q.1) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Civilization? (2013) They possessed great palaces and temples. They worshipped both male and female deities. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only9 2 only 1, 2 and 3 None of the statements given above is correct QUASICRYSTALS Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: US Scientists discover new ‘quasicrystal’ in Nebraska, US. About Quasicrystal: Quasicrystal is essentially a crystal-like substance. However, unlike a crystal, in which atoms are arranged in a repeating pattern, a quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that doesn’t repeat itself regularly It’s also the first time that researchers have found a quasicrystal somewhere other than meteorites or the debris from nuclear blasts. Notably, scientists have been producing them in laboratories for years now, but it’s quite rare to discover naturally occurring quasicrystals. For the longest time, physicists believed every crystalline arrangement of atoms must have a pattern that repeats itself perfectly over and over again. However, this changed in 1982, when material scientist Dan Shechtman discovered crystal structures that are mathematically regular, but that do not repeat themselves. For his discovery, he was awarded a Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2011. Quasicrystals known to “possess novel electrical, photonic, and mechanical properties that aren’t found in other materials, making them an attractive prospect for materials scientists”. Source –  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth VLC has no electromagnetic interference Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only Market Access Initiative (MAI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC) inaugurated the first edition of up next India 2023 in presence of international buyers and exhibitors. This initiative is in the form of a series of Reverse Buyer Seller meet under the name of “UPNEXT INDIA”. Reverse Buyer Seller Meet is to provide an opportunity for prospective importers (Buyers) to interact with their Indian counterparts (sellers) about the requirements, instead of sellers going to buyers to sell their products. Up next India is organised by AEPC and supported by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry under the Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme. Market Access Initiative (MAI): It is an Export Promotion Scheme. The scheme aims to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis. The scheme is formulated on the basis of the product and country focus approach. It will evolve specific markets and specific products through market studies/surveys. Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC): Incorporated in 1978, AEPC is the official body of apparel exporters in India It provides invaluable assistance to Indian exporters as well as importers/international buyers who choose India as their preferred sourcing destination for garments. Source – PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India - USA space cooperation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: India and the United States agreeing to advance space collaboration in several areas, under the ‘initiative on critical and emerging technology’ (ICET) umbrella, including human space exploration and commercial space partnership, comes at a crucial time for both countries. This follows from the eighth meeting of the U.S.-India Civil Space Joint Working Group (CSJWG), that was held on January 30-31, 2023. Space research cooperation: In November 2022, the U.S. kicked off its Artemis programme by launching the Orion spacecraft towards the moon and bringing it safely back to earth. India itself is set to embark on its first human spaceflight mission (Gaganyaan) in 2024. The two countries have also taken significant strides in advancing the private space sector. Together, these endeavours will shape and impact S. and Indian space policies and programmes over the next decade. In this context, a S.-India collaboration seems straightforward. India could secure technologies and expertise by collaborating with an advanced spacefaring nation; the U.S. could strengthen its relationship with India on a matter that seems less controversial than others. But it is not straightforward: certain structural factors limit the extent to which the U.S. and India can collaborate in the short term. This is why India-U.S. cooperation can advance at a measured pace, to enable sustainable long-term civilian and military space partnerships. Structural factors which hinders sustained long term cooperation: The mismatch in the two nations’ interests in outer space: India’s scientific community is, at present, focused on building the nation’s capability in and under earth orbits (such as low earth orbit). But The US has committed to returning to the moon — and this time to stay there for the long term. Thus they are not focused on, as India is, maintaining capabilities in low-Earth orbit. The asymmetry in capabilities: The U.S. has the highest number of registered satellites in space. It also has a range of launch vehicles serving both commercial and national-security needs. The American private sector has also assumed the challenge of replacing the International Space Station by 2030 with many smaller stations. The greatest challenge for India here is lack of capacity. The country has just over 60 satellites in orbit and cannot undertake double-digit launches annually. The Indian government also opened the space industry to the private sector only in 2020. NASA’s Artemis Programme: NASA’s Artemis mission is touted as the next generation of lunar exploration, and is named after the twin sister of Apollo from Greek mythology. With the Artemis programme, NASA aims to land humans on the moon by 2024, and it also plans to land the first woman and first person of colour on the moon. NASA will establish an Artemis Base Camp on the surface and a gateway (the lunar outpost around the Moon) in lunar orbit to aid exploration by robots and astronauts. Canadian Space Agency, the European Space Agency and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency are also involved in this mission. ISRO’s Gaganyaan Mission: Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft that is intended to send 3 astronauts to space for a minimum of seven days by 2023, as part of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. It will be for the first time that India will launch its manned mission to space, making the country fourth in line to have sent a human to space. Solutions lies ahead: Sustain the engagement between academics, the private sector and state-led entities in the two countries. For example, collaborating on highly specialised projects such as the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission. But these solutions are slow and not entirely suited for the new space age, where diplomacy struggles to keep up with the rate of technological innovation. Promoting partnership between state and private entities. For example, recently signed a convention of American and Indian aerospace companies to advance collaboration under the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) programme. India could send its astronauts to train at American private companies. This could help India reduce its dependence on Russia while ISRO builds its own astronaut training centre. Promoting a consortium led by the government-owned NewSpace India Limited which involves private companies in the U.S. This setup could accelerate India’s human spaceflight programme and give the U.S. an opportunity to accommodate Indian interests in earth orbits. Way Forward: India and USA can break new frontiers in space research and strategic cooperation as ‘natural allies’. But for that, Indian space agency and private sector must build their capacity and bridge the existing gap with USA. Space industry observers believe that the space sector is poised for a three-fold expansion in the next two decades, propelled by the miniaturisation of satellites and the growing presence of a range of private players. As a result, India must rapidly develop its space capabilities, and cooperation with the world’s largest and most advanced space nation is the need of the hour. Source : The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE): It was launched in 2022 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The Inclusive Forum on Carbon Mitigation Approaches aims to help improve the global impact of emissions reduction efforts around the world through better data and information sharing, evidence-based mutual learning and inclusive multilateral dialogue. It was recently launched by World Bank World Economic Forum Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development United Nations Environmental Programme Q.3) The Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary is located in West Bengal Odisha Karnataka Rajasthan Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Teesta River Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography  Context: Teesta river water conflict between India and Bangladesh. About Teesta River:  Teesta river is a major right bank tributary of the Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh), flowing through India and Bangladesh. It originates in the Himalayas near the Tso Lhamo Lake, in Sikkim and flows to the south through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh. Source: Pahurni glacier, Khangse glacier and ChhoLhamo Lake are also considered the sources of the Teesta River. River basin Distribution:  The major portion of the river basin lies in India and only 17% of it is in Bangladesh.  The river joins the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh before it flows into the Bay of Bengal after meeting with the Ganges and the Meghna. Two major large barrages constructed on Teesta – Gajoldoba in West Bengal, India Duani in Bangladesh. Major Tributaries of Teesta River Left-bank Tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola and Rangpo Chhu. Right-bank Tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu and Rangit River. Source: DTE Previous Year Questions Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs        :     States Ghataprabha :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon :     Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Dayanand Saraswati Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context:  The Prime Minister of India to inaugurate 200th birth anniversary celebrations of Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati. About Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati (1824-1883):  He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform movement of the Vedic dharma. He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indians” in 1876, a call later taken up by Lokmanya Tilak. Denouncing the idolatry and ritualistic worship, he worked towards reviving Vedic ideologies. Teachings and Contributions:  He believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas and advocated the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation. Among Dayananda’s contributions were his promoting of equal rights for women, such as the right to education and reading of Indian scriptures. He translated the Vedas and wrote three books  Satyartha Prakash in Hindi,  Veda Bhasya Bhumika, an introduction to his Vedic commentary, and  Veda Bhashya, a Vedic commentary in Sanskrit on the Yajurveda and the major part of the Rig-Veda. He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. Source:  News on air Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here. Diyodar meteorite Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Science and Technology  Context: Diyodar meteorite that hit India in 2022 was India’s first aubrite in 170 years About Diyodar Meteorite: A meteorite is a celestial object (made of rocks and metals) that enters the atmosphere of the earth and reaches the surface. The meteorite is a “rare, unique specimen” of aubrite. India has been the site of hundreds of meteorite crashes, but this is only the second recorded crash of an aubrite. What are aubrites?  Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth”. For example, the mineral heideite was first described in the Basti meteorite. Source of Aubrites : not yet sure of their origin, but some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury. Composition: Around 90% of the meteorite was composed of orthopyroxene. Pyroxenes are silicates consisting of single chains of silica tetrahedra (SiO 4); orthopyroxenes are pyroxenes with a certain structure. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Governor Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context – President Droupadi Murmu appoints 6 new governors, reshuffles 7 others.  About Constitutional Provisions Related to the Governor: Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States. A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government. The Governor normally enjoys  5-year tenure, he can remain in office only until the pleasure of the President. ( No security of tenure) Governor has a dual role. Constitutional head of the state Functions as a vital link between the Union Government and the State Government. Salary and Allowances: are charged from Consolidated Fund of India. Functions of Governor: There is a CoM (council of ministers) with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161). Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200). Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213). In the Constitution, there are no guidelines for exercise of the Governor’s powers, including for appointing a CM or dissolving the Assembly. There is no limit set for how long a Governor can withhold assent to a Bill. The Governor sends a report to the centre which forms the basis of the Union cabinet’s recommendations to the President for invoking Article 356 (President’s Rule).  Source:   Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)  First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) Rajamannar Committee (1969)  Sarkaria Commission (1983) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000) Q.2) Consider the following statements: No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In news – PM Modi congratulates India post for opening more than 10 lakh Sukanya Samriddhi Account in two days. About Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme Scheme under Ministry of Women and Child Development Small deposit scheme for girl child, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign, which would fetch an attractive interest rate and provide income tax rebate. Benefits: Interest rate on deposits Compounded annually with option for monthly interest pay-outs to be calculated on balance in completed thousands. As applicable under section 80C of the IT Act, 1961, the scheme has been extended Triple exempt benefits i.e. there will be no tax on the amount invested, amount earned as interest and amount withdrawn. Eligibility Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10. Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year. Maximum period upto which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account. The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of account or on the marriage of Account holder whichever is earlier. Source:   All India Radio Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Section 69 of the IT Act Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) recently issued orders to block some apps on an “urgent” and “emergency” basis under Section 69(A) of the Information Technology Act, 2000. About Information Technology Act, 2000: The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, governs all activities related to the use of computer resources. It covers all ‘intermediaries’ who play a role in the use of computer resources and electronic records. About Section 69 of the IT Act: It confers on the Central and State governments the power to issue directions to intercept, monitor or decrypt any information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource.  It allows the government to issue content-blocking orders to online intermediaries such as Internet Service Providers (ISPs), telecom service providers, web hosting services, etc. The grounds on which these powers may be exercised are: In the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of India, defence of India, the security of the state. Friendly relations with foreign states. Public order, or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to these. For investigating any offence. Process of Blocking Applications and Internet Websites: Section 69A, for similar reasons and grounds (as stated above), enables the Centre to ask any agency of the government, or any intermediary, to block access to the public of any information generated, transmitted, received or stored or hosted on any computer resource. Any such request for blocking access must be based on reasons given in writing. Source: Indian Express Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context:  Union Women and Child Development minister alleged massive irregularities in the utilisation of funds allocated to the state of West Bengal under PMKVY. About Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Launched in 2015, it is a flagship program of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).  Under PMKVY, training and assessment fees are paid completely by the Government. Funding: The scheme is being implemented at the Centre and the State level with a 50:50 allocation of funds and targets with more enhanced involvement of District Skill Committees (DSC). Objective: To enable Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Key Components: Short Term Training: STT component imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TC) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL): It is a skill certification component to enable Indian youth to take on industry-relevant skill certification which will help them to secure a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills can register themselves and get assessed and certified under the RPL component of PMKVY. It focuses mainly on individuals engaged in unregulated sectors. About Skill India Mission: Skill India Mission is an initiative of the Government of India, launched by the Prime Minister on the 16th of July 2015 with an aim to train over 40 crore people in India in different skills by 2022. It includes various initiatives of the government like National Skill Development Mission, National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Skill Loan scheme. Source:  Indian Express Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, and financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Dawoodi Bohras Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance  Context: The long-pending challenge to the practice of excommunication in the Shia sect has been referred to the 9-judge Bench hearing the Sabarimala review petition on essential religious practice. Who are the Dawoodi Bohras? Shia Muslims whose leader is known as the Al-Dai-Al-Mutlaq. There are around 1 million Dawoodi Bohras spread around the world. The main language of the community is Lisan al-Dawat, a dialect of Gujarati with inclusions from Arabic and Urdu. Practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community The leader of the community is recognised by the members as having the right to excommunicate its members. In practical terms, excommunication means not being allowed to access a mosque belonging to the community or a burial dedicated to the community. Legal validity of excommunication? Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs The practice was claimed to be essential to the Dawoodi Bohra faith. SC’s view- The SC held in 1962 held that the Dai’s position is an essential part of the community. What is the plea now? The 2016 Act– The Maharashtra Protection of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2016 prohibits social boycott of a person or a group of persons describing it as “inhuman”. The act defines 16 types of social boycott– including preventing members of a community from having access to facilities including community halls, and burial grounds, among others. It is termed as a violation of fundamental rights punishable with imprisonment for up to 3 years. Supreme Court’s consideration– The Supreme Court has said that it would consider whether the practice protected by the 1962 constitutional bench order can continue. It is referred to the 9-judge Bench hearing the Sabarimala review petition on essential religious practice. Source: Indian Express Urban20 (U20) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context – On the 2nd day of City Sherpa meeting of the sixth Urban20 (U20) cycle, which is being held in Ahmedabad, close to 40 delegates visited the World Heritage walled city of Ahmedabad, where a heritage walk was organised for them early in the morning. About Urban-20: Urban 20 (U20) is an initiative developed in 2017 under the leadership of the Mayor of Buenos Aires and Mayor of Paris, and convened by the C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group (C40) in collaboration with United Cities and Local Governments (UCLG). It was launched on December 12, 2017 at the One Planet Summit in Paris. U20 seeks to develop a joint position and collective messages to inform and enrich the discussions of national leaders at the G20 Summit through unique urban perspectives. Urban 20 aims to tackle global challenges by leveraging the potential of cities as hubs of diversity and innovation. The U20 brings together mayors from G20 cities under a common framework and coordinates a joint position to inform the discussions of national leaders. Contributions from the U20 are shared with the G20 Presidency and Heads of State enhancing the role of cities as global economic and political leaders. Priority areas for Urban 20 event are as follows: Encouraging environmentally responsive behaviour Ensuring water security Accelerating Climate Finance Leveraging ‘local’ potential and identity Reinventing urban governance and planning frameworks Catalysing digital urban futures Source: PIB India-Canada Bilateral Relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: The Indo-Pacific strategy announced by Canada uses blunt language against China and sees closer engagement with India as critical to its success. About India – Canada relations: Historical Background: India established diplomatic relations with Canada in 1947. Prime Minister of India’s visit to Canada in April 2015 elevated the bilateral relation to a strategic partnership. In recent years, both countries have been working to enhance bilateral cooperation in a number of areas of mutual importance. Nuclear Cooperation: Indo-Canadian relations deteriorated in the wake of India’s Smiling Buddha nuclear test of May 1974 when the Canadian government severed bilateral nuclear cooperation with both India and Pakistan. However, in June 2010, a Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (NCA) with Canada was signed and came into force in September 2013. The Appropriate Arrangement (AA) for the NCA was signed in March 2013, under which a Joint Committee on Civil Nuclear Cooperation was constituted. Commercial relations: An annualised Trade Ministers dialogue has been institutionalised to review trade and economic relations. Both sides are engaged in technical negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) including trade in goods, services, investment, trade facilitation etc. Science and Technology: Indo-Canadian Science and Technology cooperation has been primarily focussed on promoting Industrial R and D which has potential for application through the development of new IP, processes, prototypes or products. Canada was a partner country for the Technology Summit 2017. Security and Defence: India and Canada collaborate closely in international fora, particularly through the UN, Commonwealth and G-20. Defence ties have been expanding with mutual ship visits. There is robust cooperation on counter-terrorism issues, particularly through the framework of the JWG on Counter-Terrorism. Space: India and Canada have been pursuing successful cooperative and commercial relations in the field of Space since the 1990s mainly on space science, earth observation, satellite launch services and ground support for space missions. ISRO and Canadian Space Agency (CSA) signed two MOUs in the field of exploration and utilisation of outer space in October 1996 and March 2003. ANTRIX, the Commercial arm of ISRO, has launched several nanosatellites from Canada. ISRO in its 100th Satellite PSLV launched in 2018, also flew the Canadian first LEO satellite, from the Indian spaceport Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Agricultural cooperation: The bilateral MoU on agriculture cooperation was signed at the federal level in 2009. The first meeting of the JWG set under this MoU was held in New Delhi in 2010, which led to the creation of three sub-groups on knowledge exchange in emerging technologies; animal development and agricultural marketing. A Joint Working Group for Pulses has been set up separately. Indian diaspora: Canada hosts one of the largest Indian diasporas in the world, numbering 1.6 million (PIOs and NRIs) which account for more than 4% of its total population. The diaspora has done commendably well in every sector in Canada. In the field of politics, in particular, the present House of Commons (total strength of 338) has 22 Members of Parliament of Indian origin. Cultural Exchanges: Canada was the Country of Focus at the 48th International Film Festival of India held in Goa in November 2017. There is also an India – Canada Coproduction Agreement in films. Diwali has been celebrated on Parliament Hill for the last 18 Challenges in India-Canada ties: Khalistan separatism issue: There is resurgence of Khalistan separatism and calls for a “referendum” amid the Sikh community in Canada. There are also incidents of vandalism and violence targeting the Indian community in Canada. Canadian pronouncements on developments in India: Canadian pronouncements on developments in India, including on rights and freedoms can always set off diplomatic landmines. India’s structural impediments: India still has to overcome structural impediments such as complex labour laws, market protectionism, and bureaucratic regulations. Inadequate trade: While India–Canada economic relations have made some progress, Canada remains an insignificant trading partner for India. Way Forward: Canada’s Indo-Pacific strategy, which says India’s strategic importance can only increase as its economy grows and it becomes the world’s most populous country, offers a wider staging ground for the two to come together to work for the mutual benefits. There could also be a defence and security component with Canada’s resolve to participate more in maritime security and exercises in the Indo-Pacific, and deeper counter-terrorism cooperation than exists now. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Rural Development It is implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation Under PMKVY, training and assessment fees are paid completely by the respective state govts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme: The scheme comes under the Ministry of Women and Child Development It is a small deposit scheme for girl child, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements: The Governor is appointed by the President The Salary and Allowances of Governor are charged from Consolidated Fund of State. The Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Treaty of Alinagar Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context: The Treaty of Alinagar, signed in 1757, was a reluctant agreement signed by Bengal’s Nawab Siraj ud Daula with the English East India Company. About Treaty of Alinagar: The treaty of Alinagar (changed name of Calcutta) was signed between Robert Clive of the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Ud Daula. Terms of the treaty: The Nawab would recognize all the provisions of Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar’s farman of 1717. All British goods that passed through Bengal would be exempt from duties. The British would not be hindered from fortifying Calcutta, as well as mint coins in Calcutta. The signing of the treaty was one of the events leading up to the famous Battle of Plassey. The Nawab was defeated and killed by Clive and his allies. Significance of the treaty: The Treaty strengthened the position of the British in Bengal. It laid foundations for the Battle of Plassey. It set the stage for British colonial expansion in India, turning what was an economic enterprise into an imperial one. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. The English East India. Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? (2021) Broach Chicacole Trichinopoly Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Global Quality Infrastructure Index (GQII) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, India’s national accreditation system under the Quality Council of India (QCI) has been ranked 5th in the world in the recent Global Quality Infrastructure Index (GQII) 2021. India’s overall QI system ranking continues to be in the Top 10 at the 10th position, with the standardization system (under BIS) at 9th and The metrology system (under NPL-CSIR) at 21st position in the world. About Global Quality Infrastructure Index (GQII): The GQII ranks the 184 economies in the world on the basis of quality infrastructure (QI). The GQII is a database and ranking that allows interested persons to compare the quality infrastructure of different countries worldwide. The GQII program is an initiative of the independent consulting firms Mesopartner and Analytics to research and disseminate data on Quality Infrastructure. Quality Infrastructure means the international system of metrology, standardization, accreditation and quality-related services (testing, calibration, inspection, verification, training and awareness building). GQII rankings are published and presented post-facto for each year based on the data collected till the end of that year. About Quality Council of India: It was established as a National body for Accreditation on recommendations of Expert Mission of EU after consultations in Inter-ministerial Task Force, Committee of Secretaries and Group of Ministers through a Cabinet decision in 1996. QCI was set up through a PPP model as an independent autonomous organization with the support of Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations, (i) Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), (ii) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and (iii) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). QCI is a non-profit organization registered under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry was designated as the nodal point for all matters connected with quality and QCI to structure and help implementation of the Cabinet decision. It is operated through the constituent Boards of QCI, primarily the National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB), which provides accreditation to the certification, inspection, and validation / verification bodies. The National Accreditation Board for Testing & Calibration Laboratories (NABL), which provides accreditation to the testing, calibration and medical laboratories. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Commission for Safai Karmacharis Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The government informed that there is no proposal to convert National Commission for Safai Karmacharis into a statutory body. About the National Commission for Safai Karmacharis: The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) is currently a non-statutory body. It investigates the conditions of Safai Karamcharis in India and makes recommendations to the Government of India. It was constituted in 1994 as a statutory body for a three-year period under the NCSK ACT, 1993. It continued till February 2004, when the relevant Act expired. Functions of the commission: recommending programmes to the Central Government to eliminate inequalities in status and facilities, and to promote opportunities for Safai Karamcharis. studying and evaluating the implementation of the programmes and schemes for the social and economic rehabilitation of Safai Karamcharis. Investigating specific grievances and take suo moto notice non-implementation of: programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis; decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardship of Safai Karamcharis with measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis; the provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis, take up such matters with the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments; make periodical reports to the Central and State Governments In the discharge of its functions, NCSK can demand information from any Government or local or other authority. As per mandate of National Commission for Safai Karamcharis identification of safai karamcharis has not to be done by them. Sanitation is a state subject and no central data is maintained in this regard. National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation: NSKFDC is a not-for-profit company under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It aims to uplift the Safai Karamcharis, Scavengers and their dependents socially and economically. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 The Act aims to eliminate insanitary latrines (those not connected to pits/septic tanks/sewage lines) alongside tracking the rehabilitation of manual scavengers in other occupations and conducting periodic surveys. To eliminate this practice, the act has provisions for stringent penalties, for direct or indirect employment of any person in hazardous cleaning of sewers or septic tanks by any person, local authority or agency. For example, even the first instance of its contravention is punishable with imprisonment up to two years or fine up to Rs 2 lakh or both. If a worker dies while performing such work, even with safety gear and other precautions, the employer is required to pay compensation of Rs 10 lakh to the family. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Exercise TARKASH Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Sixth edition of joint exercise TARKASH recently concluded by The National Security Guard (NSG) and US Special Operations Forces (SOF). About Exercise TARKASH: The exercise for the first time included “Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear (CBRN) terror response” in its drill. The objective was to rapidly neutralise the terrorists, rescue the hostages safely and deactivate the chemical weapons being carried by the terrorists. Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear (CBRN) Weapons: CBRN weapons are also classified as weapons of mass destruction. They have been used by States and terror elements in the past. The most recent use of CBRN in the form of a sarin gas attack was witnessed in Syria in 2017 when more than 100 people died. International Treaties related to WMD: The use of chemical, biological, and nuclear weapons is regulated by a number of international treaties and agreements. Among them are the: Geneva Protocol, 1925, that banned the use of chemical and biological weapons Biological Weapons Convention, 1972, and Chemical Weapons Convention, 1992, which put comprehensive bans on the biological and chemical weapons respectively. India has signed and ratified both the 1972 and 1992 treaties. There are very few non-signatory countries to these treaties, even though several countries have been accused of non-compliance. The use and proliferation of nuclear weapons is regulated by treaties such as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). Source: Indian Express Article 105 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the Congress President cited Article 105 of the Constitution that deals with the privileges and powers of parliamentarians, to protest against the expunction of parts of his speech. About Article 105 of the Constitution: Article 105 pertains to the powers, privileges, etc, of Parliament, its members and committees. Article 194, protects the privileges and powers of the houses of legislature, their members and committees in the states. Simply put, Members of Parliament are exempted from any legal action for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties. For example, a defamation suit cannot be filed for a statement made in the House. This immunity extends to certain non-members as well, such as the Attorney General for India or a Minister who may not be a member but speaks in the House. In cases where a Member oversteps or exceeds the contours of admissible free speech, the Speaker or the House itself will deal with it, as opposed to the court. The speech of MPs is subject to the discipline of the Rules of Parliament, “good sense” of its Members, and the control of proceedings by the Speaker. These checks ensure that MPs cannot use “defamatory or indecent or undignified or unparliamentary words” inside the House. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Lithium Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Geological Survey of India for the first time established Lithium inferred resources in the Salal-Haimana area of the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. About Lithium: Lithium is a non-ferrous metal and is one of the key components in EV batteries. It has the symbol Li and is a chemical element. It’s a silvery-white metal with a delicate texture. It is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element under normal circumstances. It must be kept in mineral oil since it is very reactive and combustible. It is both an alkali and a rare metal. India’s lithium reserves: According to the Indian Mines Ministry, the government agencies made the small discovery of lithium resources at a site in Mandya, Karnataka. It is the country’s first lithium reserve. Lithium Production in the world: Australia, Chile, China and Argentina are the world’s top four lithium-producing countries. Australia is by far the world’s top producer of lithium, with an output of 42,000 tonnes in 2019. The Lithium Triangle is a region of the Andes rich in lithium reserves around the borders of Argentina, Bolivia and Chile. The lithium in the triangle is concentrated in various salt pans that exist along the Atacama Desert and neighbouring arid areas. The area is thought to hold around 54% of the world’s lithium reserves. The Indian Navy has shown interest in the Lithium Triangle as lithium will be required on Li-ION batteries that are planned to be fitted in future submarines. MUST READ: Geological Survey of India Source:  Indian Express GOBAR-Dhan Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context:  Union Finance Minister has announced 500 new ‘waste to wealth’ plants for promoting a circular economy with a total investment of Rs 10,000 crore under the GOBAR-Dhan scheme. About GOBAR-Dhan Scheme: Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources (GOBAR)-Dhan was launched by the Government of India in April 2018 as a part of the biodegradable waste management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin. The scheme intends to positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste. The main focus areas of GOBAR-Dhan are to keep villages clean, increase the income of rural households and generate energy and organic manure from cattle waste. The Sustainable Alternatives towards Affordable Transporation (SATAT) scheme by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) encourages entrepreneurs to set up CBG plants produce and supply CBG to oil and gas marketing companies (OGC/OMC) for selling it as automotive and industrial fuels. About Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT): It is an initiative aimed at setting up of Compressed Bio-Gas production plants and make it available in the market for use in automotive fuels by inviting Expression of Interest from potential entrepreneurs. The initiative was launched in October 2018 by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas in association with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Oil Marketing Companies (OMC) viz. Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd. It aims to produce compressed biogas (CBG) from Waste and Biomass sources like agricultural residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, Municipal Solid Waste(MSW) and sewage treatment plant waste and make CBG available in the market for use as a green fuel. Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) plants are proposed to be set up mainly through independent entrepreneurs. CBG produced at these plants will be transported through cascades of cylinders to the fuel station networks of OMCs for marketing as a green transport fuel alternative. Source:  The Economic Times Northern Ireland Protocol Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The United Kingdom Supreme Court recently ruled that the Northern Ireland Protocol, which is a post-Brexit agreement that created a trade border between Northern Ireland and the rest of the UK, is lawful. About the Protocol: Northern Ireland (part of the UK) shared a land border with the Republic of Ireland (an EU member). EU and UK have different product standards, checks are necessary for goods to move from Northern Ireland to Ireland. The Northern Ireland Protocol is a post-BREXIT agreement that created a trade border between Northern Ireland and the rest of the UK. The protocol was an integral part of the 2019 BREXIT agreement signed between the UK and the EU. Under the protocol, Northern Ireland remains in the EU single market, and Trade-and-customs inspections of goods coming from Great Britain take place at Northern Ireland ports along the Irish Sea. Plan of UK: The UK government has proposed the creation of a ‘green lane’ and a ‘red lane’ for checking. The ‘green lane’ would have fewer checks and customs controls only for goods going to Northern Ireland. The ‘red lane’ would have a more stringent checks and for goods going on to the Republic of Ireland and the rest of the EU. In January 2023, both EU and UK signing a deal on sharing data regarding trade between them. The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement, was a political deal designed to bring an end to the 30 years ‘Troubles’ in the Northern Ireland. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following pairs: International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2020) 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty of Alinagar: It was signed between Robert Clive of the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Ud Daula. It laid foundations for the Battle of Buxar. All British goods that passed through Bengal would be exempt from duties under the treaty. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India: It was established as a National body for Accreditation on recommendations of Expert Mission of EU. QCI was set up through a PPP model as an independent autonomous organization with the support of Government of India and the Indian Industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Lithium reserves: The first lithium reserve in India was discovered at a site in Mandya, Karnataka. China is by far the world’s top producer of lithium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 11th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Quasicrystals Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists have discovered a third natural source of quasicrystals, extending the latter’s reputation for violent origins. About Quasicrystals: Quasicrystal, also called quasi-periodic crystal, matter formed atomically in a manner somewhere between the amorphous solids of glasses and the precise pattern of crystals. In quasicrystals, the atoms are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular, yet predictable, intervals. The American-Israeli scientist Dan Shechtman discovered quasicrystals in the lab in 1982. The first natural quasicrystal found was as microscopic grains in a fragment of the Khatyrka meteorite lying in the Koryak mountains of Russia. The second time scientists found natural quasicrystals in the remains of the Trinity test of the Manhattan Project. Recently in the Sand Hills dunes in northern Nebraska, where scientists found silicate glass which is a dodecagonal quasicrystal, rare even for quasicrystals. Three varieties: icosahedrite, decagonite and proxidecagonite. Proxidecagonite is also known as quasicrystal approximant. Icosahedrite’s crystal structure exhibited fivefold symmetry in two dimensions where the pattern repeated itself after being rotated by 72º. Icosahedrite exhibited 20-fold symmetry in three dimensions. Decagonite exhibited 10-fold symmetry by 36º They inhibit properties like electrical properties, optical properties, thermal properties, hardness, anticorrosive properties and hydrogen absorption properties. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Grishneshwar Temple Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, Former U.S. Secretary of State Hillary Clinton visited the historic Grishneshwar temple, which is the 12th Jyotirlinga in the country. About Grishneshwar Temple: Grishneshwar Jyotirlinga Temple also known as Ghushmeshwar Temple, is one of the shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva that is referenced in the Shiva Purana. This pilgrimage site is located in Ellora (also called Verul), less than a kilometer from Ellora Caves – a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the state of Maharashtra. The temple structure was destroyed by the Delhi Sultanate in the 13th and 14th-century. It went through several rounds of rebuilding followed by re-destruction during the Mughal-Maratha conflict. It was rebuilt in the current form in the 18th century by Ahilyabai Holkar of Indore, after the fall of the Mughal Empire. Architectural design of the temple: The Grishneshwar temple is an illustration of Maratha temple architectural style and structure. It is built of red rocks and is composed of a five-tier shikara. This 240 ft x 185 ft temple is the smallest Jyotirlinga temple in India. There is a Nandi bull in the court hall. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                                        Odisha Erragudi                                                            Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                             Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                          Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Vivad se Vishwas II scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Budget has proposed the Vivad se Vishwas-2 scheme to settle long-pending litigation in cases where an arbitration order has been challenged in any Indian court. About Vivad se Vishwas II scheme: The Vivad Se Vishwas scheme was announced under Union Budget 2020 to reduce ongoing legal disputes under direct taxation. It is a “one-time settlement” scheme that contains a draft pact between the litigating parties to bring finality to the dispute. It is proposed to be implemented through a functionality on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal. Under this scheme, the interest and penalty associated with the disputed tax amount is completely waived off. As a result, the taxpayer has to pay only the amount of disputed tax. Conditions for the one time settlement under the scheme: no state government or any other private firm is party to the case, or The dispute pertains to pending financial claims, and not any performance claims. Eligibility: Companies or entities in domestic contractual disputes with the central government and associated bodies only can seek to settle pending matters under the ‘Vivad se Vishwas II’ scheme. The scheme would apply to disputes where one of the parties is either the Centre, its autonomous bodies, public sector banks, financial institutions and enterprises, Union Territories, including Delhi, and their agencies, and organisations where the Centre has a stake of 50 per cent, like metro rail corporations. Disputes, where claims are raised against procuring entities as above along with some other party (state government or private party), shall not be eligible under the scheme. Disputes having only financial claims against the procuring entities will be settled through this scheme. The scheme proposes graded settlement terms depending on the pendency level of the dispute and it is proposed to cover only cases involving domestic arbitration and cases under international arbitration are not eligible to be settled under this scheme. Source: Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements : Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note. Certificate of Deposit is a long-term Instrument issued by RBI to a corporation. ‘Call Money’ is short-term finance used for interbank transactions. “Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest-bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only e-Gram SWARAJ Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union rural development and Panchayati raj minister Giriraj Singh recently launched Mission Antyodaya Survey 2022-23, which will shed light on how government schemes have benefited rural India and what is the current economic situation of the country’s villages. The survey will be conducted among gram panchayats across the country, all of which have their profiles on E-Gram Swaraj portal. About  E-Gram SWARAJ: It is one single interface on which the details will be listed panchayat wise. The platform will provide records of work from planning to the implementation in every village panchayat under Gram Panchayati Development Plan (GPDP). All the details related to Panchayat Sachiv and Panch can be viewed on Gram Swaraj Portal. The works of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj will be accessible through Gram Swaraj Portal. The Gram Swaraj Portal and application will provide a boost in transparency by decentralized planning of development projects, with progress reports updates and increased accountability. Anybody can create an account on the Gram Swaraj Portal and know about the developmental works of villages. Source: Economic Times Article 356 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, Prime Minister recalled in Rajya Sabha that Congress governments at the Centre had dismissed many state governments by “misusing” Article 356 of the Constitution. About Article 356: Every state shall comply with all directions given by Union on matters it empowers to do so. If any state fails to comply with the directions of the union, then President Rule can be imposed. History of Article 356: Article 356 was inspired by Section 93 of the Government of India Act, 1935. This provided that if a Governor of a province was satisfied that a situation had arisen in which the government of the province cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the said Act, Then he could assume to himself all or any of the powers of the government and discharge those functions in his discretion. The Governor could not encroach upon the powers of the high court. Section 93 allowed the British authorities to exercise ultimate power when they deemed it necessary. A Nine-judge Bench in its decision in 1994 noted the specific instances when President’s Rule can be imposed and when it cannot. Article 356 can be invoked in situations of the physical breakdown of the government or when there is a ‘hung assembly’, but it cannot be used without giving the state government a chance to either prove its majority in the House or without instances of a violent breakdown of the constitutional machinery. Conditions to impose President’s rule: A state legislature is unable to elect a leader as Chief Minister for a time prescribed by the Governor of that state. Breakdown of a coalition leading to the Chief Minister having minority support in the house. Loss of majority in the assembly due to a vote of no-confidence in the house. Elections are postponed for unavoidable reasons like war, epidemic or natural disasters. Revocation of President’s rule: If approved by both houses, the president’s rule can continue for 6 months. It can be extended for a maximum of 3 years with the approval of the Parliament done every 6 months. President’s rule can be revoked at any time by the president and does not need the Parliament’s approval. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only National Council for Applied and Economic Research (NCAER) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: According to business confidence has recovered from the lows of the pre-pandemic (2019-20) and the following two pandemic years, though sentiments continued to soften sequentially in the three quarters of the current fiscal. About NCAER: Established in 1956, NCAER is India’s oldest and largest independent, non-profit, economic policy research institute. It is one of a handful of think tanks globally that combine rigorous analysis and policy outreach with deep data collection capabilities, especially for household surveys. It undertakes grant-funded research and commissioned studies for governments and industry, and is one of the few think tanks globally that also collect primary data. NCAER has set up a National Data Innovation Centre (NDIC) to serve as a laboratory for experiments in data collection, interfacing with partners in think tanks, Indian and international universities, and governments. NCAER’s work falls into four thematic areas: Growth, Macro, Trade, and Economic Policy Investment Climate, Industry, Infrastructure, labor, and Urban Agriculture and Rural Development, Natural Resources, and Environment Poverty, Equity, Human Development, and Consumers. Source: Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2) What was the purpose of the Inter Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently? (2019) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending The Role of Labour Unions/Trade Unions in Emerging Sectors Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: There have been many reports of layoffs in the last few months, especially in emerging sectors. Lay-offs have been taking place not only in India but in major economies like the U.S. too. Large, medium and small enterprises as well as start-ups have let go of dozens or even thousands of workers. About Labour Union/Trade Union: History of Trade Union Movement in India In 1870, the first labour organization Working Men’s Club was founded in Calcutta by Sasipada Banerjee. He also published in the journal ‘Bharat Sramajibi‘. In 1875, Sorabjee Sharpoorji Bengalee of Mumbai organized the labour agitation in Bombay against the appalling conditions of workers, especially women and children. Thus, the first organized labour agitation was organised by S. Bengalee. It results in the formation of the first factory commission in the country in 1875. In 1875, Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was the first to represent the grievances of the Indian working class before the Labour Commission of Bombay. In 1890, M Lokhande set up the first association of Indian workers the ‘Bombay Mill-Hands Association‘ in Bombay. In 1897, the Amalgamated Society of Railway Servants of India was established. In 1920, the All Indian Trade Union Congress (AITUC), the first trade union on an All-Indian basis, was formed. The four founder fathers of AITUC were Lala Lajpat Rai, N. M. Joshi, Joseph Baptista, and Diwan Chaman Lal. In 1926, British Government in India passed the Trade Union Act of 1926, which was the first labour enactment to legalize the formation of the Labour Union in India. In 1928, Girni Kamgar Union organized the Bombay Textile Mills strike under the communists. In 1947, Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) was formed as the labour wing of the Indian National Congress (INC) with the efforts of Sardar Vallabbhai Patel and Gulzarilal Nanda. In December 1948, the Indian Federation of Labour (IFL) merged with Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) and formed United Trade Union Congress (UTUC). In 1955, Jan Sangh (now Bhartiya Janta Party) also established its labour wing known as Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS), founded by Dattopanti Thengdi. In 1970, the Centre of Indian Trade Union (CITU), affiliated with the Communist Party of India (Marxist), was formed with T. Ranadive as its first president. Major reasons for the lay-offs: Impact of COVID-19 pandemic Changes in business strategy Automation and technology advancements Re-evaluation of company goals and priorities Mergers and acquisitions Financial difficulties Frequent changes in government policies and regulations Decreased investment Decreased demand for goods and services Increased competition The Amazon story: Labour Union in Amazon: Amazon workers at the warehouse at Staten Island called JFK8 succeeded in forming the Amazon Labour Union. Amazon reacted by filing numerous objections with the National Labour Relations Board, the federal body that protects the rights of private sector employees to join together. On the other hand, employees at the warehouse near Albany voted overwhelmingly against unionisation in October 2022 as many of them were sceptical of the bargaining power of a union vis-à-vis a giant like Amazon. In India: Amazon shut down Amazon Food and Amazon Academy. It retrenched workers in the Indian facility in a gradual manner. The Deputy Chief Labour Commissioner in Bengaluru served a notice seeking information from the company. But it is well-known how seriously employers, especially multi-national corporations (MNCs), take labour departments; they ignore conciliation meetings more often than trade unions. Importance of Labour Unions in Emerging Sectors: Job Security and Protection against Mass Lay-offs: Labour unions play an important role in advocating for job security and protecting workers against mass layoffs, particularly in emerging sectors where layoffs may be more widespread. Support for Re-employment and Career Development: Labour unions can provide support and resources for re-employment and career development for workers who have been laid off, helping them to find new job opportunities and secure their financial future. Negotiation of Severance Packages: Labour unions can negotiate with employers to provide adequate severance packages for workers affected by mass lay-offs, helping to mitigate the financial impact of job loss. Collective Bargaining Power: By pooling their resources and bargaining power, labour unions can negotiate with employers to secure better wages, benefits, and working conditions for workers, making them less vulnerable to layoffs and more able to secure their financial future. Advocacy for Workers’ Rights and Protections: Labour unions can use their voice and influence to advocate for workers’ rights and protections against mass lay-offs, working to prevent layoffs and ensure that workers are treated fairly and equitably. Landmark Cases About Trade Unions In India All India Bank Employees’ Association v. N.I.Tribunal The case laid down the rights of members of trade unions that are covered under the fundamental right to freedom of expression and speech under Article 19(1) (c). However, the court ruled that Article 19(1) (c) does not include a right to achieving all the goals for which the trade union was created. The ruling also ruled that adequate industrial legislation can govern or restrict trade union strikes. Balmer Lawrie Workers’ Union, Bombay and Anr. v. Balmer Lawrie & Co. Ltd. and Ors The SC’s underlying assumption was that a recognised union represents all workers in a particular industrial project or industry. In the MRF United Workers case, this matter was also mentioned. Kalindi and Others v. Tata Locomotive and Engineering Co. Ltd The Supreme Court concluded that there is no right to representation unless it recognises it through its standing orders. In Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. v. Maharashtra General Kamgar Union and Others, the decision was upheld. Way Forward: Labour unions play a crucial role in emerging sectors by advocating for the rights and interests of workers. In industries such as technology and renewable energy, where working conditions and job security may be uncertain, unions provide a voice for employees and negotiate fair wages, benefits, and working conditions. Historically, the role of trade unions in India was mostly limited to collective bargaining for economic reasons. On the other hand, trade unions currently play an important role in employee welfare, cultural programmes, banking, and medical facilities, as well as raising awareness through training and education of trade union members. Despite a few recent events that can mainly be classified as one-off situations, most trade unions have succeeded to create a climate that allows for a constructive conversation between workers and employers about whatever requests they may have. Furthermore, Indian trade unions have ensured that a forum exists to support better industrial relations, industrial growth, and productivity improvement over time. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Trade Union and associated person Centre of Indian Trade Union – B. T. Ranadive Indian National Trade Union Congress – Sardar Vallabbhai Patel All Indian Trade Union Congress – Lala Lajpat Rai How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Q.2) Article 356 of the Indian Constitution delas with President’s rule National Emergency Financial Emergency None of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Grishneshwar Temple: It is one of the shrines dedicated to Lord Vishnu that is referenced in the Vishnu Purana. The Grishneshwar temple is an illustration of Maratha temple architectural style and structure. It is the largest Jyotirlinga temple in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here