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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Uttaramerur inscription Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi referred to the Uttaramerur inscription in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu, while discussing India’s democratic history. About Uttaramerur inscription:- IMAGE SOURCE: What are the less known facts about Tamil Nadu? – Quora The Uttaramerur inscription, dated around 920 A.D. in the reign of Parantaka Chola [907-955 A.D.]. Uttaramerur: it is situated in the Kancheepuram district, about 90 km from Chennai. The Pallava king Nandivarman II established it around 750 A.D. The Uttaramerur inscription testifies to the historical fact that nearly 1,100 years ago, a village had an elaborate and highly refined electoral system and even a written constitution prescribing the mode of elections. The details of this system of elective village democracy are inscribed on the walls of the village assembly (grama sabha mandapa), a rectangular structure made of granite slabs. The inscription gives astonishing details about the constitution of wards, the qualification of candidates standing for elections, the disqualification norms, the mode of election, the constitution of committees with elected members, the functions of those committees, the power to remove the wrongdoer, etc. The villagers even had the right to recall the elected representatives if they failed in their duty. In fact, inscriptions on temple walls in several parts of Tamil Nadu refer to village assemblies. MUST READ: Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?(2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? (2020) ”Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” Ashoka Samudragupta Harshavardhana Krishnadeva Raya A-HELP(Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production) programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Uttarakhand government launched ‘A-HELP’(Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production) programme. About A-HELP (Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production) programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: 20th Livestock Census of India 2019 Highlights – Paper Tyari A-HELP Program is launched in the State of Uttarakhand. The ‘A-HELP’ training programme is being run jointly by the Union Ministry of Rural Development and the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. The program aims to address the healthcare needs of the livestock population in a village. In the programme, members of women self-help groups registered under the State Rural Livelihood Mission, who are helping in various animal husbandry activities in the form of Pashu Sakhi, will be trained. A-HELPs will help in artificial insemination under Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), and in preventing the livestock from infectious diseases. Significance:- A-HELP is community-based women activists, who assist veterinarians in local departmental activities, help livestock farmers to take loans for entrepreneurship development, fill out applications, mark the ear tagging of animals and register them in the INAF portal and help with insurance etc. ‘A-HELP’ assistance can be taken in the implementation of various schemes and in providing information to the farmers at the grassroots level. MUST READ: Improving Livestock Breeding SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Exercise Orion Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, four Rafales departed to France to take part in multilateral exercise Orion. About Exercise Orion:- It is a multinational exercise hosted by the French government. It is reportedly the largest ever multinational exercise being carried out by the French defence forces which have involved their Army, Navy and Air Force. It includes ground troops, warships, aircraft carriers and combat aircraft. It is meant to boost military cooperation and interoperability among participating nations. Participants: Besides the IAF and the FASF, Air Forces from Germany, Greece, Italy, Netherlands, Spain, U.K. and U.S. would also be flying in this multilateral exercise. The IAF contingent will include four Rafale aircraft, two C-17, two IL-78 aircraft and 165 air warriors. This would be the first overseas exercise for the IAF’s Rafale aircraft. MUST READ:  India and France relations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May, 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Q.2) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court stated that the government may need to “re-check” report of the Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission. About Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission:- IMAGE SOURCE: Protecting Interest of Minorities From The Glass of Constitutional Armour (ipleaders.in) Ranganath Misra Commission is also called National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities. It was constituted by the Government of India in Objective: to look into various issues related to Linguistic and Religious minorities in India. Important recommendations:- One of the recommendations of the commission was to permit Dalits who convert to Islam or Christianity to avail of reservation benefits under the Scheduled Caste reservation quota. Current status:- Rejecting the Mishra report, the government had recently constituted a new Commission headed by a former Chief Justice of India K.G. Balakrishnan. It is given two years to prepare a report on the question of granting SC status to “new persons who have historically belonged to the Scheduled Castes but have converted to religions other than Hinduism, Buddhism and Sikhism”. MUST READ: National Commission for Minorities SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: (2019) No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Dabba trading Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the National Stock Exchange (NSE) issued a string of notices naming entities involved in ‘dabba trading’. About Dabba trading:- Dabba (box) trading refers to informal trading that takes place outside the purview of the stock exchanges. Traders bet on stock price movements without incurring a real transaction to take physical ownership of a particular stock as is done in an exchange. In simple words, it is gambling centred around stock price movements. For example, an investor places a bet on a stock at a price point, say ₹1,000. If the price point rose to ₹1,500, he/she would make a gain of ₹500. However, if the price point falls to ₹900, the investor would have to pay the difference to the dabba broker. Thus, it could be concluded that the broker’s profit equates the investor’s loss and vice-versa. The primary purpose of such trades is to stay outside the purview of the regulatory mechanism. The transactions therefore are facilitated using cash and the mechanism is operated using unrecognised software terminals. It could also be facilitated using informal or kaccha (rough) records, sauda (transaction) books, challans, DD receipts, cash receipts alongside bills/contract notes as proof of trading. Issues:- Since there are no proper records of income or gain, it helps dabba traders escape taxation. They would not have to pay the Commodity Transaction Tax (CTT) or the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) on their transactions. The use of cash also means that they are outside the purview of the formal banking system. It results in a loss to the government exchequer.  In ‘dabba trading’, the primary risk entails the possibility that the broker defaults in paying the investor or the entity becomes insolvent or bankrupt. Being outside the regulatory purview implies that investors are without formal provisions for investor protection, dispute resolution mechanisms and grievance redressal mechanisms that are available within an exchange. Since all activities are facilitated using cash, and without any auditable records, it could potentially encourage the growth of ‘black money’ alongside perpetuating a parallel economy. This could potentially translate to risks entailing money laundering and criminal activities. MUST READ: Social Stock Exchange SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Section 5(4) of the Maternity Benefit Act Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, a bench led by CJI Chandrachud has agreed to hear the PIL challenging Section 5(4) of the Maternity Benefit Act (provisions for adoptive mothers). About Section 5(4) of the Maternity Benefit Act:- The 2017 amendment introduced Section 5(4). The original 1961 Maternity Benefit Act did not have these provisions for adoptive mothers. These provisions are for maternity benefits for women who adopt or act as commissioning mothers. Adoptive mothers of children below three months are entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave. A woman adopting a child older than three months is not eligible for maternity benefits. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961:- It was passed in, 1961, to regulate the employment of women in “certain establishments” for the period before and after childbirth. It originally applied to factories, mines, plantations and extended later in 1973 to government-owned establishments and establishments for exhibitions. Section 4 of the Act prohibited the employment of or work by women during the six weeks immediately following delivery or miscarriage. Section 5 granted paid maternity leave for up to 12 weeks if the woman had worked for at least 160 days in the preceding 12 months. Violations could result in three months’ punishment, with or without a fine. Key Changes in the 2017 Amendment:- It amended Section 5 to allow for 26 weeks of paid leave after childbirth for biological mothers. It inserted Section 5(4) to allow adoptive or surrogate mothers to have a 12-week maternity benefit period from the date the child is handed over. It inserted Section 5(5) to allow for working from home if mutually agreed upon after availing of maternity benefits. It inserted Section 11 to mandate the availability of a creche facility for establishments with 50 or more employees, with four visits a day allowed for the mother and rest intervals provided. It does not apply to the unorganised sector, which has been a criticized aspect of the amendment. MUST READ: Union Budget: Umbrella Schemes of Ministry of Women & Child Development SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Large Hadron Collider Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, engineers are warming up the Large Hadron Collider for its third season of operations. About Large Hadron Collider:- The Large Hadron Collider is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that are the smallest known building blocks of all things. It is a collider that accelerates two beams of particles in opposite directions and smashes them head-on. These beams of particles are Hadron is a subatomic particle made of quarks, gluons and anti-quarks. Hadrons are the heaviest particles and are composed of two or more quarks that are held strongly by electromagnetic force. LHC is built by the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN). Findings:- The ATLAS and CMS detectors discovered the Higgs boson in 2012 and confirmed their findings in 2013. Using the data from collisions, scientists have tested the predictions of the Standard Model of particle physics, observed exotic particles, and pieced together information about extreme natural conditions. MUST READ: India based Neutrino Observatory SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same ONE HEALTH’ APPROACH Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The government launched the “ Animal Pandemic Preparedness Initiative (APPI)” as well as the World Bank-funded Animal Health System Support for One Health (AHSSOH) project under the aegis of the National One Health Mission. About One Health: One Health is an integrating idea that brings different sectors together to solve the health, productivity, and conservation challenges and has major implications for India. WHO formed a One Health Initiative to integrate work on human, animal, and environmental health across the Organization. WHO is also working with the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) as a One Health Quadripartite. Present Scenario In India: The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) approved to set up of a National One Health Mission with a cross-ministerial effort that will serve to coordinate, support, and integrate all the existing One Health activities in the country and fill gaps where it is appropriate. The Mission aims to coordinate across achieving overall pandemic preparedness and integrated disease control against priority diseases of both human and animal sectors, with early warning systems built on integrated surveillance systems and response readiness for endemic as well as an emerging epidemic or pandemic threats. The Integrated Disease Surveillance Project, launched in 2004 for disease outbreak detection and rapid response functions, has generated information on the flow of certain disease outbreaks but the program has been unable to integrate human and animal (livestock and wildlife) surveillance. A multi-disciplinary Road Map to Combat Zoonoses (2008) was laid to create an integrated mechanism for the surveillance, detection, and treatment of zoonoses. Benefits of One Health: Reduce potential threats at the human-animal-environment interface to control diseases that spread between animals and humans Tackle antimicrobial resistance (AMR) Ensure food safety Prevent environment-related health threats to humans and animals Protect biodiversity. Challenges: Spread of disease: About 60 per cent of the known infectious diseases in humans and 75 percent of all emerging infectious diseases are caused by pathogens that originate in animals. Antibiotic-resistant microbes also can effectively be transmitted from animals to humans and cause diseases in humans which may not respond to affordable antibiotics. Extensive and irrational use of antibiotics especially in the livestock sector for increasing yield and preventing diseases causes emergence and selection of resistant pathogens. These spread through animal-human interaction or food chain. Absence of standardized methods to measure the complexity of the benefits achieved from the holistic approach. Lack of systematic methodology to prove the nature of health impacts across the animal and human health sectors. Lack of agreement in leadership issues, resource allocation, and work distribution. Steps taken globally and by the India Collaboration: Institutes like the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) have collaborated for joint research priorities, mostly to control disease outbreaks and also at individual levels between human and animal health researchers as well as practitioners. The Integrated Disease Surveillance Project: launched in 2004 for disease outbreak detection and rapid response functions, has generated several information on flow of certain disease outbreaks but the programme has been unable to integrate human and animal (livestock and wildlife) surveillance. A multi-disciplinary Road Map to Combat Zoonoses: was laid to create an integrated mechanism for surveillance, detection and treatment of zoonoses. The National Mission on Biodiversity and Human Well-being built on a framework that integrates biodiversity, ecosystem services, climate change, agriculture, health, bio-economy and capacity-building in the realm of biodiversity science has one mission component that explicitly links biodiversity to human health through the One Health approach. The Government of India decided to set up a dedicated centre under ICMR to contain zoonotic diseases: the Centre for One Health at Nagpur, and also constituted a ‘National Expert Group on One Health’ to promote multi-sectoral, transdisciplinary, collaboration and co-operation to adopt and implement a One Health framework in India. National Framework for One Health 2021 by FAO: Improving the capacity for public health actions in major stakeholders human health, animal health and environment management. Way Forward: India has combatted several zoonotic diseases and has a robust institutional network for biomedical research, which can lead and operationalize the One Health approach. For One Health Science, it is important to develop databases and models with a consolidated approach of ecologists, field biologists, epidemiologists, and other scientists. Understanding and responding to the drivers that threaten health; optimising the effectiveness of public health systems in achieving these goals within each sector. Therefore, a nexus of science, social science, indigenous knowledge, and policy at national, state, and local levels can put forward strategies and institutions for the implementation of One Health. Source: PIB Cooperatives in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Central Government has recently introduced Bill to amend the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. The key features of this Bill are: The Central Government will establish the Cooperative Election Authority to conduct the election of board members; Provision for amalgamation of UCBs with other multi-State UCBs as decided by general meeting with two-thirds of its members present and voting; The Central Government will prepare a scheme and create a fund, to be contributed by profit-making multi-State UCBs, for rehabilitation of sick multi-State UCBs; There are restrictions on the redemption of government shareholding; and One or more Co-operative Ombudsman with territorial jurisdiction to be appointed by the Central Government for the redress of complaints. About the Cooperative Societies: According to International Labour Organization, a cooperative is an autonomous association of persons united voluntarily to meet their common economic, social and cultural needs and aspirations through a jointly owned and democratically controlled enterprise. A co-operative society is a voluntary association of individuals having common needs who join hands for the achievement of common economic interest. Its aim is to serve the interest of the poorer sections of society through the principle of self-help and mutual help. The cooperative movement is as old as India’s Independence. Cooperative evolution in India: Cooperatives were first started in Europe and the British Government replicated it in India to mitigate the miseries of the poor farmers. First credit cooperative society was formed in Banking in 1903 with the support of the Government of Bengal Enactment of the Cooperative Credit Societies Act, 1904 gave Cooperative a definite structure and shape. In 1919, cooperation became a provincial subject and the provinces were authorised to make their own cooperative laws under the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), a statutory corporation, was set up under National Cooperative Development Corporation Act, 1962. The Government of India announced a National Policy on Co-operatives in 2002. Current status in India: The country has 1,94,195 cooperative dairy societies and 330 cooperative sugar mill operations. Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India. Village-level primary agricultural credit societies (PACSs) formed by farmer associations are the best example of grassroots-level credit flow Central Government recently established a distinct ‘Ministry of Co-operation’ to realize the aim of ‘Sahakar se Samriddhi’ (Prosperity via Cooperation) and to revitalize the cooperative movement. Cooperative Societies is in Item No. 32 in the State List. Benefits of Cooperative Societies; Easy setup, less legal implications: Any ten members who have acquired the majority can form a cooperative society with few legal formalities. Promote equality and transparency: A cooperative society is based on the principle of ‘one man, one vote‘. All members have equal rights in handling the internal affairs. The surplus generated by these societies is dispensed equally among the members. Limited Liability: The member’s liability in a cooperative society is confined to the extent of their capital contribution. Eliminate Middlemen: Consumer cooperative societies are set up to attain a seamless supply of essential commodities. These societies purchase commodities directly from the producers & wholesalers and sell them to the end-users at affordable prices. Fosters Habit of Saving: Cooperative societies cultivate the habit of saving among their members. They render credit facilities generally for productive purposes only. Social Benefits: Cooperative societies have played a significant role in modulating social customs and controlling irrelevant expenses. The profits reaped by the cooperatives can be used for facilitating fundamental amenities of the society. Access to Credit: Cooperative societies have helped in reducing the influencing of private money lenders in rural areas. Cooperatives facilitate credit at the nominal interest rate. Support Agriculture: Cooperative societies have supported the government’s effort to improve agricultural production. They act as a bridge between the government and farmers e.g., the government disburses High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds and fertilizers via Cooperatives. Reserve Funds: Cooperative societies are under the legal obligation to transfer their 25% of profit to the general reserve. Thus, it reduces the need for external funding. Challenges: Non-accountability: The government gave too many benefits to cooperatives, but then there was no further accountability which led to these cooperatives becoming more and more lethargic. Besides as there was no competition, they became more and more costly they were not at all efficient and the worst part was that the government allowed them to function like this and pass on the burden of costs to consumers. Vested interest of some people: A lot of times people who are in position in control of cooperatives are actually people who have joined cooperatives for personal gains. Lack of coordination: Generally what happens in cooperatives is that different cooperatives at different level don’t coordinate this makes the work of cooperatives difficult. The Internal Free Rider Problem: New members who provide very little capital enjoy the same benefits as long-standing or founding members who have major investments in the cooperative New members get a “free ride” on the investments and other efforts of existing members, thereby diluting the returns to existing members. No Balanced Growth: The cooperatives in northeast areas and in areas like West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa are not as well developed as the ones in Maharashtra and the ones in Gujarat. Political Interference: This is the biggest problem faced by Sugar cooperatives in Maharashtra. Mismanagement and Manipulation: A hugely large membership turns out to be mismanaged unless some secure methods are employed to manage such co-operatives. In the elections to the governing bodies, money became such a powerful tool that the top posts of chairman and vice-chairman usually went to the richest farmers who manipulated the organization for their benefits. Lack of Awareness and Restricted Coverage: People are not well informed about the objectives of the Movement, rules and regulations of co-operative institutions. Most of these societies are confined to a few members and their operations extended to only one or two villages. Way Forward: The Cooperative societies can play a vital role in the rural transformation. Provision of adequate financial and technical assistance can enable them to address rural challenges and contribute to India’s growth story. Government should take all possible steps to facilitate growth ecosystem for the Cooperatives. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission often mentioned in the news related to Linguistic and Religious minorities Economic Weaker Section Identification of Other Backward Classes To study the status of scheduled tribes Q.2) which of the following countries are participants of the Exercise Orion? Netherlands Spain The USA China Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Uttaramerur inscription: It was established by the Pallava king Nandiverman II The inscription gives astonishing details about the constitution of wards, the qualification of candidates standing for elections, the disqualification norms, the mode of election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 36] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 36-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Jallianwala Bagh massacre Syllabus Prelims –Modern History Context: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was commemorated recently. About the Jallianwala Bagh massacre:- IMAGE SOURCE: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (jkdadlani.blogspot.com) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13th April 1919. It accounted for the gruesome execution of hundreds of innocent people by the Gurkha British Indian army on the orders of the then Anglo-Indian Brigadier R.E.H. Dyer. These people were protesting peacefully against the Rowlatt Act 1919. Rowlatt Act 1919: this act was passed on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. Significance of the event:- The Jallianwala Bagh tragedy was one of the causes that led Mahatma Gandhi to begin organising his first large-scale and sustained nonviolent protest (satyagraha) campaign, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22). The Bengali poet and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the knighthood that he had received in 1915. Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. MUST READ: Shaheed Udham Singh SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation? (2009) It curtailed the freedom of religion It suppressed the Indian traditional education It authorized the government to imprison people without trial It curbed the trade union activities Kamchatka Peninsula Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Russia’s most active volcano ‘The Shiveluch volcano’ in Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula erupted recently. About Kamchatka Peninsula:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of the Kamchatka Peninsula showing the main volcanoes and… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Kamchatka Peninsula is a 1,250-kilometre-long peninsula in the Russian Far East. The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Okhotsk make up the peninsula’s eastern and western coastlines, respectively. Immediately offshore along the Pacific coast of the peninsula runs the 10,500-metre-deep Kuril–Kamchatka Trench. The Kamchatka Peninsula, the Commander Islands, and Karaginsky Island constitute the Kamchatka Krai of the Russian Federation. The vast majority of the 322,079 inhabitants are ethnic Russians, although about 13,000 are Koryaks (2014). The Kamchatka peninsula contains the volcanoes of Kamchatka, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The highest peak is the highest active volcano in Eurasia, Klyuchevskaya Sopka (4750 m). The higher parts of Kamchatka are glaciated with an area of about 900 km2 covered by 446 glaciers (Solomina et al., 2007). MUST READ: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and India – Russia Relations SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? (2022) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities. Though the International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them. Q.2)Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Cumbum grapes Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu’s Cumbum grapes get a Geographical Indication tag. About Cumbum grapes:- IMAGE SOURCE: Cumbum Valley farmers reap rich harvest with off-season grapes | Chennai News – Times of India (indiatimes.com) Cumbum Panneer Thratchai, also known as Cumbum grapes. It is a variety of grapes grown in the Cumbum Valley located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu, India. Cumbum Valley is the only place in the country where grapes are harvested around the year with three yield seasons. The unique feature is that these grapes are harvested all through the year as opposed to only during January and April in the rest of India. Economical Uses: The grapes grown are suitable for making wine, spirits, jams, canned grape juice and raisins. Since these grapes are produced in two seasons in a year, their yield and returns are exceptionally high. Grapes can be cultivated in a variety of soils including sandy loams, sandy clay loams, red sandy soils, shallow to medium black soils and red loams. Grapes generally require a hot and dry climate during their growth and fruiting periods. It is successfully grown in areas where the temperature range is from 15-40 C. MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Teja Singh Sutantar Syllabus Prelims –Modern History Context: Recently, Punjab CM unveiled the statue of Teja Singh Sutantar. About Teja Singh Sutantar:- Teja Singh Sutantar was a former MP and revolutionary leader at Nihalgarh village in Sangrur district, Punjab. Following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919, he joined the Akali Dal to participate in the movement to liberate gurdwaras from degenerate mahants. However, in September 1921, he formed his own squad called the Sutantar Jatha, which successfully liberated a gurdwara in a village called Teja in the Gurdaspur district from the mahants. Contributions:- In early 1923, Teja Singh went to Kabul as a Sikh missionary. There he came in contact with a few leaders of the Ghadar Party. The Ghadar Movement: it was an early 20th-century international political movement founded by expatriate Indians to overthrow British rule in India. In 1925, he joined the Turkish military academy under the pseudonym Azad Beg. He saved the life of Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew, the hero of Jallianwala Bagh, Kitchlew always referred to Sutantar as a ‘Khuda’ who saved his life,”. He contributed revolutionary articles to the party journal, the Kirti, frequently writing about issues that plagued peasants. He edited Lal Jhanda, a monthly magazine in Urdu, and Lal Savera, a Punjabi weekly and contributed to various newspapers. He saved hundreds of Muslims from communal riots during the Partition. Post-independence: Being a prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha, led a number of peasant agitations against the government and landlords. He  formed his Lal (Red) Party with the Kirti group of the Punjab Communist Party as its nucleus He was a revolutionary leader who led the PEPSU Muzara movement. PEPSU Muzara movement:- it started in the 1930s and went on till 1952  against the Biswedari system.  It was by landless peasants (muqarnas) in PEPSU (Patiala and East Punjab States Union). It was to obtain ownership rights of the land they had been tilling for generations. MUST READ: Lala Lajpat Rai SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around (2020) Women’s right to gain education Age of consent Restitution of conjugal rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 The Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: After recent amendments by the government, the ICSI will now be able to induct members from regulators as well as sectoral experts in its secretarial and auditing standards board. About The Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI):- It works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India. The Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) is the only recognized professional body in India to develop and regulate the profession of Company Secretaries in India.  It is a premier national professional body set up under an act of Parliament, the Company Secretaries Act, 1980. The Institute provides top-quality education to the students of the Company Secretaries (CS) Course and best quality set standards to CS Members. At present, there are more than 65,000 members and around 2.5 Lakh students on the roll of ICSI. ICSI has its headquarters in New Delhi, four Regional Offices in New Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, and Mumbai and 72 Chapters across India. ICSI has been contributing to the initiatives of the Government of India that have the potential to excel in the social-economic growth of India. MUST READ: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Bureau of Narcotics Syllabus Prelims –Important organizations Context: The Unified Portal of the Central Bureau of Narcotics was launched recently. About Central Bureau of Narcotics:- Central Bureau of Narcotics is a central government organization dealing with the international trade of Narcotic Drugs, Psychotropic Substances, and Precursor Chemicals under the ambit of various United Nations Conventions and the provisions of the Narcotics Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (NDPS Act, 1985). These substances bear dual potential as strong medicinal, scientific, and industrial use as well as a diversion for illicit use creating the substances for abuse. It is affiliated with India’s Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance). It is regulated by the country’s Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. Its Headquarters are in Gwalior. Objective: to stop opium production and trade and to issue licenses for the production of legal synthetic drugs. It implements various United Nations Conventions and the provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985. Responsibilities of CBN under NDPS Act, 1985:- Supervision over licit cultivation of opium poppy in India. Preventive and enforcement functions especially in the three poppy-growing States. Investigation of cases under the NDPS Act, 1985 and filing of the complaint in the Court. Action for tracing and freezing of illegally acquired property as per the provisions of Chapter V-A of the NDPS Act, 1985. Issue of licences for the manufacture of synthetic narcotic drugs. Issuance of Export Authorisations/ Import Certificates for export/ import of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances. Issuance of No Objection Certificate (NOC) for import/ export of a select number of Precursor Chemicals. Import of Poppy Seeds is permitted only from Australia, Austria, France, China, Hungary, the Netherlands, Poland, Slovenia, Spain Turkey and Czech. India is a signatory to the UN Convention on Narcotic Drugs 1961, UN Convention on Psychotropic Substances 1971 & UN Convention against the Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, 1988 These obligate member countries to monitor the implementation of the United Nations drug control conventions. CBN interacts with the International Narcotics Control Board, Vienna and the Competent Authorities of other countries to verify the genuineness of the transaction prior to authorizing the shipments. MUST READ: NIDAAN Portal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Q.2) ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to (2016) immunization of children and pregnant women construction of smart cities across the country India’s own search for Earth-like planets in outer space New Educational Policy Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, European Space Agency set to launch Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice). About Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice):- IMAGE SOURCE: Future Planetary Exploration: Good News Times Three! (futureplanets.blogspot.com) JUICE has been constructed by an industrial consortium led by Airbus Defence and Space based on the parameters provided by the ESA. The mission is planned to reach Jupiter in 2031. Only two other spacecraft have ever examined Jupiter:-  the Galileo probe: which orbited the gas giant between 1995 and 2003, and Juno, which has been circling the planet since 2016. NASA’s Europa Clipper: scheduled to be launched in October 2023 and would already be orbiting Jupiter when Juice reaches the planet. Europa Clipper aims to study the Europa moon. Goals of JUICE:- The mission aims to provide insight into how such a C and its constituents are formed and evolved over time. It will help scientists understand the origin, history, and evolution of Jupiter and its moons. The mission will reveal how possibly habitable environments can arise in Jupiter-like systems around other stars. Juice will analyze the chemistry, structure, dynamics, weather, and climate of Jupiter and its ever-changing atmosphere. MUST READ: NASA’s Lucy mission SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only REITs and InvITs index Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, NSE Indices launches India’s first-ever REITs and InvITs index. About REITs and InvITs index:- The REITs and InvITs Indices  track the performance of publicly listed and traded REITs and InvITs on the NSE. The base year for the indices is kept as ‘1 July 2019.’ This is to be reviewed and rebalanced every quarter. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REIT):- REIT is roughly like a mutual fund that invests in real estate. The basic deal on REITs is that when one owns a share of property, and an appropriate share of the income from it will come to them, after deducting an appropriate share of expenses. Essentially, it’s like a group of people pooling their money together and buying real estate except that it’s on a large scale and is regulated. REITs companies own, operate, or finance income-generating real estate. Publicly traded like stocks, make them highly liquid. Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvIT):- InvITs can be treated as the modified version of REITs designed to suit the specific circumstances of the infrastructure sector. They are similar to REIT but invest in infrastructure projects such as roads or highways which take some time to generate steady cash flows. They are set up as a trust and registered with SEBI. MUST READ: FPI and InvITs SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: (2021) Foreign currency convertible bonds Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions Global depository receipts Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments? 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 and 4 1 and 4 Zojila tunnel Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Union Road Transport and Highways Minister inspected the under-construction Zojila tunnel. About Zojila tunnel:- IMAGE SOURCE: Why the Zojila tunnel promises to revolutionise connectivity to Ladakh – Kashmir.Report The tunnel will provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar Valley and Leh on NH-1. It will bring about an all-around economic and socio-cultural integration of Jammu and Kashmir. It takes 3.5 hours to travel between Srinagar and Ladakh currently.  The tunnel will reduce the travel time to 15 minutes. The 14.15-km tunnel will be Asia’s longest bi-directional tunnel. MUST READ: Zojila tunnel work SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Siachen Glacier is situated on the (2020) East of Aksai Chin East of Leh North of Gilgit North of Nubra Valley Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2019) Glacier            River Bandarpunch  Yamuna Bara Shigri       Chenab Milam             Mandakini Siachen           Nubra Zemu               Manas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2 and 5 3 and 5 Parliamentary committees in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Due to the sheer volume of information and scale of operations that the Indian Parliament is required to undertake, it is not feasible to take up all issues on the floor of the House. Thus, Parliamentary committees are constituted to delve deeper into matters of public concern and develop expert opinion. About Committees of Parliament: Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament. A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker, and which works under the direction of the Speaker. It presents its report to the House or to the Speaker. They draw their authority from Article 105, which deals with the privileges of MPs, and Article 118, which gives Parliament authority to make rules to regulate its procedure and conduct of business. Types of Parliamentary Committees: Standing committees are constituted for a fixed term and work continuously. Ad hoc committees are created for a specific purpose and are dissolved after they complete their task. There are 6 categories of standing committees: financial committees, departmental standing committees, committees to inquire, committees to scrutinize and control, committees relating to the day-to-day business of the House, and house-keeping or service committees. There are 2 categories of ad hoc committees: inquiry committees and advisory committees. Significance of Parliamentary Committees: Improves Effectiveness: Parliamentary Committees act as a mechanism that helps in improving the effectiveness of Parliament. Coordination with Ministries: The Committees work closely with multiple Ministries, and facilitate inter-ministerial coordination. Important Functions: The Committees look into the demands for grants of Ministries/departments, examine Bills pertaining to them, consider their annual reports, and look into their long-term plans and report to Parliament. Carries Out Legislative Business: A great deal of legislative business ends up taking place in the Parliamentary Committees as- The process of law making is often complex, and Parliament has limited time for detailed discussions. The political polarisation and shrinking middle ground has been leading to increasingly rancorous and inconclusive debates in Parliament. Consensus through Experts: Committees can get inputs from experts and stakeholders on various matters. They also help parties reach consensus on various issues. Challenges faced by parliamentary committees: Poor referral rate: As per data from PRS in the 17th Lok Sabha, only 14 Bills have been referred for further examination so far. Similarly around 25% of the Bills introduced were referred to committees in the 16th Lok Sabha, as compared to 71% and 60% in the 15th and 14th Lok Sabha respectively. Recommendatory nature: Parliamentary committees in India do not have adequate powers to enforce their recommendations. The committees can only make recommendations to the parliament, and it is up to the government to act upon them. Shortage of time and resources to undertake comprehensive studies. As a result, committees may not be able to conduct an in-depth analysis of issues, and their recommendations may not be based on solid evidence. Lack of expertise: Parliamentary committees in India are comprised of MPs who may not have the required expertise to examine technical and specialized issues. Partisan allegations: The composition of parliamentary committees reflects the political representation of the parliament, which means that members may approach issues from a partisan perspective. Suggestive measures to address these challenges: Adopting USA Model: In the US, committees play a crucial role in scrutinizing bills post-introduction, allowing changes to be made before the modified bill goes for voting. Expert Support & Specialist Advisors: Engaging with experts and stakeholders enables Committee members to better understand the details of complicated issues, and the potential impact of a policy or legislation. Committees in other countries such as the UK, USA, and Canada can retain specialist advisors (such as lawyers, economists, and statisticians) to assist in specific inquiries. Greater Weightage to Public Account Committee: The recommendations of the PAC should be accorded greater weight and they must be treated as the “conscience-keepers of the nation in financial matters.” Public Opinions: Committees can also invite comments from the wider public which can help Committees consider the wider implications of a Bill or policy. Source:  The Hindu Bhu - Aadhaar Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: By March 2024, India aims to digitise 100 per cent of its land records and the land registration process and give a unique 14-digit alpha-numeric identity, also called Bhu-Aadhaar. About ULPIN (Unique Land Parcel Identification Number)/ Bhu-Aadhaar: Digital India Land Record Modernisation Programme (DILRMP), which integrates the computerisation of land records, strengthening of revenue administration, and updating of land records. Once this has been done and the system is cleaned up, every plot/parcel of land (both urban and rural) can get the 14-digit alpha-numeric ULPIN (Unique Land Parcel Identification Number) which is also named as Bhu-Aadhaar. Department of Land Resources (DoLR) along with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, the Department of Science and Technology and the National Remote Sensing Centre came up with the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number system. Significance of Bhu Aadhar: Data mapping: The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhaar will have the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and is based on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. It will cover all land parcels rural as well as urban. Language processing: Currently, the Records of Rights in each state and Union territory are maintained in local languages. DILRMP will also process transliterating the Records of Rights to any of the 22 languages recognised by the Constitution. Being described as “the Aadhaar for land”, it is a number that would uniquely identify every surveyed parcel of land and prevent land fraud, especially in the hinterlands of rural India, where land records are outdated and often disputed. The identification will be based on the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel, and is dependent on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. This is the next step in the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP), which began in 2008. Delivery of citizen services of land records through the single window. Sharing of land records data across departments, financial institutions and all stakeholders. Challenges: Difficulty in accomplishing target: Given the history and the complex nature of land laws, it is claimed that this process certainly cannot be accomplished by March 2024 (or even March 2026), both target dates. Issues with updating of land records: Digitisation of Cadastral maps will typically not have latitude/longitude data. There could be elevation and projection problems. The record we have of the title must reflect ownership, with new registrations and mutation being automatic. With or without title insurance, this guarantees title and just as Aadhaar captures biometry, ULPIN captures everything about that plot/parcel, which in all is a difficult process. Feasibility and sustainability: The feasibility and sustainability of the project have also raised concerns due to the cost of implementation, particularly considering the Department of Land Resources’ restricted financial resources. Way Forward: Modernisation of land records in absence of other changes such as multiplicity of laws on land, should not be overstated. ULPIN is about incremental improvements. There are parts where land titles and records are in a mess. Cleaning them up is a huge task. Despite the challenges and controversies surrounding the Bhu Aadhaar project, it has the potential to bring significant benefits to India’s land management system. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Narcotics: It is a central government organization dealing with the international trade of Narcotic Drugs, Psychotropic Substances, and Precursor Chemicals. It is regulated by the country’s Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. Its Headquarters are in Gwalior. It is affiliated with the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI): It works under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions It is the only recognized professional body in India to develop and regulate the profession of Company Secretaries in India It has its headquarters in Mumbai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) He was a former MP and revolutionary leader from Punjab. Following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919, he joined the Akali Dal to participate in the movement to liberate gurdwaras from degenerate mahants. He was a revolutionary leader who led the PEPSU Muzara movement which started in the 1930s and went on till 1952  against the Biswedari system. He saved hundreds of Muslims from communal riots during the Partition. Being a prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha, led a number of peasant agitations against the government and landlords. Who among the following described in the above passage? Lala Lajpat Rai Bhagat Singh Teja Singh Sutantar None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 35] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 34-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

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[MOST AWAITED COURSE] GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ – UPSC/IAS 2024 – ‘A Rigorous, Intensive Tests & Mentorship Based Programme’ That DOUBLES Your Success Rate!

IN INDIA, THE PLACE OF A ‘GURU’ or a mentor and a guide is above all! The Guru – Shishya Parampara has a beautiful history, known to all but practised by none in today’s day and age. The process of this direct dissipation of information from the source not only built a knowledge base but also helped in building a strong character in the students. But when we look around – excessive commercialisation has paved way for only a professional connection between teachers and students. There is a strong lack of connection between the teachers and the students. The fear of asking questions has not helped much in the process of learning as it should have actually happened. The fast-paced lifestyle and accessibility to various resources all at once, have steered many students away from the mentorship that could have served as the single most important starting point for many successes in life. But let us think for a moment….The stories of teachers like Vishvamitra, Sandinapani and Drona and the anecdotes about the brilliance of students like Ram, Krishna and Arjun are an integral part of our life journey. Isn’t it? One fine day, when the team was contemplating how best can we serve the veterans who have been in this game but have not tasted their most awaited success yet…we came up with an idea – we wondered if the parampara could be revived! Read Complete Details -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Einstein’s theory of gravity Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a new detailed map of dark matter has been found to be in agreement with Einstein’s theory of gravity. About Einstein’s theory of gravity:- Albert Einstein published his full theory of general relativity in 1915. As per this theory, no motion can exceed the speed of light. In general relativity (GR), concentrations of mass and energy curve the structure of spacetime, affecting the motion of anything passing near including light. Physicists made many exotic predictions using general relativity. Significance of the theory:- IMAGE SOURCE: Space – SciDump The theory explained the anomalous orbit of Mercury.  In 1919 when Arthur Eddington and his colleagues measured the influence of the Sun’s gravity on light from stars during a total solar eclipse. The bending of light around the Sun is small, but researchers realized the effect would be much larger for galaxies, to the point where gravity would form images of more distant objects. The phenomenon now called gravitational lensing.  The theory predicted the existence of black holes Black holes: objects with gravity so intense that nothing getting too close can escape again, not even light. General relativity showed that gravitation has a speed, which is the same as the speed of light. Catastrophic events like collisions between black holes or neutron stars produce gravitational waves. Researchers finally detected these waves in 2015 using the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO) Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO): a sensitive laboratory that took decades to develop. MUST READ: Dark matter SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) The distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Q.2) Consider the following phenomena (2018) Light is affected by gravity. The Universe is constantly expanding. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context:Recent studies have shown that Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) in Andhra Pradesh have yielded more produce than conventional methods. About Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):- IMAGE SOURCE: Things to know about Zero Budget Natural Farming / (SPNF) – Agrikrit Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. It was originally promoted by agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash Palekar. He developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers, pesticides and intensive irrigation. Objective: to bring down the cost of production to nearly zero and return to a pre-green revolution style of farming. The four wheels of ZBNF are:- Jiwamrita        It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil. About 200 litres of jivamrita should be sprayed twice a month per acre of land. After three years, the system is supposed to become self-sustaining. Bijamrita         It is a mix of desi cow dung and urine, water, bund soil and lime that is used as a seed treatment solution prior to sowing. Mulching         It is Covering the plants with a layer of dried straw or fallen leaves. It is meant to conserve soil moisture and keep the temperature around the roots at 25-32 degrees Celsius. It allows microorganisms to do their job. Waaphasa       It is providing water to maintain the required moisture-air balance. MUST READ: Natural farming SOURCE:DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Doctrine of promissory estoppel Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Advocate Prashant Bhushan argued that instead of implementing the Agnipath scheme, the government should complete the old process and cited the doctrine of promissory estoppel. About Doctrine of promissory estoppel:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – CONSIDERATION PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:6208176 (slideserve.com) The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel works on the principle of equity, fairness and moral conscience. The doctrine of Promissory Estoppel means when an individual with an intention of forming a relationship which is lawful makes a clear promise to another individual and the latter individual acts on it, that promise becomes an obligation for the individual who made the promise.  Hence, then going back from its words is not permissible.  The law commission recommended suggestions to form a new section as Section 25A in the Indian Contract Act in the 108th report for this doctrine. No provisions as such are there which ensures availability of relief under this doctrine.  At the same time, it can be implemented on the basis of equity, to defend the aggrieved party.  The doctrine of estoppel in India is a rule of evidence included into Section 115 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Promissory Estoppel’s application can invalidate the constitutional provision provided under Article 299, which talks about immunity granted against the personal accountability of an individual making the promise. MUST READ: Doctrine of necessity SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Cost inflation index (CII) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified the provisional cost inflation index (CII) for the fiscal 2023-24. About Cost inflation index (CII):- The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery, debt mutual funds, and so on. This CII number will assist in determining the long-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year. This number is used to calculate inflation-adjusted cost for only those assets that allow for inflation-adjusted (indexation benefit). As a result, the CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds. This is because any sum above Rs 1 lakh each fiscal year is taxed at a flat rate of 10% without the advantage of indexation. Calculating CII:- The formula to calculate inflation-adjusted cost price is:  (CII of the year of sale/CII for the year of purchase) * Actual cost price. The government declared in Budget 2017 that the base year would be changed from 1981 to 2001 due to challenges in obtaining appropriate information by taxpayers. MUST READ: WPI inflation SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mankading Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Recently, Harshal Patel’s missed Mankad attempt has brought back the spotlight on cricket’s most controversial mode of dismissal. About Mankading:- ‘Mankading’ is the act of a bowler running out a batter on the non-striker’s end if he/she is backing up and too far ahead of the crease before the ball is delivered. Though this is a legally permissible dismissal, it is considered against the spirit of the game. Background:- The term comes from the name of the legendary former Indian cricketer Vinoo Mankad. In 1947, when India was playing a series in Australia, Mankad dismissed opposition batsman Bill Brown twice by taking off the bails at the non-striker’s end before releasing the ball. Laws on Mankading:- Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), the custodian of the Laws of Cricket, accepted Mankading as a normal mode of running out the non-striker, removing it from Law 41 (Unfair play) and clubbing it with Law 38 (Run out). There have been several instances in men’s Test matches and ODI cricket like the recent incident that happened during the 2019 IPL when Ravichandran Ashwin ran out Jos Buttler in a game between Kings XI Punjab and Rajasthan Royals. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea Good Friday Agreement Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, American President ,Joe Biden visited Belfast to mark 25 years of Good Friday Agreement. About Good Friday Agreement:- IMAGE SOURCE: Belfast In Turmoil As Brexit Stokes Tensions In Northern Ireland (ibtimes.com) The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement. It is a historic peace agreement that ended the sectarian violence in Northern Ireland. It was was signed on April 10, 1998. It was signed between factions of Northern Ireland, and the governments of Britain and Ireland. Objective: to end decades of violence in Northern Ireland among those who wished to remain with the United Kingdom (UK) and those who wanted to join Ireland. The negotiators included then-British Prime Minister Tony Blair, then-Irish Prime Minister Bertie Ahern, George Mitchell, a former Democratic senator who acted as the envoy of then-US President Bill Clinton, and eight parties from Northern Ireland. The aim of the agreement was to establish a power-sharing government. Approval:- The Good Friday Agreement was put to a referendum on May 22, 1998.  It gained the approval of 94% of voters in Ireland and 71% in Northern Ireland. Current Statues of the agreement:- The Good Friday Agreement continues to be in place, but issues have emerged due to Brexit and the Northern Ireland Protocol. Northern Ireland Protocol: a plan agreed upon by the UK and the EU to check goods arriving in Northern Ireland from the rest of the UK to ensure they follow EU rules. MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations SOURCE:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Amolops siju Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that India’s newest named frog ‘Amolops siju’ is a dark cave dweller in Meghalaya. About Amolops siju:- Amolops siju is named after the Siju cave system of Meghalaya, from where four specimens were collected. This is the second cave-dwelling species of frog recorded from India after  Micrixalus spelunca in Tamil Nadu nine years ago.  Frogs are known to inhabit the subterranean world of caves due to the constant humidity and temperature that a cave ecosystem provides. The  Amolops siju is the first cave-dwelling cascade frog from the northeast. Cascade frogs being morphologically cryptic in nature, tissue samples of the specimens were subjected to molecular studies to ascertain their specific identity from the other known species. Amolops siju is the fourth species of cascade frog described from the northeast .  They had earlier described  Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang from Arunachal Pradesh. Siju Cave:- The cave is a natural limestone cave. It is located in the South Garo Hills District of Meghalaya, Northeast India. The cave contains the twilight zone, an area with limited light. This ‘dark zone’ has consistent ‘temperature and humidity’ all year long. The cave is known to harbour more than 100 faunal species, mostly invertebrates like cave crickets, spiders, beetles, and earthworms. MUST READ: New Species of frog in Andaman found SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican State Development Loans Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Four states raise Rs 5,800 crore through State Development Loans at bond auction. About State Development Loans:- State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. Purpose of issuing State Development Loans: to meet the budgetary needs of state governments. Each state can borrow upto a set limit through State Development Loans. The SDL securities issued by states . They are credible collateral for meeting the SLR requirements of banks as well as a collateral for availing liquidity under the RBI’s LAF including the repo. SDL is that it is a market oriented instrument for states to mobilise funds from the open market. Higher the fiscal strength of a state, lower will be the interest rate (yield) it has to pay for the SDL borrowings. SDLs are are auctioned by the RBI through the e-Kuber e-Kuber : dedicated electronic auction system for government securities and other instruments. RBI holds SDL auctions once in a fortnight. The RBI will purchase the SDLs through a multi-security auction using the multiple price method. The result of the auction will be announced on the same day. MUST READ: Sovereign Green Bonds (SGB) SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Safeguards and procedures: On India’s preventive detention laws Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Supreme Court observed in a judgment that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy and confer arbitrary power to the state. The Court warned that these laws are extremely powerful and have the potential to provide the state with free discretion. About Preventive Detention: Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. Protection: Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law. Two Types of Detentions: Preventive detention is when a person is held in police custody only on the basis of a suspicion that they would conduct a criminal act or cause harm to society. The police have the authority to hold anyone they suspect of committing a criminal offence and also to make arrests without a warrant or a magistrate’s authorization in certain cases. Punitive detention, which means detention as a punishment for a criminal offence. It occurs after an offence is actually committed, or an attempt has been made towards the commission of that crime. Preventive Detention Laws in India: Parliament passed a legislation named Preventive Detention Act, 1950 which talks about the detention of a person on the grounds of defense, foreign affairs or the security of the state. History: The constitutionality of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was challenged in the case of K. Gopalan V. State of Madras where a leader named A.K. Gopalan was detained in Madras jail from 1947. He challenged the validity of the aforesaid act as this act of state of further detaining him is in violation of Article 13, Article 19 and Article 21 and provisions of the act are not in accordance with Article 22 enshrined under the Constitution of India. The case was decided by 4:1 ratio, where the majority does not recognize detention as an infringement of personal liberty under Article 21. Minority view in the case: Preventive detention, which is dealt with in Article 22, also amounts to deprivation of personal liberty which is referred to in Article 21, and is a violation of the right of freedom of movement dealt with in Article 19(1)(d). The interrelationship between fundamental rights paved the way for acknowledging privacy as a fundamental right in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case by overruling MP Sharma and Kharak Singh case. Safeguard Against Misuse of Preventive Detention Time-period: A person may be taken to preventive custody only for 3 months at the first instance. If the period of detention is extended beyond 3 months, the case must be referred to an Advisory Board consisting of persons with qualifications for appointment as judges of High Courts. Permission of Advisory board: It is implicit that the period of detention may be extended beyond 3 months, only on approval by the Advisory Board. Grounds of detention: Detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention. The state, however, may refuse to divulge the grounds of detention if it is in the public interest to do so. This power conferred on the state leaves scope for arbitrary action on the part of the authorities. Legal options: Detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention. Concerns: The government holds the right to conceal information which it considers to be against public interest to disclose. The power of preventive detention is mostly misused by the authorities. The use of preventive detention even during peacetime denotes ‘anachronism’. It is a matter of irony that the makers of our Constitution, who themselves were once victims of the tyranny of preventive detention laws, still chose to grant powers to governments under the Constitution to enact such laws. According to Section 50 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CRPC), any person arrested has to be informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to bail. But getting bail is not a simple task in reality. Way Forward: The preventive detention should be strictly used with the delicate balance between social security and citizen freedom. As the Supreme Court has observed that to prevent misuse of this potentially dangerous power, the law of preventive detention has to be strictly construed and need to follow meticulous compliance with the procedural safeguards. There is an urgent need to ensure this. Source: The Hindu MUST READ: Constitutional provisions related to personal liberty in brief 75 years of the WHO: Not a ‘global health police’ Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) marks its 75th anniversary on 7 April 2023. About World Health Organization (WHO): Source:   news-medical.net It is a specialised agency of the United Nations with a mandate to act as a coordinating authority on international health issues. It is headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland. It has 194 Member States, 150 country offices, six regional offices. It works in collaboration with its member states usually through the Ministries of Health. Successes of WHO Health as a human right: Efforts helped in realising the goal of health as a human right. Some of the WHO’s most lauded successes include its child vaccination programs, which contributed to the eradication of smallpox in 1979 and a 99 percent reduction in polio infections in recent decades, and its leadership during the 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) epidemic. The agency has the exclusive authority to declare global health emergencies, which it has done several times since its members granted it the power in 2007. Failed attempts of WHO: The 2014 Ebola outbreak in Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone offers an example of a WHO job less well done. The organization’s agreement to give up on trying to eradicate malaria in the 1960s represents another example of what some consider a botched job. The WHO launched the Global Malaria Eradication Programme (GMEP) in 1955. But there was little to no progress in sub-Saharan Africa under the program, and in many places, failure to sustain GMEP actually led to a resurgence of malaria. In 1969, the program was discontinued. In the COVID-19 pandemic the WHO was criticized for not doing enough to support member states in their fight against the disease. The WHO has become increasingly dependent on voluntary contributions, which puts pressure on the organization to align its goals with those of its donors. Challenges: There is no single document which comprehensively describes its responsibilities, obligations and powers with respect to infectious diseases. WHO’s authority is recommendatory in nature. The organisation’s responsibilities during a pandemic include surveillance, monitoring and evaluation, developing guidance for member states-lacks the ability to direct an international response to a life-threatening epidemic. WHO’s annual operating budget is smaller than that of many university hospitals. Lack of preparedness for the Global pandemic. It has delayed to declare Covid-19 as Public Health Emergency of international concern. No Appropriate action and investigation against the China that shows the lack of independence. Delay to provide crucial information regarding Covid-19 like human to human transition etc. Need for WHO Reforms: Funding: Any attempt to build a stronger WHO must first begin with increased mandatory funding by member states. Providing more powers: It is time to provide the agency with more powers to demand that member states comply with the norms and to alert WHO in case of disease outbreaks that could cause global harm. WHO does not have the authority to enforce its recommendations. Information sharing: The long delay and the reluctance of China to share vital information readily and quickly regarding the novel coronavirus, including the viral outbreak in Wuhan. Member states do not face penalties for non-compliance: This has to change for any meaningful protection from future disease outbreaks. Way Forward: Nine point plan proposed by India- Approach on WHO reforms Changes in mechanisms to monitor health emergencies that can cross borders. Giving the head of the UN body greater power to declare an international public health emergency. Devising “objective criteria with clear parameters” for declaring a “public health emergency of international concern” (PHEIC) such as the Covid-19 pandemic. A greater role for the world body in ensuring fair, affordable and equitable access to Covid-19 vaccines. WHO’s regular budget should also be increased so that core activities are financed from it, without putting an overwhelming financial burden on developing countries. Voluntary contributions should be unearmarked to ensure that the WHO has necessary flexibility for its usage in areas where they are required the most. Changes and improvements in the body’s funding and governance: Effective involvement of all countries in budget implementation and spending. Strong and robust financial accountability frameworks should be created, a significant amount of transparency with respect to data reporting and disbursement of funds” should be established, and the efficiency of funding mechanisms such as the WHO Solidarity Response Fund should be strengthened. India called for strengthening capacities in countries found to be deficient and for enhancing international cooperation. Calling for a global framework for managing infectious diseases and pandemics, including capacities such as testing and surveillance systems, the document highlighted the “need to establish a system facilitating pan-world surveillance by leveraging innovating ICT tools”. The Indian government also called for efforts to ensure fair, affordable and equitable access to all tools for combating Covid-19 pandemic and, therefore, the need to build a framework for their allocation. Source:   Indian Express MUST READ: Pandemics of the world Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the State Development Loans (SDLs): SDLs are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements. SDLs are auctioned by the Commercial Banks through the e-Kuber Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Amolops siju, Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang are Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Cost inflation index (CII): The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery etc. CII number will assist in determining the short-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year. The CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 33] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 33-> Click Here

[DAY 34] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 34->Click Here