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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pangolins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: According to the analysis by TRAFFIC, a global wildlife conservation non-profit, and World-Wide Fund for Nature-India, over 1200 Pangolins were poached for illegal wildlife trade in India from 2018-2022. About Pangolins: Pangolins are nocturnal, toothless mammals that dig burrows and feed on ants and termites. Pangolins are scaly anteater mammals and they have large, protective keratin scales covering their skin. Pangolin is the only scaly mammal on the planet. It uses these scales as armor to defend itself against predators by rolling into a ball when threatened. Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) are found in India. About Ecosystem Services: They play a vital role in the ecosystem management, mostly in aerating and adding moisture to the soil as well as succession of plant communities through burrowing. They also keep in check the population of certain insects they prey on. The burrows made by pangolins also get utilized as shelters by other species within their ecosystem. Indian Pangolin Range – Bangladesh, India, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka IUCN – Endangered The Indian pangolin, which dons a thick scaly skin, is hunted for meat and used in traditional Chinese medicine. Both these species are listed under Schedule I Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Chinese Pangolin Range – Bangladesh; Bhutan; China; Hong Kong; India; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Myanmar; Nepal; Taiwan, Province of China; Thailand; Viet Nam IUCN – Critically Endangered Source: Down To Earth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2021) 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Allocation of Election Symbols by Election Commission of India (ECI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: ECI has recognised Eknath Shinde group as official “Shiv Sena”, allowing them to use the official “Bow & Arrow” symbol and “Shiv Sena” name. Sadiq Ali case The ECI has applied the tests mentioned in the 1971 Supreme Court judgment in Sadiq Ali v. Election Commission of India. In the Sadiq Ali case, it was held that in matters of disputes among groups of a political party, the test of majority support among the members of the ‘organizational and legislature wings’ of the party was the critical test to decide the dispute. It includes the Test of aims and objects of the Party Constitution, Test of Party Constitution and Test of Majority. The 1968 Order On the question of a split in a political party outside the legislature, Para 15 of the Symbols Order, 1968, states that the decision of the Commission shall be binding on all such rival sections or groups. This applies to disputes in recognised national and state parties (like the Shiv Sena). For splits in registered but unrecognized parties, the ECI usually advises the warring factions to resolve their differences internally or to approach the court. The first case to be decided under the 1968 Order was the first split in the Indian National Congress in 1969. Election Symbols: Political parties are allotted the symbols by the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968. A reserved symbol is one that is allocated to a registered political party while a free symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent candidates. Paragraph 4 of the order deals with the allotment of symbols. Paragraph 5 classifies the symbol into reserved and free symbols. Paragraph 8 of the Election Symbols Order deals with the choice and allotment of symbols to candidates of national and state parties. Registration of Political Parties: According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration has to apply to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission It is in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History, Art and Culture Context: Recently the Union Minister for Culture, Tourism and DoNER, presented the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar  (UBKYP) 2019, 2020 and 2021 to 102 artists in New Delhi. The award is presented by Sangeet Natak Akademi to artists in the field of dance, music, and drama. It is presented annually to artists below the age of 40. About Ustad Bismillah Khan: He was a famous Shehnai musician. He was one of the few musicians in the country to receive Bharat Ratna. It was Ustad ‘Bismillah” Khan who also played at the first Republic Day celebration in 1950. Bismillah Khan was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Centre Hall in the United States of America. About Sangeet Natak Akademi: Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama. It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with Dr P.V. Rajamannar as its first Chairman. It is an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture and is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Vibrant Villages Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Cabinet has approved Centrally Sponsored Scheme- “Vibrant Villages Programme” (VVP) for the Financial Years 2022-23 to 2025-26 with financial allocation of Rs. 4800 Crore. About the scheme: Under the scheme, holistic developmental works are to be undertaken in northern bordering villages. This will help in improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages. The scheme will provide funds for development of essential infrastructure and creation of livelihood opportunities in 19 Districts and 46 Border blocks 4 states and 1 UT along the northern land border of the country which will help in achieving inclusive growth and retaining the population in the border areas. The scheme aids to identify and develop economic drivers based on local, natural, human and other resources of the villages on the northern border and development of growth centres on “Hub and Spoke Model” through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill development and entrepreneurship. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats. 100 % saturation of Central and state schemes will be ensured. Key outcomes that have been attempted are, connectivity with all-weather road, drinking water, 24×7 electricity – Solar and wind energy to be given focused attention, mobile and internet connectivity. Tourist centers, multi-purpose centers and health and wellness Centers. Source:  The Hindu Marine Spatial Planning Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment News: Puducherry has launched the country’s first Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) framework as part of a pact under the Indo-Norway Integrated Ocean Initiative. Aim: to balance growth alongside sustainable management of ocean resources and coastal environment preservation. About Marine Spatial Planning: MSP is an ecosystem-based spatial planning process for analyzing current and anticipated ocean and coastal uses and identifying areas most suitable for various activities. It provides a public policy process for society to better determine how the ocean and coasts are sustainably used and protected – now and for future generations. The initiative, known as Marine Spatial Planning (MSP), will be implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) through the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) for India. The IOC-UNESCO Marine Spatial Planning Programme: It helps countries implement ecosystem-based management by finding space for biodiversity, conservation and sustainable economic development in marine areas. IOC-UNESCO has developed several guides, including a 10-step guide on how to get a marine spatial plan started: “Step-by-step Approach for Marine Spatial Planning toward Ecosystem-based Management”. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Central Water Commission (CWC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: CWC entered into a Memorandum of Agreement for Development of International Centre of Excellence for Dams (ICED) under externally funded Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project Phase II and Phase III. About CWC: Central Water Commission is an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in consultation of the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country, for purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply and Water Power Development. It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any such schemes as required. Central Water Commission CWC is headed by a chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely, Designs and Research (D&R) Wing, River Management (RM) Wing and Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing. A separate Human Resources Management Unit headed by a Chief Engineer, deals with Human Resources Management or Development, Financial Management, Training and Administrative matters of the CWC. National Water Academy located at Pune is responsible for training of Central and State in-service engineers and it functions directly under the guidance of Chairman. Headquarters: New Delhi. DRIP Project: The objectives of DRIP are to improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner, and to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States / Implementing Agencies. It is an externally-aided project. 80% of the total project is provided by the World Bank as loan/credit and remaining 20% is borne by the States / Central Government (for CWC). Repair and rehabilitation of dam projects in the seven states of Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand. Components Rehabilitation of selected dams and their appurtenances Institutional Strengthening Project Management Source: PIB Conformity Assessment Scheme on IS 19000:2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The scheme- Conformity Assessment Scheme on IS 19000:2022,  has been formulated with the objective of certifying the processes related to the collection, moderation and publication of online customer reviews to check the publication of fake or misleading reviews. About IS 19000:2022: Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the national standard body of India, has published an Indian Standard — IS 19000:2022, ‘Online Consumer Reviews – Principles and Requirements for their Collection, Moderation and Publication’. The Bureau of Indian Standards has come out with a new standard for organizations, like e-commerce players, travel portals and food delivery platforms, that publish consumer review online as part of the government’s efforts to curb fake reviews. This standard is applicable to any organization that publishes consumer reviews online, including suppliers/sellers of products and services that collect reviews from their own customers, a third-party contracted by the suppliers/sellers or an independent third party. Conformity Assessment Scheme: Under the conformity assessment scheme for Grant of Conformity for Process as per standard IS 19000:2022 on ‘Online Consumer Reviews — Principles and Requirements for their Collection, Moderation and Publication’, conformity is granted for demonstrating conformity to all the requirements of IS 19000:2022. The Scheme lays down the criteria and responsibilities of the organization and ancillary requirements for grant and operation of certification requirements for processes related to the collection, moderation, and publication of online customer reviews, and charges relating to certification of said process. This Conformity Assessment Scheme will ensure the authenticity and reliability of consumer reviews published online, and will help consumers make informed decisions. This is a major step towards ensuring consumer protection and promoting fair trade practices in the e-commerce industry. Source: PIB Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Prime Minister remarked that the world can learn a lot about sustainable development from Adivasi culture and it can be a solution to global problems like climate change and global warming. India comprises 6% tribal population, has access to an enormous indigenous knowledge which through recognition, adoption, and mainstreaming has the potential to provide sustainable solutions to concerns related to falling agricultural productivity and soil quality, biodiversity loss, water scarcity, pollution, and Climate Change challenges. Sustainable Development refers to a way of achieving economic growth and development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. About Constitutional Provisions: The Constitution of India does not endeavour to define the term ‘tribe’, however, the term Scheduled Tribe’ was inserted in the Constitution through Article 342 (i). It lays down that ‘the President may, by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within the tribes or tribal communities or parts which shall, for the purposes of this Constitution, be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the setting up a Tribes’ Advisory Council in each of the States having Scheduled Areas. About Tribal Cultures: Communal living: Many tribal communities in India have a strong emphasis on communal living and sharing resources. They live in close-knit communities and often make decisions collectively. Self-Sufficiency: Tribe is a synonym for a self-reliant community, a tribe is a relatively closed society and its openness is inversely related to the extent of its self-sufficient pursuits. Connection with nature: Tribals have a strong connection with nature, with traditional beliefs and practices that revolve around the forests and animals. Folk arts and crafts: Tribals are known for their unique art forms, including pottery, weaving, and jewellery making. These crafts often have spiritual or cultural significance and are passed down through generations. Spiritual beliefs: Tribals often have their own unique spiritual beliefs, which may involve the worship of ancestors, nature spirits, or deities. Tribal Lifestyle and Sustainable development: Respect for the natural environment: Tribal traditional practices, such as using natural materials for housing, food, and medicine, and living in harmony with the cycles of nature. Community-based decision-making: Collective decision-making considers the needs of the community as a whole and ensures that decisions are made in a sustainable and equitable manner. Promotion of biodiversity: Tribals have developed practices to protect and promote diversity which includes traditional methods of agriculture, such as intercropping and seed-saving, as well as the protection of sacred sites that are important for the preservation of biodiversity. Conservation of natural resources: Sustainable practices involve limiting the use of resources to ensure their long-term availability, such as rotational farming or allowing forests to regenerate before harvesting timber. Emphasis on intergenerational knowledge sharing: Passing down knowledge to the next generation includes traditional knowledge of the natural environment and sustainable practices for managing resources. Protection of water resources: Tribal communities rely on water resources and have developed practices that can help to ensure that water is available for future generations, and can reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Regenerative agriculture: tribal communities have been practicing regenerative agriculture for centuries, which involves practices like crop rotation, intercropping, and regenerating soils with organic matter. These practices help to sequester carbon in the soil, which can help to mitigate climate change. Use of renewable energy: They have traditionally used renewable energy sources like wind, solar, and hydropower which can be expanded and modernized to provide clean energy for more people. Challenges faced by tribals in performing their lifestyle Discrimination: Tribal communities often face discrimination and prejudice from the dominant society, including limited access to education, healthcare, and other basic services. Land rights: Tribal communities have been displaced from their traditional lands due to industrialization, and mining which has resulted in the loss of cultural identity, and social and economic marginalization. Climate change and environmental degradation: Climate Change, such as changes in rainfall patterns, increased frequency of natural disasters, loss of biodiversity, deforestation, pollution, and loss of habitat, has negatively impacted their traditional livelihoods and ways of life. Socioeconomic marginalization: Many tribal communities have limited access to education, healthcare, and economic opportunities, which can result in poverty and social exclusion. Lack of political representation: Tribal communities often lack political representation and may not have a voice in decision-making processes that affect their lives. Health challenges: Tribal communities often face challenges in accessing quality healthcare, which can result in higher rates of disease, malnutrition, and other health issues. Cultural assimilation: Many tribal communities face pressure to assimilate into the dominant culture, which can lead to the loss of traditional knowledge, language, and cultural practices. Government initiatives to conserve tribal culture: National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC), an apex Organization under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs in 2001 was brought into existence with the sole aim of economic upliftment of the Scheduled Tribes by way of extending concessional financial assistance to the target group under its various schemes. TRIFED’s Initiatives For Tribal Population: The Government plans to establish 50,000 Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, 3000 Haat Bazaars, etc. Central Sector Scheme: Institutional Support for Development & Marketing of Tribal Products / Produce. Tribes India Outlets: The outlets will showcase tribal products from all over the country and the outlets will have a specific geographical indication (GI) and Vandhan corners. Support to Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) and Tribal Festivals, Research Information, and Mass Education Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana: It is a market-linked tribal entrepreneurship development program for forming clusters of tribal Self Help Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies. Scholarships for pre-matric, post-matric, and overseas education Support to National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): The scheme covers activities like housing, land distribution, land development, agricultural development, animal husbandry, construction of link roads, etc. Vocational Training in Tribal Area: The aim of the Scheme is to develop the skills of the ST youth for a variety of jobs as well as self-employment and to improve their socio-economic condition by enhancing their income. Centrally Sponsored Scheme: The mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) through (MSP) and Development of a Value Chain for MFP’ as a measure of social safety for MFP gatherers. Way Ahead As India celebrates its 75th year of Independence with ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahostav’, Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas would be a thoughtful gift for our tribal community and a recall to Ram Rajya — where the likes of Guha are given due respect, their cultural diversity is respected, and their contributions celebrated. Tribal lifestyles can offer solutions to climate change and global warming through sustainable practices that protect and preserve the natural environment. Overall, tribal lifestyles can provide valuable lessons for sustainable development, particularly in areas with high levels of biodiversity or where development threatens the natural environment. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020) Crop diversification Legume intensification Tensiometer use Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.3) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Ways to boost the Tax Base in the Country Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Governance) Context: According to projections by the World Population Review, India has surpassed China as the world’s most populous nation. Key highlights of the world population review: India is a country of 1.4 billion people with a rising middle class. On the face of it, the country presents untapped growth potential. According to OECD, a quarter of our population is less than 15 years old which makes us a very youthful nation indeed. The steady upward trend in the working age population is particularly noteworthy as it gives us a definitive edge over our peers and can help drive growth in the coming years. There are many broader policy implications that arise – harnessing this workforce effectively to contribute to GDP, providing them the right skill training, providing jobs, social security etc. But a growing workforce should also result in an increase in income tax revenue. Tax evasion and avoidance have always been a headache for the government which has a negative effect on the growth of the Indian economy. About the Status of Income Tax Base in the country: Recently, the Finance Ministry had revealed that the number of people who filed income tax returns stood at 6.8 crore in 2020-21. This means that only 4.8 per cent of the total population filed IT returns in 2021. Of these, only 1.69 crore paid tax since 65 percent of the taxpayers earned less than ₹5 lakh. So effectively, only 1.2 per cent of the population pays income tax as of now. Major reasons for the narrow Income Tax base: Larger Workers in Informal Sector: In India, a large portion of the workforce is employed in the unorganized or informal sector. This is one of the reasons why fewer people are filing tax returns. High Income Threshold: As per the tax laws, the tax incidence arises only if the income is above a certain threshold. According to Statistics, 67 per cent of Indian households had annual income under ₹6 lakh in 2021. This reduces potential income taxpayers to 7.6 crore. Low Worker Population Ratio: According to the World Bank, 95 crore people were in the working age group of 18 to 64 years out of the total population in 2021. For example, Many women are home-makers or care-givers and may not be in the working cohort. The worker population ratio in India is 44.5 per cent, which means that only 42 crore people could be employed in some way or the other in India. False revelation by Non salaried Person: Although the share of personal income tax in the total tax collection by the Central Government is only about 15 per cent, it is extremely lopsided. It was mentioned in the 2018-19 Budget speech that the average salary earner pays three times more than a non-salaried taxpayer and this does not include those who submit income tax returns but pay nil tax. This anomaly is essentially due to non-revelation of true income by the non-salaried. No Tax on Agriculture Income: The agriculture and allied sector has contributed only to 18 percent of GDP, where about 45 per cent of the population is employed. However, as the income from agriculture is not taxed, irrespective of the level of income, unaccounted money is shown as agricultural income by vested interests. Suggestive measures to boost tax base: Tax on Agriculture Income: Those who show their annual income from farming of more than a specific amount can be taxed marginally. It is politically a very tough move, but definitely it will help to curb tax evasion. Formalization of Economy: According to a paper, ‘Measuring Informal Economy in India_ Indian experience’, by SV Ramana Murthy, 90.7 percent of the total workforce in 2017-18 was employed by the informal sector. The report says that besides agriculture, some sectors such as construction, trade, restaurants, communication and other services too have over three-fourth of the entities operating in the informal sector. Collecting Tax at source: Collecting tax at source for purchase of certain goods and services is another way to identify those who earn a tidy sum every year but are not paying any taxes. As of now, TCS is collected for high value goods such as expensive motor vehicles, gold jewellery or overseas remittances. This can help identify those operating in the informal sector and earning high income, yet evading tax. While this could hit honest taxpayers, they can reclaim the tax in their annual return based on the form 26AS. Role of GST regime: One of the objectives of the GST regime in its original form was to nudge those in the unorganized sector to shift to the formal sector and file GST returns in order to avail input tax credits or to continue supplying to larger buyers. But leeway provided in the initial phase, such as doing away with invoice matching, dropping reverse charge mechanism etc have diluted this objective. With the GST system now having settled down, implementation of these self-policing mechanisms rigorously could help increase the formal economy. GST Compliance: The more the GST compliance, the better the revelation of true income by professionals, businessmen and traders, and the increase in income tax from the non-salaried taxpayers. The direct and indirect tax departments should get their act together to generate more income tax from non-salaried taxpayers. Government should work to plug tax evasion due to illicit trade and smuggling. Note 1: About Tax Evasion: Tax evasion is the illegal non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities – such as by declaring less income, profits or gains than the amounts actually earned, or by overstating deductions. It entails criminal or civil legal penalties. Note 2: About Tax Avoidance: Tax avoidance is the legal practice of seeking to minimize a tax bill by taking advantage of a loophole or exception to the rules, or adopting an unintended interpretation of the tax code. It usually refers to the practice of seeking to avoid paying tax by adhering to the letter of the law but opposed to the spirit of the law. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, consider the following statements: Pangolin is the only scaly mammal on the planet. Indian Pangolin listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red list. Both Indian and Chinese Pangolins are listed under Schedule I Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding election symbols allocated by the Election Commission of India (ECI): Political parties are allotted the symbols by the ECI under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. A reserved symbol is one that is allocated to a registered political party while a free symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent candidates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding  Central Water Commission (CWC): CWC is an attached office of the Ministry of Rural Development CWC is headed by a chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. CWC headquarters at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Payment Aggregators Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The payments arm of big technology companies Amazon and Google have been given in-principle approval by the RBI to operate as online payment aggregators. About Payment Aggregators: A payment aggregator or merchant aggregator is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers by integrating it into their websites or apps. A payment aggregator bridges the gap between merchants and acquirers. A merchant need not have a merchant account directly with the bank. At its core, payment aggregators bear the heavy load of integration with various payment providers to provide an all-inclusive solution for payment acceptance. Types of payment aggregators in India Third-party payment aggregators: Third-party PAs offer innovative payment solutions to businesses. Their user-friendly features include a comprehensive dashboard, easy merchant onboarding, and quick customer support. Bank payment aggregators: They lack many of the popular payment options along with detailed reporting features. Bank payment aggregators are not suitable for small businesses and startups because of the high cost and difficult to integrate. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q.2) Consider the following: Foreign currency convertible bonds Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions Global depository receipts Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments? (2021) 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 and 4 1 and 4 Thwaites Glacier/ Doomsday Glacier Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Scientists studying Antarctica’s vast Thwaites Glacier say warm water is seeping into its weak spots, worsening melting caused by rising temperatures. About Thwaites Glacier/ Doomsday Glacier: Thwaites Glacier, nicknamed the Doomsday Glacier, is a broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into Pine Island Bay. It is part of the Amundsen Sea. It represents more than half a metre of global sea level rise potential, and could destabilise neighbouring glaciers that have the potential to cause a further three-meter rise. International Thwaites Collaboration: As part of the International Thwaites Glacier collaboration, a team of 13 U.S. and British scientists monitored the glacier using an underwater robot vehicle known as Ice fin. It was established in 2018. Thwaites Glacier is closely monitored for its potential to raise sea levels. Along with the Pine Island Glacier, it has been described as part of the “weak underbelly” of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Exercise Dharma Guardian Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current events of National and International Importance Context:  The joint military exercise, “EX DHARMA GUARDIAN”, between India and Japan recently held in Japan. About Exercise Dharma Guardian: It is an annual training event which is being conducted in India since 2018. The exercise covers platoon level joint training on operations in jungle and semi urban/urban terrain. The joint exercise schedule includes house interventions drills, raid on terrorist hideouts in semi urban terrain, combat first aid, unarmed combat & close quarter combat firing where both sides will jointly train, plan and execute a series of well-developed tactical drills for neutralisation of likely threats. Special emphasis is being laid on enhancing tactical skills to fight global terrorism and on enhancing inter-operability between the forces and to promote Army to Army relations. Troops of the Garhwal Rifles Regiment of the Indian Army and an Infantry Regiment from the Middle Army of the Japan Ground Self Defence Force are participating in the exercise this year to share experiences gained during various operations in order to enhance inter-operability in planning and execution. Other Military Exercises between India and Japan: Malabar: India and Japan with the United States and Australia participate in the naval wargaming exercise named Malabar. JIMEX (naval) SHINYUU Maitri (Air Force) Q.1) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2016) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Source:  NewsOnAIR Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in a report flagged the “inhuman and deplorable” condition of all 46 government-run mental healthcare institutions across the country. About Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: The act provides for the rights of persons with mental illness, including the right to access mental health care and treatment, the right to make decisions about their treatment, the right to confidentiality, and the right to legal aid. It establishes mental health services at the district level to provide access to mental healthcare and Mental Health Review Boards (MHRBs) to oversee the treatment of persons with mental illness and to protect their rights. It decriminalizes attempted suicide, recognizing that suicide is often a symptom of mental illness, and provides care and treatment for persons who attempt suicide. It establishes a Central Mental Health Authority and State Mental Health Authorities to regulate mental healthcare and services and to promote mental health. The act prohibits the use of Electro-Convulsive Therapy (ECT) without anaesthesia and the use of seclusion and restraint in mental health establishments, except in exceptional circumstances. The act provides for advance directives, which allow individuals to express their preferences for treatment and care in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves. The Act discourages using physical restraints (such as chaining), unmodified electro-convulsive therapy (ECT). This Act makes provision for the appointment of nominated representative by the mentally ill person. In case of absence of any recommendation by the mentally ill person, any relative, care giver, suitable persons may be appointed to act as the nominated representative. It provides for the setting up of Central Mental Authority Fund and State Mental Health Authority Fund to keep an account of all the grants, loans, fees, charges, sums etc., made by the authorities under this Act. Provision for Mental Health Review Boards – are quasi-judicial bodies shall be mainly responsible for: Registering, reviewing, altering, modifying or cancelling an advance directive appointing a nominated representative. Source  TH Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 TAPAS BH-201 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context:  The Prime Minister has shared aerial coverage of Ground and Air display captured from indigenously developed Medium Altitude Long Endurance TAPAS UAV during rehearsal from a height of 12000 feet. About TAPAS: Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance-Beyond Horizon-201 (TAPAS BH-201) is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV). It is being developed in the country by Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). It operates at altitudes between 10,000 and 30,000 feet and has a flight endurance of up to 48 hours. It has the capability to fly autonomously or via remote control, allowing for pre-programmed flight plans and operational use in daylight or darkness. However, the Tapas BH-201 drone, equipped with foreign engines and mission sensors Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: Financial express Man Made Fibre Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Textile Minister holds first meeting of the newly constituted Textile Advisory Group for Manmade Fibre (MMF). About Man-made fibres (MMF): Man-made fibres (MMF) are fibres made by man. MMF can be organic or inorganic. Organic MMF can be made from natural materials like wood, or are made from synthetic polymers. Classification of Man-made Fibres Synthetic Fibres: Synthetic fibres are synthesis from chemical processes. Examples of synthetic fibres are nylon, acrylic, polyester etc. Regenerated Fibres: These are semi-synthetic fibres that are made from the raw materials having long chain polymer structures. Modified and are partially degraded during the chemical processes. Made from cellulose polymers that are naturally occurring in cotton, wood, hemp, flax etc. Cellulose is first converted into a pure form of viscous mass and is then converted into fibres by extrusion through spinnerets. The first man-made regenerated fibres are rayon and acetate. Advantages of MMF: High strength, Retains their original shape, Elastic, Soft, Low cost, Colours can be easily incorporated into man-made fibres, They are lightweight materials and easy manufacturing. Disadvantages of MMF: Man-made fibres do not absorb moisture and traps heat in our body. Some man-made fibres cause skin allergies due to their dermatological actions. Man-made fibre fails to absorb the perspiration Source  –  PIB Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Corporate climate efforts fall short; 24 major companies will be able to reduce only 36% emissions. Only five of 24 companies hit the 90% emission reduction projection by their respective target years. About the Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023: Published by Germany-based think-tank New Climate Institute (NCI), Objective: To assess the climate strategies of these industry-leading companies, critically analyzing the extent to which they are meeting their climate goals. Findings: The combined Net Zero pledges of 24 major global companies will reduce their total greenhouse-gas emissions by 36 per cent by their respective target years, typically 2040 or 2050, compared with the reduction of at least 90 per cent that is needed. Climate pledges for 2030 fall well short of the economy-wide emission reductions required to stay below the 1.5°C temperature limit. Source:DTE Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (2021) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Parhaiyas Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The role of welfare schemes and policies for the Parhaiyas of Jharkhand. About the Parhaiyas Parhaiyas is one of the nine Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of Jharkhand state. Mainly concentrated in Latehar and Palamau districts of Jharkhand state Parhaiyas are still lagging behind on most of the important indicators of development such as health, education, and income. Parahiya literally means “the burners of the forest” or “hill dweller.” People rely on the forest for their sustenance. Collecting various types of forest produce such as roots, fruits and leaves and sell them at the local markets. Hunting is also one of the major sources of income. About PVTGs Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribe, who are most vulnerable in certain parameter then the other Scheduled Tribe community. During the fourth Five Year Plan a sub-category was created within Scheduled Tribes Created based on the Dhebar Commission report. The features of such a group include a pre-agricultural system of existence, that is practice of hunting and gathering, zero or negative population growth, extremely low level of literacy in comparison with other tribal groups. Groups that satisfied any one of the criterion were considered as PTG. There are total of 75 PVTGs in India. Source –   TH Lavani Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: The article is based on the controversy surrounding dance form,  “ Lavani “, which has come under criticism for being ‘vulgar’ and ‘obscene’. About Lavani: Maharashtra folk dance The word Lavani comes from ‘lavanya’ or beauty. Traditional folk art form in which women dancers wearing nine-yard-long sarees in bright colours, make-up, and ghunghroos perform on dholak beats on a stage before a live audience. Lavani has a history going back several centuries It attained particular popularity in the Peshwa era in the 18th century. Traditionally, performances were held in front of kings or lords, and for the entertainment of tired soldiers resting during breaks in fighting. There are several types of Lavani: Most popular is the Shringarik (erotic) kind. Source –  Indian Express Recent trend of Current Account Deficit (CAD) Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context:  The recent data indicated that the current account deficit (CAD) will moderate despite the global slowdown triggered by rising inflation and interest rates. According to the RBI, the CAD is expected to moderate in the second half of 2022-23 and remain eminently manageable and within the parameters of viability. About Current Account and Current Account Deficit: A nation’s Current Account maintains a record of the country’s transactions with other nations. It comprises the following components: trade of goods and services, net earnings on overseas investments and net transfer of payments over a period of time, such as remittances This account goes into a deficit when money sent outward exceeds that coming inward. Calculation: It is measured as a percentage of GDP. Trade gap = Exports – Imports. Current Account = Trade gap + Net current transfers + Net income abroad. Current Account Deficit: When the value of the goods and services that a country imports exceed the value of the products it exports, it is called the current account deficit. CAD and the fiscal deficit together make up the twin deficits – the enemies of the stock market and investors. Difference with the Balance of Trade: It is slightly different from the Balance of Trade, which measures only the gap in earnings and expenditure on exports and imports of goods and services. Whereas, the current account also factors in the payments from domestic capital deployed overseas. For example, rental income from an Indian owning a house in the UK would be computed in the Current Account, but not in the Balance of Trade. Significance of CA: If the current account – the country’s trade and transactions with other countries – shows surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country, boosting the foreign exchange reserves and the value of rupee against the dollar. These are factors that will have ramifications on the economy and the stock markets as well as on returns on investments by people. Indicator of Economy: CAD may be a positive or negative indicator for an economy depending upon why it is running a deficit. Foreign capital is seen to have been used to finance investments in many economies. It may help a debtor nation in the short-term, but it may worry in the long-term as investors begin raising concerns over adequate return on their investments. India’s current account position is largely on the deficit side because of the country’s dependence on oil imports. Ways of reducing CAD: The Current Account Deficit can be reduced by boosting exports and curbing non-essential imports such as gold, mobiles, and electronics. The moderation in CAD, expected to be aided by the following factors: The fall in commodity prices, Rising worker’s remittances and services exports, and Abatement of selling pressure by foreign investors, is set to boost sentiment on the investment front, as it will also bring the pressure off the currency. Reasons for narrowing trade deficit in recent times: The trade deficit (for Jan 2023) narrowed to $17.7 billion, led by a sharp fall in imports, while exports fell by a smaller amount. The sharp drop in imports was due to: Non-oil imports falling, mainly due to a price impact (softening in coal prices from mid-December), Likely softening in domestic demand post the festive season (such as lower imports of transport equipment), and Seasonal impact of the Chinese New Year holidays. WAY Forward: While rising CAD raises concerns among investors as it hurts the currency and thereby the inflow of funds into the markets, a notable decline in CAD has improved market sentiments. Experts believe that CAD is very important for the currency. The value of an economy hinges a lot on the value of its currency and thereby, it also supports the equity markets by keeping the fund flow intact. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Payment Aggregators” A payment aggregator or merchant aggregator is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers. A merchant must have a merchant account directly with the bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following: Exercise Dharma Guardian Exercise Malabar SHINYUU Maitri Which of the exercises mentioned above is/are coordinated by the members of India and Japan? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) The Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023 report was recently released by United Nations Environment Programme Germany-based think-tank New Climate Institute International non-profit organisation – the Climate Group NITI Aayog Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Doctrine of necessity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) Invoked the “doctrine of necessity” to clear six deals involving mergers & acquisitions (M&A) and investment proposals. About Doctrine of necessity: It allows the legal authorities to carry out certain activities which are not permitted in the normal course. This term is used to describe a principle of constitutional law, where in an emergency or an exigent circumstance, a state may legally act which in other circumstances is deemed to be illegal. The term was first used in 1954 in a controversial judgment in Pakistan. The Doctrine of Necessity was changed to the Doctrine of Absolute Necessity in the case of “Election Commission of India v. Dr. Subramaniam Swamy” Outcome: This doctrine shall be used only in case of absolute necessity. It acts as a defense against violating the law making the decision valid and not biased. Doctrine of necessity acts as an exception to ‘Nemo judex in causa sua’, where an authority is disqualified on the grounds of a biased decision. Source:  Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 InfoCrop Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has forecasted the impact of the hot weather on crop yield in Punjab and Haryana where InfoCrop is one such forecast tool. About InfoCrop: It is India’s only dynamic crop simulation model. It is developed and released by IARI in 2015. It aims to study the long-term impact of climate change and crop management practices on yield. It is a process based dynamic (real time) simulation model to calculate the growth of yield of 11 crops. 11 crops: paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, pigeon pea, chickpea, soybean, groundnut, potato and cotton. It also has the life cycle data for almost all the local varieties of those 11 crops. It provides data on the effects of weather, soil and crop management (sowing, seed rate, organic matter nitrogen and irrigation) and pests. It provides daily and summary outputs on growth and yield parameters, nitrogen uptake and balance, greenhouse gas emissions, soil water. It performs better for tropical regions. In 2004, InfoCrop version 1 was launched whereas version 2.1 was launched in 2015. Other forecasting models: The Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre provides pre-harvest forecasts for eight major crops at the national, state and district levels. It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Other key facts: Currently, India does not have a system to forecast crop loss due to heatwaves or other extreme weather conditions. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India announced the launching of a pilot project on QR code-based coin vending machine. About QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine: The machine is to be launched in 12 cities in the first phase. The QCVM is a cashless coin dispenser that dispenses coins in exchange for a debit to the customer’s bank account via the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). These machines will use UPI-based code systems to provide coins. Earlier the machines tendered the bank notes physically. Here the consumer need not use currency notes. Rather he shall use his bank account password or a pin to get coins. As he enters the pin or password, the vending machine verifies with his bank account and issues coins from his bank account directly. Earlier, the consumer had to drop in currency notes to get coins. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 River Cities Alliance Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: DHARA the annual meeting of the members of the River Cities Alliance (RCA), is being organised by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) in association with the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA). DHARA which stands for Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers, is a platform to co-learn and discuss solutions for managing local water resources. About River Cities Alliance: River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a dedicated platform for river cities across India to discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of urban rivers. It includes cities from both the Ganga basin and non-Ganga basin states. River Cities Alliance is a first-of-its-kind Alliance in the world, symbolising the successful partnership of the two Ministries i.e., the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The Alliance focuses on three broad themes- Networking, Capacity Building and Technical Support. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Andhra Pradesh Forest Department is initiating a series of measures to develop the place and document the flora and fauna of the region. About Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary: The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest located near Visakhapatnam, near Andhra Pradesh. The sanctuary is a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover of mixed composition along with scrubland and meadows. It is bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the West and Gambheeram reservoir on the North-east. Important species:  Fauna: The indicator species is the Indian leopard. Other species found here are Indian clouded gecko, bulbuls, barbets, cuckoos, flycatchers, hornbills and leafbirds, starlings Flora: Jamun tree, Red cutch tree, Teak,  Indigo tree, Rosewood, Neem. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Aerosols and their effect on Global Climate Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Role of Industrial Aerosols in contributing to Global Cooling. A new study reveals that inactive volcanoes contributed 66 percent of sulphate emissions, known to cool the planet, in the preindustrial era. About Aerosols: Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid environment. In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface. However, certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high altitude layers. Source of aerosols  Natural sources – sea salt generated from breaking waves, mineral dust blown from the surface by wind, and volcanoes. Anthropogenic aerosols – sulphate, nitrate, and carbonaceous aerosols, and are mainly from fossil fuel combustion sources. Effects of aerosols: They affect the atmospheric chemical composition. They can reduce visibility. They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g. aerosols can cause damage to heart and lungs). They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds. Source: DownToEarth    Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) Consider the following: Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? (2022) 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Omorgus Khandesh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context:  A new beetle species has been discovered in India, according to a paper published in the New Zealand-based journal Zootaxa. About Omorgus Khandesh:  It is necrophagous, therefore, also called a keratin beetle It belongs to the Trogidae family.  Features:  The beetles of this group are sometimes called hide beetles as they tend to cover their body under the soil and hide. They are not photogenic; they are usually black or grey and encrusted in dirt. Their bumpy appearance is distinct, with short, dense setae all over the body. Significance: The beetle is important for forensic science as it helps detect the time of death of an animal or human. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Marburg Viral Disease Outbreak Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –  Science and Technology Context:  Equatorial Guinea has confirmed its first-ever outbreak of Marburg virus disease. About Marburg Viral Disease:  Marburg virus disease (MVD), formerly known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal illness in humans. Marburg virus is the member of the Filoviridae family (filovirus).  Transmission: Rousettus aegyptiacus, fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, are considered to be natural hosts of the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is transmitted to people from fruit bats and spreads among humans through human-to-human transmission  via direct contact with the blood, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and materials contaminated with these fluids. Treatment: There are no authorised vaccines or drugs to treat Marburg, but rehydration treatment to alleviate symptoms can improve the chances of survival. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Indian Economy Context: CBDT notifies Income-tax Return Forms for assessment year 2023-24 Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT): It is a statutory body established as per the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. It is India’s official financial action task force unit. It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. At present, the CBDT has six members Ex-officio members of the Board also function as a division of the Ministry of Finance Functions of the CBDT: Oversight of the Internal Revenue Service as a whole. Suggestions for the tax rates to be changed. In accordance with government policies, planning changes to the taxes structure of India. It is proposed that direct tax legislation be amended. It is in charge of the collection and levying of direct taxes. Income Tax Return: Income Tax Returns, often known as ITRs, are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Individuals who make a specific amount of money are required to file IT returns. Income Tax Return Forms are notified by CBDT Source:    All India Radio Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deputy Speaker Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The present Lok Sabha and five state Assemblies have not elected Deputy Speakers. About Office of Deputy Speaker: Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state. Elected By: Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms). Term of Office and Removal: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha (5 years). Deputy Speaker may vacate his/her office earlier in any of the following three cases If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha. If he resigns by writing to the Speaker. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. Responsibilities and Powers (Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha): Article 95 of the constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. Special privilege, that is, whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman. Deputy Speaker and Tenth Schedule (Exception): Para 5 of the Tenth Schedule (commonly known as the anti-defection law) says that a person who has been elected Speaker/ Deputy Speaker shall not be disqualified: Voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only Global Sea-level Rise and Implications Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently, the report “Global Sea-level Rise and Implications” was released by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO). Key highlights of the report: Threats of Sea level rise: India, China, Bangladesh and the Netherlands face the highest threat of sea-level rise globally. The report stated that several big cities in all continents are threatened by the rise in sea level. These include Shanghai, Dhaka, Bangkok, Jakarta, Mumbai, Maputo, Lagos, Cairo, London, Copenhagen, New York, Los Angeles, Buenos Aires and Santiago. Stimulating factors: If trends in urbanisation in exposed areas continue, this will exacerbate the impacts, with more challenges where energy, water and other services are constrained,” it reported. The impacts of average sea-level rise are boosted by storm surges and tidal variations, as was the situation during the landfall of hurricane Sandy in New York and Cyclone Idai in Mozambique. Melting of ice mass in Antarctica: According to future estimates based on climate models and ocean-atmosphere physics, the WMO reported that the speed of melting of the largest global ice mass in Antarctica is uncertain. Impact of Sea level rise: Submergence: According to the report, while sea-level rise is not globally uniform and varies regionally, continued and accelerating sea-level rise will encroach on coastal settlements and infrastructure and commit low-lying coastal ecosystems to submergence and loss. All round impact: Sea level rise is a major economic, social and humanitarian challenge. It threatens coastal farmlands and water reserves and resilience of infrastructures as well as human lives and livelihoods, the report noted. Food insecurity: Climate change will increasingly put pressure on food production and access, especially in vulnerable regions, undermining food security and nutrition and increases in frequency, intensity and severity of droughts, floods and heatwaves, and continued sea level rise will increase risks to food security in vulnerable regions. Primary reasons for the Sea Level Rise: The change in sea levels is linked to three primary factors, all induced by ongoing global climate change: Melting glaciers: Large ice formations such as mountain glaciers naturally melt a bit each summer. In the winter, snows, primarily from evaporated sea water, are generally sufficient to balance out the melting. Recently, though, persistently higher temperatures caused by global warming have led to greater than average summer melting as well as diminished snowfall due to later winters and earlier springs. Thermal expansion: When water heats up, it expands. About half of the sea-level rise over the past 25 years is attributable to warmer oceans simply occupying more space. Loss of Greenland and Antarctica’s ice sheets: As with mountain glaciers, increased heat is causing the massive ice sheets that cover Greenland and Antarctica to melt more quickly. Scientists also believe that meltwater from above and seawater from below is seeping beneath Greenland’s ice sheets, effectively lubricating ice streams and causing them to move more quickly into the sea. While melting in West Antarctica has drawn considerable focus from scientists, especially with the 2017 break in the Larsen C ice shelf, glaciers in East Antarctica are also showing signs of destabilizing. Way Forward: Coastal cities and settlements play a key role in moving toward higher climate resilient development given firstly, almost 11% of the global population of 896 million people lived within the Low Elevation Coastal Zone in 2020, potentially increasing to beyond 1 billion people by 2050. These people, and associated development and coastal ecosystems, face escalating climate compounded risks, including sea level rise. The Coastal cities can implement the following measures to address sea level rise Using Beaches As Barriers Building Seawalls Raising Roads Building Stormwater Pumps Upgrading Sewage Systems Creating Natural Infrastructure Slowing Land Sinkage Global Plans to reduce the impacts of Sea Level rise: In Jakarta, a $40 billion project will aim to protect the city with an 80-foot-high seawall. Rotterdam, home to the global Centre on Adaptation, has offered a model to other cities seeking to combat flooding and land loss. The Dutch city has built barriers, drainage, and innovative architectural features such as Water Square with temporary ponds. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT): It is a statutory body It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following: Breaking waves Mineral dust Volcanoes fossil fuel combustion Which of the above are sources of aerosol pollution? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Telangana Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Geological Survey of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics (Preservation and Maintenance) Bill, 2022, while deemed necessary by several researchers, vests powers entirely in the Geological Survey of India (GSI), a 170-year-old organisation says experts. About Geological Survey of India: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency. It is one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767). GSI, headquartered at Kolkata, has six Regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata. Presently, Geological Survey of India is an attached office to the Ministry of Mines. Evolution GSI: Until 1852, Geological Survey primarily remained focused on exploration for coal, mainly for powering steam transport, oil reserves, and ore deposits. Then Sir Thomas Oldham broadened the ambit of the scope of functioning of the Geological Survey of India to map the rock types, geological structures and relative ages of different rock types. In 19th and early 20th century GSI made important contributions to Seismology by its studies and detailed reports on numerous Indian earthquakes. In 2017 GSI began pilot project, with the first ever aerial survey of mineral stocks by GSI, to map the mineral stocks up to a depth of 20 km using specially-equipped aircraft. Role of GSI: Conducting geological surveys and studies of India. Prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and general public Official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums. Restructuring of GSI: The GSI was restructured into 5 Missions on the basis of the Report of a High-level Committee chaired by Mr S. Vijay Kumar: Baseline Surveys Mineral resource Assessments Geoinformatics Multi-disciplinary Geosciences Training and Capacity Building About Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. The draft bill defines Geoheritage sites as sites containing: geo-relics and phenomena, stratigraphic type sections, geological structures and geomorphic landforms including caves, natural rock-sculptures of national and international interest; and includes such portion of land adjoining the site. A Geo-relic is defined as any relic or material of a geological significance or interest like sediments, rocks, minerals, meteorite or fossils. The GSI will have the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance. The 32 geo-heritage sites spread across 13 states include: the Volcanogenic bedded Barytes of Mangampeta in Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh, the Akal Fossil Wood Park in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan etc. Key provisions of the proposed bill: The Draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics (Preservation and Maintenance) Bill, 2022 vests powers entirely in the Geological Survey of India (GSI). The Bill give it the power to: declare sites as having ‘geo-heritage’ value, take possession of relics (fossils, rocks) that rest in private hands, prohibit construction 100 metres around such a site, penalise with fines up to ₹5 lakh and possibly imprisonment for vandalism, defacement, and violations of directives of a site by the Director General of GSI. Declaration of geoheritage sites: It would authorise the Central Government to declare a geoheritage site to be of national importance. This would be under the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act). Through a public notification in the Official Gazette, the government would spell out what areas were to be acquired by it. Compensation: Provision is made for compensation to the owner or occupier of land who incurs loss or damage from the land due to the exercise of any power under this Act. The market value of any property will be ascertained in accordance with the principles set out in the RFCTLARR Act. Prohibitions: The Bill imposes a prohibition on construction, reconstruction, repair or renovation of any building within the geoheritage site area or utilisation of such area in any other manner. Exception: construction for preservation and maintenance of geoheritage site or any public work essential to the public. Penalties: There is a penalty of imprisonment which may extend to six months or fine which may extend to Rs.5 lakh, or both. In the case of a continuing contravention, additional fine of upto Rs.50,000 for every day of continuing contravention may be imposed. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following minerals: Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? (2020) 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Millet International Initiative for Research and Awareness (MIIRA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: On the sidelines of G20 presidency, India is planning to propose the launch of a global initiative to encourage the consumption and production of millets. About Millet International Initiative for Research and Awareness (MIIRA): It aims to connect the millet research organisations across the world while also supporting research on millet crops. Secretariat: Delhi, India It is in line with the UN declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets and the Centre’s plan to make India a global hub for millets. 5 G20 meetings on agriculture: 3 of Agriculture Deputies, 1 of chief scientists, and 1 where the Agriculture Ministers of all G-20 countries will gather. It will be launched keeping in mind the nutritional value and the climate resilient nature of millets. It will set up a web platform to connect researchers and holding international research conferences. India will contribute the “seed money” while each G20 member will later have to contribute to its budget in the form of a membership fee. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (2022) Sugarcane Sunflower Pearl millet Red gram Q.2) With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 H5N1 virus/Bird Flue Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Monitoring the evolution of the shapeshifting H5N1 virus can add to the preparedness against another potential pandemic. About H5N1 virus/Bird Flue: Bird flu or avian influenza is a disease caused by avian influenza Type A viruses found naturally in wild birds worldwide. Avian influenza, or bird flu, is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects birds. Infrequently, the virus can infect mammals from birds, a phenomenon called spillover, and rarely can spread between mammals. This subtype has caused a number of human infections through close contact with infected birds or contaminated environments, and is often fatal. Recent reports of H5N1 spread between mammals raise concerns about its potential to cause a human pandemic if it were to spill over and become transmissible among humans. It can infect domestic poultry including chickens, ducks, turkeys, pigs, cats, and tigers. Types of avian influenza: Avian Influenza type A viruses are classified based on two proteins on their surfaces – Hemagglutinin(HA) and Neuraminidase(NA). There are about 18 HA subtypes and 11 NA subtypes. Several combinations of these two proteins are possible e.g., H5N1, H7N2, H9N6, H17N10, etc. Symptoms: A virus infections in humans have ranged from mild to severe influenza-like illness. Fever, cough, sore throat, muscle aches, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting etc. Severe respiratory illness (e.g., shortness of breath, difficulty breathing, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress, viral pneumonia, respiratory failure). Neurologic changes (altered mental status, seizures). Prevention of spillovers: Preventing H5N1 spillovers and outbreaks requires a combination of measures including: vaccination of poultry, safe disposal of dead birds, wearing personal protective equipment when handling birds, quarantine and culling of affected animals, and improved surveillance and monitoring of H5N1 in birds and other animals. molecular surveillance of H5N1 Genome sequencing can be employed to monitor the emergence of new subtypes, and keep a close watch on mutations and virulence factors that may increase the ability to infect humans. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Custodial deaths Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity and Governance Context: 80 custodial deaths in 5 years, Gujarat tops list; Maharashtra second at 76 What is Custodial death?  Custodial death means the death of a person in custody whether of the police or judicial. Custodial Death is widely referred to as death that happens to a person who is under trial or has already been convicted of a crime. Constitutional and Legal Provisions: Protection from torture is a fundamental right enshrined under Article 21 (Right to Life) of the Indian constitution. The right to counsel is also a fundamental right under Article 22(1) of the India constitution. Section 41 of Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) was amended in 2009 to include safeguards under 41A, 41B, 41C and 41D, so that arrests and detentions for interrogation have reasonable grounds and documented procedures, arrests are made transparent to family, friends and public, and there is protection through legal representation. Court judgements on  Custodial deaths/ Custodial violence: In Inderjeet v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2014), the Supreme Court held that punishment which has an element of torture is unconstitutional. In Francis Coralie Mullin vs. The Administrator, Union (1981) the Supreme Court held that Article 21 includes the right to protection against torture. D K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) guidelines were passed to try and secure two rights in the context of any state action — a right to life and a right to know. Some of the guidelines laid down in D K Basu judgement are: All officials must carry name tags and full identification Arrest memo must be prepared, containing all details regarding time and place of arrest, attested by one family member or respectable member of the locality. The location of arrest must be intimated to one family or next friend, details notified to the nearest legal aid organisation and arrestee must be made known of each right All such compliances must be recorded in the police register He must get periodical medical examination Inspection memo must be signed by the arrestee also and all such information must be centralised in a central police control room. Source: The Indian Express. Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to India, consider the following statements: When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Office of Profit Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity and Governance Context: Allegation against Jharkhand Chief Minister for allegedly allocating a mining lease to himself when he was the mining and forest minister of Jharkhand, which violates Office of Profit norms About Office of Profit: Definition: The office of profit has been interpreted as a position that brings to the office-holder some financial gain, remuneration or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. However, The constitution does not explicitly define the phrase. Objective: The intent is to avoid the conflict of interests between the duties and interests of an elected member. What constitutes an ‘Office of Profit’? The conditions has been evolved over decades with subsequent judicial pronouncements. Supreme Court has listed certain factors while considering ‘office of profit’: whether the government is the appointing authority whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment whether the government determines the remuneration what is the source of remuneration the power that comes with the position.  Constitutional provisions regarding ‘Office of Profit’ Article 102 (1): A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. Article 191 (1): A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by the Legislature of the State by law not to disqualify its holder. Provisions of Articles 102(1)(e) and 191(1)(e) also protect a legislator occupying a government position if the office in question has been made immune to disqualification by law. Statutory provisions related to ‘Office of Profit’ Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended several times to expand the exempted list. RPA Act, 1951: Clause 9A of the Act says that a person shall be disqualified if there is a contract involving him in the course of his trade or business with the appropriate Government for the supply of goods to or for the execution of any works undertaken by that Government. Source: The Indian Express. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bhashini Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity and Governance Context: The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), is currently building a WhatsApp-based chatbot return appropriate responses to queries. About Bhashini: It is India’s AI led language translation platform. It will make Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available to MSMEs, Startups and Individual Innovators in the public domain. It will create and nurture an ecosystem involving Central/State government agencies and start-ups, working together to develop and deploy innovative products and services in Indian languages. Aims and Objectives: It aims to increase the content in Indian languages on the Internet substantially in the domains of public interest, particularly, governance-and-policy, science and technology, etc. , thus will encourage citizens to use the Internet in their own language. It aims to build a National Public Digital Platform for languages to develop services and products for citizens by leveraging the power of artificial intelligence and other emerging technologies. Source: The Indian Express. Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and baring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Government Policies and Interventions Context: Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis: Karnataka starts mass drug administration in three high-transmission districts. About Lymphatic Filariasis (LF): LF, commonly known as elephantiasis Considered as a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) Second most disabling disease after mental health. It impairs the lymphatic system and can lead to: the abnormal enlargement of body parts, causing pain, severe disability and social stigma. Lymphatic system is a network of vessels and specialized tissues that are essential to maintaining the overall fluid balance and health of organs and limbs and, importantly, are a major component of the body’s immune defense system. Lymphatic filariasis is a vector-borne disease, Caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filarioidea. There are 3 types of thread-like filarial worms which causes lymphatic filariasis: Wuchereria Bancrofti is responsible for 90% of the cases. Brugia Malayi causes most of the remainder of the cases. Brugia Timori also causes the disease. Drug Treatment: The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends three drug treatments The treatment, known as IDA, involves a combination of: Ivermectin, diethylcarbamazine citrate and albendazole. Scenario in India: An estimated 650 million Indians across 21 states and union territories are at risk of lymphatic filariasis. Over 40% of worldwide cases are found in India. The government launched the Accelerated Plan for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF) in 2018 Global Initiatives: Global Programme to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis (GPELF): WHO established the GPELF to stop transmission of infection with Mass Drug Administration (MDA) and to alleviate suffering among people affected by the disease through morbidity management and disability prevention (MMDP). Source:   The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the body against the environmental allergens. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 BIMARU Tag Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: While addressing a summit in UP, PM recalled the tag of ‘BIMARU’, once used to describe the state. What do BIMARU states mean, who coined the term? BIMARU refers to a group of states in India, namely Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. The term was coined by the late demographer Ashish Bose in 1985 to highlight India’s demographic malady. Grouping was primarily based on their high population growth rates and a lack of progress in family planning and population control efforts. The term BIMARU means “sickly” in Hindi. Was used to refer to the slow rate of growth in terms of the economy, healthcare, education and other socio-economic characteristics. A 2020 report of the National Commission on Population of the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, titled Report of the Technical Group on Population Projection, said BIMARU states will contribute to 49.1% of the population increase in India between 2011 and 2036. The literacy rates in these states according to the 2011 census against a National average of 74.04%., are: Bihar 63.8%, Rajasthan 67.1%, Jharkhand 67.6%, Madhya Pradesh 70.6% and Uttar Pradesh 71.7% Source – Indian Express AMRITPEX 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Minister for Communications recently inaugurated AMRITPEX 2023 in New Delhi. About AMRITPEX: AMRITPEX 2023 is a National Philatelic Exhibition Organized by the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications and its stakeholders are the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, and the Philatelic Congress of India. Objective is to introduce Philately to the new generation, showcasing India’s History, Culture, Art, and Heritage through stamps and digital exhibits. Philately – The collection and study of postage stamps. The exhibition will feature a Wall of Philately, Mascot- VR Rooms, Digital Charkha, and Digital Kiosks. The exhibition’s themes include Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav, Women Power, Youth Power, Nature and Wildlife, and Culture and History. Source: PIB Accelerating the Green Revolution Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: India is on the fast track to promoting eco-friendly modes of transportation with a growing emphasis on hybrid and electric vehicles. About Green Resolution: The production of food within India was insufficient in the years from 1947 to 1960 as there was a growing population, during which famine was also anticipated. Many farmers were in debt, and they had become landless laborers. There was a severe shortage of food crops as well as commercial crops. The Green Revolution: In India, the green revolution was launched under the guidance of geneticist Dr. M. S. Swaminathan. The Green Revolution was a period that began in the 1960s during which agriculture in India was converted into a modern industrial system by the adoption of technology, such as the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, mechanised farm tools, irrigation facilities, pesticides and fertilizers. Primary aim: The green revolution’s primary aim was to introduce high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of cereals to alleviate poverty and malnutrition. Benefits of Green Revolution There are undoubtedly positive effects on the overall food security in India. The Green Revolution within India led to an increase in agricultural production, especially in Haryana, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh. Increased food production: The Green Revolution led to a considerable increase in food production, which helped in improving food security in India. Boosted economy: The movement helped to boost the Indian economy, with increased agricultural production contributing to economic growth. Reduced poverty: The Green Revolution in India contributed to a reduction in poverty, particularly in rural areas. Hence, it helped improve the standard of living for farmers. Increased employment opportunities: The revolution created new employment opportunities in agriculture and related industries, which helped tackle unemployment. Self-sufficiency: The Green Revolution helped India to become more self-sufficient in food production, reducing the country’s dependence on other countries for food. The green revolution led to the high productivity of crops through adapted measures, such as: Increased area under farming, Double-cropping, which includes planting two crops rather than one, annually, Adoption of HYV of seeds, Highly increased use of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides, Improved irrigation facilities, and Improved farm implements and crop protection measures. Criticisms of Green Revolution: Water-intensive crops: The crops introduced during the green revolution were water-intensive crops. About 3,500 litres of water is needed to produce one kg of rice, compared to 1,350 litres for wheat and 900 litres for maize. To take Punjab’s example, the state extracts 28 billion cubic metres (bcm) of groundwater annually, while its annual recharge is 19 bcm, which is unsustainable. Tube wells have to dive deeper and deeper to find water. Imbalanced and unsuitable production: Punjab, Haryana and west Uttar Pradesh were chosen or led to produce wheat and rice for the nation. These states were relatively suitable for wheat, but not rice. The best states for rice were West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar and Assam. The three northern states were incentivized for growing rice along with wheat because they had good irrigation, unlike the eastern states which were largely rainfed. Soil pollution: Chemicals have swallowed the soil’s innate nutrients. There has been a significant increase in the usage of pesticides, and India became one of the largest producers of pesticides in the whole of Asia. Air pollution: Air pollution introduced due to the burning of agricultural waste is a big issue these days. In the heartland of the green revolution, Punjab, farmers are burning their land for sowing the crops for the next cycle instead of the traditionally practiced natural cycle. Extinction of Indigenous Varieties of Crops: Since the time of the green revolution, there was reduced cultivation of indigenous varieties of rice, millets, lentils, etc. In turn, there was increased harvest of hybrid crops, which would grow faster. Due to the green revolution, India lost almost 1 lakh varieties of indigenous rice. Health Impacts: Indiscriminate pesticide usage has led to several health effects in human beings in the nervous, endocrine, reproductive, and immune systems. Way Forward: Crop Diversification: Agriculture in green revolution states cannot be saved unless a substantial part of rice cultivation is moved from there to eastern states. States want to diversify to other crops, but they do not want their income to fall in the process. It can be done only when the State builds robust ecosystems for alternative crops as it had done for rice and wheat. Climate-resistant crops: Addressing the challenges like water and air pollution would require agricultural production focussed on the water-energy nexus, making agriculture more climate resistant and environmentally sustainable. Technological interventions: Wider use of digital technology and extension services will be helpful in information sharing and generating awareness among the farmers. Need of Green Revolution 2.0: India needs a second green revolution along with the next generation of reforms with a view to make agriculture more climate-resistant and environmentally sustainable. Supply-side interventions: The need is supply-side interventions such as higher public investment, storage infrastructure and promotion of food processing. Source: All India Radio Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Geological Survey of India: It is an attached office to the Ministry of Earth Sciences It declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Office of Profit: It has been defined in the Constitution of India The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 provides for statutory backup against office of profit Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding H5N1 disease: It is a disease caused by avian influenza Type A viruses Avian Influenza type A viruses are classified based on two proteins on their surfaces – Hemagglutinin(HA) and Neuraminidase(NA) It is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects birds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[UPSC PRELIMS 2023] Crack UPSC PRELIMS in 100 Days - Strategy by Mohan Sir | Mindset & Daily Targets

Dear Students 5 Golden Rules to Crack Prelims Exam! It is a MUST WATCH VIDEO, if you are planning to attempt UPSC Prelims 2023. Here, Mohan Sir has come up with a simple but an effective strategy to clear UPSC Prelims Exam. There are 5 Golden Rules that needs to be followed to understand the Prelims process and the mindset that is required to clear the Prelims Exam. In the second half of the video, sir has discussed about Planning with Daily Targets, number of tests to give, how to tackle Current Affairs and CSAT among others. Timeline 4:10 5 Golden Rules: 4:26 1. Success in Prelims – Knowledge: Confidence/Calmness = 70:30 5:17 2. You cannot complete the 100% syllabus 6:04 3. Competition 7:40 4. Fear of missing out (FOMO) 8:55 5. Self-Accountability & Understanding urself is very important 10:36 Strategy & Mindset/Attitude for the Next 100 Days 10:42 1. Planning & Prioritising of Core & Current Affairs 14:23 2. No of Tests to be solved 16:36 3. Importance of PYQ’s 18:57 4. How to tackle Current Affairs 20:40 5. Strategy for CSAT 22:56 6. Importance of taking a BREAK! To Know More About PRELIMS PINNACLE - CLICK HERE