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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Angel Tax Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Finance Bill, 2023, has proposed to amend Section 56(2) VII B of the Income Tax Act, related to Angel tax. About Angel Tax: A term used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies. It is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares from an Indian investor. This tax predominantly affects start-ups and the angel investments they attract. It derives its genesis from section 56(2) (viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Section 56(2) (viib) in the IT act: Introduced by the finance act, 2012 It taxes any investment, received by any unlisted Indian company, valued above the fair market value by treating it as income. The investment in excess of fair value is characterized as ‘Income from other sources. If the fair market value of a start-up share is Rs 50 apiece, and in a subsequent funding round they offer it to an investor for Rs 60, then the difference of Rs 10 would be taxed as income. Proposed changes For Angel Tax exemptions: The government has exempted investments made by the domestic investors in companies approved by an inter-ministerial panel from Angel Tax. Criteria for exemption: The paid-up capital and share premium of the startup should not exceed Rs. 10 crores after issuing shares. The startup should procure the fair market value certified by a merchant banker. The investor should have a minimum net worth of Rs. 2 crores and the average income in the last 3 financial years should not be less than Rs. 50 lakhs. For foreign Investors: New changes include foreign investors, meaning that when a start-up raises funding from a foreign investor, that too will now be counted as income and be taxable. Foreign investors are a key source of funding for the start-ups and have played a big role in increasing the valuation. Significance of provision: The provision aims to deter the generation and use of unaccounted money through the subscription of shares of a closely held company at a value that is higher than the fair market value of the firm’s shares. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Solomon Islands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The United States opened an embassy in the Solomon Islands recently in its latest move to counter China’s push into the Pacific. About Solomon Islands: Solomon Islands is an island country consisting of six major islands and over 900 smaller islands in Oceania. Capital city Honiara, is located on the largest island, According to the World Risk Report 2021, the island state ranks second among the countries with the highest disaster risk worldwide. More than 90% of the islanders are ethnic Melanesians, but there has been intense and bitter rivalry between the Isatabus on Guadalcanal, the largest island, and migrant Malaitans from the neighbouring island. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                              Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                    Spain Catalonia                                            Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following countries: Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? (2022) 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Sacred Shaligram Stones Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Two sacred Shaligram stones, weighing 31 tonnes and 15 tonnes, arrived in Ayodhya in Uttar Pradesh. The stones are expected to be used for constructing the idols of Lord Ram and Janaki at the Ram Temple. About Shaligram Stones: Shaligram stones are fossils of ammonite, which is a type of mollusc that lived between 400 million and 65 million years ago. Shaligram stones date specifically from the Early Oxfordian to the Late Tithonian Age near the end of the Jurassic Period some 165-140 million years ago. It is mostly found in riverbeds or banks of the Kali Gandaki, a tributary of the Gandaki River in Nepal. This stone is revered by Hindus who believe it to be a representation of Lord Vishnu. The stone is considered to have divine powers and is seen as a symbol of good luck and prosperity. Significance: Lord Ram is believed to be the reincarnation of Lord Vishnu, and the use of the Shaligram stone symbolises the connection between the two gods. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                                      Odisha Erragudi                                                           Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                            Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                         Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pair Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Project ELLORA Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Research Joint Parliamentary Committee ers at the Microsoft Research (MSR) lab in India have been working towards creating Project ELLORA. About Project ELLORA: The project aims to bring ‘rare’ Indian languages online. It is also known as Enabling Low Resource Languages that was launched in 2015. It is a digital resource for Indian languages that do not have enough presence online. Some of the languages that’s its researching includes: Gondi, Mundari, and Idu Mishmi. Gondi: It is a South-Central Dravidian language spoken by Gond tribes. It is spoken in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is written in Devanagari and Telugu scripts. Mundari: It belongs to Austroasiatic language family spoken by the Munda tribes. It is spoken in Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal. Scripts: Mundari bani. It is written in the Devanagari, Odia, Bengali, and Latin writing systems. Idu Mishmi: It is spoken in Arunachal Pradesh and in Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It uses the Tibetan script and Idu Azobra script. It is also known as Sulikata, Midu, Mindri and Mithu. Source: Indian Express Joint Parliamentary Committee Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Opposition joined hands to demand a probe either by a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), headed by the Supreme Court or monitored by the Chief Justice of India, into the allegations of fraud and stock manipulation against the Adani Group. About Joint Parliamentary Committee: A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up by the Parliament for a special purpose, like for the detailed scrutiny of a subject or Bill. It has members from both the Houses and from both the ruling parties and the opposition. Members of the JPC are decided by the Parliament. There is no fixed number of members in the committee. It is dissolved after its term ends or its task has been completed. The recommendations made by the committee are in recommendatory in nature not binding on the government. Powers of the committee: A JPC can obtain evidence of experts, public bodies, associations, individuals or interested parties suo motu or on requests made by them. If a witness fails to appear before a JPC in response to summons, his conduct constitutes a contempt of the House. Ministers are not generally called by the committees to give evidence. However, with the permission of the Speaker, the JPC can seek information on certain points from ministers and call the ministers. The JPC can take oral and written evidence or call for documents in connection with a matter under its consideration. The Joint Parliamentary Committees are formed till date include the following cases: Bofors scandal (1987) Harshad Mehta Stock market scam (1992) Ketan Parekh share market scam (2001) Soft drink pesticide issue (2003) 2G spectrum case (2011) VVIP Chopper scam (2013) Land Acquisition (2015) NRC (2016) Personal Data Protection Bill (2019) Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rashtriya Gokul Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Government schemes and policies In News: The scheme will continue till 2025-26 with an allocation of Rs.2400 crore. About Rashtriya Gokul Mission The “Rashtriya Gokul Mission” aims to conserve and develop indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner. The potential to enhance the productivity of the indigenous breeds of India through professional farm management and superior nutrition is immense, for this it is essential to promote conservation and development of indigenous breeds. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission is a focussed project under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development. The Mission will be implemented with the objectives to: Development and conservation of indigenous breeds Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock; Enhance milk production and productivity; Upgrade nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi Distribute disease-free high genetic merit bulls for natural service. News Source: PIB One District One Product(ODOP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance About: One District One Product Scheme is an initiative that is seen as a transformational step forward towards realizing the true potential of a district, fuel economic growth, and generate employment and rural entrepreneurship, taking us to the goal of AtmaNirbhar Bharat. This scheme is basically a Japanese business development concept, which gained prominence in 1979. It is aimed at promoting a competitive and staple product from a specific area to push sales and improve the standard of living of the local population. Over time, it has been replicated in other Asian countries as well. In India, Uttar Pradesh government was the first state of India to launch the concept of One District One Product in 2018. Components of the Scheme:  Identify one product per district based on the potential and strength of a district and national priorities Develop a cluster for that product in the district which is capable of producing a world-class product with quality, scalability, and a brand Provide market linkages Address bottlenecks for exporting these products Support local exporters/manufacturers to scale up manufacturing Find potential buyers outside India with the aim of promoting exports Promoting manufacturing & services industry in the District Generate employment in the District GIS One District One Product (ODOP) Digital Map of India: By The Ministry of Food Processing The digital ODOP map provides detailed information about ODOP products to all states and facilitates the stakeholders. The digital map also has indicators for tribal, SC, ST, and aspirational districts. It will enable stakeholders to make concerted efforts for its value chain development. Few products identified include: Uttar Pradesh The ancient and nutritious ‘Kala namak’ rice of Siddharthanagar The rare technique of wheat-stalk craft, handicraft in Bahraich The famous chikankari and zari-zardozi work garments Banana fibre of Kushinagar, Banana of Kaushambi, Jaggery of Ayodhya, Aamla of Pratapgarh, Pulses of Balrampur and Gonda, Desi ghee of Auraiya, Wooden toys of Chitrakoot Wooden artifacts of Saharanpur, Basti, Bijnor, Rae Bareli The horn and bone work that uses the remains of dead animals rather than living ones, making it a nature-friendly replacement for ivory. Sunahri Kand: To support the production of horticultural items under the “One District One Product (ODOP)” scheme and provide better nutrition to school children Rajasthan: Blue Pottery (Jaipur) and MarkhanaMarbels (Nagaur) Maharashtra: Wine from the Nashik valley  Karnataka:  The hilly district in Malnad region of Karnataka is known for its coffee production and accounts for 30-40% of the total coffee production in India. It is also nicknamed the ‘coffee cup’ of India. In Chikkamagaluru, spices were earmarked, while pineapples were chosen in Shivamogga district. Other products included are Kalaburagi (red gram), Mandya (jaggery), Vijayapura (lemon), Haveri (mango), Gadag (Byadagi chillies), Bidar (ginger), Ballari (fig), Mysuru (bananas), and Koppal (guava). News Source: PIB What is the Paris Club? Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: International Affairs In News: The Paris Club, an informal group of creditor nations, will provide financial assurances to the International Monetary Fund on Sri Lanka’s debt. The Paris Club It is a group of mostly western creditor countries that grew from a 1956 meeting in which Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors in Paris. Objective is to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries that are unable to repay their bilateral loans. It describes itself as a forum where official creditors meet to solve payment difficulties faced by debtor countries. All 22 are members of the group called Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). The members are: Australia, Australia, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Israel, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Russia, South Korea, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States. How has Paris Club been involved in debt agreements? Since its beginnings, the Paris Club has reached 478 agreements with 102 different debtor countries. Since 1956, the debt treated in the framework of Paris Club agreements amounts to $ 614 billion. It operates on the principles of consensus and solidarity. Any agreement reached with the debtor country will apply equally to all its Paris Club creditors. A debtor country that signs an agreement with its Paris Club creditors, should not then accept from its non-Paris Club commercial and bilateral creditors such terms of treatment of its debt that are less favourable to the debtor than those agreed with the Paris Club. The role of the Paris Club over time: The Paris group countries dominated bilateral lending in the last century, but their importance has receded over the last two decades or so with the emergence of China as the world’s biggest bilateral lender. News Source: Indian Express No bar on contesting two seats in one poll Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Elections In News: The Supreme Court has refused to set aside a provision in the election law that allows candidates to contest polls from two constituencies simultaneously. Why: SC feels that it is a policy matter and an issue concerning political democracy. Hence, it is for the Parliament to take a call. Background: The petition filed by advocate Ashwini Upadhyay, represented by senior advocate Gopal Sankaranarayanan, had sought the court to declare Section 33(7) of the Representation of People Act invalid and ultra vires. Like one-person-one-vote, one-candidate-one-constituency is the dictum of democracy. Section 33(7) of the Act allows a person to contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from two constituencies. But the court chose to leave the issue to the wisdom of the Parliament. In 2018, the government had objected to the petition in court. It had argued that law cannot curtail the right of a candidate to contest elections and curtail the polity’s choice of candidates. The government had further told the Supreme Court that one-candidate-one-constituency restriction would require a legislative amendment. It had supported Section 33 (7). Before the amendment, candidates could contest from any number of constituencies. The government had said the restriction to two constituencies was reasonable enough, and there was no need to change the law now. The Election Commission had, in an affidavit in 2018, supported the petition. It had informed the Supreme Court that it had proposed an amendment to Section 33(7) in July 2004. There have been cases where a person contests election from two constituencies, and wins from both. In such a situation he vacates the seat in one of the two constituencies. The consequence is that a by-election would be required from one constituency involving avoidable expenditure on the conduct of that bye-election. Conclusion: Law should be amended to provide that a person cannot contest from more than one constituency at a time. A candidate should deposit an amount of ₹5 lakh for contesting in two constituencies in an Assembly election or ₹10 lakh in a general election. The amount would be used to cover the expenses for a by-election in the eventuality that he or she was victorious in both constituencies and had to relinquish one. News Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Indigenous tribal language and script Gondi – Telugu Mundari – Mundari bani Idu Mishmi – Idu Azobra How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Q.2) Consider the following countries: Australia Switzerland China Russia India Which of the above are part of Paris Club of Nations? 1 2 and 5 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 5 only Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Famous product and region Markhana marbles – Pune Kala namak – Siddharth Nagar Byadagi chillies – Gadag How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Genetic Sequence of 4 Indian cows by the IISER Bhopal Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists at the Bhopal chapter of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research have unravelled for the first time the genetic makeup of native Indian cow breeds Kasargod Dwarf, Kasargod Kapila, Vechur, and Ongole. About genome sequencing: A genome is a complete set of genetic instructions which are present in an organism in its DNA. Sequencing is the sequence of occurrences of the four nucleotide bases i.e., adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T). The human genome is made up of over 3 billion of these genetic letters. The whole genome can’t be sequenced all at once because available methods of DNA sequencing can only handle short stretches of DNA at a time. While human genomes are made of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid), a virus genome can be made of either DNA or RNA (Ribonucleic acid). Genome sequencing is a technique that reads and interprets genetic information found within DNA or RNA. About the Cow Breeds: Kasargod Dwarf It is originated in the mountain range of Kasaragod district, Kerala They are known for their excellent milking ability and give mineral-rich milk with a high feed-to-milk ratio. One among the four prime dwarf cattle in India- Kasargod Dwarf, Malnad Gidda, Punganur and Vechur Cattle. Kasargod Kapila Native to Karnataka and Kasaragod. They possess golden hide of shining texture, golden eyes, and nose. Voluntarily shed their horns annually It contains a substance named “Go-rochana” and possess rare medicinal qualities according to ancient literature and traditional healers. Vechur Smallest cattle breed in the world. Rare breed of Bos indicus cattle in Kerala. Listed on the Food and Agriculture Organization’s World Watch List of Domestic Animal Diversity. Ongole Breed of cattle family Bos indicus in Andhra Pradesh. Known for their toughness, rapid growth rate, and natural tolerance to tropical heat and disease resistance. This breed is Famous for its bulls commonly used in bullfights in Mexico and East Africa. Source: Times of India Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, 15 railway stations under Tiruchi Division Railway Division were selected to be developed under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme. About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme: The Union Ministry of Railways launched Amrit Bharat Station Scheme in December 2022 to modernize over 1,000 small stations over the coming years. The scheme will subsume all previous redevelopment projects where work is yet to begin. Key features for these proposed stations: provisions for roof top plazas, longer platforms, ballastless tracks; and 5G connectivity. Other Facilities Planned under this Scheme Smooth access by widening of roads, properly designed signages, dedicated pedestrian pathways, well planned parking areas, improved lighting. High level platforms(760-840 mm) shall be provided at all categories of stations. Provide good cafeteria/retail facilities. Space shall also be created for Executive Lounges and places for small business meetings. Drainage of platform areas. Ceremonial flags may be provided at appropriate space in the station. Special amenities for the disabled. Gradual shift to sustainable and environmentally friendly solutions as per availability of funds and condition of existing assets is considered. Source: The Hindu Judicial Majoritarianism Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: As the recent majority judgment of the Supreme Court on demonetisation comes under criticism, the minority judgment by J. Nagarathna is being hailed for its challenge to the RBI’s institutional acquiescence to the Central government. About Judicial Majoritarianism: As opposed to standard matters heard by Division Benches consisting of two judges, numerical majorities are of particular importance to cases which involve a substantial interpretation of constitutional provisions. In such cases, Constitutional Benches, consisting of five or more judges, are set up in consonance with Article 145(3) of the Constitution. Such Benches usually consist of 5, 6, 9, 11 or even 13 judges. This is done to facilitate decision-making by ensuring numerical majorities in judicial outcomes. Article 145(5) of the Constitution: It states that no judgment in such cases can be delivered except with the concurrence of a majority of the judges but that judges are free to deliver dissenting judgments or opinions. Differences among the judges and methodological fallacies: Any differences in judicial decisions can be attributed to a difference in either the methodology adopted and the logic applied by the judges. The differences can also be attributed to the judges’ own ‘judicial hunches’ which may be an outcome of their subjective experiences, outlook, and biases. In such circumstances, it is entirely possible that the majority may fall into either methodological fallacies and errors or be limited by their ‘judicial hunch’ respectively. In such situations, a meritorious minority decision, irrespective of the impeccability of its reasoning receives little weightage in terms of its outcomes. For example: The dissenting opinion of Justice H.R. Khanna in A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) upholding the right to life and personal liberty even during situations of constitutional exceptionalism. Dissenting opinion of Justice Subba Rao in the Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. (1962) case upholding the right to privacy which received the judicial stamp of approval in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. UOI (2017) case. Dissenting opinions: The rate of judicial dissent at the height of the Emergency in 1976 was a mere 27% as opposed to 10.52% in 1980. The rate of dissent where the Chief Justice was a part of the Bench was lower than in those cases where the Chief Justice was not on the Bench. Such situations call into question the efficiency and desirability of head-counting procedures for a judicial determination on questions of national and constitutional importance. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gujarat International Finance Tec-City - International Financial Services Centre (GIFT IFSC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Union Budget has proposed several measures to enhance business activities at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City – International Financial Services Centre (GIFT IFSC). A subsidiary of EXIM Bank for trade re-financing would be established at GIFT IFSC and IFSCA Act would be amended for statutory provisions for arbitration, ancillary services, and avoiding dual regulation under SEZ Act. About International Financial Services Centre Authority: IFSCA is a statutory body established in 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019 to ensure inter-regulatory coordination within the financial sector. Headquarters: At GIFT City, Gandhinagar in Gujarat. Prior to the establishment of IFSCA, the domestic financial regulators, namely, RBI, SEBI, PFRDA and IRDAI regulated the business in IFSC. The IFSCA is a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India. The main objective of the IFSCA is to develop a strong global connect and focus on the needs of the Indian economy as well as to serve as an international financial platform for the entire region and the global economy as a whole. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Reverse-flipping Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Economic Survey 2022-23 has suggested measures like simplifying ESOP taxation, and easier corporate laws like in the US and Singapore to accelerate reverse-flipping among startups, namely moving domicile back to India. About Flipping and Reverse-flipping: Flipping is the process of transferring entire ownership of an Indian company to an overseas entity. It is generally accompanied by a transfer of all intellectual property and data owned by an Indian company. Reverse Flipping is the process of shifting the domicile of those companies back to India who flipped earlier. Companies reverse flip because of easy access to capital from private equity and venture capital, changes in rules regarding round-tripping, and the growing maturity of India’s capital market. Reasons for Flipping: Flipping happens at the early stage of the startups, driven by commercial, taxation and personal preferences of founders and investors. Some companies decide to ‘flip’ because the major market of their product is offshore. Sometimes, investor preferences like access to incubators drive the companies to ‘flip’ as they insist on a particular domicile. For easy access to capital from private equity and venture capital, changes in rules regarding round-tripping, and the growing maturity of India’s capital market. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if Price of its substitute increases Price of its complement increases The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases Its price falls Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy In News: The National Stock Exchange (NSE) placed Adani Enterprises, Adani Ports, and Ambuja Cements under the additional surveillance mechanism (ASM) in the wake of accusations of stock manipulation and fraud levelled against the group by New York-based short seller Hindenburg Research. Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM): The ASM was introduced in 2018 with the intention to protect investors from market volatility and unusual changes in share price. It is placed on securities with surveillance concerns based on objective parameters viz. Price / Volume variation, Volatility etc. in addition to other surveillance measures. The shortlisting of securities for placing in ASM is based on criteria that are jointly decided by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and exchanges, covering the parameters of “high low variation, client concentration, PE, close to close price variation, market capitalisation, volume variation, delivery percentage, and number of unique PANs”. An ASM shortlisting signals to investors that the stocks have seen unusual activity. The shortlisting of securities under ASM is purely on account of market surveillance and it should not be construed as an adverse action against the concerned company / entity. National Stock Exchange (NSE) NSE was incorporated in 1992. It was recognised as a stock exchange by SEBI in 1993 and commenced operations in 1994 NSE was the first exchange in India to implement electronic or screen-based trading NSE is counted as one of the world’s largest exchanges and a catalyst for driving India’s economic growth. The products on the Exchange are organized into 3 asset classes for trading:  Capital market for the listing and trading of equities, fixed income securities and the derivatives market. Source: Indian express Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1 Only 1 and 2 Only 3 Only 2 and 3 Only Asiatic Black Bear Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The Kashmir Valley has bucked the trend of Asiatic black bear attacks on humans rarely reported throughout the animal’s global range. Asiatic Black Bear Scientific name – Ursus thibetanus It is also called Himalayan bear, Tibetan bear, or moon bear It has a glossy black (sometimes brownish) coat with a whitish mark shaped like a crescent moon on the chest. Its long, coarse neck and shoulder hair forms a modified mane. It is omnivorous, eating insects, fruit, nuts, bees and honey, small mammals, and birds as well as carrion. It occasionally attacks domestic animals. They are generally nocturnal, sleeping in caves or tree hollows during the day During the summer the Asiatic black bear lives mainly in forested hills and mountains at elevations up to 3,600 metres (11,800 feet). Becoming fat by fall, it spends the winter at elevations of 1,500 metres (5,000 feet) or less and may sleep for much of the time. An adult male weighs 100–200 kg (220–440 pounds), a female about half as much; its length averages about 130–190 cm (51–75 inches), in addition to a 7–10-cm (3–4-inch) tail. Asiatic black bears may live as long as 25 years in the wild and up to 39 years in captivity. IUCN status – Vulnerable All Indian Bear species are listed under Appendix I in CITES and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This provides complete protection to the species from hunting and trade. Distribution Afghanistan; Bangladesh; Bhutan; Cambodia; China; India; Iran, Islamic Republic of; Japan; Korea, Democratic People’s Republic of; Korea, Republic of; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Myanmar; Nepal; Pakistan; Russian Federation; Taiwan, Province of China; Thailand; Viet Nam Reproduction Males and females become sexually mature between ages three and four. Mating occurs between June and October, and pregnancies typically produce two cubs some seven to eight months later. Sources: The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deep Ocean Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: In the Union Budget 2023-24, Deep Ocean Mission has been allocated Rs 600 crore Deep Ocean Mission: It aims to explore marine biodiversity for the sustainable use of resources It is overseen by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) It includes myriad of activities such as a manned submersible, ship-building, exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity and identification of mineral deposits in the deep ocean A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean In 2016, India was awarded a 15-year contract to explore an area of 75,000 square kilometres for mining polymetallic nodules from the Central Indian Ocean Basin at depths of 5,000-6,000 metres. The other components of the mission include developing ocean climate change advisory services and designing offshore Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) powered desalination plants. Significance Oceans are storehouses of food, energy, minerals, and medicines. It also modulates weather and climate. Deep-sea mining involves extracting ores rich in cobalt, manganese, zinc and other rare metals from the sea floor. They contain critical minerals needed to build batteries for electric vehicles and renewable energy capacity, smartphones and laptops. Source: DTE Qaumi Waqf Board Taraqqiati Scheme (QWBTS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Qaumi Waqf Board Taraqqiati Scheme (QWBTS) Implemented by The Ministry of Minority Affairs through the Central Waqf Council (CWC) Under this scheme, a dedicated online portal has been developed. This dedicated online portal is the Waqf Assets Management System of India (WAMSI) for computerization, digitization of records of Waqf properties and Geographic Information System (GIS) mapping of Waqf properties to prevent encroachment. The Waqf property details on WAMSI have been entered by the respective State Waqf Boards (SWBs). As per Section 40 of the Waqf Act 1995 (as amended in 2013) the State Waqf Board is empowered to decide any question which arises as to whether a particular property is a Waqf property or not or whether a Waqf is a Sunni Waqf or a Shia Waqf. The decision of the Board on a question, unless revoked or modified by the Tribunal, be final. Central Waqf Council (CWC) Vision Protection, Retrieval & E-monitoring of Auqaf under the provision of The Waqf Act Proactive role in protection development of Auqaf & to work closely with the State Waqf Boards to improve their functioning. About It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. It was set up in 1964 as per the provision given in the Waqf Act, 1954 as Advisory Body to the Central Government on matters concerning the working of the Waqf Boards and the due administration of Auqaf. The Council has been empowered to advise the Central Government, State Governments and State Waqf Boards. It will now issue directives to the boards/ State Government to furnish information to the Council on the performance of the board particularly on their financial performance, survey, revenue records, encroachment of Waqf properties, Annual and Audit report etc The 12th Council was constituted in 2019 Composition The Council consists of Chairperson – Union Minister In charge of Waqf Such other members, not exceeding 20 in number, as may be appointed by the Government of India. Presently Union Minister of Minority Affairs is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council. Major functions To monitor the implementation of the provisions of Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013 in States and UTs. To render legal advice on protection and retrieval of the Waqf Properties and for removal of encroachment etc. To implement the Scheme for Development of Urban Waqf Properties & Identification of potential Waqf land for development by National Waqf Development Corporation Ltd. To undertake awareness programmes to promote the interest of the Council and to sensitize the Waqf institutions about their new roles and responsibilities. Source: PIB India-USA relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: The talks between India’s National Security Advisor Ajit Doval and his American counterpart Jake Sullivan have concluded with the announcement of a new road map for deeper military and techno-economic cooperation between the two countries. The bilateral Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) could lend a new strategic depth and breadth to the expanding engagement between India and the United States. The idea was first mooted in the meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Joe Biden on the margins of the Tokyo summit of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) in 2022 Bilateral relations The U.S.-India strategic partnership is founded on shared values including a commitment to democracy and upholding the rules-based international system. The United States and India have shared interests in promoting global security, stability, and economic prosperity through trade, investment, and connectivity. India and the United States cooperate closely at multilateral organizations, including the United Nations, G-20, Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Regional Forum, International Monetary Fund, World Bank, and World Trade Organization. India is an ASEAN dialogue partner, an Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development partner, and an observer to the Organization of American States. Together with Australia and Japan, the United States and India convene as the Quad to promote a free and open Indo-Pacific and provide tangible benefits to the region. India is also one of twelve countries partnering with the United States on the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) to make our economies more connected, resilient, clean, and fair. India is a member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), at which the United States is a dialogue partner. Political relations President Biden and Prime Minister Modi have participated in multiple engagements of the Quad Leaders mechanism with Japan and Australia The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue between the U.S. Secretaries of State and Defense and their Indian counterparts is the premier recurring dialogue mechanism between the United States and India. The United States hosted the fourth 2+2 Dialogue in 2022. The United States welcomed India joining the UN Security Council in 2021 for a two-year term and supports a reformed UN Security Council that includes India as a permanent member. Various working groups – Civil Space Working Group, the Education and Skills Development Working Group, Trade Policy Forum, Defense Policy Group, and Counternarcotics Working Group. Economic relations In 2021, overall U.S.-India bilateral trade in goods and services reached a record $157 billion. The United States is India’s largest trading partner and most important export market. Indian companies seek to increase their presence in U.S. markets and at the end of 2020, Indian investment in the United States totaled $12.7 billion, supporting over 70,000 American jobs. USA accounts for 16 percent in the exports of goods exports and 50 percent of IT and BPO services. Major items of exports to USA are apparels, diamonds, marine products and footwear – These industries are labour intensive and hence will pave the way for more employment opportunities in the sectors Environment India and USA launched the “Climate Action and Finance Mobilization Dialogue (CAFMD)”. Under the Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030 partnership It was launched at the Leaders’ Summit on Climate in 2021 In 2021, the United States joined the International Solar Alliance headquartered in India In 2022 the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) Administrator Samantha Power became Co-chair of the Governing Council of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) where India is a permanent co-chair. In 2021, The India-USA Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) was launched in accordance with the US – India Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030 Partnership announced by both countries at the Leaders’ Summit on Climate Technological The Indo-US Science and Technology Forum (IUSSTF) – is a bi-national autonomous organization established to promote cooperation in Science, Technology and Innovation has continued to play an important role in strengthening cooperation in this field. The iCET involves collaboration in a range of areas including quantum computing, semiconductors, 5G and 6G wireless infrastructure, and civilian space projects such as lunar exploration. It will be monitored and driven from the PMO in Delhi and the White House in Washington GE Aerospace has applied for an export licence for jet engine production and phased transfer of technology to Indian entities. ISRO and NASA are working together to realize a joint microwave remote sensing satellite for Earth observation, named NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR). Defence and Security The Defense Policy Group (DPG) provides a platform for a comprehensive review of defense dialogues/mechanisms. The last DPG was held in 2021. The defense procurement activities are monitored through the Defense Production and Procurement Group (DPPG) In August 2022, a U.S. Navy Ship (USNS) Charles Drew visited in Chennai for repairs and allied services. This was the first ever repair of a U.S. Navy ship in India. US designating India as “Major Defence Partner,” a status unique to India, India is now at par with its closest allies. There is a new panorama for elevated Indo-US cooperation, like signing of Defence Technologies and Trade Initiative (DTTI), BECA, COMCASA, LEMOA etc The signing of Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) –  paved the way for supply of equipment with transfer of technology. The decision to start exchanges between US Naval Forces Central Command (NAVCENT) and Indian navy was another milestone for strengthening maritime cooperation in the Western Indian Ocean. Bilateral exercises include: Yudh Abhyas (Army); Vajra Prahar (Special Forces), a tri-services exercise– Tiger Triumph (inaugurated in 2019). India joined the multilateral Combined Maritime Force (CMF) based in Bahrain, as an Associate Partner in 2022. S. participated in India’s multilateral Exercise Milan 2022. Indian Diaspora The 3.5-million-plus strong Indian American community is an important ethnic group in the U.S., accounting for about 1% of the total population in the country Almost 21% of total international students in the U.S. are Indians. In 2022 close to 82000 student visas were issued in India, mostly for graduate (Masters) programs The nearly 200,000 Indian students in the United States contribute $7.7 billion annually to the U.S. economy. With two Indian Americans occupying high level posts of Governor and several representatives of the people, the Indian Diaspora has assimilated into their adopted country and is acting as a catalyst to forge closer and stronger ties between India and the U.S. An MOU has been signed in June 2016 to facilitate India’s joining of the Global Entry Programme for expedited immigration for eligible Indian citizens at U.S. airport Suggestion for future Enhance cooperation in emerging technologies and artificial intelligence (AI) as data regulation, information sharing, and privacy protection become increasingly salient issues crucial to the preservation of national security. Strengthen coordination multilaterally and on international issues, including prioritising two multilateral strategic dialogues that have gained prominence in recent years—i.e., the Quad and the West Asian Quad or I2U2. Pursue greater cooperation on counterterrorism, including coordinating strategies for managing a Taliban-led Afghanistan and leading multilateral efforts to apply pressure on the Pakistani military-intelligence complex to abandon support for terrorist groups such as the Taliban and Haqqani Network, and Kashmir-focused groups like Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba. Strengthen and integrate Global Value Chains(GVCs), using FDI in each other’s economies to strengthen bilateral trade and integrate GVCs as well as incentivise multinational corporations to participate in these initiatives. Seek greater coordination between line ministries working on cybersecurity, especially identifying relevant counterparts on specific issues. Embed security and defence issues into their emerging technology agenda, focusing for instance on identifying common principles for defence applications of artificial intelligence. Way forward In recent years, exigencies such as the COVID-19 pandemic have redirected the relationship to a forward-looking assessment of regional and global geopolitics The sectors that will be key to shaping the arc of a strong Indo-US relationship in the years ahead are the following: emerging technologies; national security and defence cooperation; counterterrorism; and trade. Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) consider the following statements: Asiatic black bear is naturally found in India only. Asiatic black bear lives up to 25 years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It aims to protect investors from market volatility It is jointly decided by Reserve Bank of India and Exchanges. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Indigenous cattle breed and  state Kasargod Dwarf – Tamil Nadu Vechur Cattle – Kerala Ongole Cattle – Telangana Malnad Gidda – Maharashtra How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Follow on Public Offering Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Adani Enterprises recently said it has decided not to go ahead with its ₹20,000-crore follow-on public offer (FPO) and will return the proceeds to investors. About Follow on Public Offering: FPO is a follow up to the initial public offering. It is also known as a follow-on public offer which is the issuance of shares after the company has been listed on the stock exchange. In other words, an FPO is an additional issuance of shares while an IPO is simply the first issuance. Companies usually announce FPOs to raise equity or reduce debt. Types Of FPO Diluted FPO: There is dilution in the ownership of existing shareholders. Here, the company decides to issue new shares to the public which increases the total number of shares outstanding. When there is an increase in the number of shares, the ownership percentage of existing shares decreases since newly issued shares will also represent a certain proportion of ownership in the company. Non-Diluted FPO: There is no dilution in ownership of existing shareholders because no new shares are issued. The shares which are offered to the public are shares that are held by non-public shareholders. Usually, these shareholders are Promoters, Directors of the company, or Pre-IPO investors. Difference between Initial Public O vs FPO Meaning: IPO is the first issuance of shares by a company while an FPO is the issuance of shares by a company so they can raise additional capital after its IPO. Price: In an IPO, the price is either fixed or variable as a range, while in an FPO the price is dependent upon the number of shares as they increase or decrease and is market-driven. Share Capital: In an IPO the share capital increases because the company decides to issue fresh capital to the public for its listing. Value: IPOs are oftentimes more expensive to carry out than FPOs. The reason FPOs are cheaper is that the value of the company listing its shares is getting diluted further. Risk: IPOs are considered to be riskier than FPOs. Status of the company: A company that is unlisted issues an IPO while a company that is already listed issues an FPO. Source: BusinessToday Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India? It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? Certificate of Deposit Commercial Paper Promissory Note Participatory Note Biotin Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently dermatologists in Delhi have cautioned users that there is no scientific evidence to prove usage of biotin for healthy hair and nail growth. About Biotin (Vitamin B7): It is a water-soluble vitamin that helps the body metabolize fats, carbohydrates, and protein. Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body, so daily intake is necessary. The human cells cannot synthesize vitamin B7. However, bacteria in the body can produce biotin, and the vitamin is present in numerous foods. Sources of Biotin: Red meat, eggs, seeds, and nuts. Deficiency of Biotin can cause: Hair loss, scaly, red rash around the eyes, nose, mouth, and genitals, Depression, Lethargy, Hallucinations, loss of control of bodily movements, known as ataxia, Weakened immune function, Increased risk of bacterial and fungal infections Lab Grown Diamonds Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: During her Budget speech, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the government’s move to focus on lab-grown diamonds. About Lab Grown Diamonds (LDG): Lab grown diamonds are diamonds that are produced using specific technology which mimics the geological processes that grow natural diamonds. They are not the same as diamond simulants. LDGs are chemically, physically and optically diamond and thus are difficult to identify as lab grown. While materials such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, YAG, are diamond simulants that simply attempt to look like a diamond, they lack the sparkle and durability of a diamond and are thus easily identifiable. However, differentiating between an LDG and an Earth Mined Diamond is hard, with advanced equipment required for the purpose. Uses of LGDs: LDGs are most often used for industrial purposes, in machines and tools. Their hardness and extra strength make them ideal for use as cutters. Pure synthetic diamonds have high thermal conductivity, but negligible electrical conductivity. This combination is invaluable for electronics where such diamonds can be used as a heat spreader for high-power laser diodes, laser arrays and high-power transistors. As the Earth’s reserves of natural diamonds are depleted, LDGs are slowly replacing the prized gemstone in the jewellery industry. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Consider the following statements: Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) organised a ‘National workshop on LiFE’ in association with National Museum of Natural History, a subordinate office of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. About Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP): Environmental Information System (ENVIS) was renamed as EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme). ENVIS came into existence as a plan programme in 1983. It serves as a single-stop web-enabled repository of comprehensive environmental information with collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination of the same through a nationwide network of ENVIS Hubs and ENVIS Resource Partners (RPs). About National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH), New Delhi was established in 1972. The museum functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, Government of India. It is an institution devoted to environmental education, derives its strength principally from theme-based exhibition galleries, experiential resource centers and Out-Reach Activities, with the intention to depict the country’s rich natural heritage and natural history (Geology, Botany and Zoology). Objectives of NMNH: To develop the NMNH in the country’s capital to achieve the highest level of quality to promote environmental education on a national level To develop Regional Offices (Regional Museum of Natural History) in various regions of the country in order to extend its activities at the regional/local levels To develop museum-based educational projects at the level so as to help school curriculum on environmental education To develop environmental education resource materials (such as audio-visual aids, low-cost teaching aids, school loan kits, etc.) to promote environmental education To undertake research (musicological and collection based) consonant with the scope and resources of the museum To extend professional help to other agencies/organizations regarding natural history collections/museums To develop national and international cooperation/collaboration with other organizations/professional bodies/museums related to natural history/environmental education. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q,1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (2021) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Grand Slam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, Novak Djokovic win 10th Australian Open and 22nd grand slam title. About Grand Slam: It is the achievement of winning all 4 most important annual tennis events played in 4 countries. It includes Australian Open in mid-January, the French Open from around late May to early June, Wimbledon in June–July, and the US Open in August–September. They offer the most ranking points, prize money, public and media attention, the greatest strength and size of field, and greater number of “best of” sets for men, which is 5. Australian and United States tournaments are played on hard courts while French on clay, and Wimbledon on grass courts. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award The award was received by Formula One players so far. Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Privilege Motion Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: A breach of privilege motion moved against senior BJP MLA and Deputy Leader of the Opposition led to an uproar in the Rajasthan Assembly recently, with Speaker announcing that a decision on the motion will be taken shortly. About Privilege Motion: All Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy rights and immunities, individually and collectively, so that they can discharge their duties and functions effectively. Any instance when these rights and immunities are disregarded by any member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is an offence, called ‘breach of privilege’, which is punishable under the Laws of Parliament. Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion. Applicability: The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committee These also include the Attorney General of India. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President. Role of the Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha Chairperson: The speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha are the first levels of scrutiny of a privilege motion in the two Houses of Parliament. They can either take a decision on the privilege motion or can also refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. Once the Speaker or the House Chairperson gives consent under Rule 222, the concerned member is allowed to explain himself or herself. Rules Governing Privilege: Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege. Rules say that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or a committee thereof. Privilege Committee: The Speaker of Lok Sabha nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members of parliament from each party. While the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. The Speaker may also allow a half-hour debate on the report by the committee before passing orders or directing that the report be tabled before the House. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PM CARES Fund Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy PM CARES Fund About PM CARES Fund: Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) is set up as a public charitable trust  under the Registration Act, 1908 in 2020. It is not created under the Constitution or any law made by the Parliament or the state The fund is administered on an honorary basis by Additional Secretary/ Joint Secretary, in charge of the PM CARES Fund in the PMO. The Prime Minister’s Office provides administrative and secretarial support to the Trustees . The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support. Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 80G benefits for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Donations to PM CARES Fund will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013 PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. PM CARES Fund accepts donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries. This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011. PM CARES Fund is audited by an independent auditor The Head Office of the Fund is Prime Minister’s Office, New Delhi. Constitution of the Trust : Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund. Any person appointed a Trustee shall act in a pro bono capacity. Objectives: To undertake and support relief or assistance of any kind relating to a public health emergency or any other kind of emergency, calamity or distress, either man-made or natural, creation or upgradation of healthcare or pharmaceutical facilities, other necessary infrastructure, funding relevant research or any other type of support. To render financial assistance, provide grants of payments of money or take such other steps as may be deemed necessary by the Board of Trustees to the affected population. Source: Indian express Universal Periodic Review Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International relations In News: Sri Lanka has concluded its Review under the 4th Cycle of the Universal Periodic Review (UPR) in Geneva Universal Periodic Review The Universal Periodic Review was established by the General Assembly of the United Nations (UNGA) in 2006 It is a State-driven voluntary peer-review process which provides the opportunity for each State to declare the steps taken at the national level to improve the human rights situation at that State and to fulfil their human rights obligations. The goal of UPR is the improvement of the human rights situation in every country The UPR also aims to provide technical assistance to States and enhance their capacity to deal effectively with human rights challenges and to share best practices in the field of human rights among States and other stakeholders. The reviews are conducted by the UPR Working Group which consists of the 47 members of the Council Any UN Member State can take part in the discussion/dialogue with the reviewed States. Each State review is assisted by groups of three States, known as “troikas”, who serve as rapporteurs. The selection of the troikas for each State is done through a drawing of lots following elections for the Council membership in the General Assembly. Sources: Newsonair MISHTI scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: In the Union Budget 2023-24 presented on Wednesday (February 1), Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a new MISHTI scheme. MISHTI scheme Building on India’s success in afforestation, ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes’, MISHTI, will be taken up for mangrove plantation along the coastline and on salt pan lands, wherever feasible, through convergence between MGNREGS, CAMPA Fund and other sources. Why mangroves? Mangrove forests — consisting of trees and shrub that live in intertidal water in coastal areas — host diverse marine life. They also support a rich food web, with molluscs and algae-filled substrate acting as a breeding ground for small fish, mud crabs and shrimps, thus providing a livelihood to local artisanal fishers. They act as effective carbon stores, holding up to four times the amount of carbon as other forested ecosystems Mangrove forests capture vast amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and their preservation can both aid in removal of carbon from the atmosphere and prevent the release of the same upon their destruction. Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) Launched at the 27th session of Conference of Parties (COP27) UN climate summit, with India as a partner. An initiative led by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Indonesia, the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) includes India, Sri Lanka, Australia, Japan, and Spain. It seeks to educate and spread awareness worldwide on the role of mangroves in curbing global warming and its potential as a solution for climate change. The current state of the mangroves South Asia houses some of the most extensive areas of mangroves globally, while Indonesia hosts one-fifth of the overall amount. India holds around 3 per cent of South Asia’s mangrove population. Besides the Sundarbans in West Bengal, the Andamans region, the Kachchh and Jamnagar areas in Gujarat too have substantial mangrove cover. Source: Indian express Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: On the occasion of India’s presidency of the G-20, through the theme ‘One Earth, One Family, One Future’, a one-day workshop on Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) and Madhya Pradesh Farm Gate App is being organized with the aim of encouraging the sense of global unity and increasing the participation of women in the field of agriculture. Representatives of NABARD and APEDA will provide information about various schemes Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agriculture Infra Fund (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets. Under this scheme, Rs 1 lakh crore is to be disbursed by financial year 2025-26 and the interest subvention and credit guarantee assistance will be given till the year 2032-33. It gives 3% interest subvention, credit guarantee support through CGTMSE for loan of up to Rs.2 crore and facility of convergence with other Central and State Govt. Scheme AIF is providing all around financial support to the farmers, Agri-entrepreneurs, farmer groups like Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), Self Help Groups (SHGs),  Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) etc. and many others to create post-harvest management infrastructure and build community farming asset throughout the country. NABARD NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between Government of India and RBI, NABARD today is fully owned by Government of India. It is an apex regulatory body for overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India. It is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance, Government of India. The bank has been entrusted with “matters concerning policy, planning, and operations in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas in India”. NABARD is active in developing and implementing financial inclusion. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) It is a statutory body, established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Functions Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance or otherwise for undertaking surveys and feasibility studies, participation in enquiry capital through joint ventures and other reliefs and subsidy schemes; Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed; Fixing of standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughter houses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places where such products are kept or handled for the purpose of ensuring the quality of such products; Improving of packaging of the Scheduled products; Improving of marketing of the Scheduled products outside India; Training in various aspects of the industries connected with the scheduled products; Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Urban farming Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Agriculture, GS1 Urbanisation Context: A new draft policy by Delhi-based research non-profit People’s Resource Centre, says some 60 per cent of Delhi’s demand for meat is fulfilled by city-grown produce, as is 25 per cent of its milk and 15 per cent of its vegetable needs. Yet policies on land use and farming in the National Capital do not acknowledge the role of cultivation and distribution of food in urban areas India is rapidly urbanising and is estimated to host 50 per cent of its population in cities by 2050.  Hence, there needs to be increased focus on urban farming The “Draft Citizen’s Policy for Urban Agriculture in Delhi” It was submitted to the Delhi government in 2022 It aims to provide a holistic framework for urban farming. It recommends building on existing practices, promoting residential and community farming through rooftop and kitchen gardens, allocating vacant land for agricultural use, creating a market, developing policies for animal rearing and spreading awareness. These recommendations are crucial to ensure food security for urban communities. Urban agriculture Urban and peri-urban agriculture (UPA) can be defined as practices that yield food and other outputs through agricultural production and related processes (transformation, distribution, marketing, recycling) taking place on land and other spaces within cities and surrounding regions. It involves urban and peri-urban actors, communities, methods, places, policies, institutions, systems, ecologies and economies, largely using and regenerating local resources to meet changing needs of local populations while serving multiple goals and functions. Need and Significance Rapid urbanisation, population explosion and climate change increases the risk of food shortage – A 2017 study published in the International Journal on Emerging Technologies. 50 per cent of women and children in urban areas are anaemic due to lack of adequate nutrition – 2010 report by M S Swaminathan Research Foundation, Chennai. Both studies recommend urban agriculture Globally, in 2020, the UN Food and Agriculture Organization acknowledged that urban and peri urban farming can contribute to local food and nutritional needs, enable jobs and reduce poverty. Our cities already suffer from high population density, unaffordable housing, improper waste disposal, water scarcity most of the year and flooding during the rains, pollution and attendant illnesses, food and nutritional insecurity and urban poverty, among others. Indian scenario Noting the critical need for a paradigm shift in urban planning, 2022-23 budget speech announced the decision to set up a high-level committee to steer the required changes in urban policy, planning, capacity building and governance. Given the current context and future exigencies, this presents an opportune moment to critically engage with urban land-use planning (ULP), especially urban and peri-urban agriculture (UPA), as one of the essential elements of sustainable urbanisation. In 2008, Pune’s civic administration launched a city farming project to train and encourage people to take up farming on allocated land. Kerela had been food dependent until 2012 when the state government launched a vegetable development programme to encourage gardening in houses, schools, government, and private institutions. According to Kerala State Planning Board, vegetable production rose from 825,000 tonnes in 2011-12 to 1.3 million tonnes in 2014-15. Similarly, in 2014, the Tamil Nadu government introduced a “do-it-yourself” kit for city dwellers to grow vegetables on rooftops, houses and apartment buildings under its Urban Horticulture Development Scheme. Since 2021, Bihar encourages terrace gardening in five smart cities through subsidy for input cost. Challenges Absence in Planning – Agriculture, mostly associated with rural practice, hardly finds a place in urban planning guidelines. For instance, India’s Urban and Regional Development Plans Formulations and Implementation (URDPFI) guidelines mention agriculture while preparing city plan Policy lacunae – The recently released draft Master Plan of Delhi for 2041, does not acknowledge the role of the practice. It aims to divide 8,000 hectares of land along the Yamuna into two sub-zones and restrict human activity or settlement in areas directly adjacent to the river. Rapid development is a hindrance. Citing the example of Jaunti village in Delhi, where the Green Revolution began – It has become an ‘urban village’, making its land non-agricultural. Farmers cannot avail benefits under any agricultural schemes such as crop insurance. Environmental degradation – Excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides in urban farms can lower produce and soil quality. Scalability – Kitchen gardening or small-scale community farming cannot sustain the large population, but can act as a cushion to protect urban residents from inflation, vulnerabilities of weather or crises such as COVID-19 Suggestion for future Integration is key – While such initiatives are welcome, their impact cannot be expected to be widespread without a strong policy for urban farming. For instance, Pune’s 2008 initiative failed to take off due to poor interest from people and the government. Viability of urban agriculture. Farming in cramped urban spaces marred by water scarcity and pollution is not easy. A 2016 paper titled Future of Urban Agriculture in India by the Hyderabad-based Institute for Resource Analysis and Policy mentions that in Delhi, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad and Chennai, wastewater is directly or indirectly used for urban farming. Hydroponics, a method of soilless farming that uses nutrient solutions to sustain plants, offers a cleaner approach. Compared to commercial farming, hydroponics requires 90 per cent lesser water, which can be reused. One can grow more plants in the space given,” she says. However, she admits that markets for such initiatives are still niche and at a nascent stage. Prioritise estimation of waste management capacity, build infrastructure for it and regulate industrial installations to this capacity.  Adequate political will for financial inputs and enforcement of regulations will be essential for often fund-starved urban administrations and for curbing violations of environmental norms. International best practises As per World Economic Forum informs that Singapore is already producing almost 10 per cent of its food through rooftop farming while conventional farming is done only on 1 per cent of its land. Public spaces are landscaped to grow vegetables and fruits in raised beds, containers or vertical frames. These, besides generating income, also extend positive externalities to the neighbourhood through clean and green environment, nutrition and cultural connect To promote urban farming, governments must recognise informal practices and link them with agricultural schemes. Way forward; It is an appropriate time to introspect and transform the way we produce and consume. With climate change, there is a greater need for localising nourishment of humans to prevent starvation and overcome nutritional deficiency Apart from governments, citizens and professionals from the field of architecture, planning, agriculture, social sciences and private developers need to cross-learn and co-create productive green urbanism for a resilient future. Source: DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Recently in news, MISHTI scheme is related to which of the following Upliftment of marginalised sections like street vendors Upskilling minority communities to reduce industry-academia mismatch Mangrove plantation along the coastline None of the above Q.2) With reference to ‘Agriculture Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a scheme of Ministry of Finance It includes start-ups along with Self Help Groups (SHG) Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions about the privileges of members of the Parliament? Article 72 Article 105 Article 102 Article 211 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Spider Pulsar Systems Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Scientists have discovered the first gamma-ray eclipses from a special type of binary star system by using NASA’s Fermi Gamma-ray Space Telescope. About Spider Pulsar Systems: Spider pulsars got their name due to the similarity of customs with some species of spiders. They are formed from binary star systems in which one of the components is much more massive than the other. It evolves much faster, explodes like a supernova and turns into a neutron star. It is this super-dense object that begins to pull a matter from the companion that resembles the habits of spiders of the genus Latrodectus, in which the female eats the male after mating. Two varieties of binary systems containing pulsars were named after these arthropods. Black widows: Binary pulsar systems, in which the mass of a companion star is less than 5 % of the solar one. Redback: Binary pulsar systems, in which the mass of a companion star is from 10 to 50 % of the solar. About Fermi Gamma-ray Space Telescope (FGST): It is operated by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) FGST was formally known as formerly called the Gamma-ray Large Area Space Telescope (GLAST). It is a space observatory being used to perform gamma-ray astronomy observations from low Earth orbit. Its main instrument is the Large Area Telescope (LAT), with which astronomers mostly perform an all-sky survey studying astrophysical and cosmological phenomena such as active galactic nuclei, pulsars, other high-energy sources, and dark matter. Source: Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to  (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Economic Survey 2022-23 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance and Economy Context: The Union Finance Minister, recently tabled the Economic Survey for the Financial Year 2022-23, after the President’s address, on the first day of the Union Budget Session 2023-24. The Economic Survey said that India’s economic recovery from the pandemic is complete and the economy is expected to grow in the range of 6% to 6.8% in the coming financial year 2023-24. About Economic Survey: The Economic Survey is a detailed report of the state of the national economy in the financial year that is ending. It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor. Once prepared, the Survey is approved by the Finance Minister. The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget. For the longest time, the survey was presented in just one volume. Between 2010-11 and 2020-21, the survey was presented in two volumes. Economic Survey 2022 reverted back to a single volume format. Even though it comes just a day before the Budget, the assessment and recommendations carried in the survey are not binding on the Budget. About Chief Economic Advisor (CEA): The chief economic advisor, is equivalent to the rank of Secretary in the hierarchy, advises the government on economic matters. He scripts the Economic Survey of India which is presented in Parliament by the finance minister. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (2021) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks Increase in the banking habit of the people Increase in the population of the country Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Central Govt established three Grievance Appellate Committees based on the recently amended Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 (IT Rules, 2021). About Grievance Appellate Committees: It is a critical piece of overall policy and legal framework to ensure that the Internet in India is Open, Safe and Trusted and Accountable. The GAC will be a virtual Digital platform that will operate only online and digitally – wherein the entire appeal process, from filing of appeal to the decision thereof, shall be conducted digitally. The need for GAC was created due to large numbers of grievances being left unaddressed or unsatisfactorily addressed by Internet Intermediaries. To create a culture of responsiveness amongst all Internet Platforms and Intermediaries towards their consumers. Users will have the option to appeal against decision of the grievance officer of the social media intermediaries and other online intermediaries before this new appellate body. The Committee will endeavour to address the user’s appeal within a period of 30 days. The online platform will be operational in one month of this notification of the Grievance Appellate Committee, i.e. from 1st March 2023. Periodic reviews of GACs and reporting and disclosures of GAC orders will also be part of the process. Source:  PIB Pallas's Cat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: First time, Pallas’s cat has been discovered on Mount Everest in the Sagarmatha National Park in Nepal. About Pallas’s Cat: The Pallas’s cat (Otocolobus manul ), also known as the manul, is a small wild cat with long and dense light grey fur. Its rounded ears are set low on the sides of the head. It is well camouflaged and adapted to the cold continental climate in its native range, which receives little rainfall and experiences a wide range of temperatures. The Pallas’s cat has rounded rather than vertical slit pupils, a unique feature among small cats. It has been recorded across a large areal extent, albeit in widely spaced sites in the Caucasus, Iranian Plateau, Hindu Kush, parts of the Himalayas, Tibetan Plateau, Altai-Sayan region and South Siberian Mountains. It inhabits rocky montane grasslands and shrublands, where the snow cover is below 15–20 cm (6–8 in). It finds shelter in rock crevices and burrows, and preys foremost on lagomorphs and rodents. The female gives birth to between two and six kittens in spring. Conservation Status: IUCN: Least concern CITES: Appendix II About Sagarmatha National Park Sagarmatha is an exceptional area with dramatic mountains, glaciers and deep valleys, dominated by Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world (8,848 m) in the Solu-Khumbu district of Nepal. The park is home to several rare species such as the snow leopard and the red panda. A well-known destination for mountain tourism SNP was gazetted in 1976 and with over 2,500 Sherpa people living within the park has combined nature and culture since its inception. The carefully preserved natural heritage and the dramatic beauty of the high, geologically young mountains and glaciers were recognized by UNESCO with the inscription of the park as a world heritage site in 1979. Source Down To Earth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are  (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Finance Commission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government will soon kick off the process to set up the Sixteenth Finance Commission, with the Finance Ministry likely to notify the terms of references for the constitutional body, tasked with recommending the revenue sharing formula between the Centre and States and their distribution among States, towards the latter half of this year. About Finance Commission: The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. It is constituted by the President Article 280 of the Constitution, Its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism. Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability. The First Finance Commission was constituted vide Presidential Order under the chairmanship of Shri K.C. Neogy on 6th April 1952. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST), which has fundamentally redefined federal fiscal relations. Core Responsibilities: It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to— the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or maybe, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds; the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India; the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance. The Commission determines its procedure and has such powers in the performance of its functions as Parliament may by law confer on them. Source:                          The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (2017) It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only ACIC CBIT Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy In News: Dr. Chintan Vaishanv, Mission Director, Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog inaugurated ACIC-CBIT centre. ACIC-CBIT hosted the first Startup 20X event in the form of talks from four startup founders working in different areas ranging from infrastructural development, millet manufacturing, mental health and upskilling rural innovators. Startup Policy Forum called Startup 20X has been conceptualized to democratize the basis of startups and startup ecosystems around the world to have a say in the Global Startup Policy making. About ACIC CBIT Aim: ACIC-CBIT has been established with an aim to build a community innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem to nurture innovators and startups of unserved and underserved regions. ACIC believes and mandates the creation of a strong community innovation ecosystem to include expert mentors; access to infrastructural support such as maker space; funding facilitation; building capacities through training and mentoring. ACIC CBIT Foundation Sectoral Areas and Targeted SDGs: Sectoral Focus Areas Health-tech AI/ML/IoT Based Smart Engineering Products Renewable Energy & Environmental Sustainability Targeted SDGs: Good Health & Well-being (Goal 03 in UN SDGs) Industry Innovation & Infrastructure (Goal 09 in UN SDGs) Sustainable Cities and Communities (Goal 11 in UN SDGs) Startups and Innovators supported till date by ACIC-CBIT 37 innovators supported  Out of 37 start ups supported, 12 are female led About Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): AIM is the Government of India’s endeavor to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. Its objective is to serve as a platform for the promotion of world-class innovation hubs, grand challenges, start-up businesses, and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology-driven areas. Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) What does venture capital mean? (2014) A short-term capital provided to industries A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries Consumer price index – Industrial workers Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The All-India CPI-IW for December, 2022 decreased by 0.2 points and stood at 132.3 (one thirty two point three) points. On 1-month percentage change, it decreased by 0.15 per cent with respect to previous month compared to decrease of 0.24 per cent recorded between corresponding months a year ago. At centre level, Lucknow and Nasik recorded a maximum decrease of 1.9 points each. Faridabad recorded a maximum increase of 3.3 points followed by Nagpur and Tiruneveli with 3.0 and 2.4 points respectively. CPI-IW The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially important centres in the country. The index is compiled for 88 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month. Base year – 2016 The maximum downward pressure in current index came from Food & Beverages group contributing 0.52 percentage points to the total change. Year-on-year inflation for the month stood at 5.50 per cent compared to 5.41 per cent for the previous month and 5.56 per cent during the corresponding month a year before. Similarly, Food inflation stood at 4.10 per cent against 4.30 per cent of the previous month and 5.93 per cent during the corresponding month a year ago. Sources: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2020) The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Thalattosuchian Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: Scientists have uncovered a new thalattosuchian—an ancient “cousin” of modern-day crocodiles—which could be the oldest of its kind ever discovered. Thalattosuchian It is an ancient “cousin” of modern-day crocodiles—which could be the oldest of its kind ever discovered. The fossils uncovered on the Jurassic Coast in the United Kingdom include part of the head, backbone, and limbs of Turnersuchus hingleyae. Due to their relatively long, slender snouts, it is likely that they would have looked similar to the currently living gharial crocodiles. Gharial crocodiles are usually found in the major river systems of Northern India. Though thalattosuchians’ skulls looked similar to gharial crocodiles, they were constructed differently. The region of the skull housing jaw muscles was particularly large in the species, suggesting that they had enlarged jaw muscles that made fast bites possible. This would have been useful considering that most of their prey were probably fast-moving fish and cephalopods like squids and octopuses. The newly-discovered fossils of Turnersuchus hingleyae represent the only complete Thalattosuchian of its age and date back to the early Jurassic, Pliensbachian period, which was about 185 million years ago Thalattosuchians and other crocodile-like animals could have originated around 15 million years farther than Turnersuchus. No expedition has found Thalattosuchians in Triassic rockets yet, which means that there is a ghost lineage. This means there is a group that existed, but they do not yet have fossil evidence. Until the discovery of the latest fossil, this ghost lineage extended from the end of the Triassic period till the Toarcian period. But now, it has been reduced by a few million years. Source: Indian express NIPUN bharat mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: Two-day workshop for Samagra Shiksha, Kerala (SSK) Thiruvananthapuram district block resource centre (BRC) personnel in connection with implementation of the NIPUN Bharat Mission began at Neyyattinkar NIPUN bharat mission: Aim The NIPUN Bharat Mission, being implemented through the Samagra Shiksha aims at identifying the limitations in foundational reading skills with comprehension and writing and doing basic mathematical operations of students in Class 3 and addressing them About National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy mission under Ministry of Education The mission’s target is to ensure that every Class 3 student has foundational literacy and numeracy by the 2026-27 academic year. NIPUN Bharat focuses on transforming the monotonous education system into an integrated, enjoyable, all-inclusive and engaging. It instructs teachers or educators to prepare a study plan that develops the students’ literary and basic language skills. A district-level task force has been constituted to implement the mission successfully in the district and coordinate activities. Surveys carried out at the national level have found that children who were in Class 1 at the start of COVID-19 and are now in Class 3 experience learning gaps. Major initiatives Constitution of National Steering Committee for the implementation of NIPUN Bharat Mission Development of Vidya Pravesh Guidelines and Module for Grade I Launch of NISHTHA-FLN for teachers and school heads of preschool to Grade V Launch of NISHTHA ECCE for-master trainers/ resource persons for training of preschool teachers/Anganwadi workers Conduct of Foundational Learning Study (FLS) Creation of DIKSHA FLN portal for availability of FLN resources Conduct of 100 Days Reading Campaign Development of Guidelines for Parent Participation in Home-based Learning during School Closure and Beyond Dvelopment of Guidelines for Community Engagement in Foundational Learning; Training of Academic Task Force (ATF) and District Task Force Members (DTFs) National Conference on Initiatives in Foundational Learning: Voices from the Ground to exchange best practices, share status and understand challenges Continuous tracking and monitoring (monthly, quarterly, annually) of the mission implementation in all the states and UTs. Source The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Gender gap in education Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Women empowerment, GS 2 Development in social sectors Context: Crucial gains made in closing the gender gap across different undergraduate programmes suffered a setback in the pandemic year, according to the latest All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) released by the Education Ministry on Sunday. The number of women for every 100 men enrolled across different Bachelor’s programmes dropped in the academic year 2020-21. For instance, a year after the gender gap in BCom closed in 2019 — there were as many women as there were male students — the AISHE report for 2020-2021 showed that this gain was lost in the subsequent year that was marred by large-scale disruptions due to the pandemic. Positive Findings GER is a statistical measure to determine the number of students enrolled in undergraduate, postgraduate and research-level studies within the country and is expressed as a percentage of the population in the 18-23 years age group. The GER for women is more than the GER for men – a trend that has been on since 2017-18. Gender Parity Index (GPI), the ratio of female GER to male GER, has increased from 1 in 2017-2018 to 1.05 in 2020-21. At the postgraduate level, the only programme which has seen a hike in the number of women per 100 men is MCom – from 186 women in 2019 to 198 in 2020-21. Negative Findings From 100 women per 100 men who registered for the BCom programme in 2019, the enrollment for women fell to 94 for every 100 men in 2020 — a dip that takes the enrollment figures closer to what it was in 2016 (93 women per 100 male students). Similar drops were witnessed in other programmes too, including medicine where, from 110 women for every 100 men in MBBS in 2019-20, there are now 100 women in 2020-21. Other undergraduate programmes such as pharmacy, which came close to plugging the gender gap in 2019 — 93 women for 100 men — saw a drastic drop to 66 women in 2020-21. Undergraduate programmes such as nursing and education, which have traditionally had more women participation, also witnessed a significant fall in numbers for women – from 385 in nursing and 215 in education (for every 100 men) in 2019-20, to 308 and 185 women, respectively, in 2020-21. The gender gap in undergraduate programmes such as computer science, business administration, pharmacy, technology and law – which have always had a gender skew in favour of men – continues to be large. According to the latest survey, the total student enrollment in higher education went up from 3.85 crore in 2019 to about 4.13 crore in 2020-21, an increase of nearly 29 lakh. Out of the total enrolled, 51.3% or 2.12 crore are male and 48.7% are women. Overall, the Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education for the age group of 18 to 23 years is 27.3% as against 25.6 % in 2019-20. At the postgraduate level, too, the number of women pursuing business administration, science, technology and commerce has gone down in 2020-21 as compared to 2019-2020. Programmes like business administration and technology at the post-graduation level continue to be male bastions. During 2020-21, the number of universities increased by 70 and the number of colleges increased by 1,453. Significance of gender-balanced education Gender-equitable education systems can contribute to reductions in school-related gender-based violence and harmful practices, including child marriage and female genital mutilation. Education increases the likelihood that women will look after their own wellbeing along with that of their family. Educated women in rural areas are more likely to participate in decision-making and are less likely to suffer from domestic violence. Education gives women access to better economic opportunities, provides empowerment and enables women to have control over their lives and exert influence in society. Each extra year of a mother’s schooling reduces the probability of infant mortality by 5-10 per cent. Challenges Poverty means women and girls in many parts of the world are still forced to spend hours a day doing chores, fetching water and caring for relatives and boys sent over girls with limited funds Gender gap widens with progressive levels of education owing to greater barriers to schooling that girls face due to social norms and deeply ingrained gender stereotypes correlated with biological factors such as adolescence A tradition and culture of not valuing girls education Cultural notions about careers appropriate for women have traditionally held back their mobility Unsafe roads leading to schools, lack of sanitation facilities like toilets with running water in schools Lack of security in schools: Dramatically highlighted by Malala Yousafzai, shot by the Taliban on her way to school for speaking out about education rights, and the kidnapping this year of 276 school girls by the militant Islamist movement Boko Haram and the resulting Bring Back Our Girls campaign. Sexual violence and discrimination and are not allowed to continue school if they become pregnant or forced into child marriage. Lack of a regulatory framework, inadequate funding, poor quality and no legislation for universal access to early childhood education continue to serve as bottlenecks in India. Lack of female role models Suggestions Gender-transformative education in early childhood and gender equity is a guiding principle in the National Curriculum Framework. A multifaceted approach to creating gender-equal environments, an approach that includes policies and practices that help fathers be equal caregivers to their children, gender-equal programmes in schools and communities, and lots of fun, gender equal content for children. The WEF looked at four major verticals to assess gender gap in a country — economic participation, political participation, health and education levels. Longitudinal studies estimate that every dollar invested in ECE yields over a thousand dollars in return, proving that benefits outweigh costs by an incredible margin. The foundations for a right education must thus be established, not just by ensuring universal enrolment in early childhood education but by also focusing on how preschools impart an education that eliminates gender stereotypes and therefore, erases the gender gap. Government schemes Beti Bachao Beti Padhao – is a central government scheme that saves the girl child from social problems such as gender-based abortions and advance child education around the country. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana –  is a Government of India backed savings scheme designed for parents of girl children – to set up a trust for their child’s eventual schooling and marriage expenses. CBSE Udaan scheme for girls is implemented by the Central Board of Secondary Education, under the Ministry of Human Resources Development – to increase the student enrolment of girls in prestigious engineering and technical colleges across India. National Scheme of Incentive to Girls for Secondary Education – is a pan India scheme operated by the Department of Education and Education – for the benefit of girls in the disadvantaged classes of India. Once a qualifying student has been chosen, Rs. 3000 will be deposited as a fixed deposit on her behalf. This balance can be withdrawn with interest after the pupil has passed the class 10 exam and has reached the age of 18 years. Way forward Thirteen per cent of India’s population is between 0- 6 years old. If these children are exposed to gender-equal environments, they can potentially bring about significant change. Amartya Sen maintains that “if we continue to leave vast sections of the people of the world outside the orbit of education, we make the world not only less just, but also less secure”. Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Consumer price index – Industrial workers, consider the following statements It is released by Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance It considers 2001 as its base year for calculations Which of the following statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The word ‘Thalattosuchian’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to fossils of a kind of crocodile an early human species a cave system found in South India a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission of India: It is constituted by the President Article 279 of the Constitution. The First Finance Commission was constituted vide Presidential Order under the chairmanship of Shri N K Singh in 1952. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 1st February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 31st January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

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[OFFICIAL ANNOUNCEMENT] UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination Notification, 2023 Released – 1105 Vacancies

Dear Friends, To download the notification of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2023, CLICK BELOW LINK Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2023 Notification - DOWNLOAD How to Apply The process has completely changed from the previous years. Candidates must take note of this. Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at the One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in a lifetime. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway to filling up the online application for the examination. In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at the OTR platform. The online Applications can be filled up to 21st February 2023 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay the fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only). All female candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe/ Persons with Benchmark Disability categories are exempted from payment of the fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full. Complete details can be found in the Official Notification of UPSC  -> Click Here Points To Consider The OBC candidates applying for CSE-2023 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2019-2020, 2020-2021 and 2021-2022 and issued on/after 01.04.2022 (after the completion of FY 2021-22) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2023 i.e. 21st Feb 2023. A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of the requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on income for Financial Year (FY) 2021-2022 and issued on/after 01.04.2022 (after the completion of FY 2021-22) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2023 i.e. 21st Feb 2023. Age Limit General – 32 Years OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) – 35 Years SC/ST – 37 Years Number of Attempts (Subject to Age Limit) General- 6 OBC- 9 PwBD- 9 SC/ST- Unlimited Attempts Vacancies The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 1105 which includes 37 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting a firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. Scheme and subjects for the Preliminary examination The Examination shall comprise two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each. Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions) and each will be two hours in duration. The General Studies Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%. Paper I – (200 marks) Duration: Two hours Current events of national and international importance. History of India and Indian National Movement. Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization. General Science Paper II-(200 marks) Duration: Two hours Comprehension; Interpersonal skills including communication skills; Logical reasoning and analytical ability; Decision-making and problem-solving; General mental ability; Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. — Class X level)