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[DAY 28] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 28-> Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SLINEX-23 Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: Recently, the 10th edition of IN-SLN bilateral maritime exercise SLINEX-23 was scheduled to take place in Colombo. About SLINEX-23:- It is an India -Sri Lanka Bilateral Maritime Exercise. This is the 10th edition of the exercise. It is scheduled to take place in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Indian Navy is being represented by INS Kiltan. INS Kiltan: it is an indigenous Kamorta class ASW Corvette and INS Savitri: an Offshore Patrol Vessel. The Sri Lanka Navy is represented by SLNS Gajabahu and SLNS Sagara. MUST READ: India-Sri Lanka relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Jainism Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Mahavir Jayanti was celebrated recently. About Jainism:- IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – What is Jainism? PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:177736 (slideserve.com) The word Jain comes from the term Jina, meaning conqueror. According to Jain tradition, Mahavira was preceded by 23 Tirthankaras. The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated and even stones, rocks and water have life. According to Jain teachings, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma and asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world.  In order to do so, Jain monks and nuns had to take the five vows. Seven Tattvas (elements) of Jain Philosophy are:- Jiva: living substance Ajiva: matter or non-living substance Asrava:  an influx of Karmic matter in the soul Bandha: bondage of soul by Karmic matter Samvara: stopping of Asrava Nirjara: gradual removal of Karmic matter Moksha: attainment of perfect freedom or salvation Spread of Jainism:- Over hundreds of years, it spread to different parts of north India and to Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Literature:- Jain scholars produced a wealth of literature in a variety of languages namely Prakrit, Sanskrit and Tamil. Jain literature is classified into two major categories Agam Literature: This consists of original scriptures compiled by Ganadhars and Srut-Chehalis. They are written in the Prakrit language. Non-Agam Literature: This consists of commentary and explanation of Agam literature and independent works, compiled by elder monks, nuns, scholars, etc. These are written in many languages such as Prakrit, Sanskrit, Old Marathi, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Tamil, German and English. About Lord Mahavira:- Mahavira was born in the village Kundgrama near Vaishali in Bihar. His father Siddhartha was the head of the jnathrika Kshatriya clan under Vajji of Vaishali His mother Trishala was the sister of Chetaka, the king of Vaishali.  Mahavira was also related to Bimbisara, the ruler of Magadha. Mahavira was married to Yashoda. He had a daughter Anonja Priyadarshini whose husband Jamali, became the first disciple of Mahavira. At the age of 30, after the death of his father, he renounced his family, became an ascetic and proceeded in search of truth.  He was accompanied by Makkhali Gosala. Makkhali Gosala, later left him and founded the Ajivika sect. At the age of 42, under a sal tree at fab Jambhikagrama on the bank of river Rijupalika, Mahavira attained Kaivalya (supreme knowledge). He was called:-  Kevalin: perfect learned  Jina or Jitendriya: one who conquered his senses Nrigrantha: free from all bonds Arhant: the blessed one Mahavira: the brave and His followers were named Jain. He delivered his first sermon at Pava to his 11 disciples. Later, he founded a Jain Sangha (Jain commune) at Pava. At the Age of 72 in 468 BC, he passed away at Pavapuri near Biharsharif in Bihar. Principles of Jainism as Preached by Mahavira:- Rejected the authority of the Vedas and Vedic rituals Did not believe in the existence of God. Believed in Karma and the transmigration of the soul Laid great emphasis on equality. MUST READ:  Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: (2022) Historical person                     Known as Aryadeva                            Jaina scholar Dignaga                              Buddhist scholar Nathamuni                        Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched? None of the pairs Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs Nagri Dubraj Rice Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, Chhattisgarh’s Nagri Dubraj rice variety, Basohli Painting of Jammu, Banarasi Paan, and Langda mango were accorded the geographical indication tag. About Nagri Dubraj Rice:- It is known as the Basmati of Chhattisgarh because of its fragrance. It is produced by a women’s self-help group “Maa Durga Swasahayata Samuh“. The grain finds reference in Valmiki Ramayana. It is an indigenous variety and has small grains, is very soft to eat after cooking. About Basohli Painting:- IMAGE SOURCE: Basohli Paintings of the Rasamanjari | Exotic India Art Basohli painting belongs to the Kathua district of Jammu. It belongs to the Pahari School of Paintings.  It has a unique style of miniature paintings that have a fusion of mythology and traditional folk art. The characteristic features of these paintings were the use of bright and bold colours like red, yellow, and blue in the borders, as well as for the generally flat background. The other distinguishing part was the facial features- a prominent nose and lotus-shaped eyes. The female figures can be categorised into three types according to their attire. About Banarasi Paan:- It is made in Banaras, UP. It is known for its delicious taste. It is made using special ingredients in a unique way. It is an exotic combination of areca nuts, catechu (kattha) of fresh betel leaf, tobacco, and slaked lime. Other ingredients like rose petals (gulkand), silver foil (Parekh) etc. are added to it. About Langda mango:- Langra aam is believed to have originated in Banaras (now Varanasi). It maintains its green colour after it gets ripe, while other mangoes change into yellow-reddish colour. This pulpy fruit is cultivated in mid-season in states including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Punjab, West Bengal and Rajasthan About GI Tag:- It is used for products which have specific geographical origins or have qualities that can be attributed specifically to the region. The GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, of 1999. It is a part of the intellectual property rights that comes under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (2021) Sugarcane Sunflower Pearl millet Red gram Amogha-III Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the indigenous Anti Tank Guided Missile, Amogha-III tests were announced as successful. About Amogha-III:- IMAGE SOURCE: Defence Decode® on Twitter: “AMOGHA-III ATGM by India’s #BDL https://t.co/4G4fRbQQFD” / Twitter Amogha-III is an indigenous missile. It is developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). It has a fire-and-forget capability. Fire-and-forget capability: meaning it does not require external intervention after launch. The missile features dual-mode Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker systems with a range of 200 to 2500 meters. It showcases a tandem warhead, consisting of two separate explosive charges that are detonated in sequence. The first charge, known as the precursor charge, penetrates the target’s armour, creating a hole.  The second charge or the main charge then detonates inside, maximizing damage inflicted on the target. One of the unique features of the missile is it has both top and direct attack modes. MUST READ: Helina Missile SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the NFRA has pulled up a section of India Inc, including “a large listed firm”, for not complying with Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS). About The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):- It was constituted in 2018 under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is an independent regulator. It works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Objective: to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. Composition:- Chairperson: a Chartered Accountant and a person of eminence having expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance or the law (appointed by the Central Government) and a maximum of 15 members. Functions and Duties:- It recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government. It monitors and enforces compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards It oversees the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggests measures for improvement in the quality of service. Powers:- It has the same powers as the Civil Court. To debar the member/firm from practice as a member of ICAI between 6 months to 10 years as may be decided. To investigate matters of professional or other misconduct. Jurisdiction:- Companies listed in India Unlisted Companies whose: Net worth ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or Paid up Capital ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or Annual turnover ≥ Rs. 1000 crore (As on 31st March of the preceding financial year); OR Companies whose securities are listed outside India. MUST READ: Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Indian Government slammed OIC for its comments on the Ram Navami violence recently. About the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):- IMAGE SOURCE: What is the Organization of the Islamic Cooperation? – Answers (mapsofworld.com) It was established upon a decision of the historical summit which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of Morocco in 1969. Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN). It has a membership of 57 states. Objectives:- It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world. It aims to promote international peace and harmony among various people of the world. India is not a member of the OIC. MUST READ: India-UAE and FTA SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the importance of developing the Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India Q.2) Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as the ‘Arab Spring’ originally started in (2014) Egypt Lebanon Syria Tunisia Direct Taxes Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Gross Direct Tax collections for the Financial Year 2022-23 registered a growth of over 20 per cent. About Direct Taxes:- A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer. It is paid directly to the government by those who are subjected to it. The Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and collecting direct taxes as well as formulating other direct tax policies. Examples of Direct Tax: Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital Gain Tax etc. Advantages of Direct Tax:- Economic Balance: The tax rate is set according to the country’s economic position. Ensures equality: Individuals and businesses with larger profits must pay higher taxes. Gives Certainty: The direct tax provides both the government and the taxpayers with a sense of certainty because the amount of tax that must be paid and collected is known to both the taxpayer and the government. During periods of high inflation, the government raises taxes in order to limit the demand for goods and services, resulting in a fall in inflation. It ensures that the government is held accountable. Disadvantages of Direct Tax:- It can be easily evaded. Taxes are set arbitrarily by the Finance Minister if they are progressive. High taxes disincentivize people from saving and investing, causing the country’s economy to suffer. Paying direct taxes is quite inconvenient. MUST READ: Tax-GDP ratio SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? (2020) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of the war of GDP of the State 2 Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Project Tiger Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Bandipur completed 50 years as Project Tiger Reserve. About Project Tiger:- The Indira Gandhi government launched Project Tiger in 1973 from the Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand. The tiger is a globally endangered species. India had a tiger population ranging from 20000 to 40000 at the turn of the twentieth century. A group of conservationists and researchers applied sustained pressure on the Indian government around 1970. As a result, the Wildlife Protection Act was drafted in 1972, effectively ending all hunting in India and legally protecting individual species. In 1973, Project Tiger was launched.  Dr. Kailash Sankhla was named the first Director of Project Tiger in India. About Bandipur Tiger Reserve:- It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger.  In 1985, by including adjacent areas from Venugopala Wildlife Park, it was enlarged and named as Bandipur National Park. It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka. It is located in the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It lies in one of the richest biodiversity areas of the country. It is surrounded by Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South-west & The Kabini Reservoir separates the Bandipur and Nagarahole Tiger Reserve on the North-west. The park is located between the Kabini River in the north and the Moyar River in the south. The Nugu River runs through the park. The highest point in the park is on a hill called Himavad Gopalaswamy Betta. MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, the such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Competition Amendment Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, Rajya Sabha passed the Competition Amendment Bill, 2023. The bill seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002 which regulates competition in the Indian market and prohibits anti-competitive practices such as cartels, mergers and acquisitions that may have an adverse effect on competition. About Competition Act, 2002: The Competition Act, 2002, regulates competition in the Indian market and prohibits anti-competitive practices such as cartels, abuse of dominant market position, and mergers and acquisitions that may have an adverse effect on competition. The Act has been amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Act. The Competition Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body created in accordance with the Competition Act, 2002 to hear and regulate on appeals against any rules made, decisions made, or orders made by the Competition Commission of India. The government replaced the Competition Appellate Tribunal with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017. Amendments: Penalties: The Bill seeks to defines ‘turnover’ for the purpose of penalty as global turnover derived from all the products and services by a person or an enterprise The idea is to levy a penalty as a percentage of global turnover of the offending company, moving away from the current practice of levying a part of the local or relevant market turnover as penalty. Decriminalisation: The Bill decriminalises certain offences under the Act by changing the nature of punishment from imposition of fine to civil penalties. These offences include failure to comply with orders of the CCI and directions of the Director General related to anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position. Expands CCI’s Scope: The new provisions expand the scope of CCI’s merger regulation by bringing deals worth more than Rs. 2,000 crore requiring regulatory clearance. Settlement Mechanism: The amendment introduces a scheme for commitment and settlement which is meant to reduce litigation by way of negotiated settlements. This scheme is available to cases of anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominance, but not to cartels. Reducing US monetary Policy Influence: By reducing the use of the US dollar, countries can reduce the influence of US monetary policy on their own economies. Significance: Enhancing Transparency: The inclusion of global turnover in the definition of “turnover” aims to enhance transparency and accountability in the Indian market. The amendment ensures that companies cannot escape penalties for competition law violations by shifting their revenue to other countries. Promoting Ease of Doing Business: The amendments to the Competition Act aim to reduce regulatory hurdles and promote ease of doing business in India. The amendments are expected to provide greater clarity to businesses operating in India and reduce the compliance burden for companies. Way Forward: India should focus on promoting free and fair competition by focusing on competitive neutrality i.e. creating level playing field between all private and public sectors and gradual opening of sectors such as mining, ports, railways, and electricity towards true competition. The recent government initiatives to introduce limited privatisation of Indian Railways by introducing 109 pairs of routes for private train operations for passenger train services indicate India’s growing realization of the importance of introducing competition in the public sector. Source: NewsOnAir National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Government has given full exemption from basic customs duty on all drugs  and food for special medical purposes imported for personal use for treatment of all Rare Diseases listed under the National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021. The exemption has been granted by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) by substituting “Drugs, Medicines or Food for Special Medical Purposes (FSMP)” instead of “drugs or medicines”. Source:   The Hindu About Rare Diseases: Rare diseases (also called “Orphan” diseases) are broadly defined as diseases that infrequently occur in a population and three markers are used (the total number of people with the disease, its prevalence, and the availability/non-availability of treatment options). The World Health Organisation (WHO) defines a rare disease as having a frequency of less than 6.5-10 per 10,000 people. Example: Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSD), Pompe disease, cystic fibrosis, muscular dystrophy, spina bifida, haemophilia etc. About 95% rare diseases have no approved treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive disease-specific treatment. National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 It categories ‘rare disease’ into three groups: Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment. Group-2: Diseases requiring long term/lifelong treatment having relatively lower cost of treatment and benefit has been documented in literature and annual or more frequent surveillance is required. Group 3:- Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. The government would notify selected Centres of Excellence at premier government hospitals for comprehensive management of rare diseases. Provision for financial support of up to Rs. 50 lakhs to the patients suffering from any category of the Rare Diseases and for treatment in any of the Centre of Excellence (CoE) mentioned in NPRD-2021, outside the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi. In order to receive financial assistance for treatment of rare disease, the patient of the nearby area may approach the nearest Centre of Excellence to get him assessed and avail the benefits. Eight (08) Centres of Excellence (CoEs) have been identified for diagnosis, prevention and treatment of rare diseases. Five Nidan Kendras have been set up for genetic testing and counselling services. Preventive measures adopted by the policy The preventive measures adopted by the National Policy for Rare Diseases are as follows: Preventing birth of an affected child. Prenatal Screening Prenatal Screening by invasive testing New born screening Early postnatal diagnosis and treatment Constitutional Provisions in the context of the new policy for rare diseases Article 38 says that the state will secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. Providing affordable healthcare is one of the ways to promote welfare. Article 41 imposes duty on state to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement etc. Article 47 makes it the duty of the State to improve public health, securing of justice, human condition of works, extension of sickness, old age, disablement and maternity benefits and also contemplated. Challenges to be addressed by the policy The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, will address the following challenges: The research and development for majority of rare diseases is less as very little is known about pathophysiology of these diseases. The patient pool of rare diseases is less. Lack of availability and accessibility of medicines to rare diseases. Cost of treatment of rare disease is highly expensive. Way Forward: There is an immediate need to create awareness amongst the general public, patients & their families and doctors, training of doctors for early and accurate diagnosis. As resources are limited and have multiple uses, the policy makers have to make a choice of prioritizing certain set of interventions over others. There should be policy measures for supporting R&D and drug development for rare diseases. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements and Identify the tiger reserve: It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger. It is located in the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Mudumalai tiger reserve Bandipur tiger reserve Kaval tiger reserve Sathyamangalam tiger reserve Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following: Income Tax Service Tax Minimum Alternate Tax Capital Gain Tax Which of the above are examples of direct taxes? 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: GI Tag item and State Basohli Painting – Bihar Nagri Dubraj Rice – Odisha Langda mango – Uttar Pradesh How many pair/s given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 27] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 27-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gir calf and breed Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, India’s first cloned desi Gir female calf, Ganga was produced at NDRI. About Gir calf and breed:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE NEW MACDONALD PHARM | SCQ (ubc.ca) This breed is otherwise known as Desan, Gujarati, Kathiawari, Sorthi, and Surati. It originated in the Gir forests of South Kathiawar in Gujarat. It derives its name from the Gir forest, which is the natural habitat of the breed. Gir cattle is a dairy cattle breed and is mainly raised for milk production in India. Under a project by National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal to work on cloning of indigenous cow breeds such as Gir and Sahiwal, India’s first cloned Gir female calf named ‘Ganga’. Distribution:- The native tract of Gir cattle is the Gir hills and forests of Kathiawar. It includes the Amreli, Bhavnagar, Junagadh and Rajkot districts of Gujarat. The breed is also known as Bhodali, Gujarati, Sorthi, Surti, Kathiawari and Desan. Export:- Gir cattle are also very popular outside India. United States, Mexico, Venezuela and Brazil have imported this breed. Process:- To clone the Gir, oocytes are isolated from live animals using ultrasound-guided needles, and then, matured for 24 hours under control conditions. The somatic cells of elite cows are used as donor genomes, which are fused with OPU-derived enucleated oocytes. Following chemical activation and in-vitro culture, the developed blastocysts are transferred into recipient mothers to deliver the Gir calf. About National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI):- ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is located in Karnal, Haryana. It is one of the premier Institutes in the dairy sector. It has played a crucial role in India’s development in milk production with its continuous research. The Institute has the distinction of being a Deemed University for implementing its academic programmes since 1989. The Institute provides high-quality education in the field of dairying, which has no parallel in Asia The Institute has been ranked first among all Agricultural Universities of India including 4 Deemed Universities consecutively three times in the years 2016-17, 2017-18 and 2018-19. The Institute has also conferred the ‘Sardar Patel Outstanding ICAR Institute award’ in 2014. It was awarded Agriculture Leadership Award 2013 for setting up a benchmark in dairy research by contributing to research efforts to augment milk productivity, value addition, quality and safety of milk and economic and marketing aspects related to dairying. Prior to this, the Institute also received Education Leadership Award in recognition of the talent and leadership among educational institutes across India. MUST READ: New Breeds of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperm of a prospective parent. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (2020) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells Development of stem cells into functional embryos Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring Institute of Cost Accountants of India Syllabus Prelims –Economy (Important Institutions) Context: Recently, the Delhi HC restrained the Institute of Cost Accountants of India from using the ICAI acronym. About the Institute of Cost Accountants of India:- It was first established in 1944 as a registered company under the Companies Act. Objectives: the objects of promoting, regulating and developing the profession of Cost Accountancy. In May 1959, the Institute was established by a special act of Parliament, namely, the Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959 as a statutory professional body. The Institute of Cost Accountants of India is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy. Cost Accountant: a person who offers to perform or perform services involving the costing or pricing of goods and services or the preparation, verification or certification of cost accounting and related statements. The head office is situated in Kolkata. Objectives of the Institute:- To develop the Cost and Management Accountancy function as a powerful tool of management control in all spheres of economic activities. To promote and develop the adoption of scientific methods in cost and management accountancy. To develop the professional body of members. To keep abreast of the latest developments in cost and management accounting principles To exercise supervision for the entrants to the profession  To ensure strict adherence to the best ethical standards by professionals. To organise seminars and conferences on subjects of professional interest. To carry out research and publication activities covering various economic spheres. Publishing of books and booklets for spreading information of professional interest. MUST READ: Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Britain agreed to join the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP). About the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP):- IMAGE SOURCE: The Trade File – Cosmetics Alliance Canada CPTPP is a free trade agreement (FTA) that was agreed upon in 2018 between 11 countries. These include Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam. It does not have a single market for goods or services, unlike the European Union. The CPTPP incorporates, by reference, the provisions of the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) agreement, with the exception of a number of provisions pertaining mainly to intellectual property and investor-state dispute settlement, whose application will be suspended once the CPTPP comes into force. Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) agreement : It was originally concluded by 12 countries. These include Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States and Vietnam. It was signed in 2016, by all 12 parties. In January 2017, the United States notified TPP signatories of its intention to not ratify the TPP, effectively withdrawing from the TPP. Significance:- CPTPP is helping to create jobs and strengthen economic relations. It is an ambitious and high-standard free trade agreement covering virtually all aspects of trade and investment. The agreement features ambitious market-access commitments in trade in goods, services, investment, labour mobility and government procurement.  The agreement also establishes clear rules that help create a consistent, transparent and fair environment.  It covers virtually all sectors and aspects of trade in order to eliminate or reduce barriers. MUST READ: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known (2020) G20 ASEAN SCO SAARC Kala-azar Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, IACS’s novel compound was found to be treating drug-resistant kala-azar infections. About Kala-azar:- IMAGE SOURCE: Kala-Azar: Oral Nano Medicine (10pointer.com) It is caused by the protozoa parasite Leishmania. It is one of the three conditions in the disease group called leishmaniasis. It is a Neglected Tropical Disease. It is the second-largest parasitic killer in the world after Malaria. It is a zoonotic infection transmitted by the sand fly, a blood-sucking pest, found in moist (humid) mud and sand and close to livestock. The parasite is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly. This type of leishmaniasis affects the internal organs, usually the spleen, liver and bone marrow. The parasite primarily infects the reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in bone marrow, spleen and liver. Symptoms:- Some people have no symptoms.  For others, symptoms may include fever, weight loss and swelling of the spleen or liver. Treatment:- Medication exists to kill the parasites.  If left untreated, severe cases are typically fatal. Up to 20% of the patients who are correctly treated and cured, develop a skin condition called Post-Kala-Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) which surfaces within months to years after treatment. These patients can contain large amounts of parasites in their skin lesions, making them an important source of transmission. Initiatives of governments of India to Eliminate this Disease:- Development of a plan for the “unreached poorest” or underprivileged sections in endemic areas. Leveraging of Kala-azar elimination programme within POSHAN Abhiyaan for maximum benefit at the community level. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under the flagship program of the Prime Minister Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), along with rural electrification, testing, treatment and periodic high-level review, incentivising through award distribution. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under State Schemes. Involvement of Rural Health Practitioners (RHPs). Coordination with the rural development department and engage with Panchayati Raj functionaries for awareness, community engagement, environment management and social empowerment. Supporting the states in active case detection, surveillance, and treatment as well as supply of diagnostic kits, medicines, and sprays. MUST READ: Marburg Viral Disease Outbreak SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2017) Genetic predisposition of some people. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases. Using antibiotics in livestock farming. Multiple chronic diseases in some people. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 and 3 only 1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Eravikulam National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Eravikulam National Park got a terrarium inside its premises. About Eravikulam National Park:- IMAGE SOURCES: Map showing the situation of Eravikulam National Park and Parambikulam… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It is located in the Eravikulam and Idukki districts of Kerala It is located in the High Ranges (Kannan Devan Hills). It hosts South India’s highest peak, Anamudi. It is famous for Nilgiri Tahr. Another speciality of Eravikulam national park is the Neelakurinji flower that blooms every 12 years. In 1975 the government declared the region as Eravikulam Wildlife Sanctuary. In 1978 the region was declared a National park. Vegetation: Grasslands, Shrub Land, and Shola Forests are the three major plant species present. It serves as a catchment area for both east-flowing rivers (tributaries of the Pambar) and west-flowing rivers (tributaries of the Periyar and Chalakkudy). Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Indian muntjac, gaur and sambar deer are the other animals found in the national park. Flora:   The Park contains three major types of plant communities namely grasslands, shrublands, and woods. About Ferns:- A fern is a member of a group of vascular plants. Vascular plants: plants with xylem and phloem. They reproduce via spores. They have neither seeds nor flowers. They have specialized tissues that conduct water and nutrients and in having life cycles in which the sporophyte is the dominant phase. They have complex leaves called megaphylls. Significance:- They are used for food, medicine, and as biofertilizers. They are used as ornamental plants and for remediating contaminated soil. They have been the subject of research for their ability to remove some chemical pollutants from the atmosphere. Some fern species, such as bracken (Pteridiumaquilinum) and water fern (Azollafiliculoides) are significant weeds worldwide.  Some fern genera, such as Azolla, can fix nitrogen and make a significant input to the nitrogen nutrition of rice paddies. They also play certain roles in folklore. MUST READ: Silent Valley National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 3, 5 and 6 only 2, 4, 5 and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 GSAT-7B satellite Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the defence ministry signed a ₹3,000-crore contract with NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) for the GSAT-7B satellite. About GSAT-7B satellite:- It is a communication satellite. It is a part of the GSAT-7 series. It is the first-ever in the five-tonne category that will be designed indigenously by the ISRO. GSAT 7 series satellites are advanced communication satellites developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to meet the communication needs of the defence services. The GSAT 7B will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army. It is a geostationary satellite. It will considerably enhance the communication capability of the Indian Army. MUST READ: OneWeb Satellites SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Krishi Udan Scheme Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Minister of State for Civil Aviation Gen.V K Singh talked about the Krishi Udan Scheme in the Rajya Sabha. About Krishi UDAN Scheme:- It was launched in August 2020, on international and national routes.  Objective: to assist farmers in transporting agricultural products so that it improves their value realisation. The scheme aims to ensure seamless, cost-effective, time-bound air transportation and associated logistics for all Agri-produce originating especially from Northeast, hilly and tribal regions of the country. It is a convergence scheme. It includes eight Ministries/Departments. These are namely the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region would leverage their existing schemes to strengthen the logistics for transportation of Agri-produce. There is no specific budget allocation under Krishi Udan Scheme. Implementing Agency:- The enhanced version of the Krishi UDAN scheme was formulated with support from AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited (AAICLAS) – AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited (AAICLAS): a 100% subsidiary of the Airports Authority of India and Invest India, India’s national Investment Promotion & Facilitation Agency It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry MUST READ: Krishi UDAN 2.0 and  Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Anganwadi Services Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Women and Child Development Ministry informed the Parliament on the contribution of the MGNREGA  scheme to the  building of Anganwadi centres. About Anganwadi Centres: Anganwadi is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the States / UTs which serves as a rural child and maternal care centre in India. It was started by the Government of India In 1975 as part of the Integrated Child Development Services program to combat child hunger and malnutrition. Anganwadi centres provide a package of six services: supplementary nutrition, pre-school non-formal education, immunisation, health check-up, nutrition and health education, and referral services. The beneficiaries under the Anganwadi Services Scheme are identified on the basis of Aadhaar. Significance of Anganwadi scheme: Affordable and accessible healthcare: Today in India, about 2 million Anganwadis workers are reaching out to a population of 70 million women, children and sick people, helping them become and stay healthy. Anganwadi workers are the most important and soft-ignored essential link of Indian healthcare. Eradicating Malnourishment: One-third of the world’s stunted children live in India. Anganwadis are integral for the success of ICDS programme that caters to the nutrition, health and pre-education needs of children till six years of age as well as the health and nutrition of women and adolescent girls. Local Connect & Community Mobilisation: Anganwadi workers have the advantage over the physicians living in the same rural area, which gives them insight into the state of health in the locality and assists in identifying the cause of problems and in countering them. Ensuring Access to Government Programmes: Anganwadi workers are India’s primary tool against the menace of child malnourishment, infant mortality, and lack of child education, community health problems and in curbing preventable diseases. These community health workers have been point-persons for rural communities to access key health services and benefits. Health Crisis Management: With little training and immense risk, they went to households to spread awareness on COVID-19 as well as carry out tasks like contract tracing. Challenges Faced by Anganwadis: Lack of Skill Set:-Despite being the major source of nutrition advice, Anganwadis staff may be lacking in technical skills. Knowledge of critical health behaviours such as complementary feeding and handwashing was poor among mothers listed as Anganwadis workers. Lack of Resources: Anganwadi personnel frequently lack the resources or training necessary to deliver ECCE. Lack of Time: Administrative obligations consume a large amount of time, and fundamental services such as pre-school education suffer as a result. Lack of Infrastructure: Infrastructure is frequently lacking in Anganwadis. According to NITI Aayog, only 59% of Anganwadis had enough seating for children and employees, and more than half were unsanitary. Issues in Urban Areas: According to NFHS-4 statistics, the use of early childcare services at Anganwadis in urban regions is just 28 percent, compared to 42 percent in rural areas. Govt measures taken for Strengthening of Anganwadis: Convergence with MNREGA : the government has taken up Construction of 4 lakh AWC buildings across the country under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in convergence with Anganwadi Services (ICDS Scheme). Mobile Phones: Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) have been provided with Smart Phones for efficient service delivery. Streamlined guidelines were issued covering several aspects such as quality assurance, roles and responsibilities of duty holders, procedure for procurement, integrating AYUSH concepts and Data management Increased Training: the Ministry has formulated a comprehensive training strategy for the functionaries of Anganwadi Services. Training is imparted to the functionaries on a regular basis. Anganwadi Workers are provided job training for 26 working days. During this job training, the knowledge, understanding and skills of Anganwadi Workers on various Acts, Policies, Programmes related to women and children, setting up vibrant Anganwadi Centres and conducting Early Childhood Care and Education activities, . ICT Integration: a robust ICT enabled platform named Poshan tracker has been designed to capture real-time data on implementation and monitoring of Anganwadi Services across the country. The Poshan Tracker management application provides a 360 – degree view of the activities of the Anganwadi Centre (AWC), service deliveries of Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) and complete beneficiary management. Way Forward: AWCs play an important role in improving basic child learning and health needs for the poor people and help the government to implement its various programs especially related to child and women development. The steps like Saksham Abhiyan and technological up-gradation by states like Gujarat are positive steps but not sufficient considering issues AWCs are grappling with. Hence, the government must resolve the issues and improve the functioning of AWCs through better schemes and adhering to recommendations of think tanks like NITI AYOG. Source:  The Hindu Additional Information: Integrated Child Development Services Launched on 2nd October, 1975, Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) is the only major national program that addresses the needs of children under the age of six years. It seeks to provide young children with an integrated package of services such as supplementary nutrition, health care and pre-school education. The scheme is under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Integrated Child Development Services is Centrally-Sponsored and will provide the following six services to the beneficiaries: Supplementary Nutrition (SNP) Health & Nutrition Check-Up Immunization Non-Formal Education for Children in Pre-School Health and Nutrition Education Referral services Changes in UPI Transaction Fees: Impact on Your Wallet Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has allowed prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) to be part of the interoperable Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ecosystem. The NPCI has recently introduced interchange fees of up to 1.1 per cent on merchant UPI transactions done using prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) from April 1, 2023. Key highlights of the changes: Applicability: The new NPCI guidelines on wallet interoperability establish interchange fee for wallet usage, which will be paid to issuers of wallets such as Paytm, PhonePe and Google Pay, among others. They also include charges for UPI-wallet-loading that will be paid by wallet issuers to remitter banks or the bank accounts from which the amount is being debited. Benefit for wallet players: The inter-operability norms will enable universal acceptance of wallets across all UPI QR codes and devices, thus increasing the salience or relevance of wallets. It will also ensure uniformity and parity by clearly defining the interchange fees on wallet payments as against the current practice of bilateral agreements between wallet issuers and payment platforms. Interchange fees: The interchange rates vary according to merchant category codes, in the range of 0.5 per cent to 1.1 per cent. Categories such as fuel, education, agriculture and utility payments attract a lower interchange of 0.5-0.7 per cent; convenience stores across food shops, specialty retail outlets and contractors, have the highest charge of 1.1 per cent. Wallet transactions: The interchange fees are paid by merchants to wallets or card issuers and are usually absorbed by merchants. Smaller merchants and shopkeepers are unlikely to be impacted as it is applicable only on payments of over Rs. 2,000. MDR or merchant discount rate is applicable on wallets-on-UPI in certain cases and this move may lead to higher MDRs imposed on merchants, depending on payment companies’ ability and willingness to pass on the interchange. Impact on Customers: The norms are expected to increase the appeal, scope, role and usability of wallets as they can now be used to make UPI payments across QR codes and devices, increasing payments alternatives for customers. Consumers will also be able to load their wallets from anywhere including credit or debit cards, BNPL (Buy Now Pay Later) and net banking, among others, thus creating a mechanism to use any instruments for UPI transactions, albeit directly or indirectly. Currently, MDR for bank-to-bank UPI transactions is zero. About Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs): PPIs are instruments that facilitate purchase of goods and services, conduct of financial services, enable remittance facilities, etc., against the value stored therein. Prepaid payment instruments’ examples include smart cards, online accounts, online wallets, stripe cards, paper vouchers, etc. The primary objective of these instruments is to get access to the amount already prepaid. So, one can purchase the required goods without any physical exchange of cash or card. Digital Transactions in India Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Digital Economy & Digital Payment Division has been entrusted with the responsibility of leading this initiative on “Promotion of Digital Transactions including Digital Payments”. MeitY is coordinating with multiple stakeholders including Banks, Payment Service Providers, Central Ministries/Departments and States/UTs, for promotion of digital payments across the country. Major digital payment modes: Bharat Interface for Money-Unified Payments Interface (BHIM-UPI), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) have undergone significant growth in the last five years. Coordinated efforts of the Government with all stakeholders have led to a significant growth in digital payments, as given below: Significance of digital payments: Enhanced financial inclusion: Digital payments offer anytime, anywhere access to accounts, making it easy for citizens to receive and make payments using their phones. Recently launched UPI 123PAY enables feature phone users to make digital transactions through UPI in assisted voice mode, facilitating digital transactions and financial inclusion in rural areas. Instant and convenient mode of payment: Digital modes like BHIM-UPI and IMPS enable instantaneous transfer of money to the beneficiary account. BHIM-UPI has enabled access to multiple bank accounts in a single mobile app. Improved speed and timely delivery: Digital payments can be virtually instantaneous, regardless of the sender and receiver’s location. National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) system: The NETC system enables electronic payments at toll plazas using Radio Frequency Identification technology. Increased transparency in government system: Benefits are directly transferred to the target beneficiary account through digital modes of payments, eliminating leakage and ghost recipients. Bharat Bill Payment System: The BBPS provides an interoperable and easily accessible bill payment service to consumers via multiple channels like Internet banking, mobile banking, mobile apps, BHIM-UPI, etc. Challenges of digital transactions: Digital illiteracy: A significant portion of the population, especially in rural areas, may not be familiar with digital payment systems and may face difficulties in using them. Security concerns: Digital payments can be vulnerable to cyber threats and frauds. Malicious actors can steal sensitive financial information and make unauthorized transactions. Connectivity issues: Digital transactions require a stable internet connection, which may not be available in all areas. This can cause delays and disruptions in the payment process. Technical glitches: Technical glitches can occur during digital transactions, leading to failed transactions or incorrect transfers. Transaction fees: Some digital payment systems may charge transaction fees, which can discourage people from using them. Dependence on technology: Over Reliance on digital payment systems can make people vulnerable to disruptions in case of technical failures or system outage. Limited acceptance: Not all merchants and service providers may accept digital payments, particularly in remote areas. Way Forward: The digital payment landscape in India has been transformed and India has emerged as a leader in the creation of digital assets, which can serve as an example to many other nations.  The Government of India needs to make more efforts to help India attain the status of one of the most efficient payments markets in the world. There is a need for regulatory intervention to explore alternative payment methods, such as digital wallets and UPI, which offer lower transaction fees. Overall, the benefits of digital transactions outweigh the challenges, and as technology continues to evolve, we can expect to see further innovation in the payments landscape. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Krishi Udan Scheme: The scheme aims to ensure seamless, cost-effective, time-bound air transportation and associated logistics for all Agri-produce in the country. It is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The Eravikulam National Park is located in Tamil Nadu Kerala Goa Odisha Q.3) Consider the following countries: Australia Canada USA Malaysia Russia Which of the above are part of the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)? 1 3 and 5 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 3 4 and 5 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 26-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Kangra tea Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the European Commission grants a GI tag for Himachal’s Kangra tea. About Kangra tea:- In 1849, Dr Jameson, then superintendent of the Botanical Tea Gardens, pronounced the region ideal for tea cultivation.  Being one of India’s smallest tea regions makes Kangra green and black tea all the more exclusive.  While the black tea has a sweet lingering aftertaste, the green tea has a delicate woody aroma. It is hand-plucked and processed with traditional methods to bring out its full potential. It is exported to Kabul and Central Asia via Peshawar. Kangra tea is a registered Geographical Indication (GI). Tea Attributes: The first flush of Kangra tea is known for its quality, unique aroma and tinge of fruity flavour. A little milder than Darjeeling tea in terms of flavour. It has more body and liquor. Elevation: Teas are grown at elevations ranging from 900 to 1400 metres above sea level. Annual Rainfall: 270 to 350cm. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 has been notified. About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Apply Post Office and Bank – Sarkari Yojana – TheHowPedia It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of Independence.  It will be made available for a two-year period up to March 2025. It will be under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years. The deposit can be made in the name of a woman or a girl child. The maximum deposit amount has been kept at ₹2 lakhs and the scheme will have a partial withdrawal facility as well. Eligibility:- Application for opening an account under the scheme can be made by a woman for herself or by the guardian on behalf of a minor girl. Deposit limit:- Any number of MSSC accounts can be opened by a woman, or in the name of a minor girl by the guardian, subject to the maximum limit of Rs 2 lakh. Interest Rate:- The Government has notified 7.5% interest on deposits in an MSSC account. The interest will be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account. Maturity and Payment:- The notification said that the deposit shall mature on completion of two years from the date of the deposit. The eligible balance may be paid to the account holder on an application in Form-2 submitted to the accounts office on maturity. Partial Withdrawal:- An MSSC accountholder will be allowed to withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible balance once after the expiry of one year from the date of opening of the account but before the maturity of the account. The notification further said that in case of an account opened on behalf of a minor girl, the guardian may apply for the withdrawal for the benefit MUST READ: SAMARTH initiative for women SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Summit for Democracy 2023 Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, President Joe Biden announced the opening of his second Summit for Democracy. About Summit for Democracy 2023:- It is hosted by the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). Objectives: to renew democracy at home and confront autocracies abroad. The Summit comprises a series of events and a Year of Action (YoA) led by the US Government to support democratic renewal around the world.  The Summit for Democracy as a process is an extraordinary opportunity to galvanize attention and mobilize international action. This is the second Summit for Democracy, the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). It  unveils new efforts to advance democracy abroad like: Presidential Initiative for Democratic Renewal (PIDR)  USAID is contributing eight new initiatives, many of which are focused on policy reforms, to the PIDR. The PIDR comprises five lines of effort in response to significant challenges to democracy in the 21st Century. This includes the Partnerships for Democratic Development (PDD), which provides multi-year support to countries that demonstrate sustained democratic progress. The USAID has announced the first wave of nine PDD partner countries: Armenia, Dominican Republic, Ecuador, Malawi, Nepal, North Macedonia, Paraguay, Timor-Leste, and Zambia. MUST READ: 2022 Resilient Democracies Statement SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’ often seen in the news, is (2015) a strategy to tackle regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization. a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit Indira Gandhi Canal Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recent reports suggest that the closure of the Indira Gandhi Canal for repairs may impact Rajasthan’s drinking water, and irrigation needs. About Indira Gandhi Canal:- IMAGE SOURCE: https://nwa.mah.nic.in/sdmc/irrigation/04_projects.htm Indira Gandhi canal is the longest in India It was constructed from 1952 to 2010. It was originally known as the Rajasthan canal. It was renamed in 1984 as a tribute and honour after the assassination of Indira Gandhi. The origin of this canal is from the Harike barrage, Harike situated in Punjab. It is built on Sutlej and Beas rivers.  Its length is connected with Rajasthan and Punjab Indira Gandhi canal was constructed to develop agricultural activities in the desperation of Rajasthan. Objective: The Indian government has decided to build a canal on the Sutlej and Beas so that farmers can get water to harvest different kinds of crops for food. This is the largest canal in Rajasthan.  It starts from Haryana in Punjab and to Lohgarh district in Rajasthan. The canal water flows through seven districts of Rajasthan that include Churu, Jaisalmer, Jodhpur, Barmer, Bikaner and Sri Ganganagar. There are two stages to the construction process:- STAGE – I The command area lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh, and the northern part of the Bikaner districts. STAGE – II The command area spans the districts of Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur, and Churu. MUST READ: Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is a such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum Ravi Sutlej Q.2) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: (2017) The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims –Polity (Important Organizations) Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to inaugurate the Diamond Jubilee Celebrations of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):- Background:- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).  Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hue and cry notice Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, a ‘hue and cry’ notice was issued against Amritpal Singh. About Hue and cry notice:- It is issued by the Police.  It is issued when it requires the help of the public in cases such as: locating missing persons identifying unclaimed bodies looking out for a suspect It traces its origin to 1285. England’s King Edward I signed the “Statute of Winchester” to deal with security and peacekeeping on a local level by revamping the existing police system. The ‘hue and cry’ rule simply means that if a suspect or a criminal is found running down the street in front of some bystanders, each of them needs to yell out to help the police identify and catch them. MUST READ: Guidelines on arrests and bail orders SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO successfully carried out the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission. About Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX):- RLV-LEX involves taking an unmanned, winged prototype to an altitude of about 2.3 km to 2.4 km on a helicopter and releasing it to land. It must travel the distance autonomously, gain velocity, maintain control and come in like any typical aircraft, touching down with the rear wheels first. The first in the series of experimental flights is the hypersonic flight experiment (HEX). It was followed by the landing experiment (LEX), return flight experiment (REX) and scramjet propulsion experiment (SPEX). A reusable launch system is a launch system that allows for the reuse of some or all of the component stages. The vehicle returns to earth intact after a mission. Benefits of RLV:- Cheaper access to space is what makes an RLV attractive Challenges of RLV:- Reusable stages weigh more than equivalent expendable stages. After the launcher lands, it may need to be refurbished to prepare it for its next flight. This process may be lengthy and expensive. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements(2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2016) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Textiles has launched the Foreign Trade Policy 2023. The Key Approach to the Foreign Trade Policy is based on 4 pillars: Incentive to Remission, Export promotion through collaboration – Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions, Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives and Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining SCOMET policy. Key Features of Foreign Trade Policy 2023 Source:            The Hindu The new policy will have no sunset date (ending date) and will be tweaked based on the emerging world trade scenario and industry feedback. While the policy will be open-ended, the schemes sanctioned under it will be time bound. There are no major new schemes, barring a one-time amnesty under the existing Advance Authorisation and Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) schemes, that allow imports of capital goods subject to specified export obligations. The Policy had opened up a new area of potential exports called  “merchanting trade”. Merchanting trade refers to shipment of goods from one foreign country to another foreign country without touching Indian ports, involving an Indian intermediary.  This will also enable exports of restricted goods Four towns in Uttar Pradesh — Faridabad, Moradabad, Mirzapur and Varanasi — were announced as centres of export excellence for their performance in the apparel, handicrafts, handmade carpets and handlooms, respectively. The policy also plans to launch a special advance authorisation scheme for the clothing and apparel sector so that they can react to market demands and fashion trends faster. It is also looking to lower qualification thresholds for star ratings which recognise exporters based on export performance. The importance of simplifying the SCOMET( Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment, and Technologies) Licensing Procedure which aims at streamlining the export of dual-use items. Special one-time Amnesty Program for Export Obligations Default. The dairy industry will be excused from maintaining average export obligations under the new foreign trade strategy, and a particular advance authorization procedure has been extended to textiles and clothing. Challenges: Low credit access: Indian exporters have very low access to trade finance and export credit. This is especially true for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), even though they account for close to half of India’s total exports. The financial support Indian exporters receive is far less than in other countries. Export credit agencies doled out $7.6 billion in funds in India while the figure for China stood at $39.1 billion. Inadequate Infrastructure: Infrastructure is India’s weakest link. In data firm Statista’s ranking of 100 countries based on the quality of their infrastructure in 2019, India’s score was 68.1. To put this in perspective, top-ranked Singapore scored 95.4 while bottom-ranked Bolivia was 10-odd points behind India, at 57.1. . Bureaucracy: The export process in India is more time-consuming than in many other countries due to a high documentation requirement. Indian exporters must prepare a large set of documents for each stage of the shipping process. It is also important to plan ahead because certification authorities at Indian ports are not available round the clock or on all days of the week. Pendencies: There is long list of pending cases of redemption with respect to Advance Authorization scheme due to pre-import conditions. This needs to be sorted out immediately by withdrawing the pre-import condition retrospectively. Govt Initiatives for Improving Exports: Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Product (RoDTEP): It is a fully automated route for Input Tax Credit (ITC) in the GST (Goods and Service Tax) to help increase exports in India. ITC is provided to set off tax paid on the purchase of raw materials, consumables, goods or services that were used in the manufacturing of goods or services. This helps in avoiding double taxation and the cascading effect of taxes. Merchandise Exports from India Scheme: MEIS was introduced in the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-20, under MEIS, the government provides duty benefits depending on product and country. Rewards under the scheme are payable as percentage of realised free-on-board value (of 2%, 3% and 5%) and MEIS duty credit scrip can be transferred or used for payment of a number of duties including the basic customs duty. Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies: The scheme was offered for embedded state and central duties and taxes that are not refunded through Goods and Services Tax (GST). It was available only for garments. It was introduced by the Ministry of Textiles. Common Digital Platform for Certificate of Origin has been launched to facilitate trade and increase Free Trade Agreement (FTA) utilisation by exporters. Source:   The Hindu Vaikom Satyagraha Syllabus      Mains – GS 1 (History) Context: Recently, Kerala Chief Minister and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister jointly inaugurated the centenary year celebrations of the anti-caste struggle Vaikom Satyagraha. About Vaikom Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha was a historic non-violent movement against untouchability and caste discrimination in the country. The Satyagraha took place between March 30, 1924 and November 23, 1925 and also marked the start of temple entry movements across India. The movement was spearheaded by Congress leader T.K. Madhavan, as an opposition against social injustice. Apart from Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon (then secretary of Kerala Congress) and Congress leader and educationist K. Kelappan are considered the pioneers of the Vaikom Satyagraha movement. Vaikom is situated on the western side of Kottayam district in the Indian state of Kerala. It shares its border with Vembanad Lake. Its importance in Indian history is due to the Vaikom Satyagraha against untouchability, in which Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ramasamy The Satyagraha aimed at securing freedom of movement for all sections of society through the public roads leading to the Sri Mahadevar Temple at Vaikom. Situation Prior to Vaikom Satyagraha The Kingdom of Travancore had rigid and oppressive caste system. The people belonging to the oppressed classes, especially the Ezhavas, had no right to walk on the four roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva temple. The injustice meted out to the depressed classes was brought to the notice as a resolution at the Kakinada meet of All India Congress Committee. The Congress Untouchability Committee formed by the Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee in January 1924, decided to take up this issue. K Kelappan (Kerala Gandhi), T K Madhavan, Velayudha Menon, K Neelakantan Namboothiri and TR Krishnaswami Iyer were members of the committee. The committee decided to launch a ‘Kerala Paryatanam’ to urge temple entry and also advocate the opening of all public roads for everyone regardless of caste or creed. Role of Periyar: Periyar accepted the request of leaders such as Neelakandan Nampoothiri and George Joseph and led the protest making the protest successful. Vi. Kalyanasundaram (Thiru.Vi.Ka.) conferred the title Vaikom Veerar (Hero of Vaikom) on Periyar. Tamil Nadu played a pivotal role in Vaikom Satyagraha, which symbolised a struggle by the untouchables. Emperumal Naidu and Sivathanu Pillai were prominent leaders in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu. Reach of the movement The movement was backed by Gandhiji, ChatampiSwamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru. Prominent Leaders in Kerala such as Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon and George Joseph launched the movement. Periyar and KovaiAyyamuthu from Tamil Nadu worked in tandem with leaders in Kerala despite facing repressive action. The campaign gained popularity throughout India, and supporters arrived from around the country. Punjab’s Akalis helped by establishing kitchens to feed the Satyagrahis. Even Muslim and Christian authorities backed the initiative. Impacts of the Vaikom Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha was a testing ground for the Gandhian Principles of Satyagraha. In 1925, Gandhiji wrote to H. Pitt, then Police Commissioner of Travancore to resolve the ongoing matter. Thus, Pitt intervened and a settlement was signed between the Government and Gandhiji. In 1925, the Government agreed to nullify the prohibitory orders passed in February 1924, and Gandhiji gave his consent to withdraw the Satyagraha. It was announced by the government that roads (pathways) on three sides of the Shiv shrine or Mahadev temple of Vaikom (north, south, and west) would be open for all public but the road on the eastern side i.e the roads leading to that eastern approach would be reserved for Savarnas only. Many historians believed the Vaikom Satyagraha had not given the desired outcome, while considered the settlement was humiliating as compared to the enigma of the revolutionary cause. However, this movement laid the foundation which ultimately laid the fruit to end orthodox colonialism. The Vaikom Satyagraha proclaimed its significance almost a decade later when in November 1936, the historic Temple Entry Proclamation was passed, which lifted the age-old orthodox ban on the entry of marginalized depressed castes into the temples of Travancore. It was also a great opportunity for the Indian National Congress Party to Grow in Kerala. It became the first struggle for human rights in India. The Vaikom Satyagraha had a significant impact on Indian society and politics. It led to the formation of the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP), a social reform organization that worked for the upliftment of the lower castes in Kerala. Way Forward: The Vaikom Satyagraha was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement that brought attention to the injustices of the caste system and the need for social reform. The protest helped pave the way for a more inclusive and equitable society and demonstrated the power of nonviolent resistance in achieving social change. The movement has been documented in history as one of the most non-violent struggles against caste oppression and discrimination. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements regarding Hue and cry notice: It is issued by the District Magistrate It is issued when it requires the help of the public in cases such as locating missing persons, identifying unclaimed bodies and looking out for a suspect Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC): It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of Independence. It will be under the Ministry of Finance. The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following: K. Madhavan, P. Kesava Menon George Joseph Who among the above personalities associated with Vaikom Satyagraha? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st  

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here