Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [1st February, 2023] – Day 66

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Discuss the role of India in promoting regional stability and security through its participation in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).  शंघाई सहयोग संगठन (एससीओ) में अपनी भागीदारी के माध्यम से क्षेत्रीय स्थिरता और सुरक्षा को बढ़ावा देने में भारत की भूमिका पर चर्चा करें। 2.Evaluate the impact of regional groupings such as SAARC and BIMSTEC on India's engagement with its neighbors and suggest ways to enhance their effectiveness. अपने पड़ोसियों के साथ भारत के जुड़ाव पर सार्क और बिम्सटेक जैसे क्षेत्रीय समूहों के प्रभाव का मूल्यांकन करें और उनकी प्रभावशीलता को बढ़ाने के तरीके सुझाएं। 3.At a time when Pakistan is facing a severe economic crisis, what should be India’s strategy towards Pakistan? Do you think Pakistan’s call for dialogue and engagement should be taken on a serious note by India? Critically comment. ऐसे समय में जब पाकिस्तान गंभीर आर्थिक संकट का सामना कर रहा है, भारत की पाकिस्तान के प्रति क्या रणनीति होनी चाहिए? क्या आपको लगता है कि भारत द्वारा बातचीत और जुड़ाव के लिए पाकिस्तान के आह्वान को गंभीरता से लिया जाना चाहिए? समालोचनात्मक टिप्पणी करें। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Asiatic Golden Cat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: For the first time, photos of melanistic Asian golden cat were captured through camera traps in West Bengal’s Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR). In India, the melanistic morph has been earlier reported from north-eastern states including Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. About Asiatic Golden Cat: The Asian golden cat (Catopuma temminckii ) is a medium-sized wild cat native to the Northeastern Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia and China. The Asian golden cat’s scientific name honours Coenraad Jacob Temminck and is also called Temminck’s cat and Asiatic golden cat. Asian golden cats, known as the “fire cat” in Thailand and Burma, and as the “rock cat” in parts of China, are of a medium size and stocky build. Asian golden cats are solitary and territorial. Once considered nocturnal, a radio-tracking study showed them to be diurnal and crepuscular. Asian golden cats are carnivores, often eating small prey like Indochinese ground squirrel, small snakes and other reptiles, muntjacs, rodents, birds, and young hares. Asian golden cats are polygynous, which means that one male gets exclusive mating rights with multiple females. There appears to be no breeding season for the Asian golden cat, but from April to June no births occur. After gestation of about 81 days, 1 to 3 kittens are born. Kittens are weaned when they are 6 months old and they reach independence as early as 9 months, the average being 12 months. Female Asian golden cats reach sexual maturity between 18 and 24 months, males maturing at 24 months. Conservation Status: IUCN: Near threatened Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I About Buxa Tiger Reserve: Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) lies in Alipurduar sub-division of Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal. Its northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan. The Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern side of BTR and the Eastern boundary touches that of the Assam State. National Highway No.31 C roughly runs along its southern boundary. It is the eastern most extension of extreme bio-diverse North-East India and represents highly endemic Indo-Malayan region. The fragile “Terai Eco-System” constitutes a part of this Reserve. The Phipsu Wildlife Sanctuary of Bhutan is contiguous to North of BTR. Manas National Park lies on east of BTR. BTR, thus, serves as international corridor for elephant migration between India and Bhutan. Some of the endangered species found in BTR are Indian Tiger, Asian Elephant, Leopard cat, Bengal florican, Regal python, Chinese Pangolin, Hispid hare, Hog deer etc. Source:                            Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2021) 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) notified FSSAI (Finance) Regulations, 2023. About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI): It has been established under Food Safety and Standards , 2006 which consolidates various acts and orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments. FSSAI has been created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) are appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. Headquarters: Delhi About FSSAI (Finance) Regulations, 2023: Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Fund was established and will be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General annually. The FSSAI shall maintain this Fund. Financial receipts will include grants made to the FSSAI by the Central government and sums realized by way of fees, penalties, and statutory charges. It establishes a Finance Committee. Composition of Financial Committee include: Chairman: Executive Director-Finance of FSSAI 2 members: nominated by the FSSAI A representative from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Established the Chief Financial Authority: He/she is the CEO of FSSAI. He will develop financial report formats and present it to the Finance Committee. It will outline the Authority’s financial and cash position, and adherence to the budget. The accounts of the Authority shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India or any other person appointed by them on their behalf annually. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2021) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nobles Helen Butterfly Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology The Noble’s Helen, recorded from the Namdapha National Park, is disappearing from its previously known ranges in Myanmar, China, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. About Noble’s Helen Butterfly: The Noble’s Helen, closest to Papilio antonio from the Philippines and characterised by a large dorsal white spot, was once common in the montane forest at moderate elevations in northern Thailand. This species of swallowtail butterfly has also been reported from the Myanmar, Yunnan and Hubei regions of China, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. Butterflies are considered vital indicators of the state of biodiversity and key ecosystem functions. Noble’s Helen with a wingspan of 100-120 mm was initially thought to be an aberration of Papilio Helenus, though the former has an extra white spot in the dorsum of the forewing. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider National Institute of Biologicals (NIB) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently Health Minister virtually inaugurates National Summit on Quality of Biologicals. NIB is playing a vital role in ensuring that only quality biological products reach the health system, thereby strengthening our Hon’ble Prime Minister’s mission of ensuring quality health and wellness for all. About National Institute of Biologicals: It was set up in 1992 as apex autonomous institute under the administrative control of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is performing primary statutory function of Quality Control of Biologicals. e.g., Insulin, erythropoietin, blood products, diagnostic kits. About Biological: Biological therapeutics, also referred to as Biologicals, are those class of medicines which are grown and then purified from large-scale cell cultures of bacteria or yeast, or plant or animal cells. Biologicals are a diverse group of medicines which includes vaccines, growth factors, immune modulators, monoclonal antibodies, as well as products derived from human blood and plasma. What distinguishes biologicals from other medicines is that these are generally proteins purified from living culture systems or from blood, whereas other medicines are considered as ‘small molecules’ and are either made synthetically or purified from plants. Key difference between biologicals and other medicines: biologicals are generally proteins purified from living culture systems or from blood. Other medicines are considered as ‘small molecules’ and are either made synthetically or purified from plants. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Bird flu Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology In News: Bird flu, a virus not known to spread easily among mammals, led to the culling of 50,000 minks in Spain. The findings indicated at least one mutation in the virus’ genome, which may make mammal-to-mammal infection easier. It is possible the minks were infected via seabirds in Galicia, a region in Spain, carrying the H5N1 virus since they were kept in an open cage and possibly interacted with the wild birds Bird flu Avian influenza or bird flu refers to the disease caused by infection with avian (bird) influenza (flu) Type A viruses H5N1. These viruses naturally spread among wild aquatic birds worldwide and can infect domestic poultry and other bird and animal species. Bird flu viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with  bird flu viruses have occurred. Typically, mammals catch the avian influenza directly from infected birds, through the consumption of bird droppings or preying on infected animals. However, within-mammal transmission was uncharacteristic of the virus until now. Poultry birds across Europe, Asia, Africa and North America have been victim to the highly infectious strain of the avian influenza virus. The virus H5N1 is evolving and may be gaining pandemic potential as its mutation is the same mutation that was recorded in the gene of the 2009 pandemic swine-origin influenza A (H1N1) virus. Source: DTE Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Art and Culture Ellora Caves Situated in Aurangabad district, the Ellora Caves are just awe-inspiring. The complex features 34 caves, of which 17 are Hindu caves, 12 are Buddhist caves, and 5 are Jain caves. This is also the place where the renowned Kailasa Temple exists, and is full of intricate rock carvings. The primary attraction of Ellora is Kailash Temple (cave16) is the most remarkable, and is one of the main attractions that lure visitors to Ellora Caves. The caves were granted UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 1983 Elephanta Caves This is another UNESCO World Heritage Site in Maharashtra, which is a must-visit and highlights the peace and ideology reflected by Buddhism. These caves are a network of sculpted caves, and is the oldest historic site The Portuguese colonists first discovered the caves and named them Elephanta Caves after spotting elephant statues on the caves. There are a total of seven caves that date back between the 5th and 8th centuries, and were listed as heritage sites in 1987. Ajanta Caves It comprises a group of 30 rock-cut caves, and are also known for their murals. Home to famous Buddhist religious art, this site serves as a great example of ancient Indian art. There are a total of 29 caves here, which are all divided into periods, denoting the time when they were built. If reports are to go by, they were carved between the 2nd century BCE through CE 650, and feature various stories from the Jataka tales. It was declared a World Heritage Site in 1983. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus Earlier, it was known as the Victoria Terminus, and was completed in 1888. Its construction started in 1878 while its Victorian Gothic Revival architecture stands out amid the hustle bustle of Mumbai. Spread across a 2.85 hectare area, this place remains extremely busy almost all the time. It’s a historic railway station, which was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2004. This 133-year-old heritage building is not only one of the biggest, but also one of the busiest railway stations in India. Victorian Gothic & Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Bombay will offer you a collection of 19th century Victorian neo-Gothic public buildings and 20th century art deco buildings in the Fort area of Mumbai. The large edifices serve as relics from a different time, which are so spectacular that they will leave you awed. You can find these buildings around the Oval Maidan. Sources: TOI Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river. Pandu-lena Cave shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river. Project 39A Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity In News: Even as the Supreme Court has called for reforming death penalty sentencing, trial courts awarded 165 death sentences in 2022, the highest in over two decades, according to the Annual Death Penalty Report, 2022. The report will be released on Monday by Project 39A This shift has been sharply influenced by the extraordinary sentencing of 38 persons to death in Ahmedabad in a single bomb blast case, representing the largest number of persons sentenced to death in a single case since 2016 Project 39A It is a criminal reforms advocacy group with the National Law University, Delhi. It is inspired by Article 39-A of the Indian Constitution, a provision that furthers the intertwined values of equal justice and equal opportunity by removing economic and social barriers Project 39A aims to trigger new conversations on legal aid, torture, forensics, mental health in prisons, and the death penalty, using empirical research to re-examine practices and policies in the criminal justice system The dismal state and sometimes the absence of record-keeping in the police, prisons and courts along with multiple barriers to accessing records/ data complicates criminal justice research in India. Source: Indian Express Mandatory Minimum Sentencing Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity In News: A CJI Chandrachud-led bench of the Supreme Court decided to examine a petition challenging the constitutional validity of Section 376 DB of the Indian Penal Code. This section describes the punishment for gangrape of a minor under 12 years of age, to the extent that it prescribes a ‘minimum mandatory sentence’ of life imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s life and even death. Mandatory minimum sentencing: The concept of mandatory minimum sentencing refers to “a sentence which must be imposed without leaving any discretion to the court”. It means a quantum of punishment which cannot be reduced below the period fixed – the Apex court held in its 2016 ruling in ‘Mohd Hashim vs State Of UP And Others’. Essentially, this predetermines the minimum punishment or sentence for certain offenses which are considered to be more serious than others, with a view to ensure justice and not let the perpetrator of such an offense go unpunished. No matter what the unique, individual circumstances of the offender or the offense might be, the court must mandatorily award this minimum period of sentencing for the offenses which prescribe it. What provisions award a mandatory sentence A concept that comes primarily from the Canadian and American legal systems; in India, such sentences are prescribed for all sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act except the offense of sexual harassment Under Section 8 of the POCSO Act, a punishment of 3-5 years has been prescribed for offenses under Section 7 which deals with offenses of sexual assault against children. However, imposing the minimum punishment in such cases is mandatory. When the legislature has prescribed a minimum sentence without discretion, the same cannot be reduced by the courts. In such cases, imposition of minimum sentence, be it imprisonment or fine, is mandatory and leaves no discretion to the court,” the Supreme Court reiterated in its 2019 ruling in ‘State Of Madhya Pradesh vs Vikram Das’. However, it was first in the year 1983, following nationwide protests in the wake of the Supreme Court’s 1978 ruling acquitting two policemen for the rape of a 16-year-old Adivasi girl in ‘Tukaram And Ors v. State Of Maharashtra’ that the Criminal Law Amendment Act Of 1983 was passed. The 1983 amendment was the first instance of ‘mandatory minimum punishment’ being prescribed, with seven years for general rapes and ten years for aggravated cases which could include rapes of minors below 12 years, and pregnant women, while the maximum punishment or life imprisonment for both was stipulated as 14 years. Years later, in 2012, following the brutal gangrape and death of a medical student in Delhi, the demand for more stringent rape laws with stricter punishments gained widespread momentum. This resulted in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, of 2013, which expanded the definition of ‘rape’ beyond penetration to include insertion of objects, anal sex, and oral sex. The 2013 reforms also updated the definition of ‘life imprisonment’ to mean the entire remainder of the convict’s life and introduced a minimum sentence of 20 years for gang rape. Following this, even the death penalty could be meted out to those repeatedly indulging in such offenses. What are the arguments for and against? The proponents of minimum mandatory sentencing say that it limits the scope for judicial discretion and arbitrariness, thereby enhancing the cause of justice. It is also believed that it acts as a deterrent for serious or harsh offenses by ensuring that the perpetrator doesn’t go unpunished. On the other hand, critics say that this leads to overcrowding of prisons and is unfair as the convict’s mitigating circumstances, such as if they are a first-time offender or the sole breadwinner in the family, are often overlooked. Moreover, such provisions can often have unintended consequences as judges might feel the prescribed punishment to be excessively stringent in such cases and acquit the accused altogether Source: Indian Express Indus Waters Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Mains: GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The government’s decision to issue notice to Pakistan, calling for negotiations to amend the Indus Waters Treaty, must be considered carefully. About Indus Water Treaty: Indus River System is a Himalayan river system and is one of the largest river basins in the world. The Indus River, also known as Sindhu river, is a part of one of the most fertile regions of the Indian sub-continent and the world. The main tributaries of the Indus River form the Indus River System, which includes Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Satluj. History of the Indus Waters Treaty: The Indus river basin has six rivers – Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej, originating from Tibet and flowing through the Himalayan ranges to enter Pakistan, ending in the south of Karachi. In 1947, the line of partition, aside from delineating geographical boundaries for India and Pakistan, also cut the Indus river system into two. Initially, the Inter-dominion accord of May, 1948 was adopted, where both countries, after meeting for a conference, decided that India would supply water to Pakistan in exchange for an annual payment made by the latter. This agreement however, soon disintegrated as both the countries could not agree upon its common interpretations. In 1951, in the backdrop of the water-sharing dispute, both the countries applied to the World Bank for funding of their respective irrigation projects on ​​Indus and its tributaries, which is when the World Bank offered to mediate the conflict. Finally in 1960, the World Bank mediated agreement was reached between the two countries and the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed by former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of Pakistan, Ayyub Khan. Key provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty Water Sharing Provisions: The treaty prescribed how water from the six rivers of the Indus River System would be shared between India and Pakistan. The three western rivers—Indus, Chenab and Jhelum—were allotted to Pakistan for unrestricted use. The three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—were allocated to India for unrestricted usage. Thus by provisions of treaty 80% of the share of water or about 135 Million Acre Feet (MAF) went to Pakistan while India left with the rest 33 MAF or 20% of water for its usage. Administrative provisions: It required both the countries to establish a Permanent Indus Commission constituted by permanent commissioners on both sides. The commission will serve as a forum for exchange of information on the rivers, for continued cooperation and as the first stop for the resolution of conflicts. Operational provisions: Although Pakistan has rights over the waters of Jhelum, Chenab and Indus. Annexure C of the treaty allows India certain agricultural uses. Annexure D allows India to build ‘run of the river‘ hydropower projects (projects not requiring live storage of water). India needs to share information on the project design or alterations made to it with Pakistan who can raise objections or can reserve its concern within 3 months. India is allowed to have a minimum storage level on the western rivers – meaning it can store up to 3.75 MAF of water for conservation and flood storage purposes. Dispute resolution mechanism: The IWT provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism, under which First, “Questions” on both sides can be resolved at the Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level. Disputes/differences unresolved on the first level can be taken to the World Bank who appoints a Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision. Eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the NE’s decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a Court of Arbitration. Annulment provisions: The treaty does not provide a unilateral exit provision to either country. It is supposed to remain in force unless both the countries ratify another mutually agreed pact. Criticisms: Internationally, the Treaty is seen as one of the most successful cases of conflict resolution but between the two countries, it has seeded dissatisfaction and conflicts regarding its interpretation and implementation. The treaty is highly technical leading to far-ranging divergences between the two countries in terms of interpretations. For example, the treaty says that storage systems can be built but to a limited extent. However, the technical details make it difficult to conclude under what circumstances projects can be carried out. Another concern is the tense political relations between the two countries. From the Indian point of view: The basic dissatisfaction is that the treaty prevents it from building any storage systems on the western rivers, even though it allows building storage systems under certain exceptional circumstances. From Pakistan’s point of view:  Due to its suspicions, stays aware of every technical aspect of the project and deliberately tries to get it suspended. The matter is further aggravated by the fact that the western rivers lie in the disputed region of Jammu and Kashmir, a subject of a tussle between both since independence. Recent developments: Indian government in January 2023 notified Pakistan of its intent to modify the IWT. It says this extreme step is due to Pakistan’s intransigence over objections to two Indian hydropower projects in Jammu and Kashmir: the 330MW Kishanganga hydroelectric project (Jhelum) and the 850MW Ratle hydroelectric project (Chenab). India has argued since 2006, when the objections began, that the projects were within the treaty’s fair water use. However, Pakistan has refused to conclude negotiations with India in the bilateral mechanism — the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) of experts that meets regularly — and has often sought to escalate it. As a result, the World Bank appointed a neutral expert, but Pakistan pushed for the case to be heard at The Hague. India has objected to this sequencing, as it believes that each step should be fully exhausted before moving on to the next. While India was able to prevail over the World Bank to pause the process in 2016, Pakistan persisted, and since March 2022, the World Bank has agreed to have both a neutral expert and a Court of Arbitration (CoA) hear the arguments. India attended the hearings with the neutral expert last year, but has decided to boycott the CoA at The Hague that began its hearing recently. Way Forward: In the last six decades the Indus Waters Treaty has been one of the most successful water-sharing endeavours in the world today. However, there is a need to update certain technical specifications and expand the scope of the agreement to address climate change. Therefore there is a need to renegotiate the treaty terms, update certain technical specifications and expand the scope of the agreement to address demands of the two countries amid the rising climate crisis. Source:  The Hindu OBC Subcategorization Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Polity and Social Justice Context: The Justice G. Rohini-led commission for the sub-categorisation of other backward classes (OBCs) has now been given yet another extension in its tenure by the President This is the 14th extension in tenure that the commission has been given. About the commission The commission was formed in October 2017 It was initially given 12 weeks to finish the task of sub-categorising the nearly 3,000 castes within the OBC umbrella and recommend division of the 27% OBC quota among them equitably As part of its work, the commission had identified dominant caste groups among all OBC communities in the Central list, finding that a small group of dominant OBC communities were crowding out a large number of communities from the 27% OBC quota. Consequently, the commission decided to divide all OBC communities into four broad categories, with the largest share of the quota pie going to the group that has historically been deprived of OBC quota as a result of being pushed out by dominant OBC groups. Commission’s terms of reference: To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of OBCs with reference to such classes included in the Central List. To work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within such OBCs. To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. A fourth term of reference was added on January 22, 2020. To study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription. What is sub-categorisation of OBCs? The idea is to create sub-categories within the larger group of OBCs for the purpose of reservation. OBCs are granted 27% reservation in jobs and education under the central government, this has been a legal debate for other reservation categories too In 2022, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court reopened the debate on sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for reservations. For OBCs, the debate arises out of the perception that only a few affluent communities among the over 2,600 included in the Central List of OBCs have secured a major part of the 27% reservation. The argument for creating sub-categories within OBCs is that it would ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. It was to examine this that the Rohini Commission was constituted on October 2, 2017 Need for subcategorization Due to inequalities and further inequalities within unequal entities. Reservation in jobs and education did address socio-economic disparities in India to some degree, but, the benefits of reservation have not been distributed equitably Large segments of the weaker sections and backward classes continue to have no access to quality education or meaningful employment. The relatively rich and dominant sections among the backward castes have tended to take up a disproportionately larger share of the reservation pie. Failure in effectively preventing large sections of the creamy layer from taking advantage of the quota system to the detriment of the poorer sections among their own caste groups. To ensure a more equitable distribution of reservation benefits by further differentiating caste groups coming under backward classes on the basis of their levels of social and economic backwardness. Lacunae in categorisation of the creamy layer led to the need to differentiate among the caste groups. Vote-bank politics has caused prioritising of caste-based categorisation over income-based differentiation to identify reservation beneficiaries. The reservation pie is limited, and no group, whether rich or poor, dominant or subservient, can hope to gain except at the expense of another socio-economic category. Findings of the commission In 2018, the Commission analysed the data of 1.3 lakh central jobs given under OBC quota over the preceding five years and OBC admissions to central higher education institutions, including universities, IITs, NITs, IIMs and AIIMS, over the preceding three years. The findings were: 97% of all jobs and educational seats have gone to just 25% of all sub-castes classified as OBCs; 24.95% of these jobs and seats have gone to just 10 OBC communities; 983 OBC communities — 37% of the total — have zero representation in jobs and educational institutions; 994 OBC sub-castes have a total representation of only 2.68% in recruitment and admissions. Total number of Group A to Group C employees (including safai karmacharis) was 5.12 lakh  – Of these, 17.70% are SC, 6.72% ST, 20.26% OBC (Other Backward Classes), and 0.02% EWS (Economically Weaker Sections). In Group-A, the highest tier among these, the representation of SCs is just 12.86%, of STs 5.64% and of OBCs 16.88%. Reservation for these communities is 15%, 7.5% and 27% respectively. Challenges Disruptions caused by COVID-19 pandemic. Different states census underway – Bihar government is in the middle of its caste-based survey in the State and the Uttar Pradesh government is in the process of conducting a fresh survey to assess the need for OBC reservation in its local body elections, with other States like Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra also looking to form panels to implement OBC reservation in local body polls. Government lacks information for data enumeration of OBC Data from 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census were never made public. Enumeration of OBC data is administratively complex and the information lacks completeness and accuracy since the State and Central list of OBCs are distinct. It may lead to breach of apex court’s 50-per-cent ceiling, since many communities have sought separate reservations at the State and Central levels across India. Way forward According to 2018 data, just ten OBC communities have taken the 25 per cent of reserved central jobs and institutional seats. Also, 97 per cent of the reserved jobs and seats have gone to 25 per cent of OBC sub-castes. Hence, there is a need to re-establish equity and the task has been handed over to Rohini Commission Once completed, the report by Justice G Rohini commission is also likely to undergo judicial review Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) H5N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Q.2) With reference to mandatory sentences in judicial system, consider the following statements: The concept is originally Canadian. In India, such sentences are prescribed for all sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act including the offense of sexual harassment. Which of the above statements are incorrect? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding National Institute of Biologicals: It was set up in 1992 as apex autonomous institute under the administrative control of Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. It is performing primary statutory function of Quality Control of Insulin, erythropoietin, blood products, diagnostic kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 30th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; } For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [31st January, 2023] – Day 65

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Evaluate the impact of institutional measures such as the Right to Information Act and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act on enhancing transparency and accountability in the public sector. सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र में पारदर्शिता और जवाबदेही बढ़ाने पर संस्थागत उपायों जैसे सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम और लोकपाल और लोकायुक्त अधिनियम के प्रभाव का मूल्यांकन करें। 2. Analyze the role of civil services in promoting democratic values and practices and suggest ways to improve their performance in this regard. लोकतांत्रिक मूल्यों और प्रथाओं को बढ़ावा देने में सिविल सेवाओं की भूमिका का विश्लेषण करें और इस संबंध में उनके प्रदर्शन को बेहतर बनाने के तरीके सुझाएं। 3. Analyze the challenges faced by the civil services in promoting transparency and accountability in governance and suggest ways to overcome them. प्रशासन में पारदर्शिता और उत्तरदायित्व को बढ़ावा देने में सिविल सेवाओं के सामने आने वाली चुनौतियों का विश्लेषण करें और उन्हें दूर करने के उपाय सुझाएं। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Lake Chad Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: A report by Refugees International, a humanitarian organisation has highlighted the dangerous link between climate change and conflict in countries like Cameroon, Chad, Niger and Nigeria in the Lake Chad Basin. Shrinking natural resources due to adverse weather are heightening tensions across communities and displacing people. Around 3 million people have been displaced and an additional 11 million need humanitarian assistance. About Lake Chad: The Lake Chad is a vast area of fresh water located in the middle of sand dunes which covers territories in 4 countries: Nigeria, Cameroon, Niger and Chad. Palaeography informs us that the Lake Chad has been constantly evolving with respect to the environmental conditions. It is an endorheic lake fed mainly by the Logone Chari and Komadougou watercourses. This ecosystem contains a great variety of wet zones which include open water, polders, temporary or permanent ponds, some of them being rich in natron. Around the lake, sand deserts and water meet in a complex network of meanders which are sometimes cultivated. Receding waters in dry season expose wide floodplains on the banks of the lake. They shelter water plants such as papyrus and spirulina but also numerous animal species such as the migratory birds, which use these plains as resting areas. The Chad Basin National Park (Lake Chad Nigeria Section) is located between Borno and Yobe states in the extreme north-eastern corner of Nigeria. The Park is generally described as being in the conventional basin of the famous but rapidly shrinking Lake Chad. The Chad Basin remains the only existing stronghold of Giraffe and Ostrich in Nigeria. The Lake Chad environment presents an exceptional mosaic of plant formations forming as many biotopes, oasis and wet zones of international importance. The Lake Chad and its islands, maintain their natural morphology which gorges this cultural landscape on which human communities developed. The Chad Basin National Park shares the same ecosystem with the Waza National Park in the Republic of Cameroon to the east. Its Wetlands and Oases are very important in the mitigation of the desertification process in north-eastern Nigeria and the overall conservation management efforts of the Chad Basin as a whole. The natural values are almost identical to those of the Okavango Delta, the Lakes of Ounianga and the Kenya Lake System in the Great Rift Valley in Africa; but they are also comparable to those of the West Lake Cultural Landscape of Hangzhou in China and the Ahwar of Southern Iraq. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas National Commission for Women Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Hon’ble President of India will address the 31st Foundation Day of the National Commission for Women in Delhi on January 31st, 2023. The theme of the programme is ‘Sashakt Nari Sashakt Bharat’ aimed at acknowledging and celebrating the stories of women who have excelled and paved their journey to leave a mark. About National Commission for Women: The National Commission for Women was set up as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. National Commission for Women (NCW) is entrusted with- Reviewing the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women; Recommending remedial legislative measures; Facilitating redressal of grievances and Advising the Government on all policy matters affecting women. Membership: Members of the NCW include- A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central Government. Five members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organizations (including women activist), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare; A Member-Secretary to be nominated by the Central Government NCW is responsible for investigating and examining all matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws. NCW presents its reports to the Central Government, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards. Source: PIB Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance and Economy Context: The Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), a think tank under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India launched today the third batch of IICA Valuation Certificate Program (IVCP) – the Gold Standard in Valuation Education. About Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs: IICA was registered as a society on September 12, 2008 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. An autonomous institute, IICA works under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs to deliver opportunities for research, education, and advocacy. It is also a think tank that curates a repository of data and knowledge for policy makers, regulators as well as other stakeholders working in the domain of corporate affairs. Set up as the premier organization that aims at providing astute and credible intellectual leadership in corporate regulation, governance and running sustainable businesses, IICA is a think-tank, capacity building and service delivery institute. Its objective is to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. IICA Valuation Certificate Program (IVCP) is a flagship course by IICA that has earned the distinction of ‘Gold Standard in Valuation Education’. Launched in 2019, 250+ participants from diverse backgrounds have registered for the course with average experience of 20+ years. The course is recognized by International Valuation Standards Council (IVSC) and is recommended by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) to all Registered Valuers (RVs), Department of Financial Services (DFS) to all Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions (FIs) and Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) to all Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). International Valuation Standards Council: The IVSC is a not-for-profit organisation that acts as the global standard setter for the valuation profession, serving the public interest. The IVSC is overseen by a Board of Trustees which includes former finance ministers, leading financial and securities regulators, heads of valuation professional organisations and standard-setting bodies. Independent technical boards of international experts are appointed to lead the development of the IVS. There are more than 180 member organisations of the IVSC, operating in 137 countries worldwide including India. The IVSC is headquartered in London, UK. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It is a unique regulator: regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities. It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution and individual bankruptcy under the Code. It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Methane Emissions Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Microsoft co-founder Bill Gates has invested in an Australian climate technology start-up that aims to curtail the methane emissions of cow burps, according to a report in the BBC. About Methane: Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of natural gas. Methane is also a greenhouse gas (GHG), so its presence in the atmosphere affects the earth’s temperature and climate system. Methane (CH4) is a colourless, odourless and highly flammable gas. Methane is the second most abundant anthropogenic GHG after carbon dioxide (CO2), accounting for about 20 percent of global emissions. China, the United States, Russia, India, Brazil, Indonesia, Nigeria, and Mexico are estimated to be responsible for nearly half of all anthropogenic methane emissions. Because methane is both a powerful greenhouse gas and short-lived compared to carbon dioxide, achieving significant reductions would have a rapid and significant effect on atmospheric warming potential. Sources of Methane: Globally, 50 to 65% of total methane emissions come from the following human-caused activities: Raising livestock: Ruminants such as cows, sheep, goats, and buffaloes have a special type of digestive system that allows them to break down and digest food that non-ruminant species would be unable to digest. Livestock emissions (from manure and gastroenteric releases) account for roughly 32 per cent of human-caused methane emissions. Leaks from natural gas systems Landfills and waste from homes and businesses Agriculture is the predominant source. Paddy rice cultivation in which flooded fields prevent oxygen from penetrating the soil, creating ideal conditions for methane-emitting bacteria – accounts for another 8 per cent of human-linked emission. Consequences of Methane: Potency: Methane is about 80 times more powerful at warming the atmosphere than carbon dioxide over a 20-year period. Ozone formation: Methane also contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone a hazardous air pollutant and greenhouse gas. Global warming: Methane has accounted for roughly 30 per cent of global warming since pre-industrial times and is proliferating faster than at any other time since record keeping began in the 1980s. Global and Indian Initiatives to tackle Methane Emissions India Greenhouse Gas Program: This Program is an industry-led voluntary framework aiming to help Indian companies monitor progress towards measurement and management of GHG emissions using tools and methodologies from WRI’s (World Resources Institute) GHG Protocol. Harit Dhara: The Harit Dhara is an anti-methanogenic feed supplement prepared from the Natural Phyto-sources. It is found very effective in reducing the enteric methane emission upto 17% to 20% when incorporated in the livestock feed. Methane Alert and Response System: UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory launched the Methane Alert and Response System (MARS) at COP27, a new initiative to accelerate implementation of the Global Methane Pledge by transparently scaling up global efforts to detect and act on major methane emissions sources. Global Methane Initiative: It was launched in 2004. It is an international public-private initiative that advances cost-effective, near-term methane abatement and recovery and use of methane as a valuable energy source in three sectors: biogas (including agriculture, municipal solid waste, and wastewater), coal mines, and oil and gas systems. It focuses on collective efforts and a cost-effective approach to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and increase energy security, enhance economic growth, improve air quality and improve worker safety. GMI includes 46 Partner Countries, which together represent approximately 75 percent of the world’s estimated man-made methane emissions. Active involvement by private sector entities, financial institutions, and other non-governmental organizations is essential to build capacity, transfer technology, and promote private investment. Global Methane Pledge: The Global Methane Pledge was launched at COP26 in November 2021 to catalyse action to reduce methane emissions. Led by the United States and the European Union, the Pledge now has 111 country participants who together are responsible for 45% of global human-caused methane emissions. By joining the Pledge, countries commit to work together in order to collectively reduce methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030. Source:                  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Mughal Gardens Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Medieval History In News: The iconic Mughal Gardens at the Rashtrapati Bhavan (President’s House) in Delhi have been renamed. “The collective identity of all the gardens at Rashtrapati Bhavan will be ‘Amrit Udyan’. The gardens will open to the public on January 31 About Mughal Gardens In Babur Nama, Babur says that his favourite kind of garden is the Persian charbagh style (literally, four gardens). The charbagh structure was intended to create a representation of an earthly utopia – jannat – in which humans co-exist in perfect harmony with all elements of nature. Defined by its rectilinear layouts, divided in four equal sections, these gardens can be found across lands previously ruled by the Mughals. From the gardens surrounding Humanyun’s Tomb in Delhi to the Nishat Bagh in Srinagar, all are built in this style – giving them the moniker of Mughal Gardens. A defining feature of these gardens is the use of waterways, often to demarcate the various quadrants of the garden. These were not only crucial to maintain the flora of the garden, they also were an important part of its aesthetic. Fountains were often built, symbolising the “cycle of life. The gardeners of the Rashtrapati Bhavan have kept alive the tradition of nurturing the defining feature of the gardens — the multitude of rose varieties. They include Adora, Mrinalini, Taj Mahal, Eiffel Tower, Scentimental, Oklahoma (also called Black Rose), Black Lady, Blue Moon and Lady X. There are also roses named after personalities: Mother Teresa, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Abraham Lincoln, Jawahar Lal Nehru, and Queen Elizabeth — not to forget Arjun and Bhim. The ingenious gardeners also introduced new, exotic varieties of flowers like birds of paradise, tulips and heliconia in 1998. For instance, C Rajagopalachari, the last Governor General of India, made a political statement when during a period of food shortage in the country, he himself ploughed the lands and dedicated a section of the garden to foodgrains. Today, the Nutrition Garden, popularly known as Dalikhana, stands in that spot, organically cultivating a variety of vegetables for consumption at the Rashtrapati Bhavan. President R Venkatraman added a cactus garden (he just liked cacti) and APJ Abdul Kalam added many theme-based gardens: from the musical garden to the spiritual garden. History of Mughal gardens In 1911, the British decided to shift the Indian capital from Calcutta to Delhi. About 4,000 acres of land was acquired to construct the Viceroy’s House with Sir Edwin Lutyens being given the task of designing the building on Raisina Hill. Lutyens’ designs combined elements of classical European architecture with Indian styles, producing a unique aesthetic that defines Lutyens’ Delhi till date. Lady Hardinge, the wife of the then Viceroy, urged planners to create a Mughal-style garden. It is said that she was inspired by the book Gardens of the Great Mughals (1913) by Constance Villiers-Stuart as well as her visits to the Mughal gardens in Lahore and Srinagar. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait? (2019) Humayun Akbar Jahangir Shah Jahan Jatar Duel Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Art and Culture In News: An ancient terracotta temple in West Bengal’s Sundarbans, which has survived the ravages of time for a millennia, is now facing a very modern threat. The impact of climate change, especially the increase in air salinity, is gradually eroding the temple walls Jatar Duel: Jatar Deul is an eleventh century structure, which is located at Raidighi in South 24 Parganas and it is only a few kilometres from the sea. Jatar Deul is a Shiva temple and is the tallest standing temple in the Sundarbans on the bank of the river Moni There are a number of oral legends on why the temple is called Jatar Deul. The temple has a curvilinear tower similar to temple architecture of the Nagara order of Odisha temples The temple is 98 feet high and it stands at a vacant site. Jatar Deul is traditionally connected to an inscription, no longer traceable, by one Raja Jayantachandra, purported to have been issued in 975 AD. the temple had considerable architectural merit and closely resembled Siddhesvara Temple at Bahulara, near Onda in Bankura district, on plan, elevation and decorative motifs the temple is datable to the 10th or 11th century AD on the basis of its architecture. An expert on West Bengal temples says that the temple was more likely to have been built around the beginning of the 13th century based on its architectural features. Amphan, the tropical cyclone that ravaged coastal West Bengal, particularly the Sundarbans, in May 2020, had destroyed three trees at Jatar Deul, further exposing the temple to the gusty salt-laden coastal winds. Sources: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1)With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 Only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Manipurs Heimang Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Economy Manipur’s heimang By September, Bunches of creamy white flowers adorn the heimang trees (Rhus chinensis) that grow widely across Manipur and the other northeastern states. The flowers stand out against the green leaves of the deciduous tree, aptly earning them the nickname of ‘September beauty’. And by November and December, they transform into deep red cherry-like fruits with glandular velvety hair which have been used for centuries as food and medicine. The spherical fruit has a citrus-like tartness and, though tiny, it is packed with nutrients such as polyphenols, flavonoids and antioxidants. Traditional healers of Manipur, who are called the maibas or maibis, prescribe heimang for common gastro-intestinal problems like diarrhoea and dysentery. They recommend eating the water-soaked fruit for indigestion and stomach ulcer. The healers say that the fruit is also useful in the treatment of kidney diseases and urinary stones. A study, conducted in vitro (experiments involving glassware, like test tubes), states that extracts of the heimang fruit inhibits the formation of calcium oxalate crystals (which make the most common type of kidney stones) and of experimentally induced urinary stones. Other parts of the heimang tree such as its leaves (including the abnormal growths or galls on them), roots, stem and bark are also found to have preventive and therapeutic effects. Apart from diarrhoea and dysentery, compounds derived from these tissues can be used in the treatment of ailments such as rectal and intestinal cancer, diabetes mellitus, sepsis, oral diseases and inflammation, The plant has compounds that are good for the teeth as it prevents the enamel from losing minerals Compounds isolated from the stem of the heimang tree can significantly suppress HIV-1 activity in vitro, reduce post-meal increase of blood glucose, prevent high cholesterol and protect the genetic material. HIV-1 is one of the two subtypes of the human immunodeficiency virus and is more widespread. Local communities in the state also use heimang leaves to prepare a herbal shampoo called chinghi by boiling them with rice water. After cooling, the preparation is sieved using a muslin cloth and the clear liquid is used as shampoo. It can be stored for two to three days. oil produced from the fruit and seed has beneficial unsaturated fatty acids and phytochemicals and is a good ingredient to use in dietary food and nutrition supplements. In China, heimang is called yán fu mu; yán means salt in Mandarin. In ancient China, certain communities used to add the fruit to food for its salty taste. It is still used by the Hani community that lives in the Naban River Watershed National Nature Reserve. The sour taste of the fruit, attributed to the presence of organic acids such as malic acid, citric acid and ascorbic acid, makes its use versatile. It is used to flavour meats, vegetables and even desserts. Traditionally, it is mixed with jaggery to make a nutritious and digestive candy. It is also dried and powdered to be used as a flavouring. Some simply boil the fruit in water and consume the decoction as herbal tea. To ensure year-round availability of the fruit for use in tea or as souring agents, fresh heimang fruits are dried and stored. Source: DTE Ladakh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Geography In News: A day ahead of his five-day climate fast came to a close, Ladakhi innovator Sonam Wangchuk claimed that he had been placed under house arrest at his institute and denied entry by the police to Khardung La. Ladakh Ladakh, large area of the northern and eastern Kashmir region, northwestern Indian subcontinent. Administratively, Ladakh is divided between Pakistan (northwest), as part of Gilgit-Baltistan, and India (southeast), as part of Ladakh union territory (until October 31, 2019, part of Jammu and Kashmir state); in addition, China administers portions of northeastern Ladakh. Ladakh covers about 45,000 square miles (117,000 square km) and contains the Ladakh Range, which is a southeastern extension of the Karakoram Range, and the upper Indus River valley. Ladakh is one of the highest regions of the world. Its natural features consist mainly of high plains and deep valleys. The high plain predominates in the east, diminishing gradually toward the west. In southeastern Ladakh lies Rupshu, an area of large, brackish lakes with a uniform elevation of about 13,500 feet (4,100 metres). To the northwest of Rupshu lies the Zaskar Range, an inaccessible region where the people and the cattle remain indoors for much of the year because of the cold. Zaskar is drained by the Zaskar River, which, flowing northward, joins the Indus River below Leh. In the heart of Ladakh, farther to the north, cultivation by means of manuring and irrigation is practiced by farmers living in valley villages at elevations between about 9,000 and 15,000 feet (2,750 and 4,550 metres). Leh, the most accessible town of Ladakh, is an important trade centre located 160 miles (260 km) east of Srinagar. Climate and Vegetation The climate of Ladakh is cold and dry. Average annual precipitation is roughly 3 inches (80 mm); fine, dry, flaked snow is frequent and sometimes falls heavily. Vegetation is confined to valleys and sheltered spots, where a stunted growth of tamarisk (genus Tamarix) shrubs, furze (also called gorse; spiny plants of the legume family), and other plants supply much-needed firewood. The principal products are wheat, barley, millet, buckwheat, peas, beans, and turnips. Woolen cloth and other textiles are the primary manufactures. Festivals Hemis Festival Thiksey, Karsha and Spituk Gustor Dosmochey Festival Matho Nagrang Festival Stok Guru Tsechu Festival Phyang Tsedup Festival Yuru Kabgyat Festival Losar (New Year) Celebration Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council, Leh LAHDC, Leh was constituted in accordance with the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act, 1995. The Council came into being with the holding of elections on August 28,1995. The democratic constitution of the Council has heralded democratic decentralization of planning process with the involvement of people at the grass root level. Source: Indian express Prioritise trade pact with GCC Open in new window Syllabus Mains: GS 2 (International Relations) Context:  Despite the Gulf region being home to the largest Indian expatriate community with long-standing relations, its enormous economic potential remains unexplored. India is currently facing a trade deficit with Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) nations. India’s trade deficit with GCC soared from $13.4 billion in 2016-17 to $66.8 billion in 2021-22. Mutually beneficial trade pact with GCC may become the solution to India’s current deficit problem. About GCC: The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, known as the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), is a regional and economic union established in 1981. Members: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates Headquarters: Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. The official language is Arabic. It aims to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures. Out of 32 million non-resident Indians (NRIs), nearly half are estimated to be working in GCC countries. According to World Bank, India got $87 billion in foreign remittances in 2021. A noticeable portion came from the GCC nations. India- Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Significance of GCC: GCC provides for India’s energy security, while India ensures their food security. India and the GCC need to go beyond the traditional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and include investments and services as a part of a comprehensive economic partnership. Under the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), Indian merchandise got preferential market access to the UAE on over 97 % of its tariff lines accounting for 99 % of India’s exports to the UAE in value terms largely for labour-intensive exports. Early and effective implementation of CEPAs will provide a boost to India and GCC countries. The GCC pact aims to boost economic ties between the two regions. This pact can help India to balance the trade deficit with GCC countries and will provide a market for Indian exports. Economic and Commercial Relations India’s old, historical ties with the GCC States, coupled with increasing imports of oil and gas, growing trade and investment, and the presence of approximately 6.5 million Indian workers in the region, are of vital interest to India. The Gulf countries provide an excellent market potential for India’s manufactured goods and services, especially in project services exports. Around 10 million Indians live across the Gulf, sending remittances of about $45 billion annually on average, according to certain estimates. According to a World Bank report, India was the largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2021, receiving around $87 billion, approximately 50 percent of which came from the Gulf. According to India’s Ministry of Commerce showed that India’s exports to the GCC countries in 2021-22 increased to about USD 44 billion as against USD 27.8 billion in 2020-21, a growth of over 58 percent. This accounted for 10.4 percent of India’s total exports in 2021-22. On the import front, India witnessed a rise of 85.8 percent compared to 2020-21, with total imports summing up to USD 110.73 billion, accounting for 18 percent of India’s total imports. Strategic Relations: From a strategic point of view, India and GCC share the goal of political stability and security in the region. The common political and security concerns of India and GCC include cross-border terrorism in the Gulf region and South Asia. The emerging common security perceptions create further opportunities for GCC-India cooperation in the future. The GCC States are going through important changes and transformations; the process of understanding and integration is coming of age. Along with it the areas for cooperation are also widening beyond investments, trade and commerce, and sharing & development of human resources to security. India-GCC Industrial Conference: The first GCC-India Industrial Conference was held in Mumbai in February 2004, the second was held in Muscat in March 2006, the third was held in Mumbai in May 2007 and the fourth was held at King Abdullah Economic City, Jeddah in November 2015. India- GCC Free Trade Agreement: India and GCC signed a Framework Agreement for enhancing and developing economic cooperation between the two sides in New Delhi in August 2004. Two rounds of talks for finalizing aspects like tariff rules, rules of origin, etc have been held. The India-GCC FTA is under negotiation. India’s trade with other GCC countries: Saudi Arabia: At a total volume of USD 42.9 billion in 2021-22, Saudi Arabia was India’s fourth-largest trading partner. Imports from Saudi Arabia were the fourth largest at USD 34.1 billion (7%), up 50% from the previous year. Most of it was crude oil. It was India’s fifth-largest trading partner in 2021-22 at USD 34.3 billion. UAE: The UAE was India’s third-largest trading partner in 2021-2022, and the second-largest for both exports (USD 28 billion) and imports (USD 45 billion) when these are counted individually. Qatar accounts for 41% of India’s total natural gas imports. For Oman, India was the 3rd largest (after UAE and China) source for its imports and the 3rd largest market (after UAE and Saudi Arabia) for its non-oil exports in 2019. India-Qatar Start-Up Bridge: The Vice President launched the “India-Qatar Start-Up bridge” that aims to link the start-up ecosystems of the two countries. India has emerged as the 3rd largest ecosystem for startups globally, with over 70,000 registered Startups. India is home to 100 unicorns with a total valuation of over USD 300 billion. Way Forward: India needs to focus on long-term plans for economic cooperation with GCC, beyond oil, GCC countries are also revolutionizing green energy. India can promote its green hydrogen mission in cooperation with GCC countries. Other projects including renewable energy, higher education, technological innovation, smart cities, and space commerce are the areas GCC and India can diversify their cooperation. Source: The Hindu Self-reliance in defence Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Science and Technology Context: Aatmarnirbharta” (self-reliance) and “Nari Shakti” (women power) were the two themes on display at the Republic Day parade on Thursday — by many of the marching contingents as well as the different tableaux. India ranks fourth among 12 Indo-Pacific nations in self-reliant arms production capabilities, according to a study released this month by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), a widely respected independent resource on global security. China tops the list, Japan is second, South Korea is in third place, and Pakistan is at number 8. Need for self-reliance In the last five years, India has been the world’s top arms importer with a 15 per cent global share of imports. Nearly 50 per cent of the capital acquisition budget is spent on imports. This excludes many “indigenous” items assembled by Ordnance Factories (OFs) and Defence Public Sector Units (DPSUs) where a high percentage of raw materials and sub-systems are imported. In 1995, a committee under APJ Abdul Kalam, the then scientific advisor to the defence minister, had recommended that India should improve its indigenisation content from 30 per cent to 70 per cent by 2005. Although no official data exists, the self-reliance in defence production is still estimated to be less than 35 per cent. About 90 per cent of domestic defence manufacturing is currently done in the public sector, by the 9 DPSUs and 39 OFs. Since 2001, when private participation was allowed in defence sector, 222 letters of intents and industrial licences have been issued to around 150 firms. Of these, only 46 firms have commenced production so far. Current status Globally, 80 per cent of components, aggregates and assemblies of complex weapon systems and aircraft are made by MSMEs. In India, more than 6,000 MSMEs are currently supplying components and sub-assemblies to the DPSUs, OFs, DRDO and private firms. The defence manufacturing sector currently employs more than 2 lakh people in India. This size of military industrial workforce is similar to nations like the UK and France, which are the top defence manufacturers. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the defence minister, has approved procurement of equipment for more than Rs 1,17,830 crore during the UPA-II regime. Another Rs 1,50,000 crore worth of approvals have been given by DAC under the NDA government. A modelling of 35 selected projects cleared by DAC, along with their likely dates of induction — from 2012 to 2023 — has been done by a foreign manufacturer. The government policy now aims to achieve 70 per cent indigenisation in defence products by 2027. This translates into an Indian defence market of Rs 87,000 crore by 2022 and Rs 1,65,000 crore by 2027. It presents a huge opportunity to the DPSUs, foreign manufacturers, Indian private players and MSMEs. Challenges Low R&D; investment Historically, India has not invested enough in the national research and development (R&D;) effort. As per data collated by the World Bank, India has been able to allocate only 0.66 per cent of GDP (2018) towards R&D;, while the world average is 2.63 per cent. The comparable individual R&D; allocation (per cent of GDP) for some other nations is as follows: Israel 5.44; USA 3.45; Japan 3.26; Germany 3.14; China 2.4; and Turkey 1.09. Low domestic competence Regrettably, India does not yet have the domestic competence to fully design and manufacture any significant combat weapon/platform and is dependent on the foreign supplier for the critical components that lie at the core of the combat index of the equipment in question. Limitation of the industry Unlike other sectors, defence industry is a monopsony in which the single buyer, the government, is also the authority laying down procurement policies. This makes active government support essential for private defence manufacturers, a fact borne out by the experience of countries — the US, Israel, Brazil and France — where private defence industry has flourished. Import dependence Thus, while it is commendable that India is now going to manufacture the C295 transport aircraft in a collaboration with AirBus, France, the reality is that the engine, avionics, landing gear, etc, will come from abroad and the integration will be done by the Indian entity. Composite combat and manufacturing capabilities have not been reviewed and honed appropriately. Thus, while India now claims that it will soon become a major arms exporter, the composition of such inventory leans towards the “soft” category (clothing, helmets, surveillance equipment). India missed the industrial design and manufacturing bus, a national competence demonstrated by nations like South Korea and China, over the last five decades. Technological advances have made the design and manufacture of the semiconductor chip the new currency of national prosperity and military power. The US and China are now locked in intense competition in this domain and India is yet to acquire a profile that would be deemed relevant. Paradoxically, Indian brain power is very visible in the global semiconductor/chip fabrication effort but more at the lower end of the food chain, often as employees of the global venture capitalists. Indigenous initiatives iDEX Launched in April 2018, iDEX aims to achieve self – reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D; institutes and academia DefExpo 2022 held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat drew attention to the need for India to acquire the appropriate degree of “aatmanirbharata” (self-reliance) in the defence sector and the arduous path ahead. Commissioning of the indigenously-designed and built aircraft carrier INS Vikrant The firing of an SLBM (submarine-launched ballistic missile) from the INS Arihant The radical decision to award the manufacture of a military transport aircraft (C 295) to a major private sector entity The conclusion of a deal with Russia to manufacture a Kalashnikov-type light weapon/small arms in India. The induction of the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited-made Light Combat Helicopter Prachand into the Indian Air Force in 2022 The indigenous 105-mm Indian Field Guns (IFG) replaced the Army’s British-era 25-pounder guns — which traditionally offered the symbolic 21-gun salute The Army’s mechanised column comprised three MBT Arjun MK-I, one Nag Missile System (NAMIS), two BMP 2/2K, three Quick Reaction Fighting Vehicles (QRFV), two K-9 Vajra Self Propelled Howitzer Guns, one Brahmos missile, two 10m Short Span Bridges, a Mobile Microwave Node and Mobile Network Centre, and two Akash missile systems. The Navy’s tableau showcased a woman air crew of Dornier aircraft (flying overhead), highlighting the all-women crew of a surveillance sortie undertaken last year The new indigenous Nilgiri class ship, a Dhruv helicopter deploying marine commandos, and three models of autonomous unmanned systems being developed under IDEX-Sprint Challenge. Women in defence As many as 108 women officers in the Army are set to be cleared for the rank of Colonel (selection grade) by January 22 by a special selection board, which will make them eligible to command units and troops in their respective arms and services for the first time. At republic day parade, Both the Navy and the IAF contingents were led by women officers – Lt Cdr Disha Amrith and Sqn Ldr Sindhu Reddy respectively. The Assam Rifles marching contingent had an equal number of men and women personnel. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) also had an all-women contingent led by Assistant Commandant Poonam Gupta. A team of “Daredevils”, motorcycle riders from the Corps of Signals, was co-led by a woman officer. Women also occupied pride of place in many of the 23 tableaux that were part of the parade this year, including those of Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Tripura. Women riders are a part of the camel contingent of the Border Security Force (BSF) Women officers have been inducted into all branches of the Navy, and they will be eligible for permanent commission in the future. Women officers can command shore-based units and, as they join the service and become eligible for permanent commission, they would be able to command ships and air squadrons. The IAF has opened all branches for women officers, including the fighter stream and the new weapon systems branch. All major countries including the United States, United Kingdom, Russia, and Israel, allow women in command positions of their national armed forces. Way forward Even as India aspires to become a $5-trillion economy, it is evident that it faces many national security inadequacies. The high dependency index on foreign suppliers (traditionally the former USSR now Russia) for major military inventory items is stark. This dependency induces a macro national vulnerability and dilutes India’s quest for meaningful and credible strategic autonomy. meaningful indigenisation and credible “aatmanirbharta” calls for sustained funding support, fortitude and an ecosystem that will nurture this effort Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1)With reference to Jatar Duel situated near Sundarbans, consider the following statements: It is based on Nagara style of temple architecture. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. It is traditionally connected to an inscription by Raja Jayantachandra issued in 975 AD. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Zanskar range is situated to the South of Great Himalayan Range South of Kargil North of Nubra Valley North of Kailash range Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA): IICA was registered as a society on September 12, 2008 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. IICA works under the aegis of the Ministry of Finance to deliver opportunities for research, education, and advocacy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 28th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; } For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [28th January, 2023] – Day 64

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Analyze the impact of e-governance initiatives such as e-filing of taxes and online tracking of public services on reducing corruption and promoting transparency. भ्रष्टाचार को कम करने और पारदर्शिता को बढ़ावा देने पर करों की ई-फाइलिंग और सार्वजनिक सेवाओं की ऑनलाइन ट्रैकिंग जैसी ई-गवर्नेंस पहलों के प्रभाव का विश्लेषण करें। 2. Examine the role of technology in promoting transparency and accountability in election processes and suggest measures to improve it. चुनाव प्रक्रियाओं में पारदर्शिता और उत्तरदायित्व को बढ़ावा देने में प्रौद्योगिकी की भूमिका की जांच करें और इसे सुधारने के उपाय सुझाएं। 3. Evaluate the success of e-governance initiatives in increasing public participation in policy-making and decision-making processes and suggest ways to further improve it. नीति-निर्माण और निर्णय लेने की प्रक्रियाओं में सार्वजनिक भागीदारी बढ़ाने में ई-गवर्नेंस पहल की सफलता का मूल्यांकन करें और इसे और बेहतर बनाने के उपाय सुझाएं। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: In the recently concluded 12th Session of the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group (ITWG) on Animal Genetic Resources (AnGR) at Rome during 18 -20 January 2023, India was elected as Vice-Chair and represented Asia and Pacific region. About WG AnGR: The Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)’s Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) established the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture at its Seventh Regular Session, in 1997. Its purpose is to: review the situation and issues related to agrobiodiversity in the area of animal genetic resources for food and agriculture and advise and make recommendations to the Commission on these matters; consider the progress made in implementing the Commission’s programme of work on animal genetic resources for food and agriculture as well as any other matters referred to it by the Commission; report to the Commission on its activities. About Food and Agricultural Organization: FAO is a United Nations specialized agency that leads international efforts to end hunger. Every year on October 16th, the world celebrates World Food Day. The day commemorates the anniversary of the FAO’s founding in 1945. It is one of the United Nations food aid organizations based in Rome (Italy). The World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) are its sister organizations. Flagship Publications of FAO: The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA). The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO). The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI). The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA). The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO). About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA): The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture. It aims to reach international consensus on policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their use. The Commission initiates, oversees and guides the preparation of global sectoral and cross-sectoral assessments of genetic resources for food and agriculture. As of July 2014, 178 countries and The European Union are Members of the Commission. Membership of the Commission, which is open to all Members of FAO, shall be composed of those Members which notify the Director-General in writing of their desire to become members. Membership of the Commission does not place any financial burden on the Government. The Commission, so far, has established the following intergovernmental technical working groups: Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Aquatic Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AqGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Forest Genetic Resources (WG FGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG PGR) Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Aditya-L1 Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is planning to launch the Aditya-L1 mission by June or July 2023. About Aditya-L1 Mission: Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India. A satellite around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without occultation/eclipses. This position provides a greater advantage of observing solar activities continuously. Aditya-L1 carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layers of the Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle detectors. Four payloads directly view the Sun from the unique vantage point of L1, and the remaining three payloads carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at the Lagrange point L1. The Aditya-L1 mission will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1 point, which is about 1.5 million km from Earth. Aditya L1 Payloads: The 1,500 kg satellite carries seven science payloads with diverse objectives. Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC): To study the diagnostic parameters of solar corona and dynamics and origin of Coronal Mass Ejections, magnetic field measurement of solar corona. Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT): To image the spatially resolved Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (200-400 nm) and measure solar irradiance variations. Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX): To study the variation of solar wind properties as well as its distribution and spectral characteristics. Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA): To understand the composition of solar wind and its energy distribution Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS): To monitor the X-ray flares for studying the heating mechanism of the solar corona . High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS): To observe the dynamic events in the solar corona and provide an estimate of the energy used to accelerate the particles during the eruptive events. Magnetometer: To measure the magnitude and nature of the Interplanetary Magnetic Field. Source:   The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same M1 Abrams Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the US President announced that he would send M1 Abrams tanks to Ukraine. About M1 Abrams: The M1 Abrams main battle tank was developed by Chrysler Defence. Production of the M1 started in 1980 and ceased in 1992. This MBT was named in honour to the General Abrams, commander of US forces during Vietnam War. The M1 Abrams MBT replaced the M60 Patton in service with US Army. The M1 is informally known as “The Beast,” “Dracula” and “Whispering Death,” referring to its impressive firepower and quiet operation. The M1 Abrams has a modern fire control system with a high first hit probability. It can destroy tank-size targets at a range of 2 km while firing on the move. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea Jeevan Raksha Padak 2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: The President of India Approved the conferment of 43 persons for Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2022 out of which four are posthumous. About Jeevan Raksha Padak 2022: It’s a series of awards given to a person for a meritorious act of human nature in saving the life of a person. It is given in three categories, namely, Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for conspicuous courage in saving life under circumstances of very great danger to the life of the rescuer. Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of great danger to the life of the rescuer. Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of grave bodily injury to the rescuer. The Awards Committee makes its recommendations to the Prime Minister and the President. Conditions of Eligibility: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life from drowning, fire, rescue operations in mines, rescuer displayed in an act or a series of acts of human nature in saving life from drowning, fire rescue operations in mines. The medal may be awarded posthumously. Eligible Categories: Persons of either sex in all walks of life, other than the members of the Armed Forces, Police Forces and of recognized Fire Services, if the act is performed by them in the course of duty. Source: PIB  Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Etikoppaka Wooden Toy Craft Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: The Union government choosing to confer Padma Shri on him in the art category is an honour to the Etikoppaka wooden toy craft, and it will go a long way in promoting the art. About Etikoppaka Wooden Toy Craft: The toys are made with lacquer colour and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating. The toys are made out of wood and are coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves. The wood used to make the toys is soft in nature and the art of toy making is also known as Turned wood Lacquer craft. While making the Etikoppaka toys, lac, a colourless resinous secretion of numerous insects, is used. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating. Etikoppaka is a picturesque village on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. The success for the Etikoppaka toys is thought to have come from the Rajas of Vizianagaram, who migrated to this region around the same time and acted as catalysts as landlords. GI tag: Etikoppaka Toys have obtained their GI tag under Handicrafts category in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Agricultural, natural or manufactured goods are registered as Geographical Indications (GI) by the Geographical Indications Registry as per the provisions of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. Source:                    The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of (2019) Chalukya Chandela Rashtrakuta Vijayanagara Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation has launched a massive district outreach program in all the districts of the country through a revamped Nidhi Aapke Nikat program. About the Programme: A District Outreach Program for expanding its presence in more than 685 districts of the country – to strengthen the relationship between the organization and its stakeholders Aim: To reach all the districts of the country on the same day i.e. 27th of every month. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) It is a government organisation that manages the provident fund and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India. It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Administered by: Ministry of Labour and Employment. News Source: PIB International Customs Day, 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and all its field formations observed the International Customs Day, 2023 on 27th January. Theme: “Nurturing the Next Generation: Promoting a Culture of Knowledge-sharing and Professional Pride in Customs” Theme is given by: World Customs Organisation (WCO) The World Customs Organization (WCO) is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. The WCO is noted for its work in areas covering the development of international conventions, instruments, and tools on topics such as commodity classification, valuation, rules of origin, collection of customs revenue, supply chain security, international trade facilitation, customs enforcement activities, combating counterfeiting in support of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), drugs enforcement, illegal weapons trading, integrity promotion, and delivering sustainable capacity building to assist with customs reforms and modernization. The WCO maintains the international Harmonized System (HS) goods nomenclature, and administers the technical aspects of the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreements on Customs Valuation and Rules of Origin. The Harmonized System Committee of the WCO undertakes a periodic review of the HS to take account of changes in technology and patterns in international trade, and recommends amendments to the HS. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) A part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2018 after the roll out of Goods and Services Tax (GST). It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). GST Law comprising Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017. News Source: PIB Rare low-basalt plateau with 76 plant species in Western Ghats Discovered Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: Researchers from Pune have discovered a low-level basalt plateau, an isolated flat-topped steep hill, in the Western Ghats in Maharashtra. Recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families Registered a floristic inventory which they claim to be important from the conservation point of view, considering the rampant urbanisation. Location: Manjare village The Details: Three types of rock outcrops are known in the biodiversity hotspot of Western Ghats — lateritic outcrops at high (HLF) and low altitude (LLF), and basalt outcrops at high altitudes (BM). Now a low-altitude basalt outcrop has been found in Murbad district, about 100 kilometres from Mumbai. Rock outcrops are landscape habitats with more areas of rock surface exposure than surrounding areas. It emerges when the surface soil and other materials wear off, exposing the parent rock surface. The outcrop is identified if the area has more than 50 per cent of such rocks. Besides the outcrops, the team also recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families, mainly from Poaceae, Leguminosae and Cyperaceae ranges. What stands out is: It is the first time that such plants were found during research on floral biodiversity. The discovery holds significance as flora growing on these rocks experience multiple environmental stresses. As they grow among rocks, the flora faces a harsher environment compared to other species growing elsewhere What are the Challenges? Limited soil, restricting their nutrient availability The lack of soil also reduces water retention capacity, which puts additional water stress on the plants Face challenges during peak summers: In summer, the rock surfaces have higher temperatures than soil or other surfaces, making it difficult for these species to survive. But despite multiple stresses, these plants are found thriving which shows that these plants have adapted to their surroundings and indicates that a certain level of endemism also exists. Kas Plateau Locally called as ‘Kas Pathar’ or ‘Plateau of Flowers’. A UNESCO world natural heritage site in Maharashtra, is a lateritic plateau (composed of mainly laterite rock, rich in iron and aluminium content) that hosts many endemic wild flowering plants. Location: 25 Km away from Satara District H.Q. & 20 Km away from Northern part of Koyana Sanctuary. The major portion of the plateau is Reserve Forest. Kas plateau is listed under the Protection Working Circle. Kas lake (built 100 years ago) is a perennial source of Water supply for western part of Satara city by gravity. News Source: Down to Earth Managing Water Quality of Lake Victoria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: One of the largest lakes in the world, Lake Victoria, has been suffering from a variety of unsustainable human activities over the last five decades. Delhi-based non-profit Centre for Science and Environment and National Environment Management Council (NEMC), Tanzania have jointly released a report on managing its water quality. About Lake Victoria: Lake Victoria and its flora and fauna support the livelihoods of about 45 million people. The ecologically unique water body is shared by three countries — Tanzania (51 per cent), Uganda (44 per cent) and Kenya (5 per cent). Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America. Occupies a shallow depression in Africa. The lake was renamed after Queen Victoria by the explorer John Hanning Speke, the first Briton to document it in 1858, while on an expedition with Richard Francis Burton Findings & Suggestions of the Report Identified Mwanza city as a hotspot, contributing a substantial pollution load in the form of industrial effluents, domestic sewage and dumping of solid waste. It also recognised two rivers — the Mirongo and the Nyashishi — as the major water bodies carrying domestic and industrial pollution loads, respectively. Results of the sampling exercise showed substantial pollutant load in the rivers, which may be getting discharged in the lake. The water from the Nyashishi is extensively used for agricultural purposes before it meets the lake. The focus on the Nyashishi should now be doubled as any pollutant in the river, along with affecting the water quality of Lake Victoria, may also adversely impact crops and human health. News Source: Down to Earth The urgent need for CBFC reforms Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Benegal Committee and the Justice Mukul Mudgal Committee of 2013 had both suggested moving away from censorship towards age-based rating/classification norms for films. About Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC): Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952. It ensures the good and healthy entertainment in accordance with the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 and the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules 1983. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by CBFC. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairperson (all of whom are appointed by the Union Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional Offices at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The Union Government nominates the Members of the panels by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of two years. The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B). About Censorship: Censorship is the suppression of speech, public communication, or other information. This may be done on the basis that such material is considered objectionable, harmful, sensitive, or “inconvenient”. Censorship can be conducted by governments, private institutions and other controlling bodies. Legal backing to Censorship in India: The Cinematograph Act, of 1952: The legislation exclusively deals with the censorship of movies in India with respect to certain rules and regulations established by law. The certification, Censor Board establishment, and scope of such Board is provided in this legislation. The practice of censoring movies to remove any objectionable material by the Censor Board has been followed in India. It is to make the movie suitable for the target audience. The viewership is based on the certificate issued to every movie prescribing the audience that can watch the movie. Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021: Digital media is brought under the ambit of Section 69(A) of the Information Technology Act, of 2000 which gives takedown powers to the government. The section allows the Centre to block public access to an intermediary “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above”. Digital Media: It covers digitised content that can be transmitted over the internet or computer networks. It includes intermediaries such as Twitter, Facebook, YouTube. It includes publishers of news and current affairs content and also curators of such content. Publishers of news and current affairs content cover online papers, news portals, news agencies and news aggregators. Significance of Censorship: Films: Films have always been considered the most powerful medium of expression. It is stationarily accepted that cinema is a form of speech & expression. They may affect public attitudes and behavior in numerous ways i.e., in negative or positive ways. Removal of materials that are obscene or otherwise considered morally questionable. Pornography, for example, is often censored under this rationale. Online platforms: Increasing level of poor, offensive and abusive content is sometimes spread in the name of freedom of expression. With the deeper reach of smartphones, children and youth are being misled by such content. Increasing digital crimes like radicalisation, terrorist recruitment, digital hacking, child pornography, etc. Religion Censorship: Religious censorship is the means by which any material considered objectionable by a certain religion is removed. Political Censorship : Political censorship occurs when governments hold back information from their citizens. This is often done to exert control over the populace and prevent free expression that might foment rebellion. Military Censorship: Military censorship is the process of keeping military intelligence and tactics confidential and away from the enemy. This is used to counter espionage. Challenges associated with the Censorship: Against the Natural justice and freedom of speech: Natural justice is a fundamental principle in public law when decisions affect fundamental rights such as the freedom of speech. The Supreme Court of India on various occasions has recognised that the right to receive and impart information is implicit in free speech. Selective targeting: Most arguments like abusive language, against the cultural ethos, are either vague or irrelevant as they often depict day-to-day life. Curb Freedom of Artistic Expressions: The present norms put a curb on the Freedom to Artistic Expressions under Article 19. Exploitation of emergency powers: The recent blocking has been made under Rule 16(3) of the IT Rules and Section 69(A) of the IT Act, 2000 which allows for “emergency blocking”. However, the term “emergency” itself is not legislatively defined, but following the dictionary, the meaning would mean “a dangerous situation requiring immediate action”. It permits an expedited process that weakens the already minimal checks by bypassing a committee and eliminating the opportunity to be heard. We have also been witnessing increased use of this emergency power, Rising Intolerance and Populist measure: It has also been alleged that the rules will be more misused than for real regulation. There are instances when the government tried to curb certain Anti- Government Agendas while ignoring populist fake news. Way Forward: There are numerous landmark judgements in this regard which have mostly arisen out of a conflict between the fundamental right to speech and expression and the restrictions imposed in consonance with the restrictions enshrined in the Constitution for the right. It is the obligation of the state to protect the fundamental rights of its citizens and every action while sanctioning the censorship shall be equivalent to reasonable restrictions. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021) A committed judiciary Centralization of powers Elected government Separation of powers Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA): It is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is “M1 Abrams”, sometimes seen in the news ? An Israeli satellite system UAE’s indigenous ballistic missile programme An American main battle tank None of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is/are correct? It works under the Department of Economic Affairs of the Ministry of Finance. It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here