Apr 3, 2023 Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series for UPSC

[DAY 25] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 25->Click Here

Apr 1, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Yoga Day Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture About International Yoga Day : The UN proclaimed 21st June as IDY by passing a resolution in December 2014. It was during the 69th session of the General Assembly. About Yoga and UNESCO Intangible Heritage Sites:- Intangible cultural heritage means the traditions or living expressions inherited from our ancestors and passed through generations as a way of life. These include oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, and festive events. The Convention of the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was adopted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in 2003 and entered into force in 2006. Salient features of Intangible Cultural heritage:- Traditional, contemporary and living at the same time Inclusive Representative Community-based The Purpose of the Convention:- to safeguard the expressions of intangible cultural heritage that are endangered by the processes of globalization to ensure respect for the intangible cultural heritage of the communities, groups and individuals to raise awareness at the local, national and international levels of the importance of the intangible cultural heritage. The Committee to the Convention publishes three lists of intangible cultural heritage: Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding Register of good safeguarding practices UNESCO World Intangible Cultural Heritage List 2021 Kutiyattam: Sanskrit theatre-2008 Vedic chanting-2008 Ramlila: the traditional performance of the Ramayana-2008 Ramman: religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India-2009 Chhau dance-2010 Kalbelia: folk songs and dances of Rajasthan-2010 Mudiyettu: ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala-2010 Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India-2012 Sankirtana: ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur-2013 Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India-2014 Nawrouz-2016 Yoga-2016 Kumbh Mela-2017 Durga Puja in Kolkata-2021 IMAGE SOURCE: Click here MUST READ: India’s list of World Heritage Sites SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2017) Traditions                                       Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival           Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra             Gonds Wari-Warkari                         Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only None of the above INDIASOFT Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The 23rd edition of INDIASOFT was inaugurated recently. About INDIASOFT:- It is held consecutively since 2001. It has emerged as the favourite meeting ground for Indian tech developers and global consumers. Purpose: With more than 1000 IT and tech companies converging to meet and connect with each other, the show brings to the fore competencies of the Indian software and tech industry. Provides multiple opportunities to forge business alliances, spread first-hand information about the latest innovations and help build a vibrant and dynamic tech world. MUST READ:  Indian Deep Tech and a case for a strategic fund SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Concerning foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Concerning the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has formulated National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) as a separate and independent scheme to motivate farmers to adopt chemical-free farming and enhance the reach of natural farming. About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):- Formulated as a separate and independent scheme from 2023-24 by upscaling the Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP). The scheme is from 2023 to 2026. Mission Objectives:- To promote an alternative system of farming for freedom from externally purchased inputs, cost reduction and thereby increasing income of farmers. To popularize integrated agriculture-animal husbandry models based on desi cow and local resources. To collect, validate and document Natural Farming practices. To undertake activities for awareness creation, capacity building, promotion and demonstration of Natural Farming. To create standards, certification procedures and branding for Natural Farming products for national and international markets. Benefits to farmers:- Incentive to farmers for one-time on-farm manure production infrastructure:- A financial assistance of Rs. 15000/- per ha @ Rs. 5000/- per ha/year for three years Training of Farmers by Champion farmers and CRP Farmer Producer Organisations (FPO) formation for farmers practicing Natural Farming: 100 FPOs in the Gangetic belt Another 400 FPOs across the country Farmer Field School:– It will involve activities to create awareness. About Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana – Bing images It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). It is a sub-mission under the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), which falls within the umbrella of the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). Objectives:- To improve farmers’ profitability, availability of quality food and restoration of soil fertility and farmland ecosystem as well as generate employment. Contribute to rural development. Promoting traditional indigenous practices, which give freedom to farmers from externally purchased inputs. It focuses on on-farm biomass recycling with major stress on biomass mulching Use of cow dung–urine formulations and Exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs either directly or indirectly. Under BPKP, financial assistance of Rs 12200/ha for 3 years is provided for cluster formation, capacity building and continuous handholding by trained personnel, certification and residue analysis with a vision of covering 12 lakh ha in 600 major blocks of 2000 hectares in different states. The scheme is compliant with PGS-India certification under the PGS India programme. 8 States opted: Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh,  Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 FAME II scheme Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology and Governance Context: Recently the Committee on Estimates (2022-23) for evaluation of electric vehicle policy suggested an extension of the FAME II scheme that was to end next year. About the FAME II scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: Policy – Transforming India (mygov. in) Launched in 2015, a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan. Implementation by: Department of Heavy Industries, Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Objective:- To encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies. It aims to promote the manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and to ensure sustainable growth of the same It has two phases of the scheme: Phase I: started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March 2019 Phase II: started from April 2019, will be completed by 31st March 2022 The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug-in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles. FAME-II: some modifications were made to the original scheme. To drive adoption of electric vehicles Introduction of a demand incentive of Rs. 15,000 per kWh for electric two-wheelers with a maximum cap at 40% of the vehicles’ cost. Phase 2 of the scheme was approved for a period of three years starting from April 2019. It aims to generate demand by way of supporting e-buses, e 2-wheelers, e three- wheelers Launch of aggregate demand for 300,000 electric three-wheelers by Energy Efficiency Services Limited. MUST READ: Electric buses under FAME scheme sanctioned SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Malaria Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has certified Azerbaijan and Tajikistan as malaria-free. About Malaria:- IMAGE SOURCE: A Happy Ending To Malaria Story? – Scientific Animations IMAGE SOURCE: malaria – Bing images It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well as Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Transmission: The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: Malaria Vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Mangroves in India Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies report that an alarming 50 per cent of the world’s mangrove forests have disappeared in the last five decades due to coastal developments. About Mangroves in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Environmental Information System (casmbenvis.nic.in) It is a small tree or shrub It grows along coastlines taking root in salty sediments, often underwater. They are found in marshy intertidal estuarine regions. They can survive a high degree of salinity through several adaptive mechanisms. Mangrove forests also contribute to climate change mitigation by absorbing large amounts of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere and storing them in their soils i.e., up to four times more carbon than other tropical forests. Mangroves are key habitats for coastal biodiversity. They are also important in coastal erosion mitigation and storm damage reduction. Geographical Location:- Mangroves are found only along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil. Asia has the largest number of mangroves worldwide. India’s contribution is 45.8% total mangrove cover in South Asia. According to the India State of Forest Report, 2019, the mangrove cover in India is 4,975 sq km, which is 15% of the country’s total geographical area. West Bengal has the highest percentage of area under total Mangrove cover followed by Gujarat and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Sundarbans in West Bengal are the largest mangrove forest regions in the world. It is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. MUST READ: Mangrove Breakthrough SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Q.2) With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and are the names of (2021) Glaciers Mangrove areas Ramsar sites Saline lakes Akash Weapon System Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Prime Minister termed the signing of the contract for the procurement of the Akash Weapon System for the Indian Army, a welcome development. About Akash Weapon System:- AKASH is a Short Range Surface Air Missile system. It is a Russian-made missile system. It was planned and developed as part of India’s Integrated Guided-Missile Development Program (IGMDP The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) created it, and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). produced it It can track aeroplanes up to 50–80 kilometres away and at altitudes of 18,000 metres. It can destroy aerial targets such as fighter jets, cruise missiles, and air-to-surface missiles, as well as ballistic It is to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks. AKASH Weapon System can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or Autonomous Mode. It has built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) features. The entire weapon system has been configured on mobile platforms. AKASH Weapon Systems has been inducted and is operational with the Indian Air Force (IAF) as well as the Indian Army (IA). MUST READ: Akash Prime missile SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘IndARC’ is sometimes seen in the news, is the name of? (2015) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim a scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region. Q.2)Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Misogyny in the matrimonial market Syllabus GS-1: Society (Women’s Issues) Context: In a recent study, carried out on a large matrimonial website to understand the marital preferences of men, it was found that there exists a striking penalty for employed women in the “marriage market”, especially in north India. India was ranked 143 out of 146 countries in 2022 in the Global Gender Gap Report’s category for economic participation and opportunity category for women. In contrast to countries at similar income, education and fertility levels, female labour force participation rates in urban India at 24 per cent continue to be the lowest (Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS 2017-18)). Can partner preferences in the marriage market influence women’s labour market decisions? In a setting with near-universal marriage, the preferences of potential spouses or their families may loom large for Indian women. If men systematically discriminate against employed women when it comes to choosing a life partner, this could contribute to women who might otherwise wish to work, choosing not to. Let us observe the findings of the study: The ones who were employed received nearly 15 per cent fewer responses from male suitors relative to those who were not working. The preference for non-working female partners holds across all education groups of female profiles. Moreover, women employed in “masculine” occupations were additionally 3 per cent less likely to receive responses compared to women employed in “feminine” occupations. Lastly, a woman in a “masculine” job who stated a preference to continue to work after marriage was less likely to elicit male interest, relative to a woman in a “feminine” job who preferred to continue working. Profiles of working women elicited less interest from men even when their caste, education levels and family incomes matched those of the men. These results are driven by responses from higher caste men in Delhi, where patriarchal norms are more salient. Further, the level of discrimination against working women was higher by male suitors with lower education levels, who are more representative of the average male population in India. What do these findings indicate? Reinforcement of gendered patterns: These patterns are likely to reinforce the gendered patterns that typify the Indian workforce, making it harder for women to work, especially in occupations where they are not already well represented. Letting go of additional income: It is worth remembering that having a spouse who works is likely to increase household income significantly. By penalising women for making this choice, men are expressing a preference that is strong enough that they are willing to give up additional household income. Gender gap in time spent in domestic work: In urban India, married women spend almost 7.5 times more time on domestic work as compared to married men. Women in north India, and especially amongst high castes, spend more time on domestic work relative to women in the south (Time Use Survey, 2019). Working Schedules and their interpretations: Male-dominated occupations may be characterised by more inflexible working schedules. Women who work, in general, and those who work in male-dominated occupations, may even be considered “sexually impure” due to greater interactions with men at work. Conclusion A developing country like India, seeking to achieve rapid economic growth can ill afford educated women staying out of the workforce. Changing norms and attitudes of men (besides women) is critical to increasing women’s participation and reducing their occupational segregation. table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Apr 1, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Apr 1, 2023 Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series for UPSC

[DAY 24] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 24-> Click Here

Mar 31, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COVID-19 Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, Delhi reported an uptick in COVID-19 cases, compelling the health department to hold an emergency meeting. About COVID-19:- Covid-19 is spread via airborne droplets (sneezing coughing) or contact with the surface. The incubation period (interval between being infected and showing symptoms) is not very accurately known. Coronavirus is also known as COVID-19. This disease is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus(SARS-CoV-2). It is an infectious disease that spreads from person to person. Structure:- IMAGE SOURCE: Trending Clinical Topic: COVID-19 (medscape.com) The outer layer of this virus is covered with spike-like proteins which surround it like a crown, thus named COVID. COVID-19 Diagnostic tests:- Viral tests: Mainly laboratory tests done by doctors. Antibody test:– It is a kind of blood test that determines the body’s status before exposure to COVID-19 and the body’s antibody stamina. The body takes 12 days to make enough antibodies to get identified in a test. Important Variants:- IMAGE SOURCE: What is a variant? An expert explains | News | Wellcome Over time, the virus may start to differ slightly in terms of its genetic sequence. These changes to the viral genetic sequence during this process are known as Viruses with new mutations are sometimes called Variants. Variants can differ by one or multiple mutations. All strains are variants, but not all variants are strains. XE Variant of Coronavirus:- XE is a sub-variant of Omicron, which caused the third wave of Covid-19. It was suspected of a woman in Mumbai, India in 2022. The Omicron variant, which is responsible for over 90% of the infections detected in 2022, has two prominent sub-variants, called 1 and BA.2. The XE variant is what is called a ‘recombinant’. This means it contains the mutations found in BA.1 as well as BA.2 varieties of Omicron. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies show that aeroplanes may face a growing risk of being hit by uncontrolled re-entries of rockets used to launch satellites. About Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites:- IMAGE SOURCE: Everything about ISRO: History and Mission: Planets Education In an uncontrolled re-entry, the rocket stage simply falls. Its path down is determined by its shape, angle of descent, air currents and other characteristics. It disintegrates as it falls. Concerns:- As the smaller pieces fan out, the potential radius of impact will increase on the ground. Some pieces burn up entirely while others don’t. But because of the speed at which they’re travelling, debris can be deadly. If re-entering stages still hold fuel, atmospheric and terrestrial chemical contamination is another risk. Regulations:- There is no international binding agreement to ensure rocket stages always perform controlled re-entries nor on the technologies with which they can be controlled. The Liability Convention, 1972 requires countries to pay for damages, not prevent them. These technologies include wing-like attachments, de-orbiting brakes, extra fuel on the re-entering body, and design changes that minimise debris formation. MUST READ: RISAT and RISAT-2B SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Climate change impact on Salt Marshes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies show that more than 90% of the world’s salt marshes may soon succumb to sea level rise. About Salt Marshes:- These are types of wetlands. Wetlands: Lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems where the water table is usually at or near the surface or the land is covered by shallow water. These are periodically saturated, flooded, or ponded with water. They are characterized by herbaceous (non-woody) vegetation adapted to wet soil conditions. They are further characterized as tidal marshes and non-tidal marshes. Marshes are often divided into:- Freshwater Swamps These are often found hundreds of kilometres from the coast. These are dominated by grasses and aquatic plants. These marshes often develop around lakes and streams. Saltwater Marshes These are some of the richest ecosystems for biodiversity. They are dominated by grasses. They provide food and shelter for algae, fungi, shellfish, fish, amphibians, and reptiles. A few mangrove trees may dot saltwater marshes, but they are dominated by grasses and a layer of algae called an algal mat. This algal mat is home to many insects and amphibians. Wetlands in India Globally, wetlands cover 4 per cent of the geographical area of the world The ‘Convention on Wetlands’ is called the Ramsar Convention. It was signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. It is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. Ramsar sites in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Ramsar Convention | The Official Website of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India (moef.gov.in) MUST READ: India Designates 5 New Ramsar Sites SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 EOS-06 Satellite Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO released images captured by EOS-06 SATELLITE. About EOS-06 Satellite:- It is the third-generation satellite in the Oceansat series. This is to provide continuity services for Oceansat-2 spacecraft with enhanced payload specifications as well as application areas. Payloads:- Ocean Color Monitor (OCM-3) Sea Surface Temperature Monitor (SSTM) Ku-Band Scatterometer (SCAT-3) ARGOS Mission Objectives:- To ensure the data continuity of Ocean colour and wind vector data to sustain the operational applications. To improve the applications. Some additional datasets such as Sea Surface Temperature and more bands in the Optical region for fluorescence and in the Infrared region for atmospheric corrections are accommodated. To improve related algorithms and data products to serve in well-established application areas and to enhance the mission utility. MUST READ: Satellite Broadband Services SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight lines Speed of light is always the same Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Piezoelectric effect Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Researchers have reported evidence of the Piezoelectric effect in liquids recently. About Piezoelectric effect:- IMAGE SOURCE: i Piezo THE PIEZOELECTRIC EFFECT AS AN ALTERNATIVE (slidetodoc.com) The Piezoelectric effect was discovered in 1880, in quartz, by Jacques and Pierre Curie. Piezo’ meaning to press or to squeeze. Piezoelectricity is the generation of electric charges in certain solid materials in response to applied mechanical stress. Piezoelectric property essentially is based on the interplay between mechanical and electrical features of a material. The bonds that keep materials together are electrons and these electrons are the basis for electricity. There exists a connection between material mechanics and material electronics. Therefore, changing one will impact the other. The effect has been known for 143 years and in this time has been observed only in solids. Uses:– Piezoelectric materials are used in a variety of applications, such as in sensors, actuators, and energy harvesting devices. Some examples of common piezoelectric materials include quartz, ceramics, and certain types of crystals. MUST READ: Lithium-Ion Batteries SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital displays in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? (2017) OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 None of the above statements is correct Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rajender Prasad Syllabus Prelims –(Important Personalities)Modern Indian History Context: About Rajender Prasad:- He was the first president of India, in office from 1952 to 1962. A supporter of Mahatma Gandhi, Prasad was imprisoned by British authorities during the Salt Satyagraha of 1931 and the Quit India movement of 1942 In the early 1920s, he became the editor of a Hindi weekly Desh and an English biweekly, Indian National Movement: He attended the 1906 Calcutta session of Indian National Congress. He joined the party in 1911 and later elected to the All India Congress Committee. He was highly impressed by Mahatma Gandhi and he supported Gandhi during the Satyagraha Movement against Indigo Planters in Champaran, 1917 ,Bihar. He later quit his lucrative career as a lawyer in 1920 and jumped into Freedom Struggle Movement and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement. He led the Non-Cooperation Movement in Bihar He started the National College in Patna in 1921 to promote Swadeshi asking people to boycott foreign goods. He set up the Quetta Central Relief Committee in Sindh and Punjab under his own presidency after 1935 Quetta Earthquake. Hewas elected as the President of the Bombay Session of the Indian National Congress in 1934. He was also elected as the President for second time in 1939 after Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from his post He became president of INC the third time President of INC in 1947 when J.B.Kripalani resigned from his post. Contribution to Constitution Making:- In 1946, Rajendra Prasad joined the Interim Government of India as the Minister of Food and Agriculture. As a firm believer in the maximization of agricultural production, he crafted the slogan “Grow More Food.” He was elected as a member of the Constituent Assembly from the Bihar Province where he served as the president of the Constituent Assembly from 1946 to 1950. On 24th January 1950, at the last session of the Constituent Assembly, Prasad was elected as the President of India He has the distinction of being the only President to have been re-elected for a second term. Committees of Constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. Prasad includes: Ad hoc Committee on the National flag Committee on the Rules of Procedure Finance and Staff Committee Steering Committee Literary Works:- Satyagraha at Champaran (1922) India Divided (1946) Atmakatha (1946) his autobiography written during his 3 year prison term in Bankipur Jail Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences (1949) Bapu Ke Kadmon Mein (1954) Since Independence (1960) MUST READ: C.Rajagopalachari SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2022) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Q.2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018) Aurobindo Ghosh Bipin Chandra Pal Lala Lajpat Rai Motilal Nehru The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Syllabus Prelims –Disaster Management Institutions Context: NDRF, SDRF and Army contingent were called in during rescue and relief operations after an accident took place during a Ram Navami function at a temple in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. About the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):- It is an Indian specialized force . It was constituted “for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster” under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world The Apex Body for Disaster Management in India is the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). The Chairman of the NDMA is the Prime Minister. The head of the NDRF is designated as Director General. The Director Generals of NDRF are IPS officers on deputation from Indian police organisations. Director General is a three-star officer. Working of NDRF:- The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government. When ‘calamities of severe nature’ occur, the Central Government is responsible for providing aid and assistance to the affected state, including deploying, at the State’s request, of Armed Forces, Central Paramilitary Forces, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and such communication, air and other assets, as are available and needed. Composition:- National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a force of 12 battalions, organized on para-military lines, and manned by persons on deputation from the para-military forces of India. These include:- three Border Security Force three Central Reserve Police Force two Central Industrial Security Force two Indo-Tibetan Border Police and two Sashastra Seema Bal. MUST READ: State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (2015) Sea surface temperatures are low Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs Coriolis force is too weak Absence of land in those region Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2014) Programme                                                                                  Project Ministry Drought-Prone Area Programme                                                 Ministry of Agriculture Desert Development Programme                                                 Ministry of Environment and Forests National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas       Ministry of Rural Development Which of the above pairs are correctly matched 1 and 2 only 3 only 1,2 and 3 None Time to Break Away from the Colonial Legacy of ‘Homophobia’ Syllabus GS-1: Effects of globalization on Indian society; Social empowerment GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Context: On March 13, the Supreme Court referred a batch of petitions seeking the legal recognition of same-sex marriages to a Constitution Bench. The Union government has opposed the petitions. In its affidavit to the Supreme Court, it argued that the traditional concept of marriage, consisting of a “biological man, woman and child”, cannot be disrupted. It further claimed that recognising same-sex marriages could cause havoc in the system of personal laws. Law Minister Kiren Rijiju said that marriage is a matter of policy to be decided by Parliament and the executive alone. The government must think twice before arguing in court that same-sex marriage would “wreak havoc” in India. Same-sex marriage is a matter of life and death for crores of Indians affected by the decisions made about their lives, unfortunately without any representation from their community. About Same-Sex Marriage: It is the practice of marriage between two men or between two women. Same-sex marriage has been regulated through law, religion, and custom in most countries of the world. As of 2023, marriage between same-sex couples is legally performed and recognized in 34 countries, constituting some 1.35 billion people (17% of the world’s population), with the most recent being Andorra. Marriages in India are categorized under Hindu Marriage Act, Christian Marriage Act, Muslim Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act. None of this permits marriage between same-sex couples. Homophobia is a Colonial Legacy – India needs to break away from it British imperialists became the prime exporters of the most acute form of homophobia. So vicious was the homophobia in Britain that in 1952 their government prosecuted war hero, genius, and the father of modern computer science, Alan Turing, for his homosexuality and forced him to undergo chemical castration. In 1954, days before he turned 42, Turing committed suicide. The British showed a willingness to reform, and today, Britain ensures a life of basic equality and dignity for its queer citizens. Yet, the system of laws and attitudes that the British imprinted on their colonies wreaked havoc on the lives of queer people elsewhere. No community bore a greater brunt than India’s Hijra community, targeted under the Criminal Tribes Act 1871, with the movement and freedoms of the community as a whole severely curtailed. While such laws have been removed, the stigma that they brought to the community has not faded away. Queer In India Queer people have existed since the dawn of humanity. They are so fundamental to the makeup of society that indigenous cultures and faiths have accepted them matter-of-factly, like any other gender or orientation. Historically The Kama Sutra, a treatise on the private lives of people in Pataliputra in the 3rd century BCE, devoted an entire chapter and more to same-sex relations and courtship and passingly mentioned the customary practice of Parigraha. Parigraha, where two people of the same gender cohabited for life. As there existed no codified sanction of marriage in pre-modern India, all systems of marriage, including Parigraha, were customary. Current Situation in India Nearly one crore young Indians (15 to 30 years old) are likely to be gay, lesbian, or transgender (roughly 3 per cent of the total population aged 15 to 30 – 35 crore), and many more are bisexuals. India’s total queer population is even larger, although most live in the closet, discreetly. They grew up when being gay was a criminal act, facing a world where institutionalised homophobia at all levels of society was normal. While things have improved in the last few years (since Navtej Singh Johar vs.Union of India, 2018), it does not imply that queer people can now live fearlessly. Many challenges still exist, like the structurally imposed isolation that most queer people face daily. The Way Forward The government should have made a minimal effort to consult India’s queer citizens before making ahistorical, unscientific, and grossly insensitive statements, such as it does not condone or legitimise the “conduct” of queer people just because such conduct is decriminalised. The government must develop some sensitivity to realise the far-reaching impact of its words on the lives of young queer people, who need hope — not government-sanctioned humiliation. Same-sex marriage is not a matter of policy, introducing it will change personal laws minimally, and traditional values are irrelevant in matters of determination of rights. With respect to the right to privacy: The Supreme Court recognised this right to be part of the right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution in the celebrated Puttaswamy (2017) verdict. The court said: “Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation.” The right to privacy entails the right of the citizens to make decisions about their family life and marriage. The state currently denies same-sex couples this right. Same-sex marriages can be recognised under the Special Marriage Act. The Act already speaks of marriages between “any two persons” which are solemnised under it. Any two persons can include two persons of the same sex. A change in the Special Marriage Act does not change religious personal laws at all. The “traditional concept of marriage” and the argument that same-sex marriage goes against prevailing social values. In this context, the Supreme Court has repeatedly made it clear that the yardstick has to be constitutional morality rather than popular morality. The government cannot deny anyone their constitutional rights to equality and privacy simply because this would challenge popular morality. The government holds the responsibility to ensure the safety and well-being of all its citizens. If the government cannot recognise the full dignity of queer people, it should at least not get in the way of their right to build a family so that they can find support among each other and create a place they call home. Queer people are not asking for more, just for the same rights that everyone else already has. ANSWERS FOR 30th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Mar 31, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Mar 31, 2023 Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series for UPSC

[DAY 23] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 23-> Click Here

Mar 30, 2023 IASbaba's Courses

[ADMISSIONS OPEN] Baba’s GURUKUL FOUNDATION for Freshers’ – UPSC/IAS 2024 – Above & Beyond Regular Coaching - OFFLINE and ONLINE

“What will my son grow up to be?” ….. An IAS Officer. “How will my daughter travel to her office and everywhere around?” …… In the care with the ‘laal batti’…” In India, we grow up listening to the stories of the dreams of our parents and grandparents – of how they want us to lead a prestigious life of a Civil Servant. The glorious days during the British times have not left their minds and overall outlook towards the life that one gets to lead and the respect that the society showers once they become a part of their services. And that dream gets locked in our hearts. To make our parents’ dream come true. But….Dear Aspirant, When the time comes, you take the biggest risk of your life. You leave everything aside and dedicate yourself to make that dream come true. But with so much of guidance available around, you get confused….. Today, it has been over 7 years – of providing the best possible guidance to civil service aspirants. Along with all other high-impact Training, programmes and free initiatives (high yields), we have Baba’s Gurukul Foundation Course (FC) for aspirants who are beginners and are just starting their journey. We carefully studied the emotional roller coaster of this UPSC journey and designed a course that builds a Foundation in place for the aspirant. With this intent… We started the Gurukul Foundation Course (FC)Read Complete Details -> Click Here

Mar 30, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology and Geography Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT), imposed a penalty of Rs 10 crore on the Kerala government for failing to protect the Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes. About Vembanad lake:- It is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest Lake in India. It is bound by Alappuzha, Kottayam and Ernakulam. It has its source in four rivers: Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala. It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch in Kerala. Vallam Kali (i.e Nehru Trophy Boat Race): a Snake Boat Race held every year in the month of August in Vembanad Lake. It was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by the Ramsar Convention in 2002. It is the second-largest Ramsar site in India only after the Sundarbans in West Bengal. The Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under the National Wetlands Conservation Programme. The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake. In 2019, Willingdon Island, a seaport was carved out. About Ashtamudi Lake:- IMAGE SOURCE: http://www.kerenvis.nic.in/WriteReadData/userfiles/ramsar.jpg It is a freshwater lake located in the Kollam district of Kerala, a state in southern India. It is an extensive estuarine system, the second largest in Kerala State. Ashtamudi means ‘eight braids’ in the local Malayalam language. It has been recognized as a Ramsar site, a wetland site designated internationally important under the Ramsar Convention. The Ramsar Convention: is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, and India is a signatory to this treaty. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                                  Location Hokera Wetland                        Punjab Renuka Wetland                       Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                       Tripura Sasthamkotta                            Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SHRESHTA and SMILE scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The implementation of the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) and Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE)was reviewed recently. About Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Every year, it is expected that about (3000) students would be selected for admission in Class 9 and Class 11 under the scheme. Admission will be provided in Class 9 and Class 11 of CBSE-affiliated private schools. Selection process: The selection will be done through a transparent mechanism which is known as National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS). It will be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) for admission in classes 9th and 11th. NTA: it is a premier, specialist, an autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions. It was established as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) by the Ministry of Education (MoE). It is for conducting efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher education. About Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector scheme. Objective: for providing welfare measures to the Transgender community and people engaged in begging. It seeks to strengthen and expands the reach of Rights that give necessary legal protection and secured life to the targeted group. It keeps in mind the social security required through multiple dimensions of identity, education, medical care, shelter, and occupational opportunities. This umbrella scheme would cover several comprehensive measures including welfare measures with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development, economic linkages etc. It will work with the support of State Governments/UTs/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community-Based Organizations (CBOs) and institutions and others. It includes two sub-schemes – Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons and  Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons:- Scholarships for Transgender Students studying in IX and till post-graduation to complete their education. Skill Development and Livelihood under the PM-DAKSH scheme. Composite Medical Health package in convergence with PM-JAY to support Gender-Reaffirmation surgeries through selected hospitals Shelter Homes ‘Garima Greh’, where all the basic facilities (food, clothing, medical support) recreational facilities and skill development opportunities, will be provided. Transgender Protection Cell will be set up in each state for monitoring cases of offences and ensuring timely registration, investigation and prosecution. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging:- Survey and Identification of beneficiaries by Implementing Agencies. Outreach work will be done to mobilise the persons engaged in begging to avail services available in Shelter Homes. Shelter homes will facilitate education for children engaged in the act of Begging. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only New India Literacy Programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has launched a new Scheme namely, New India Literacy Programme. About New India Literacy Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: Government approves New India Literacy Programme for Financial Years 2022 to 2027 (newsonair.gov.in) It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The scheme aims to cover a target of five crore non-literates in the age group of 15 years and above. It is under the Ministry of Education.  Implementation: the beneficiaries under the scheme are identified through door-to-door surveys on Mobile Apps by the surveyors in the States and Union Territories. The scheme is targeted at all non-literates of age 15 years and above. The scheme has five components:- Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Critical Life Skills (which include, financial literacy, digital literacy, legal literacy, healthcare and awareness, childcare and education, family welfare, etc.) Basic Education (includes preparatory (classes 3 – 5), middle (classes 6- 8), and secondary stage (classes 9-12) equivalency) Vocational Skills (Skill development will be a part of the continuous learning process for neo-literates to obtain local employment) Continuing Education (This includes engaging holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports, and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners). Formation and involvement of SHGs, Voluntary & User Groups and other community-based organizations may be encouraged. The scheme is to be implemented through volunteerism. The learners will be encouraged to excess the content in local languages in online mode through the DIKSHA platform in NCERT. Government/Aided schools registered under UDISE are the units of implementation of the scheme which are run by the State/UT Governments. United Information System for Education Plus(UDISE): is one of the largest Management Information Systems on school education.  It was launched in 2018-2019 to speed up data entry, reduce errors, improve data quality and ease its verification. MUST READ: Scientific Literacy in India SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2016) promoting Self-Help Groups in rural areas providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs promoting the education and health of adolescent girls providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently the top government officials indicated that the PPF, Sukanya Samriddhi Account interest rate hike may remain elusive. About Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme:- It is under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a small deposit scheme for girl children, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign. Objective: it would fetch an attractive interest rate and provide an income tax rebate. Eligibility:- Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including an adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10. Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with an annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year. Maximum period up to which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account. The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of the account or on the marriage of the Account holder whichever is earlier. The investments are designated as an EEE (Exempt, Exempt, Exempt) investment. This means that the principal invested, the interest earned as well as the maturity amount are tax-free. About Public Provident Fund (PPF):- It is a popular investment scheme with multiple investor-friendly features and associated benefits. It is a long-term investment scheme to earn high but stable returns. Proper safekeeping of the principal amount is the prime target of individuals opening a PPF account. Implementation: When a PPF scheme is opened, the PPF account is scheduled for the applicant where the money is deposited every month and interest is compounded A Public provident fund scheme is ideal for individuals with a low-risk appetite. Since this plan is mandated by the government, it is backed up with guaranteed returns to protect the financial needs of the masses in India. Further, invested funds in the PPF account are not market-linked either. Investors can also undertake the public provident fund regime to diversify their financial and investment portfolios Eligibility Criteria:- Indian citizens residing in the country are eligible to open a PPF account in his/her name. Minors are also allowed to have a Public provident fund account in their name, provided it is operated by their parents. Non-residential Indians are not permitted to open a new PPF account. However, any existing account in their name remains active till the completion of tenure. These accounts cannot be extended for 5 years – a benefit available to Indian residents. Interest in a PPF Account:- The interest payable on public provident fund schemes is determined by the Central Government of India. It aims to provide higher interest than regular accounts maintained by various commercial banks in the country. The entire amount redeemed from a PPF account upon completion of maturity is not subject to taxation.  Loan provisions: these can be done between the third and fifth years of your PPF account. The loan amount can be no more than 25% of the second year immediately preceding the loan application year. If the first loan is entirely repaid, a second loan can be taken out before the sixth year. MUST READ: Small savings schemes SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that most of EPFO’s equity investments are routed into Nifty 50 stocks, including Adani Enterprises and Adani Ports & SEZ. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952.  The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments.  The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. The Central Board of Trustees : It consists of representatives of Government (Both Central and State), Employers, and Employees. It administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.  It is assisted by the Employees’ PF Organization (EPFO), consisting of offices at 138 locations across the country. The Organization has a well-equipped training set-up where officers and employees of the Organization as well as Representatives of the Employers and Employees attend sessions for training and seminars. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a  minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers. Only one member of a family can join the scheme. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after the subscriber’s death. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing the l entrepreneurs into a formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute people funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Upward Lightning Phenomenon Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Brazilian researchers recently succeeded in taking pictures of the Upward Lightning Phenomenon. About Upward Lightning Phenomenon:- Upward lightning is a phenomenon whereby a self-initiated lightning streak develops from a tall object that travels upward toward an overlaying electrified storm cloud. For this to happen, storm electrification and the resulting presence of a cloud charge region are enabling factors. The vertical elevation of a tall object accentuates the electric field locally on the ground, resulting in conditions favourable for the initiation of an upward streak (called a leader) from a tall object, which can also develop in response to an electric field change created by a nearby preceding lightning flash. The process is triggered by the development of the stepped leader Stepped leader: a channel of negative charge that travels downward in a zigzag pattern from a cloud, nearly invisible to the human eye) travelling to the ground in a millisecond, leading to an intensification of the positive charge on the ground. As the streaks of the stepped leader keep streaking towards the ground, the electrical charges between the leader tips and the tops of tall objects on the ground keep on increasing. In the due course, these forces cause the air above these tall buildings or towers to ionise and thereby turn more conductive. With the negative charge repeatedly moving toward the ground, the channel of air just above the tall objects turns positively charged, which starts streaking upwards and is called an upward streamer.  In due course, the negatively-charged, downward-moving stepped leader makes contact with one of the developing positively-charged upwards streamers. Upward lightning typically has a lower intensity and duration compared to downward lightning. It also has a higher frequency of occurrence during thunderstorms Risks:- Upward lightning can cause damage to structures such as buildings and towers by creating an electrical surge that can overload electrical systems and cause fires or explosions. Upward lightning can also pose a risk to aviation, particularly for planes that fly close to tall structures during thunderstorms.  This can cause electromagnetic interference, affecting communication and navigation systems. Preventions: – To prevent damage from upward lightning, lightning rods and other grounding systems can be installed on tall structures to safely dissipate the electrical charge. Additionally, electrical equipment and systems can be designed to withstand lightning strikes and power surges.  MUST READ: Lightning SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 DNA profiling of Elephant Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology and Environment and Ecology Context: DNA profiling of 270 captive elephants has been completed recently. About DNA profiling of Elephant:- DNA profiling is a method to differentiate between individuals of the same species using samples of their Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). DNA profiling of elephants was started in August 2022 for Gaj Soochna App.  This will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Gaj Soochna: this is a mobile application developed to record the details of captive elephants across India.  The centralized database will include physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. The DNA profiling process is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India. Benefits:- The forest officers can identify each elephant and track it. Therefore its transfer, which often happens in the case of captive elephants, can be recorded. More focus can be put on elephant care with unique information about elephants. About Project Elephant:- It was launched in 1992. It is a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme. Objective: to protect elephants and improve their habitat and corridors, reduce Human-elephant conflict and ensure their welfare. Implementation: Under this project, financial and technical support is given to wildlife management efforts by states for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants. Project elephant is mainly implemented in 16 States. , Unlike Project Tiger, Project Elephant looks at the welfare and health of captive elephants as well. Conservation status of Asian Elephant:- IUCN: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Elephant Conservation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements: (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Security) Context: The Union government has extended the Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA) in Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland and it has been removed from several areas in Northeast India. About Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958: Genesis: The genesis of the law can be traced to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance 1942 which was enacted by the British to subjugate the rebels in the country during the Quit India movement, particularly in Assam and Bengal . The law continues to be enforced in its new format as the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958. The need for the law was required in the 1950s when Naga insurgents resorted to large-scale violence. Provisions Under Section 3, the Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. Section 4 gives the Army powers to search premises and make arrests without warrants, to use force even to the extent of causing death, destroy arms/ammunition dumps, fortifications/shelters/hideouts and to stop, search and seize any vehicle. Section 6 stipulates that arrested persons and the seized property are to be made over to the police with the least possible delay. Section 7 offers protection of persons acting in good faith in their official capacity. The prosecution is permitted only after the sanction of the Central Government. Need for the AFSPA: The Army believes that the AFSPA is extremely necessary to fight domestic insurgency and preserve the nation’s frontiers. Protection of members of the armed forces – It is essential to empower members of the military forces whose lives are continuously threatened by rebels and extremists. Its absence would negatively affect morale. The Act and Army regulations offer necessary protections, as outlined below: According to Section 5 of the Act, apprehended civilians must be delivered to the closest police station with the “least feasible delay” and a “report of the circumstances that led to the arrest.” Effective Counterinsurgency: Strong legislation is required to combat insurgent groups inside the nation, especially in Kashmir and the Northeastern area. The presence of proxy groups in troubled regions necessitates the use of extraordinary means to break this connection. As the armed services confront asymmetric warfare including raids, ambushes, mines, and explosives, extraordinary abilities are also required. Arguments against AFSPA: Violation of the Human Rights: The exercise of these extraordinary powers by armed forces has often led to allegations of fake encounters and other human rights violations by security forces in disturbed areas while questioning the indefinite imposition of AFSPA in certain states. Human rights violations in AFSPA areas are not inquired into and followed by adequate action. Thus, it is against the principle of natural justice. Violation of the right to remedy: Section 6 of the Act “immediately takes away, abrogates, frustrates the right to constitutional remedy which has been given in article 32(1) of the Constitution. AFSPA was outside the powers granted in the Constitution since it was declaring a state of emergency without following the Constitutional provisions for such a declaration. Ineffectiveness of the Act: Critics argue that this act has failed in its objective of restoring normalcy in disturbed areas although being in existence for about 50 years. Present Status: AFSPA now applicable fully only in 31 districts of 4 Northeast states and partially in 12 districts. The Act is applicable in the entire state of Jammu and Kashmir and States include Nagaland, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur. Way Forward: AFSPA is required to counter insurgencies and lack of development in the Northeast region is also a major reason for the insurgency therefore the Government should take urgent steps to create new opportunities for growth and development. However, there needs to be a comprehensive and serious periodical review undertaken by the Centre till the entire North-east is freed from the tentacles of AFSPA. Source:   Indian Express Governance of Essential Commodities under Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the government announced the formation of a committee to monitor the stock of tur dal held by importers, mills, stockists, and traders in order to prevent hoarding and speculation. Tur is a long-duration (180 days) pulses variety that is grown in rainfed conditions. It is grown in many states of India including Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh etc. India meets about 10-12% of its domestic consumption through imports. About Essential Commodities: Essential commodities are not specifically defined in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, but Section 2(A) of the act underlines that an “essential commodity” means a commodity mentioned in the Schedule of the Act. The Union government derives its power to add or remove a commodity specified in the schedule from this act. If necessary, the Central Government in consultation with state governments can notify an item as essential. Face masks and sanitisers were added to the list on March 13, 2020 in the wake of the COVID-19 outbreak. The government can control the production, supply, and distribution of the declared essential commodity and can also impose a stock limit. About Essential Commodities Act, 1955: The Centre has invoked the Essential Commodities Act of 1955 to ask States to monitor and verify the stocks available with such traders. Under the EC Act of 1955, if the Central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase supplies of any essential commodity or make it available at fair prices, it can regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution and sale of that commodity. The Centre has the power to add or remove any commodity in public interest from this list of essential commodities. The EC (Amendment) Bill 2020: It aims to remove fears of private investors of excessive regulatory interference in their business operations. The freedom to produce, hold, move, distribute and supply will lead to harnessing economies of scale and attract private sector/foreign direct investment into the agriculture sector. It will help drive up investment in cold storages and modernization of the food supply chain. Issues Related to Essential Commodities Act 1955: The Economic Survey 2019-20 highlighted that government intervention under the ECA 1955 often distorted agricultural trade while being totally ineffective in curbing inflation. Such intervention does enable opportunities for rent-seeking and harassment. Rent-seeking is a term used by economists to describe unproductive income, including from corruption. Traders tend to buy far less than their usual capacity and farmers often suffer huge losses during surplus harvests of perishables. This led to farmers being unable to get better prices due to lack of investment in cold storage, warehouses, processing and export. Owing to these issues, the Parliament passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020. However, due to farmers’ protest the Government had to repeal this law. Way Forward: The ECA 1955 was brought when India was not self-sufficient in food grains production. However, now India has become surplus in most Agri-commodities, and the amendments to the ECA 1955 is an important step by the government to achieve its target of inflation of Agri commodities and ease of doing business in the market. Source:   Financial Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO): It is a statutory organisation It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme: It is implemented under the Ministry of Education. It is a small deposit scheme for girl children, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign. Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including an adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake:                      Location Vembanad lake              Tamil Nadu Asthamudi Lake              Kerala Sasthamkotta Lake         Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’30th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Mar 30, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here