Jan 24, 2023 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - LNG & its climate impact

 ARCHIVES Syllabus  GS -3: Science & technology  GS-3: Economy & Development GS-2: International Events Context: The EU is moving itself off piped Russian gas by rapidly expanding imports of liquified natural gas, much of it fracked in the US. As liquified natural gas tankers carrying fracked US gas start to land in northern Germany, climate activists are calling it a major setback in the effort to limit global heating. LNG is to compensate for lost Russian gas supplies, with four new terminals set to come online in Germany alone. But though touted as a short-term fix, many fear the gas is here for the long haul as the EU becomes the biggest LNG importer in the world. What is Liquified Natural Gas or LNG? LNG is natural gas reduced to a liquid state (liquefaction) through intense cooling to around -161 degrees Celsius (-259 Fahrenheit). This liquid gas is 600 times smaller than the original volume and is half the weight of water. The compressed fossil fuel, which is constituted almost wholly of methane — a potent greenhouse gas —, can be transported around the world by ship. After arriving at its destination, the cargo is regasified in a floating terminal and redistributed through pipelines. But despite LNG’s export potential, the high cost of liquefaction and producing LNG has limited its market. In Germany, the estimated cost of building floating LNG terminals for imports to substitute Russian gas has doubled, due in part to higher operating and infrastructure costs. The cooling, liquefying and transport processes, as well as the post-transport regasification procedures, also require a lot of energy. Between 10-25% of the energy of the gas is being lost during the liquefaction process. What’s the climate impact of LNG? A lot of energy is required to extract natural gas from a reservoir, to transport from the gas field to the LNG facility for processing, to chill gas to such low temperatures, and to hold it at that temperature before it is warmed and regasified following a long sea or train journey. Methane loss across the supply chain risks also contributes to LNG’s high emissions. Because of LNG’s much more complex production and transport process, the risks of methane leakages along the production, transport and regasification chain are simply much higher and therefore much more emissions-intensive. In the end, LNG emits “about twice as much greenhouse gas as ordinary natural gas,” notes the US-based nonprofit Natural Resources Defence Council (NDRC). Experts also opine LNG is so energy- and carbon-intensive that it can create almost 10 times more carbon emissions than piped gas. The numerous stages required to take LNG from the wellhead to the market lead to a “very high imported emissions intensity” in comparison to piped gas, whose emissions are limited to upstream and transport and processing. The emissions intensity of piped gas from Norway in particular is almost 10 times less than average LNG emissions Meanwhile, LNG emits 14 times as much carbon as solar power when producing the equivalent amount of energy, and 50 times as much carbon as wind power. Can new LNG terminals be used for green hydrogen down the track? The floating LNG terminals now going online in Germany and already established in the Netherlands, France and Belgium are not able to be adapted into infrastructure for green hydrogen, say climate researchers. The narrative of H2 [hydrogen] readiness is simply false. They are classically fossil-fuel plants that are no good for climate protection Any LNG terminals that are built need to be easily retrofitted for green hydrogen to fast-track the clean energy transition Will LNG keep gas prices lower and assure supply? By the end of the decade, additional costs for Germany’s gas imports could reach up to €200bn ($212bn), doubling gas bills for consumers. Cheaper sustainable energy sources could instead make up the current gas deficit. Comprehensive energy efficiency upgrades in buildings and electric heat pump instalments will also “turbocharge” the energy transition There is a corresponding fear that LNG infrastructure overcapacity and long-term regasification contracts at German LNG ports will lead to stranded assets — while simultaneously delaying the phase-out of fossil fuels. The new planned terminals could expand capacity by two-thirds above what the nation consumes. This would not only be in conflict with Germany’s national climate targets but would “constitute a breach of national legislation and international commitments under the Paris Agreement Promoting energy efficiency and renewable power is the sustainable solution to the shortfall in Russian gas, insist experts. “By investing in building efficiency alone, Germany can save more gas than new LNG terminals offer. Main Practice Question: What is Liquified Natural Gas (LNG), and how it impacts the climate? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Jan 24, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 23, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chargesheet is not a “Public Document”: Supreme Court Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Supreme Court bench recently declared chargesheets to be private documents. It said that the state is not obliged to provide the public free access to chargesheets by uploading them on police or government websites. About Chargesheet: A charge sheet refers to a formal police record showing the names of each person brought into custody, the nature of the accusations, and the identity of the accusers. The charge sheet contains majorly 4 parts: Information about the accused and the witnesses The charges and specifications The preferring of charges and their referral to a summary For the trial record The charge sheet is to be filed within 60 days from the date of arrest of the accused in cases triable by lower courts and 90 days in cases triable by the Court of Sessions. No case for grant of bail will be made under section 167(2) of the CrPC if the charge sheet is filed before the expiry of 90 days or 60 days, as the case may be, from the date of first remand. The right of default bail is lost, once the charge sheet is filed. A charge sheet is distinct from the First Information Report (FIR), which is the core document that describes a crime that has been committed. Chargesheet usually refers to one or more FIRs and charges on an individual or organization for the crimes specified in those FIR. Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin in the judicial system. About FIR: First Information Report (FIR) is a written document prepared by the police when they receive information about the commission of a cognizable offence. It is a report of information that reaches the police first in point of time and that is why it is called the First Information Report. Based on the information provided, I.R. can be registered by the Judicial Magistrate by giving direction to the concerned jurisdictional area of the Police Station. Zero F.I.R.: With the help of zero F.I.R., a complaint can be lodged at any police station irrespective of the jurisdiction of the Police Station. It is an amendment that came after Nirbhaya Rape Case. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Akshaya Big Campaign for Document Digitisation (ABCD) campaign Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Wayanad from Kerala became the first district in the country to provide basic documents and facilities to all tribes people under the (Akshaya Big Campaign for Document Digitisation) ABCD campaign. About ABCD Campaign: The ABCD campaign is an initiative by the Wayanad district administration in India to provide basic documents and facilities such as Aadhaar cards, ration cards, birth/death certificates, election ID cards, bank accounts and health insurance to all tribespeople. Since all the relevant departments were brought under one roof in a camp, each beneficiary gets all the needed services at the camp itself, saving them the time and effort of visiting several offices. Apart from these, other services such as income certificates, ownership certificates, age certificates and applications for new pensions were also provided. Source: The Hindu Advance Authorization Scheme (AAS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) said it has simplified the process of Levying Composition fees in case of extension of the Export Obligation Period under the Advance Authorisation Scheme (AAS). About Advance Authorization Scheme: It allows duty free import of inputs, which are physically incorporated in an export product. In addition to any inputs, packaging material, fuel, oil, catalyst which is consumed / utilized in the process of production of export product, is also be allowed. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the wastage generated in the manufacturing process. DGFT provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Alternatively, exporters may apply for their own ad-hoc norms in cases where the SION does not suit the exporter. Advance Authorisation covers manufacturer exporters or merchant exporters tied to supporting manufacturer(s). Prerequisites for Applying: To apply for an Advance Authorisation scheme, an Import-Export Code (IEC) is required. Other prerequisites are mentioned in the Chapter 4 of Foreign Trade Policy and Handbook of Procedures. About Directorate General of Foreign Trade: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) Organization is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade. Right from its inception till 1991, when liberalization in the economic policies of the Government took place, this organization has been essentially involved in the regulation and promotion of foreign trade through regulation. Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing of exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”. This Directorate, with headquarters at New Delhi, is headed by the Director General of Foreign Trade. It is responsible for implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India’s exports. The DGFT also issues licenses to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 25 Regional Offices. All regional offices provide facilitation to exporters in regard to developments in International Trade i.e. WTO agreements, Rules of Origin and anti-dumping issues, etc to help exporters in their import and export decisions in an internationally dynamic environment. Additional Information: About Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR): The DGTR (earlier known as Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties) is an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The DGAD which was formed in 1997 has been restructured as DGTR in May 2018 by restructuring and re-designing DGAD into DGTR by incorporating all the trade remedial functions i.e. Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD), Countervailing Duty (CVD), Safeguards Duty (SGD), Safeguards Measures (QRs) under a single window framework. Thus, the DGTR has been formed by merging of functions of DGAD, Department of Commerce, Directorate General of Safeguards, Department of Revenue and Safeguards (QR) functions of DGFT into its fold. The DGTR is a quasi-judicial body that independently undertakes investigations before making its recommendations to the Central Government. It is the single national authority for administering all trade remedial measures including anti-dumping, countervailing duties and safeguard measures. The DGTR provides a level playing field to the domestic industry against the adverse impact of the unfair trade practices like dumping and actionable subsidies from any exporting country, by using trade remedial methods under the relevant framework of the WTO arrangements, the Customs Tariff Act and Rules and other relevant laws and international agreements, in a transparent and time bound manner. It also provides trade defence support to our domestic industry and exporters in dealing with instances of trade remedy investigations instituted against them by other countries. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Leopard 2 Tank Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: Germany has not decided whether to allow its Leopard 2 tanks to be sent to Ukraine which can be used against Russia during the ongoing war between the two countries. About Leopard 2 Tank: It is a German made main battle tank. Developed by German weapons manufacturer Krauss-Maffei Wegmann (KMW). Leopard was first produced in the late 1990s for the West German army in response to Soviet threats during the Cold War. The Leopard 2 is one of the world’s leading battle tanks, used by the German Army for decades and by the militaries of more than a dozen other European nations, as well as by the armies of countries as far apart as Canada and Indonesia. It has seen service in conflicts in Afghanistan, Kosovo and Syria. Other Features: These tanks are armed with a 120mm smoothbore cannon. It is also armed with two coaxial light machine guns. They also provide “all-round protection” for troops from threats such as mines, anti-tank fire, and improvised explosive devices Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea Hybrid Immunity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: A recent study in the journal the Lancet Infectious Diseases held that “hybrid immunity” provides better protection against severe Covid-19. Immunity and types of Immunities: Immunity refers to the body’s ability to prevent the invasion of pathogens. Pathogens are foreign disease-causing substances, such as bacteria and viruses. Active Immunity: It develops from the exposure to a disease thereby triggers the Immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced immunity. Infection-induced immunity is defined as the immune protection in an unvaccinated individual after one or more infections. Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination. For example COVID-19 vaccines, Covid shield and Covaxin. Passive Immunity: It is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. For example, a new born baby acquired passive immunity from its mother through the placenta. About Hybrid Immunity: Hybrid immunity is defined as the Immune protection in individuals who have had one or more doses of a COVID-19 vaccine and experienced at least one SARS-CoV-2 infection before or after the Initiation of vaccination. Exposure to SARS-CoV-2 through infection or vaccination triggers the production of antibodies that can be readily measured in the blood (referred to as ‘seroconversion’). If the level of antibodies in the blood exceeds a pre-specified threshold, the individual is said to be ‘seropositive’. The percentage of seropositive individuals in a population at a given time point is referred to as the seroprevalence of SARS-CoV-2 in that population. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hog plum Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: According to one theory by US researchers in a review paper published in 2022 in Proceedings of the Royal Society B: Biological Sciences, the receptors for sour taste developed in fish which then evolved into terrestrial organisms. These ancient fish would most likely have had the receptors all over their bodies to judge the pH of the water (sourness would indicate acidity) in which they were venturing Hog Plum The hog plum is scientifically classified as a member of the Anacardiaceae family, sharing space with the cashewnut and mango. Its genus, Spondias, has a history of use going back at least as far as 6500 BC in the Tehuacán Valley of Mexico. The Spondias pinnata tree is deciduous and can reach a height of around 25 m. It is usually found in home gardens in tropical regions — it is not restricted to India and is common in countries like Malaysia, Indonesia and Bali, where it is part of traditional food and medicine The hog plum, called ambara or amra in Hindi, is used as an important souring agent in several cuisines all across the country. For instance, in the Western Ghats, especially the Konkan area and Goa, the hog plum (called ambade or ambado in Konkani) provides a tangy taste to both vegetarian and non-vegetarian dishes like khatkhate, a mixed vegetable stew. It is also used to make a sweet and sour chutney in Goa and in West Bengal. In Kerala, the fruit is used to make a pickle. At first glance, the hog plum looks like a green unripe mango but small fruit has very little pulp and is more sour in taste than an unripe mango. Benefits The fruit is an important source of nutrients and even has medicinal properties. It is rich in phenolic compounds, natural antioxidants and minerals and has ascorbic acid, malic acid, calcium and phosphorus The fruit not only aids digestion, but is also said to possess antidiabetic properties. It could help in cancer treatment – used to extract to prepare hematite (iron ore) nanoparticles which were found to be quite successful in controlling mammalian cancer cells. Nanaoparticles are used to deliver medication to cancerous sites and lower the amount of drugs needed. Production of nanoparticles can be expensive, and the widely available hog plum could help lower the costs Mucositis (inflammation of the mucous membranes in the digestive tract) is common in people receiving chemotherapy. Hog plum extract can be used to decrease the burden of this condition in people undergoing the treatment The bark extract of the hog plum tree can also protect against oxidative and inflammatory changes that occur in the body during mucositis. Hog plum seeds contain compounds which help suppress parasites such as Plasmodium berghei, which causes malaria in certain rodents. As effective in treatment as metformin, a commonly used diabetes medicine, Source DTE Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), visited IREDA’s corporate office in and reviewed the performance and the future roadmap of IREDA, followed by an interactive session with all employees of the company. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited(IREDA) Aim To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating electricity and / or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency. To maintain its position as a leading organisation to provide efficient and effective financing in renewable energy and energy efficiency / conservation projects. To increase IREDA`s share in the renewable energy sector by way of innovative financing. Improvement in the efficiency of services provided to customers through continual improvement of systems, processes and resources. About: It is a Public Limited Government Company established in 1987 It is a Mini Ratna (Category – I) Government of India Enterprise It is under the administrative control of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956 and registered as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with Reserve Bank of India (RBI). IREDA’s mission is “Be a pioneering, participant friendly and competitive institution for financing and promoting self-sustaining investment in energy generation from Renewable Sources, Energy Efficiency and Environmental Technologies for sustainable development.” Motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER” Sources: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) It is a Public Limited Government Company. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mission Olympic Cell Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs About the scheme: It is organised by Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport (MYAS) First Mission Olympic Cell (MOC) meeting was held in 2023 on the sidelines of the ongoing Hockey World Cup in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. India’s Olympic Program and proposals of Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) athletes, was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. The Indian men’s and women’s hockey teams are the only teams that are funded under MYAS’s TOPS Scheme They get an annual expenditure of Rs. 24 cr under Sports Authority of India’s (SAI) Annual Calendar for Training and Competitions (ACTC) scheme. Source: PIB Cohort on Election Integrity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity ‘Summit for Democracy’ It was an initiative of USA and was hosted in 2021. The Prime Minister of India spoke at the Leaders Plenary Session in 2021. A “Year of Action” was proposed with events and dialogues on themes related to Democracy. The Summit also developed two platforms – ‘Focal Groups’ and ‘Democracy Cohorts’ to facilitate participation in the Year of Action. The 2nd Summit for Democracy is scheduled to be held IN 2023 and co-hosted by governments of Costa Rica, Rep. of Korea, Netherlands, Zambia and the US.  As part of the ‘Summit for Democracy’ Year of Action, India through the ECI, is leading the ‘Democracy Cohort on Election Integrity’ to share its knowledge, technical expertise and experiences with other democracies of the world. ECI, as its lead, has proposed to also provide training and capacity building programmes to Election Management Bodies (EMBs) across the world and provide technical consultancy as per needs of other EMBs. Cohort on Elections Integrity: It was established as a follow up to the ‘Summit for Democracy’ held virtually in 2021. India through ECI, is leading the Cohort on Elections Integrity The first international conference of the Cohort was organized in 2022 on the topic ‘Role, Framework and Capacity of Election Management Bodies’ where nearly 50 representatives from the Election Management Bodies (EMBs) of 11 countries participated. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is hosting the 2nd International Conference on the theme ‘Use of Technology and Elections Integrity’ The two-day international conference will be inaugurated by Chief Election Commissioner of India Invited Greece, Mauritius and IFES to be co-leads for the Cohort. ECI has invited Isnternational Foundation for Electoral Systems and International IDEA, apart from EMBs and Government counterparts dealing with the conduct of elections worldwide. Around 43 Participants from 17 Countries/EMBs including Angola, Argentina, Armenia, Australia, Chile, Croatia, Dominica, Fiji, Georgia, Indonesia, Kiribati, Mauritius, Nepal, Paraguay, Peru, Philippines and Suriname and 06 participants from international organisations namely, IFES, International IDEA are expected to join. Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2023 and Polycrisis Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The World Economic Forum in its ‘Global Risks Report 2023’ warned that the world could see a poly crisis emerging from the Russia-Ukraine war. About Polycrisis: The term poly crisis was first used in the 1990s by French theorist of complexity Edgar Morin. When multiple crises in multiple global systems become causally entangled in ways that significantly degrade humanity’s prospects. These interacting crises produce harms greater than the sum of those the crises would produce in isolation, were their host systems not so deeply interconnected. The ‘Polycrisis’ was first used by former European Commission president Jean-Claude Juncker to describe Europe’s combustible situation in 2016 which combined indebtedness with Brexit, climate change and a refugee crisis. World Economic Forum on Polycrisis and its Impacts: The report has mentioned that the world is facing a set of risks that feel both wholly new and eerily familiar. There are older and familiar risks which are getting entangled with the new and emerging risks which collectively can lead to a Polycrisis. Older risks: These include inflation, cost-of-living crisis, trade wars, capital outflows from emerging markets, widespread social unrest, geopolitical confrontation and the spectre of nuclear warfare. New developments: These include unsustainable levels of debt, a new era of low growth, low global investment and de-globalisation, a decline in human development, and the growing pressure of climate change. According to the report, these global risks classified into short term and the long term risks: Short term risks: These include the rising cost of living, slow economic growth, and tight global food and energy supplies. Long term risks: These are failure to mitigate climate change, failure to adapt to climate change, extreme weather events, and the threat of biodiversity collapse. The report further goes on to state that these risks may converge into a Polycrisis by the end of the decade. Reasons for the risks as mentioned in the report: Recent Events: The war in Ukraine sent energy and food prices soaring. The resulting inflationary pressures ignited a global cost-of-living crisis which has led to social unrest. Persistent events: Demand for food, water and energy are rising as a result of population growth and socioeconomic advancement. The expansion of renewable energy systems is creating an unprecedented demand for rare minerals and metals. Reverberating impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic to global wars and conflict, from high inflation and sluggish economic growth to increasingly extreme climate events, the world is facing a remarkably diverse range of crises all at the same time. On top of all that, carbon emissions continued to rise as economies reopened after the pandemic. The gap between demand and supply of these resources could have catastrophic consequences, including biodiversity loss, ecosystem collapse, trade wars and armed conflict between nations. The report describes four potential futures centred around food, water and metals and mineral shortages, all of which could spark a humanitarian as well as an ecological crisis – from water wars and famines to continued overexploitation of ecological resources and a slowdown in climate mitigation and adaptation. Recommendations made by the Report against Polycrisis:  A Way Forward Given uncertain relationships between global risks, similar foresight exercises can help anticipate potential connections, directing preparedness measures towards minimizing the scale and scope of Polycrisis before they arise. In such a situation, many governments have refocused their priorities towards short-term risks such as countering food shortages or energy shortfalls at the cost of ignoring climate change and global development when they are most needed. It asks world leaders to address the issue of erosion of trust. “Addressing the erosion of trust in multilateral processes will enhance our collective ability to prevent and respond to emerging cross-border crises and strengthen the guardrails we have in place to address well-established risks,”. It further calls on leaders to act collectively, decisively and with a long-term lens to shape a pathway to a more positive, inclusive and stable world. Source:  World Economic Forum Rural Healthcare system Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Development Industry Context: Rural Health is a state subject. Every state is responsible for raising the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. Rural India is home to 68 per cent of India’s total population, and half of them live below the poverty line- struggling for better and easy access to health care and services. Health issues confronted by rural people are many and diverse ranging from severe malaria to uncontrolled diabetes from a badly infected wound to cancer. A huge improvement has been recorded when the government launched the National Rural Health Mission. Rural healthcare system in India: The health care infrastructure in rural areas has been developed as a three tier system. As on March 2011, there are 148124 sub centres, 23887 Primary Health Centres and 4809 Community Health centres functioning in the country In the Indian healthcare system, sub-centres (SC) are the first point of contact for a patient, catering to a population of 3,000-5,000. This is succeeded by a PHC, which is required to look after the daily needs of 20,000-30,000 people. CHCs provide referrals and access to specialists, catering to 80,000-120,000 people. Urban PHCs — part of the National Health Mission’s efforts to set up multi-tier health centres caters to a population of 50,000-75,000 Components of an effective healthcare system Availability of manpower Adequate infrastructure Robust policy framework Challenges in India India’s rural healthcare system continues to be plagued by shortfall on two critical fronts — doctors and infrastructure. Shortage of qualified doctors– There is a shortage of 83.2 per cent of surgeons, 74.2 per cent of obstetricians and gynaecologists, 79.1 per cent of physicians and 81.6 per cent of paediatricians, according to the Rural Health Statistics 2021-2022 released last week. The number of doctors at PHCs has shrunk to 30,640 in 2022 from 31,716 in 2021. Lab technicians, nursing staff and radiographers at PHCs and CHCs have all recorded a marginal increase between 2021 and 2022. Up from 22,723 to 22,772, from 79,044 to 79,933 and from 2,418 to 2,448, respectively. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Odisha face the highest shortage in surgeons, obstetricians / gynaecologists, paediatricians and radiographers at CHCs across the country. Poor infrastructure – Less than half the Primary Health Centres (PHC), 45.1 per cent, function on a 24×7 basis. Of the 5,480 functioning Community Health Centres (CHC), only 541 have all four specialists Overburdened facilities – PHCs are overburdened across the board, with SCs currently looking after more than 5,000 people, PHCs catering to 36,049 people and CHCs to 164,027 people. This, coupled with a human resource shortage, plagues access to adequate and quality healthcare. Low number of support staff – The number of auxiliary nurse midwives at SCs has decreased to 207,587 in 2021 from 214,820 in 2022. The shortage was most pronounced in Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Uttarakhand. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) The National Rural Health Mission (2005-12) seeks to provide effective healthcare to rural population throughout the country with special focus on 18 states, which have weak public health indicators and/or weak infrastructure such as Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Jammu & Kashmir, Manipur, Mizoram, etc. The Mission is an articulation of the commitment of the Government to raise public spending on Health from 0.9% of GDP to 2-3% of GDP. Objectives of NRHM Architectural correction of the health system to enable it to effectively handle increased allocations as promised under the National Common Minimum Programme and promote policies that strengthen public health management and service delivery in the country. Provision of a female health activist in each village; a village health plan prepared through a local team headed by the Health & Sanitation Committee of the Panchayat Train and enhance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to own, control and manage public health services Promote access to improved healthcare at household level through the female health activist (ASHA) Integration of vertical Health & Family Welfare Programmes, optimal utilization of funds & infrastructure, and strengthening delivery of primary healthcare. It seeks to revitalize local health traditions and mainstream AYUSH into the Community Health Centre (CHC) It seeks decentralization of programmes for district management of health and to address the inter-State and inter-district disparities It also seeks to improve access of rural people, especially poor women and children, to equitable, affordable, accountable and effective primary healthcare. Achievements: The allopathic doctors at PHCs have increased from 20,308 in 2005 to 30,640 in 2022, which is about 50.9% increase. The specialist doctors at Community Health Centers (CHCs) have increased from 3,550 in 2005 to 4,485 in 2022 Other healthcare schemes: Reproductive, Maternal, Neonatal, Child and Adolescent health Universal Immunisation Programme Mission Indradhanush (MI) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) National Nutritional Programmes National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme MAA (Mothers’ Absolute Affection) Programme for Infant and Young Child Feeding Communicable diseases National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) Pulse Polio Programme Non-communicable diseases National Tobacco Control Programme(NTCP) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases & Stroke (NPCDCS) National Mental Health Programme Way forward Recently, the government has scrapped custom duties on drugs and test kits used to treat AIDS in an effort to cut prices across the country. With a policy to double spending on health and devise innovative methods of health management there is renewed hope that the people of the country will have greater access to facilities and be healthier. The promise of Health Assurance  is an important catalyst for the framing of a New Health Policy in a developing India. Source: DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘hog plum’, consider the following statements It belongs to the category of mango and cashews It is endemic to India It can be used to treat cancer. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? IREDA is a Maharatna Company. IREDA was established in 2012. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR): It is an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The DGTR is a quasi-judicial body that independently undertakes investigations before making its recommendations to the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st January- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Jan 23, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 22, 2023 Important Articles

[Result of SUPER 100] SCHOLARSHIP TEST – Prelims Exclusive Programme (PEP) 2023 Declared!

Dear Students, We had received 5384 Registrations for the Super 100 Scholarship Test! It was way beyond our expectations. Thank you for overwhelmingly responding to the Super 100 Scholarship Test – Prelims Exclusive Programme (PEP) 2023. Based on the performance in the Super-100 Scholarship Test, we have selected the top 100 students wherein, the discounts will be as follows. Rank 1 to 20 – 100% Discount Rank 20 to 60 – 50% Discount Rank 61 to 100 – 25% Discount Download The Complete List of Ranks -> Click Here PS: The results consist of the marks of the students who scored 50 and above. Students who received scholarships might have already received an email from IASbaba. Note: To appreciate the students' effort, those who are outside the top 100 but scored 100 and above are also given a 25% Scholarship. Make the best use of it. Congratulations to BABA’S SUPER 100!! For those who have not been selected, direct admissions are open! If you are interested, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on  91691 91888 (Please call between 10 am – 6 pm ONLY) To Know More about PEP, Special Discounts & Payment Details  -> CLICK HERE Office Address: BANGALORE CENTRE: IASbaba – Admission Centre, No.38, 3rd Cross, 1st Phase, 2nd Stage, 60 Feet Mains Road, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru – 560040. Landmark: Opposite to BBMP Office/ CULT Fitness DELHI CENTRE: IASbaba, 5B, Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi – 110005. Landmark: Just 50m from Karol Bagh Metro Station, GATE No. 8 (Next to Croma Store) LUCKNOW CENTRE: IASbaba, B-1/66, Sector J, Aligunj, Lucknow – 226024  Landmark: Near Mr Brown / Opp to Sahu Studio BHOPAL CENTRE: IASbaba, 284, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh All the Best IASbaba Team

Jan 21, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Banjaras and Hakku Patra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Economy Context: Recently Prime Minister of India symbolically distributed Hakku Patra (land title deeds) to five families of the Banjara (Lambani) community, a nomadic Scheduled Caste group in Karnataka. About Banjaras: The Banjaras are a key scheduled caste sub-group in Karnataka, although they are considered to be a tribal group in terms of the lives they lead. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes together make up nearly 24 per cent of the state population. The Banjara are a historically nomadic trading caste who may have origins in the Mewar region of what is now Rajasthan. Fire dance, ‘Ghumar’ dance and Chari dance are the traditional dance forms of the Banjaras. Banjaras have a sister community of singers known as Dadhis or Gajugonia. They are traditionally travelled from village to village singing songs to the accompaniment of sarangi. The Banjara community has been listed as a Scheduled Tribe in the states of: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Odisha. They were designated as an Other Backward Class in: Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan. They were designated as a Scheduled Caste in: Karnataka, Delhi and Punjab. About Hakku Patras or title deeds: A title deed is a property ownership document, and the bearer of the document owns the land. The title deeds enable owners to avail of bank loans with the said document. They will also be eligible to buy or sell land to which the title deed is granted by the government. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period? (2020) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates A diary to be maintained for daily accounts A bill of exchange An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Indian government has announced a one-time relaxation from maintaining average export obligation and an option to extend the export obligation period for certain sectors under the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme. About Capital Goods: Capital goods are physical assets that a company uses in the production process to manufacture products and services that consumers will later use. Capital goods include buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles, and tools. Capital goods are not finished goods, instead, they are used to make finished goods. The Capital Goods sector has a multiplier effect and has bearing on the growth of the user industries as it provides critical input, i.e., machinery and equipment to the remaining sectors covered under the manufacturing activity. About Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme: EPCG Scheme was launched in the 1990s to facilitate import of capital goods with the aim to enhance the production quality of goods and services, thereby, increasing India’s international manufacturing competitiveness. Under the scheme, manufacturers can import capital goods for pre-production, production and post-production goods without attracting any customs duty on them. Second-hand capital goods may also be imported without any restriction on age under the EPCG Scheme. The EPCG scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and is governed by the Foreign Trade Policy of India. It can be explained as “Duty-Free (Zero Customs Duty) Import of Capital Goods/Machinery for the manufacture of products meant for Export.” Eligible Sectors: The sectors that are eligible for this relief are the Hotel, Healthcare, and Educational sectors. These sectors will also have the option to extend the export obligation period for a longer duration, without having to pay any additional fees. Eligibility Criteria for applying under EPCG Scheme: Benefits under EPCG Scheme can be applied by any Exporter irrespective of his turnover. EPCG License can be issued to the following category of Exporters: Manufacturer Exporter. Merchant Exporter with a supporting manufacturer. Service Provider (who is exporting services) For Example. Hotel Industry. New Norms: Imports of capital goods are allowed duty free, subject to an export obligation. The authorisation holder (or exporter) under the scheme has to export finished goods worth six times of the actual duty saved in value terms in six years. Requests for export obligation extension should be made within six months of expiry instead of the earlier prescribed period of 90 days. However, applications made after six months and up to six years are subject to a late fee of Rs 10,000 per authorisation. According to the changes, requests for block-wise export obligation extension should be made within six months of expiry. However, applications made after six months and up to six years will entail a late fee of Rs 10,000 per authorisation. The facility to pay customs duty through scrips MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme) /Remission of Duties or Taxes On Export Product (RoDTEP) / RoSCTL (Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies) for default under EPCG has been withdrawn. Source: The Economic Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Shadow Banning Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Elon Musk used the term ‘Shadow banning’  in the context of the so-called Twitter Files, internal company documents that were released with Musk’s authorization. About ‘Shadow banning’: The term often refers to stealth actions by social media platforms to limit a post’s visibility. The term shadow ban traces back to 2012 when Reddit users accused the platform’s administrators of banning a link to a Gawker article while publicly championing transparency. Shadow bans refer to a web moderation technique in online forums and social platforms where a user (or a user’s content) is blocked without it being apparent to them that they’ve been blocked. It can be described users’ general discontent about not getting the attention they believe they deserve on social media, even if they don’t necessarily think a platform has engaged in any clandestine moderation. Concerns of Shadow Banning: Private companies are allowed to make their own rules about content moderation, but for advertisers, users, and free speech champions, true shadow bans are problematic because they enforce unarticulated rules secretly. They allow a company to avoid taking responsibility for moderating content while quietly manipulating its flow and those who are silenced have no process for emerging from the shadows. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: ASER, a nationwide citizen-led household survey that provides a snapshot of children’s schooling and learning in rural India has been released. About ASER: The report is prepared by Pratham Education Foundation. The 2022 edition of the survey was done at a national level after 4 years due to the COVID-19 pandemic. This is an annual survey that aims to provide reliable annual estimates of children’s schooling status and basic learning levels for each state and rural district in India. ASER has been conducted every year since 2005 in almost all rural districts of India. ASER is the largest citizen-led survey in India. It is also the only annual source of information on children’s learning outcomes available in India today. Unlike most other large-scale learning assessments, ASER is a household-based rather than school-based survey. This design enables all children to be included – those who have never been to school or have dropped out, as well as those who are in government schools, private schools, religious schools or anywhere else. Major highlights of the Information collected: Information on schooling status is collected for all children in the age group 3-16. Children in the age group 5-16 are tested in basic reading and basic arithmetic. Basic information is collected on school infrastructure, enrollment, attendance, teachers and fund flows. Since 2010, ASER has tracked selected Right to Education (RTE) indicators as well. Key Highlights of the Report: Enrollment: Enrollment in government schools have increased significantly since 2018. In 2018, the number stood at 65.6 per cent. The period 2006 to 2014 saw a steady decrease in the proportion of children (aged 6 to 14) enrolled in government school. The proportion of children (age 6 to 14) enrolled in government school increased sharply from 65.6% in 2018 to 72.9% in 2022. Overall, in the age group of 6-14 years, the enrollment rate now stands at 98.4%, an increase from 97.2% in 2018. Enrolment of girls The number of girls in the age group 11-14 years who do not go to schools has also decreased – 2% in 2022 compared to 4 % in 2018. This figure is around 4% only in Uttar Pradesh and is lower in all other states. The decrease in the proportion of girls not enrolled in school is even sharper among older girls in the 15-16 age group. In 2018, this figure stood at 13.5%. The proportion of 15-16-year-old girls not enrolled has continued to drop, standing at 7.9% in 2022. In only three states, the number of girls not going to school is above 10% – Madhya Pradesh (17%), Uttar Pradesh (15%), and Chhattisgarh (11.2%). Decrease in reading and arithmetic skills Nationally, children’s basic reading ability has dropped to pre-2012 levels, reversing the slow improvement achieved in the intervening years. Drops are visible in both government and private schools in most states, and for both boys and girls. In both government and private schools, only 20.5% students of Class 3 can read, compared to 27.3% in 2018. Similarly, the proportion of Class 5 students who can read has dropped to 42.8% in 2022, compared to 50.5% in 2018. This decrease is smaller in the case of Class 8 students – 6% in 2022 compared to 73% in 2018. Children’s basic arithmetic levels have also declined compared to 2018. The proportion at the national level now stands at 25.9% compared to 28.2% in 2018 in the case of Class 3 students; 25.6% compared to 27.9% in the case of Class 5 students. Private tuition: The number of students taking private tuition classes has increased. As per the ASER 2022 report, the percentage of Class 1-8 students taking tuition classes is at 30.5% in 2022, compared to 26.4% in 2018. School facilities: The fraction of schools with useable girls’ toilets increased from 66.4% in 2018 to 68.4% in 2022. The proportion of schools with drinking water available increased from 74.8% to 76%, and the proportion of schools with books other than textbooks being used by students increased from 36.9% to 44% over the same period. Most sports-related indicators also remain close to the levels observed in 2018. In 2022, 68.9% of schools have a playground, up slightly from 66.5% in 2018. Source: The Hindu National Museum of Natural History Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Regional Museum of Natural History (RMNH), Mysore, a regional branch of National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change organised awareness programmes on #SaveEnergy #LifestyleforEnvironment– Mission LiFE, Green talk and Green pledge. About National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) was a museum focusing on nature, located in New Delhi, India. Established in 1972 and opened in 1978, the museum functions under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Exhibits at the NMNH were focused on India’s plants, animals and mineral wealth, and were divided into four main exhibit galleries: “Cell: The Basic Unit of Life”, “Conservation”, “Introduction to Natural History”, and “Nature’s Network: Ecology”. MUST READ:  Mission LiFE Source: PIB All-India Consumer Price Index Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The All-India Consumer Price Index Number for Agricultural Labourers (Base: 1986-87=100) for the month of December, 2022 remained stationary at 1167 (One thousand one hundred and sixty seven) points and for Rural Labourers increased by 1 point to stand at 1179 (One thousand one hundred and seventy nine) points. Max increase for Agricultural Labourers: Rajasthan Max increase for Rural Labourers: Kerala About CPI: It is a comprehensive measure Consumer Price Index or CPI as it is commonly called is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. Called market basket, CPI is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel, transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc. Remember, CPI is different from WPI, or Wholesale Price Index, which measures inflation at the wholesale level. In India, there are four CPI numbers: CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL) CPI for Rural Labourers (RL) and CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME). While the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation collects CPI (UNME) data and compiles it, the remaining three are collected by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour. Uses: To calculate the inflation levels CPI’s annual percentage change is also used to assess inflation. To compute the cost of living the purchasing power of a country’s currency Understanding the real value of wages, salaries and pensions, Price regulation Provides insights to consumer spending capacity The calculation The CPI is calculated with reference to a base year, which is used as a benchmark. The price change pertains to that year. CPI = (Cost of basket divided by Cost of basket in the base year) multiplied by 100 Base years CPI(IW) = 1982 CPI(AL) = 1986-87 CPI(RL) = 1984-85 News Source: PIB Saansad Khel Mahakumbh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The second phase of Sansad Khel Mahakumbh 2022-23 was inaugurated in Basti district of Uttar Pradesh via video conferencing. The first phase of the Khel Mahakumbh was held from December 10 to 16, 2022 and the second phase of the Khel Mahakumbh is scheduled from January 18 to 28, 2023. About Khel Mahakumbh is a unique initiative that provides an opportunity and platform to the youth of the district and surrounding areas to showcase their sporting talent and motivate them to take up sports as a career option. It also seeks to instill discipline, teamwork, healthy competition, confidence and a sense of nationalism in the youth of the region. Various competitions are organized in both indoor and outdoor games like Wrestling, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Basketball, Football, Hockey, Volleyball, Handball, Chess, Carrom, Badminton, Table Tennis etc. Apart from these, competitions like Essay Writing, Painting, Rangoli making are also organized. Athletes who perform through these games are being selected for further training under the Sports Authority of India. Around 40,000 athletes are participating in the Khel Mahakumbh as compared to last year. Financial assistance of Rs 50,000 per month is also being provided to 2500 athletes through Khelo India. About 500 Olympic potential athletes are being prepared under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS). Keeping in mind the need for international training, some players have received assistance ranging from Rs 2.5 crore to Rs 7 crore. More than one thousand Khelo India District Centers are being set up across the country, out of which more than 750 centers have been completed. Geo-tagging of all sports grounds across the country is also being done so that players do not have any problem in taking training. A sports university in Manipur has been developed for the youth of the Northeast and another sports university is also being constructed in Meerut, (Uttar Pradesh). Significance There was a time when sports was considered an ‘extracurricular’ activity and was relegated to a hobby or activity without much value, a mentality that greatly harmed the country. This led to many talented sportspersons not achieving their potential. Through such events, India’s traditional expertise in sports will get a new dimension. The daughters of Basti, Purvanchal, Uttar Pradesh and all over India will showcase their talent and skills on a global stage. Sports is getting due prestige in society. This has resulted in unprecedented performance in the Olympics, Paralympics and other competitions. Sports competitions at different levels and regions make the players aware of their potential thereby helping them develop their own techniques while also helping the coaches in identifying shortcomings and providing room for improvement. News Source: PIB Alien species in Tiger Reserves Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: Several alien invasive plants growing together can have a detrimental effect to the biodiversities in tiger habitats, a new study has found. The research paper has deciphered many negative impacts of multiple co-occurring alien plants on biodiversity and what it means for conservation in the era of global changes. The study is the first of its kind in India and was published in journal Forest Ecology and Management by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Invasive species: Invasive alien species are plants, animals, pathogens and other organisms that are non-native to an ecosystem, and which may cause economic or environmental harm or adversely affect human health. Regenerate at an alarming speed and threaten to edge out the indigenous flora Some of the invasive plants have a toxic impact on the landscape after remaining underwater, which is often for two months every monsoon. Some weeds have herbal properties, but their toxicity outweighs their utility. For instance, wild boars love to gorge on the succulent rootlets of the Leea macrophylla or ‘kukura thengia’ that is fast clogging the patrolling paths and grasslands. Why is it an issue? Impact of Alien Plants unknown: India’s biodiverse ecosystems are threatened by a variety of alien plants like Lantana camara, Parthenium hysterophorous, Prosopis juliflora, etc, introduced during British colonisation. Lantana alone has pervasively invaded 44 per cent of India’s forests. Apart from its spread in different ecosystems and occasional reports on its association with birds, little is known about how invasive plants affect an ecosystem in the long term. There is even greater confusion when one asks about how alien plants impact native ecosystems. Due to the absence of reliable scientific data and mixed opinions on the impact of alien species, there exists a dilemma regarding the need to manage them. In the face of rapid, pervasive invasions, this inaction could threaten ecosystems’ sustenance. The plants can put pressure on native forage plants and drive away wild herbivores — the food source for the big cats. Native wild herbivores like chital and sambhar did not prefer the commonly found plants in invaded areas. They preferred rare forage plants, which were already depleted in infested areas. Although wild herbivores consumed a limited portion of alien plants. With monotonous invasion stands, their dependence on native forage increases. Invasions might slowly deplete the native plant populations and might lead to diseases in the herbivores Reduced forage availability for herbivores like sambar and chital, which are major prey for tiger, leopard, and dhole in this landscape, threaten the sustenance of these carnivores in invaded regions. The future of these tiger ecosystems can thus be grim. It is indicative of an ‘invasion-centric forest ecosystem’ historically unmatched, defaunated and functionally downgraded with homogenised biodiversity Conclusion: It is necessary to prioritise restoration investments in the least invaded regions to retain native biodiversity and slowly upscale such restored habitats. The study highlighted the importance of investments in scientific restoration in India to mitigate the impacts of biological invasions. Kanha Tiger Reserve Also known as Kanha–Kisli National Park, is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of the state of Madhya Pradesh. Hosts populations of Bengal tiger, Indian leopard, dhole, sloth bear, Bengal fox and Indian jackal. The barasingha is adapted to swampy areas. The gaur inhabits meadows and waterholes in the park. Blackbuck has become very rare. The first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha. The area is the ancestral home of the Gond and Baiga tribes. News Source: Down to Earth NGT probe into cruise operating in Bhopal Ramsar wetland Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Madhya Pradesh Pollution Control Board (MPPCB) to periodically monitor the activities of a cruise vessel polluting the Bhoj wetland in Bhopal, MP. The critical issue: The cruise began operating in 2011. Small cruise vessels with passengers act as floating colonies that pollute water bodies with sewage, wastewater and other contaminants. A mid-sized cruise vessel can consume 150 tonnes of fuel each day and dump toxic waste in water. The state government has permitted the operation of the cruise with a capacity of 50 passengers, but even broad estimates suggest that human sewage of 19,000 litres will be generated in a week alone. Major: The state government plans to introduce cruise vessels of bigger capacity in summer 2023 – Launching cruise vessels will be a direct violation of the state government’s own laws. Violations: Operating on diesel + Provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which states prevention of water pollution and other air pollution Acts and Biological Diversity Act of 1974 and 2002, respectively Why is it even more dangerous? The wetland is also a Ramsar site with international importance and has two lakes, Upper lake, also called Bhojtal and Lower Lake or Chhota Talaab. It provides drinking water to 1.2 million people. Upper lake hosts 15 varieties of fish and turtles About 2,500 migratory birds across the world visit the wetland that serves as a breeding and nesting habitat for them. The launching of the cruise vessel and increasing human activity due to tourists will directly impact biodiversity. The Way Forward Should be made mandatory to submit a factual and action-taken report with regard to the compliance of the rules and government orders. CPCB and MPPCB should monitor the activities of the cruise on the Bhoj wetland for pollution caused by its operations. Increasing tourist footprint should also have a plan for how to balance or compensate for the damage caused. Motor boats do ply in inland waters such as Kerala backwaters, but guidelines are needed for operating a cruise vessel. About Wetlands Wetlands are an area of marsh, fen, peatland or water; whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres, but does not include river channels, paddy fields, human-made water bodies/ tanks specifically constructed for drinking water purposes and structures specifically constructed for aquaculture, salt production, recreation and irrigation purposes. To be Ramsar site, however, it must meet at least one of nine criteria as defined by the Ramsar Convention of 1961. Wetlands in India India’s Ramsar wetlands are spread over 11,000 sq km — around 10% of the total wetland area in the country — across 18 States. No other South Asian country has as many sites though this has much to do with India’s geographical breadth and tropical diversity. The United Kingdom (175) and Mexico (142) have the maximum Ramsar sites whereas Bolivia spans the largest area with 148,000 sq km under the Convention protection. Wetlands are also known to have among the highest soil-carbon densities and therefore play a major role in buffering carbon dioxide emissions. The National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by the Indian Space Research Organisation, estimates India’s wetlands to span around 1,52,600 square kilometres which is 4.63% of the total geographical area of the country. India has 19 types of wetlands whereas Gujarat has the maximum area followed by Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Wetlands in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat serve as important spaces for migratory birds. Significance Being designated a Ramsar site ensure States and the Centre take steps to keep these tracts of land are conserved and spared from man-made encroachment. Acquiring this label also helps with a locale’s tourism potential and its international visibility. About Ramsar Convention: The Convention on Wetlands is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”. Aim: International mangrove cooperation mechanism aims for technical exchanges, collaborative research, education and training, and pilot projects on conservation and restoration, to protect mangrove biodiversity and coastal blue carbon ecosystems, enhance mangrove ecosystem services and resilience to climate change. The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans. A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention Criteria: One of the nine criteria must be fulfilled to be the Ramsar Site. Criterion 1: If it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region. Criterion 2: If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities Criterion 3: If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region. Criterion 4: If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions. Criterion 5: If it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. Criterion 6: If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird. Criterion 7: If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity. Criterion 8: If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend. Criterion 9: If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non avian animal species. Must Read: Wetland Conservation News Source: Down to Earth Digitalization of Judiciary In India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: India takes an average of 2,184 days to dispose of a case in its subordinate courts, 1,128 days in its High Courts, and 1,095 days in the Supreme Court, bringing the total life cycle of a case in India to 12+ years. Indian Judicial System has been suffering from pendency of cases. Over 4.3 Crore cases have been pending at various stages of the judicial process. Digitization of the Judicial process holds promise in reaffirming the trust of the citizen in the Judiciary. About Digitization of the Judicial Process: Digitization refers to the increased usage of digital technology to perform conventional tasks, thereby reducing time and enhancing public service delivery. In the context of the Judicial Process, it stands for documentation of the case in digital format. Richard Eric Susskind in his book, The Future of Law, has written that in the coming years, lawyers and their litigants will communicate through email. Evolution of digitization in Administration and Judiciary In India, e-governance in the field of administration of justice began in the late 1990s, but it accelerated after the enactment of the Information and Technology Act, 2000. 2006: e-courts were launched as a part of the National e-Governance Plan (NEGP). Guiding star: Chief Justice of Allahabad HC, Justice D Y Chandrachud Conceptualized and initiated the project to digitize approximately one crore case files in one year. Necessary: A large space required to store so many files + becoming difficult to manually preserve the decades-old documents + To ensure that these files are traceable electronically as and when required. The consequences of missing court records are grave. In-State of Uttar Pradesh v. Abhay Raj Singh: Held by the Supreme Court that if court records go missing and re-construction is not possible, the courts are bound to set aside the conviction. Thus, convicts can go free for want of court records. Benefits of usage of technology and digitisation: Reduction in the need for storage infrastructure for case files: This space could be utilised for increasing courtrooms and recruiting more judges for enhanced access to justice and speedy Justice delivery. Judges – Population ratio: 20 per Million for India (whereas for other countries it is approximately double). Increased traceability of Case files: This will reduce adjournments due to the traceability of affidavits which were stored electronically. Reduced time for Court proceedings: The time consumed in summoning records from the lower courts to the appellate courts is one of the major factors causing delays in cases. Due to the digitisation of the records, this time would reduce significantly. For ensuring real justice: In ‘State of Uttar Pradesh v. Abhay Raj Singh’, it was held by the Supreme Court that if court records go missing and reconstruction is not possible, the courts are bound to set aside the conviction. This would allow the accused to not be held accountable for the crimes committed. This would lead to a miscarriage of Justice and hence digitisation provides a panacea against this. For increased ease of procedure in the judicial ecosystem: Lawyers can check the status of the filing, the status of applications and affidavits, the date of the next hearing, orders passed by the courts etc. just by clicking on an app. It would no more be required to physically visit the courts to know the status of the case. Increased openness and transparency: A litigant can be more informed about the status of his/ her court case. This will lead to enhanced trust in Judiciary. Challenges associated with digitization of judicial records: Digitisation and usage of digital infra require increased funding. Digital Literacy amongst the stakeholders is abysmal Lawyers and Judges struggled to shift to virtual hearings during the pandemic. The status of it is poor in the case of the rural population. Privacy Concerns- With increasing digitisation, especially of court records, privacy concerns are likely to be at the forefront of judicial and public deliberations in the coming years. Hacking and Cyber security- On the top of technology, cyber-security will be a huge concern too. The government has initiated remedial steps to address this problem and formulated the Cyber Security Strategy. Not every case can be disposed of virtually nor can these be live-streamed. Deployed with adequate planning and safeguards, technological tools can be a game changer. However, technology is not per se value-neutral — that is, it is not immune to biases. Power imbalances need to be checked upon. Lack of a well-equipped space where lawyers can conduct their cases. Steps taken for the usage of technology in Judicial Process Digitisation of judicial records and establishment of e-courts e-Courts Project: This was conceptualized under the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary-2005”. The e-Committee is the governing body charged with overseeing the e-Courts Project. Its vision is to transform the judicial system of the country through the ICT enablement of courts. e-filing of cases/petitions by state governments in all matters has been made mandatory from January 1, 2022. National Judicial Data Grid: National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) is a database of orders, judgments and case details of 18,735 computerised District and Subordinate Courts created as an online platform under the e -Courts Project. Data is updated on a near real-time basis by the connected District and Taluka Courts and High Courts. SUPACE: It is short form of Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court’s Efficiency. It is a composite AI-assisted tool. It makes all relevant cases available to a judge/ legal researcher for making an informed decision. SUVAS: It is short form of Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software. It is used to translate SC judgments into regional languages. Virtual hearings in Courts: The Supreme Court in Anjali Brahmawar Chauhan v Navin Chauhan allowed the family court, Gautam Buddha Nagar, to conduct the trial of a matrimonial case through video-conferencing. Live Streaming of Courts’ proceedings: On the basis of the judgment in Swapnil Tripathi, in 2018 the Supreme Court allowed the live-streaming of cases of constitutional and national importance. Gujarat High Court became the 1st court in the country to live stream its proceedings. Way Forward: As the technology grows, concerns about data protection, privacy, human rights and ethics will pose fresh challenges and hence, will require great self-regulation by developers of these technologies. It will also require external regulation by the legislature through statute, rules, regulation and by the judiciary through judicial review and constitutional standards. The cases related to matrimonial issues and domestic violence, bounced cheques, motor accident compensation referred to mediation centres and Lokadalats could be included in the list of cases fit for disposal through the virtual hearing. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme: The EPCG scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). Benefits under EPCG Scheme can be applied by any Exporter irrespective of his turnover. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q,2) Kanha Tiger Reserve is often mentioned in news located in Meghalaya Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan Odisha Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) was a museum focusing on nature, located in New Delhi, India. The museum functions under the Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b  Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Jan 21, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 20, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Halteria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Researchers at the University of Nebraska-Lincoln have reported that a particular genus of plankton, namely Halteria, can ‘grow and divide given only viruses to eat’. About Halteria: Halteria — microscopic ciliates (a single-celled organism with minuscule hairs) that populate freshwater worldwide — can thrive wholly on a virus-only diet or ‘virovory’. Plankton of the genus Halteria can each consume 10,000 to a million virus particles a day, increase their population using the metabolised energy, and provide more food for the zooplanktons that consume the Halteria. Virovory is sufficient to support an organism’s physiological development and even population increase. They’re made up of nucleic acids, a lot of nitrogen and phosphorous. Significance of Halteria: Halteria plankton are found in large numbers in freshwater bodies. They are heterotrophs meaning they can’t produce their own food. Instead, they are well-known bacterivores — they consume bacteria to power themselves. Viruses “short-circuit” the process of nutrients moving up the food chain. They infect and kill both bacteria and plankton, releasing organic matter that dissolves in the water. By also consuming viruses for nutrition, Halteria plankton can recover the nutrients lost in the viral shunt and bring them back into the food chain. About Planktons: Plankton are usually microscopic, often less than one inch in length, but they also include larger species like some crustaceans and jellyfish. Scientists classify plankton in several ways, including by size, type, and how long they spend drifting. But the most basic categories divide plankton into two groups: phytoplankton (plants) and zooplankton (animals). Phytoplankton are microscopic plants, but they play a huge role in the marine food web. Like plants on land, phytoplankton perform photosynthesis to convert the sun’s rays into energy to support them, and they take in carbon dioxide and produce oxygen. Zooplankton include microscopic animals (krill, sea snails, pelagic worms, etc.), the young of larger invertebrates and fish, and weak swimmers like jellyfish. Most zooplankton eat phytoplankton, and most are, in turn, eaten by larger animals (or by each other). Krill may be the most well-known type of zooplankton; they are a major component of the diet of humpback, right, and blue whales. During the daylight hours, zooplankton generally drift in deeper waters to avoid predators. But at night, these microscopic creatures venture up to the surface to feed on phytoplankton. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following kinds of organisms: Copepods Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? (2021) 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are detritivores? Earthworms Jellyfish Seahorse Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3, 4 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Submarine Vagir Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The Indian Navy is set to commission the fifth of its diesel-electric Scorpene-class submarine Vagir. About Submarine Vagir: Vagir is among the six submarines being built in India by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) Mumbai, in collaboration with the French M/s Naval Group under Project 75. INS Vagir is the fifth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine based on the Scorpène class. It is named after the Sand Fish of the Indian Ocean. It is designed to operate in all theatres of operation. It can launch attacks with both torpedoes and tube launched anti-ship missiles, whilst underwater or on surface. The Kalvari class is capable of offensive operations across the entire spectrum of naval warfare including: anti-surface warfare, anti-submarine warfare, intelligence gathering, mine laying and area surveillance MUST READ: Project 75I Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Grameen Udyami Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Minister of State for Skill Development and  Entrepreneurship and Electronics and IT,  felicitated over 200 tribal women who have successfully completed training under Phase 3 of the Grameen Udyami Scheme. About Grameen Udyami Scheme: Grameen Udyami Scheme was launched to expand skill training in tribal communities for their inclusive and sustainable growth. Under the programme, the initiative was taken to provide multiple skills to India’s youth and impart practical skills to them for enabling livelihoods. It is funded by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) that aims to train tribal students in 6 states: Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Gujarat. Main Objectives of the scheme: Increase in Rural/Local Economy. Enhance employment opportunities. Reduce forced migration due to a lack of local opportunities. Conservation of natural resources. The overall aim is to expand the rural/local economy, enhance employment opportunities, reduce forced migration and also lead to the conservation of natural resources. Transportation, boarding and lodging during the learning period is provided to candidates. The training under the project will be conducted in the Job roles which are relevant to the local economy. Source:  PIB Spot Bellied Eagle Owl Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A wildlife team has recently spotted the ‘Spot Bellied Eagle Owl’ (Bubo Nipalensis) for the first time in the Seshachalam forest, and for the third time in Andhra Pradesh. About Spot Bellied Eagle Owl: It is overall a stark, greyish-brown bird, with dark, coarse brown coloration over the back and upper wings. It is a large bird of prey and is also known as the forest eagle-owl. It is a very powerful and bold predatory owl. The bird makes a strange scream similar to humans and it is hence called the ‘Ghost of the Forest’ in India and ‘Devil Bird’. They are mostly found in dense, evergreen forests or moist deciduous forests. They are found throughout the Indian subcontinent and peninsular Southeast Asia. IUCN Status: Least Concern CITES status: Appendix II Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve: Seshachalam Hills are the hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats, southern Andhra Pradesh state, and south-eastern India. They are bounded by the Rayalaseema uplands in the west and northwest and the Nandyal Valley (formed by the Kunderu River) in the northeast. Minerals contained in these hills include sandstone and shale interbedded with limestone. The hills contain seven peaks namely, Anjanadri, Garudadri, Narayanadri, Neeladri, Seshadri, Venkatadri, and Vrishabhadri. It was designated as a Biosphere Reserve in 2010. Tirupati, a major Hindu pilgrimage town and the Sri Venkateshwara National Park are located in these ranges. It is home to a number of endemic species including the famous Red Sanders and Slender Loris. Tribes of Yanadis are the native population of the reserve. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2019) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Ganjam Kewda oil Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Families in the coastal pockets of Odisha‘s Ganjam district have been eking out a living by preparing aromatic kewda oil for years, and a recent growth in demand has put a smile on their faces. The price per litre of kewda oil was Rs 4.5 lakh last year Every year, kewda farmers, flower sellers and oil makers earn around Rs 50-60 crore. Ganjan kewda oil Ganjam kewda (Pandanus fascicularis) oil is steam-distilled from the flower of the aromatic screwpine plant Pandanus or screwpine plant grow along seacoasts and in marshy places and forests of tropical and subtropical regions, especially in Asia, Africa, and Oceania. It is used as an aromatic in the food industry and other sectors. It is registered under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 by the Government of India. The flower is harvested from around 5,000 hectares in the district. Its oil is produced in Ganjam, Chatrapur, Chikiti and Rangeilunda blocks of the district For around 200,000 people living in 220 villages of the district, it is the main source of income. The farmers and collectors receive an advance from Ganjam’s oil makers who buy the flowers from them during June to September — the harvesting season. Kewda oil makers sell to Kannauj, Agra, Kanpur, New Delhi, Mumbai and other places at around Rs 5 lakh a litre There is a Fragment and Flavour Development Center (FFDC) extension unit at Berhampore, Ganjam under the Union Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Flower producer groups eliminated the role of middlemen and provided proper marketing facilities. FFDC is also training oil makers and helping them purchase modern equipment to start distilling units through the government-managed District Industry Center It is used in food, zarda (flavoured tobacco) and pharmaceutical companies Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to ’palm oil’, consider the following statements: (2021) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Pacific Island Forum Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations In News: Pacific island nations are urging Japan to postpone the release of water from the stricken Fukushima nuclear power plant due to concerns that fisheries will be contaminated, according to the Pacific Island Forum (PIF) The PIF, a regional bloc of 17 island nations, claims that releasing the water will have a significant impact on fishing grounds that are vital to island economies and supply up to half of the world’s tuna fish. Pacific Island Forum (PIF) The Pacific Islands Forum is the region’s premier political and economic policy organisation. Founded in 1971 It comprises 18 members: Australia, Cook Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji, French Polynesia, Kiribati, Nauru, New Caledonia, New Zealand, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Republic of Marshall Islands, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. The Forum’s Pacific Vision is for a region of peace, harmony, security, social inclusion and prosperity, so that all Pacific people can lead free, healthy, and productive lives. The Pacific Islands Forum works to achieve this by fostering cooperation between governments, collaboration with international agencies, and by representing the interests of its members. The Forum currently recognises 18 dialogue partners: Canada, People’s Republic of China, Cuba, European Union, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, Philippines, Spain, Thailand, Turkey, United Kingdom and the United States. The work of the Forum is guided by the Framework for Pacific Regionalism, which was endorsed by Forum Leaders in 2014. It sets out the strategic vision, values, objectives and approaches to achieve deeper regionalism in the Pacific. Sources: Newsonair Indian Ports Association Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Ports, Shipping and Waterways Minister signed the Memorandum of Agreement between the Indian Ports Association and Research and Information System for Developing Countries for setting up a Centre for Maritime Economy and Connectivity in New Delhi. Indian Ports Association Aim: To make India as one of the major players in world maritime trade, creating the international standards in port operation and utilizing the great potential in our country’s 7517 km long coastline. To undertake and promote Techno-Economic Studies and Research into matters pertaining to the Planning Organization To offer complete solutions to Port Management and to create a resource of information as a tool for decision making. To efficiently promote the use of Work Study, Management Accounting Strategies and other top-of -the-line tools of Management with a view to increase effciency and productivity in ports  To bring together various national as well as international organisations involved in Port and Harbour Operations, Management and allied activities and to maintain liasion between ports, Ministry of Shipping and other Government agencies. To promote the culture of Uniformity and Standardisation in the port functioning. About: The Indian Ports Association(IPA) was constituted in 1966 under Societies Registration Act Primarily with the idea of fostering growth and development of all Major Ports. IPA is an apex body of Major Ports under the supervisory control of Ministry of Shipping, Government of India. Over the years, IPA has consolidated its activities and grown strength by strength and considered to be a think-tank and Centre of Excellence for Indian Maritime Sector. Source: Newsonair Atal Bhujal Yojana Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: The third meeting of the National Level Steering Committee (NLSC) of the Atal Bhujal Yojana was held at New Delhi under the Chairmanship of Secretary, Department of Water Resources, RD & GR, Ministry of Jal Shakti. This scheme is bringing change in Ground Water Management. Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL): Aim: To bring in behavioural changes in the community, from the prevailing attitude of consumption to conservation & smart water management. Creation of awareness among the general public about the program objectives Creation of an enabling environment for scheme implementation at various levels through information, education and communication (IEC) The thrust of the campaign is at the Gram Panchayat(GP) level, where communication tools such as nukkadnataks (street plays), audio-visual clips, wall-writing, display boards, pamphlets and cable TV are being extensively used. About: Central Sector Scheme Started in 2020 in 8220  water stressed Gram Panchayats of 229 administrative blocks/Talukas in 80  districts of seven States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh for five year period (2020-25). Interventions include Water Security Plans (WSPs). The sustainability of the drinking water sources are to be given utmost priority while taking up interventions under this Scheme. Further, since incentive money is an untied fund, it can be used for undertaking pilot projects in any of the Atal Jal Gram Panchayat in order to sustain ground water. Since communities are at the forefront in this scheme, importance of capacity building of the communities was also emphasized. One of the main challenges was low convergence by the States as compared to what was expected. Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1.) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 Industrial Revolution 4.0 Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad for establishing its Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution focused on healthcare and life sciences. C4IR Telangana will be the 18th centre to join WEF’s Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) network that spans four continents. The first industrial revolution used water and steam power to mechanise production (the 1800s). The second used electric power to create mass production (the early 1900s). The third used electronics and information technology to automate production (the late 1900s). About Industrial Revolution 4.0: The term ‘Industry 4.0’ was coined by the German government in 2011. Industry 4.0 refers to a new phase in the Industrial Revolution that focuses heavily on interconnectivity, automation, machine learning, and real-time data. Industry 4.0, which encompasses IoTs and smart manufacturing, marries physical production and operations with smart digital technology, machine learning, and big data . Industry 4.0 comes into play when every company and organization operating today is different, they all face a common challenge—the need for connectedness and access to real-time insights across processes, partners, products, and people. Industry 4.0 Technologies: Significance of Industrial Revolution 4.0: It has the potential to raise global income levels and improve the quality of life for populations around the world. It will also lead to a supply-side miracle, with long-term gains in efficiency and productivity. Transportation and communication costs will drop, logistics and global supply chains will become more effective, and the cost of trade will diminish, all of which will open new markets and drive economic growth. Governments will gain new technological powers to increase their control over populations, based on pervasive surveillance systems and the ability to control digital infrastructure. . Advances in technology will create the potential to reduce the scale or impact of violence, through the development of new modes of protection, for example, or greater precision in targeting. Challenges of IR 4.0: The immediate fear is that of job loss, particularly in the informal sector. It could yield greater inequality, particularly in its potential to disrupt labor markets. Besides all these, there are several other critical concerns surrounding safety, ethics, and the short- and long-term socio-economic impact that remain unanswered. There is a growing concern that the existing fallacies in humans might only get more accentuated after 4IR. There are several studies that show how facial recognition technologies have a higher chance of misidentifying African and Asian people compared to their Western counterparts. It is also going to be skewed as developing and least developed countries lack the data framework and infrastructure. It will also profoundly impact the nature of national and international security, affecting both the probability and the nature of the conflict. This will lead to new fears. One of the greatest individual challenges posed by new information technologies is privacy. Need for India to adopt IR 4.0: Advanced data analysis will help its manufacturing capacity and increase the quality of the product. Business Analytics will work on the prediction and prevention of production defects. Digitization of numerous manufacturing processes will lead to cost reduction with an improved experience for consumers. The implementation of automation will reduce manufacturing cycles, decrease cycle time, and will reduce wasteful use of capital. IoT and man-machine connectivity will help supply chains to decrease lead times. Status in India: India is moving towards becoming a hub of global manufacturing, 3D printing, machine learning, data analytics, and IoT are key to promoting industrial growth, In November 2020, the Modern Coach Factory (MCF) at Raebareli, Uttar Pradesh, rolled out smart railway coaches that are fitted with a battery of sensors to provide a comfortable experience to passengers. In May 2020, the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries launched the Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) scheme, which brings together manufacturers, vendors, and customers to make them aware of 4IR technologies. In 2022’s budget speech, the Union finance minister announced a slew of new 4IR-driven projects, including Drone Shakti, to encourage start-ups that will facilitate the use of drone services. India even has a 4IR centre in Mumbai run by WEF, which is closely working with several state governments. The Centre has recently come up with the Fourth Industrial Revolution for Sustainable Transformation (FIRST) Cancer Care model in which 4IR technologies would be used to provide better healthcare for cancer patients In February 2022, Government launched the pan-India 3D maps programme by Genesys International for the 100 smart cities. The company plans to map an entire city in intricate detail so that many 4IR revolution technology-based projects, such as driverless cars, will become easier to implement. Way Forward: Industry 4.0 has started to make an influence in manufacturing and other various sectors in India. Data-driven decision-making is getting implemented in numerous fields. Though certain steps have already been taken, a lot of work needs to be done. Instead of just spending more capital, the emphasis must be on increasing the current asset base. The implementation of smart manufacturing, data analytics, and the Internet of Things will give a positive direction to Indian industries. To secure India’s active involvement in the fourth industrial revolution, it will be necessary to restructure some vital domestic industries and strengthen institutional capability. Source: DownToEarth India-Sri Lanka relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains –GS 2 International Relations Context: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar has said that India is committed to increase investment flows to Sri Lanka to hasten its economic recovery India and Sri Lankan discussed cooperation in infrastructure, connectivity, energy, industry and health. Dr. Jaishankar’s visit to the island nation comes at a crucial time as Sri Lanka has been making efforts to obtain an extended fund facility from International Monetary Fund. Bilateral Relations: India is Sri Lanka’s closest neighbour and the relationship between the two countries is more than 2,500 years old built upon a legacy of intellectual, cultural, religious and linguistic interaction. In recent years, the relationship has been marked by close contacts at the highest political level such as Bilateral exchanges at various levels Political relations: Developmental assistance projects for the Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs) and disadvantaged sections of the population in Sri Lanka has helped further cement the bonds of friendship between the two countries. During the course of the three-decade long armed conflict between Sri Lankan forces and the LTTE(ended in 2009), India supported the right of the Government of Sri Lanka to act against terrorist forces. At the same time, it conveyed at the highest levels its deep concern at the plight of the mostly Tamil civilian population, emphasizing that their rights and welfare should not get enmeshed in hostilities against the LTTE. The need for national reconciliation through a political settlement of the ethnic issue has been reiterated by India at the highest levels. India’s consistent position is in favour of a negotiated political settlement, which is acceptable to all communities within the framework of a united Sri Lanka and which is consistent with democracy, pluralism and respect for human rights Prime Minister Wickremesinghe has said that India was the ‘only nation’ to help out his country through the continuing food, fuel, and pharma crisis. Commercial relations: India and Sri Lanka signed the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) in 1998 which came into force in 2000 –  provides duty-free access and duty preferences to goods. A Joint Study Group (JSG) was set up in 2003 to make recommendations on how to take the two countries beyond trade and achieve greater economic integration through the conclusion of a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Talks have resumed under a new framework called the ‘Economic and Technological Cooperation Agreement’ (ETCA) – to boost cooperation in technical areas, scientific expertise and research amongst institutions, boost standards of goods and services able to compete on the global market and improve opportunities for manpower training and human resource development. Trade India is Sri Lanka’s largest trading partner with a share of 16 percent in Sri Lanka’s total trade with the world. Bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka has increased by around 9 times between 2000-01 and 2018-19. India has always had a trade surplus with Sri Lanka In 2018-19, India’s top 3 exports to Sri Lanka included mineral fuels, ships and boats, and vehicles accounting for 43 percent of total exports to Sri Lanka. India’s top 3 imports included ships and boats, residues and waste from the food industries, and coffee, tea, mate and spices accounting for 56 percent of total imports. India’s exports to Sri Lanka are losing their competitiveness vis-a-vis China’s exports to Sri Lanka. Development cooperation India’s grants to Sri Lanka alone amounting to around USD 570 million, the overall commitment by GOI is to the tune of more than USD 3.5 billion. A US$ 100 million LoC for undertaking solar projects in Sri Lanka has been signed between the Government of Sri Lanka and EXIM Bank on June 16, 2021. The Indian Housing Project, with an initial commitment to build 50,000 houses in war affected areas and estate workers in the plantation areas, is Government of India (GoI)’s flagship grant project in Sri Lanka. The country-wide 1990 Emergency Ambulance Service is another flagship project. Some of other notable grant projects which have been completed are the 150-bed Dickoya hospital, livelihood assistance to nearly 70,000 people from fishing and farming community in Hambantota, supply of medical equipment to Vavuniya Hospital and 150 Boats and Fishing gear for Mullaithivu fishermen. A modern 1500 – seat auditorium named after Rabindranath Tagore in Ruhuna University, Matara, is the largest in any University in Sri Lanka. Under the LOC of USD 318 million, various projects for procurement of rolling stocks for Sri Lankan Railways, upgradation of railway tracks, setting up of railway workshop etc are at different stages of implementation. Cultural Relations The Cultural Cooperation Agreement signed by the Government of India and the Government of Sri Lanka in 1977 forms the basis for periodic Cultural Exchange Programmes between the two countries. Buddhism is one of the strongest pillars connecting the two nations and civilizations from the time when the Great Indian Emperor Ashoka sent his children Arhat Mahinda and Theri Sangamitta to spread the teachings of Lord Buddha at the request of King Devanampiya Tissa of Sri Lanka. the venerated relics of Lord Buddha from Kapilawasthu discovered in 1970 in India have been exhibited two times in Sri Lanka. Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi during the Virtual Bilateral Summit held between India and Sri Lanka on 26 September 2020, announced a USD 15 million grant assistance for protection and promotion of Buddhist ties between India and Sri Lanka In July 2020, the Government of India declared the Kushinagar Airport in India, the place of Lord Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana, as an international airport, to allow Buddhist pilgrims from around the world to visit the revered site associated with Lord Buddha with ease – first inaugural flight from Sri Lanka Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre (SVCC) – the cultural arm of the High Commission of India, Colombo, has been playing a key role in strengthening these ties and promoting people-to-people contacts between India and Sri Lanka since its inception in 1998. Tourism – India launched the e-Tourist Visa (eTV) scheme for Sri Lankan tourists in 2015. Security Military exercise called Mitra Shakthi and the Naval exercise called “Slinex.” The defence teams from the two nations recently also met at the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) meet in Kochi, India to further their defence ties. Issues and concerns Traditionally, India–Sri Lanka bilateral relations are centered on a few specific issues and concerns—security concerns (now includes security cooperation), ethnic issues, fishers dispute, and investment climate Investment atmosphere – Costly investment agreements had been signed with India, under the Rajapaksa regime, amidst heavy criticism from the political opposition such as in power sector. Chinese dominance – Sri Lanka’s balancing act with India, under the shadow of China’s BRI investments in the island to keep both India and China interested has affected Sri Lanka’s relations with India, given the latter’s antithetical relations with China. Fisheries front –  on daily-basis Indian fishermen continued to be arrested and their boats and gears impounded on allegations of violating the IMBL and poaching in Sri Lankan waters. Four Maritime Boundary Agreements have been signed by the two states between 1974-76 regarding the 12 nautical miles of international waters in the Palk Strait, the terms of the agreement are hardly followed diligently. The Sri Lankan Navy continues to accuse India’s fishers of violating the decided lines and poaching in their territorial water. There is another conflict wherein, Sri Lanka criticizes India’s bottom trawler usage in the Palk Strait, which has been a recurring issue for the countries. India’s China concerns viz Sri Lanka continue to remain real though through the past years, there is nothing to suggest that Chinese commercial investments had led to any military/security tie-up that New Delhi should be worried about. China-funded Colombo Port City project any time soon looks suspect at best. Ethnic issues including the Tamil proposals and the Sinhala-Buddhist majority social reaction Till date, the 13th Amendment to Sri Lanka’s Constitution, following the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord, signed on 29 July 1987 has not been honoured. Way forward In light of various bilateral issues, the need for national reconciliation through a political settlement of the current issues has been reiterated by India at the highest levels which is consistent with democracy, pluralism and respect for human rights. Source Newsonair  Baba’s Explainer – Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) Syllabus  GS-3: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life. 
  GS-3: Indian Economy & Development Context: While a reasonable chunk of billers and utility providers are covered under BBPS, the RBI Governor said the platform will be extended to all payments and collections, including those that are non-recurring, such as professional service fee, tax collection and rent payment. Read Complete Details on Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘kewda oil’, consider the following statements The kewda oil tree is native to India. The kewda oil is used in zarda (flavoured tobacco) and pharmaceutical companies The kewda oil farmers and makers earn high revenues. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Atal Bhujal Yojana’, consider the following statements It is a centrally sponsored scheme. It aims at behavioural change in smart water management It was introduced in 2020 in all the districts of the country Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Plankton: Halteria plankton are found in large numbers in freshwater bodies. Phytoplankton are microscopic animals which play a huge role in the marine food web. krill, sea snails, pelagic worms and jelly fish are examples of Zooplankton. Which of the statements given are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Jan 20, 2023 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)

 ARCHIVES Syllabus  GS-3: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life. 
  GS-3: Indian Economy & Development Context: While a reasonable chunk of billers and utility providers are covered under BBPS, the RBI Governor said the platform will be extended to all payments and collections, including those that are non-recurring, such as professional service fee, tax collection and rent payment. What is the Bharat Bill Payments System? The Bharat Bill payment system is a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conceptualised system driven by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It is a one-stop ecosystem for payment of all bills providing an interoperable and accessible “Anytime Anywhere” Bill payment service to all customers across India with certainty, reliability and safety of transactions. In short, we can say that BBPS is an interoperable platform for recurring bill payments operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It offers interoperable bill payment service to customers online as well as through a network of agents on the ground. The system will provide multiple payment modes and instant confirmation of payment. It was piloted in 2016 and went live a year later. By 2019, BBPS onboarded all recurring payments. Bharat Bill Payment System is offering one-stop bill payment solution for all recurring payments with 200+ Billers in the categories Viz. Electricity, Gas, Water, Telecom, DTH, Loan Repayments, Insurance, FASTag Recharge, Cable etc. across India. The payments solution is aimed at making bill payments a round-the-clock option and in any mode . An effective mechanism for handling consumer complaints has also been put in place to support consumer regarding any Bill related problems in Bharat BillPay Who are the stakeholders in the BBPS ecosystem? There are two key components in the BBPS system Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has been authorized by RBI as the Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) and is responsible for setting business standards, rules and procedures for technical and business requirements for all participants. The BBPCU undertakes clearing and settlement activities related to transactions routed through Bharat BillPay. Bharat Bill Payment Operating Units (BBPOUs) Bharat Bill Payment Operating Unit aka BBPOU is the entity that is authorized by Reserve Bank of India. It can be a Bank or a Non-Bank that handle the payments load by adhering to the rules set by BBPCU. BBPOU may choose to integrate either with the customers, (COU: Customer OU) or with the billers (Biller OU) or may wish to participate as both Agents Agents are the customer touch points and service points in the Bharat BillPay ecosystem available in the form of agent outlets, Business Correspondent outlets, Bank branches, collection centres, retail outlets. Biller/Utility Company Service providers, who shall receive payments from customers for services rendered. By participating in the Bharat BillPay scheme, the biller will be able to receive payments from third party channels for the services provided to the customer. A biller may tie up with up to two BBPOUs to access the entire universe of its consumers and all payment channels. Why is BBPS considered as revolutionary in Payment industry? Following can be considered as key features of BBPS which are also its advantages: Interoperable Bharat BillPay is an integrated ecosystem connecting banks and non-banks in bills aggregation business, Billers, payment service providers and retail Bill outlets. Accessible Facilitate seamless payment of bills through any channel : Digital and physical. BBPS is payment mode agnostic. It supports IMPS, NEFT, UPI, cheques, wallets and even cash.   For instance, if a gas bill has to be paid in cash, the website provides the nearest BBPS collection point. You pay cash to the person at the counter of Collection point and a receipt is generated. It acts as a one-point-stop for all bill payments. Cheques can also be remitted through these agents. Cost-effective Most cost-effective for entire ecosystem – Flat fee charge vs current ad valorem. Integration BBPOUs will have to connect only to BBPCU to get access to all the billers. Utility companies just need to connect to maximum two BBPOUs to enable all customers to pay bills.   But note, that BBPS is only a platform. If a transaction has a settlement duration of T+1 or T+2, as with UPI or cheque payments, BBPS cannot bypass the time taken for payment processing. It only facilities in making and concluding a payment in a common platform Complaint Management Standardised system to handle customer grievances for both ON-US and OFF-US transactions. Dispute Management Facilitate BBPOU’s to raise and resolve disputes relating to transactions that have passed through the Bharat BillPay ecosystem. Clearing & Settlement Multiple Clearing & Guaranteed Settlements between different parties, standardised TAT. Standardisation Standardisation of processes for entire Bharat BillPay ecosystem. Brand Connect Single and trusted brand connect and Bharat BillPay Assurance. What is NPCI? NPCI, an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It is a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors. How has the growth in BBPS been over the years? How many users transact on the platform? There are 33 active BBPOU billers and 66 BBPOU customers. This covers most banks and large NBFCs, particularly those relevant for payments. There are 19 categories of billers, which include electricity, insurance, water, and municipal taxes, piped gas, housing societies, credit cards, loan repayments and prepaid mobile phone cards. As of November, there are 20,519 live billers (or utility providers) listed in BBPS. Though BBPS is not widely spoken about yet, the quantum of transactions has risen multi-fold in four years. From April to November of FY23, BBPS processed ₹1.22-lakh crore or 689.63 million (in volume) transactions. Compared to FY18’s load of ₹9,099.3 crore (73.39 million) transactions, this is an exponential leap. Main Practice Question: How is RBI & NPCI heralding payment revolution in India? Discuss with examples. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Jan 20, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here