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[GRAND ANNOUNCEMENT] IASbaba Proudly Announces Opening in BHOPAL – The City of Lakes!

We saw a dream. A dream to keep the dreams of all aspirants, irrespective of city, class, and social status alive.  This was 7 years back. We started scratching the surface of our country's BIG web of UPSC preparation system. Unbelievably, the more we grew, the love that we received, grew exponentially. We hold ‘trust’ of our civil services aspirants community as our highest income and priority. At IASbaba, each decision is built on the foundation of Serve | Trust | Results. From taking the online world by storm, we began our offline journey humbly from the South. With God’s grace and your support, we created a space in the heart of the ‘famous preparation city’ i.e., Delhi. A couple of years back, we found our footing in Lucknow and today, we have finally marked our presence in Central India - The City of Lakes - Bhopal! With the hope that we are able to reach lakhs of aspirants wherever they are on their journey, we are guided by our values of sincerity, quality, empathy and connection. And to stay true to our value of ‘Connection’ and ‘Empathy’, it is our goal to keep exploring the offline way of serving our students. With such humbling and generous feedback and love, we are ready to serve each corner of our country.  We are sure that the culture of excellence rooted in IASbaba’s professional ethos would help us deliver the best solutions to your preparation needs in Bhopal. This is the education revolution that we aspired for. And it’s here! We invite you to join us on the ride with your seatbelts on. Because despite the bumps and the sharp turns, we will make it to the top together! Are you ready? IASbaba is looking forward to all your support and love! IASBABA's FLAGSHIP COURSES Available in BHOPAL! PRELIMS EXCLUSIVE PROGRAM (PEP) 2023 - CLICK HERE ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES (AIPTS) 2023 - CLICK HERE TLP CONNECT 2023 - CLICK HERE We have some Surprise for aspirants in Bhopal, Please fill up this Google Form - CLICK HERE IASBABA's BHOPAL CENTRE ADDRESS 284, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh Contact: 74896 41321 Thank You  IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –19th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Greater Scaup Duck Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A rare species of duck, Greater Scaup, locally known as Sadangman, was recently sighted in Manipur’s Loktak lake after a gap of over 90 years. About Greater Scaup Duck: The Greater Scaup is a medium-sized diving duck species that belongs to the family of Anatidae. It is locally known as The greater scaup species is distributed in Asia, Europe, United States and Canada. It is a rare visitor to the Indian Subcontinent. Scientific Name: Aythya marila IUCN Red list: Least Concerned About Loktak Lake Loktak Lake is a freshwater lake in the Manipur state of Northeast India. It hosts hundreds of floating islands called Phumdis with multiple plant species and Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating national park in the world. The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered Sangai (state animal). The lake is designated as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention on 23 March 1990. It was also listed under the Montreux Record in 1993, “a record of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur”. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake:                           Location Hokera Wetland                   Punjab Renuka Wetland                  Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                  Tripura Sasthamkotta                        Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Central Asia Regional Economic Cooperation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: According to Asian Development Bank (ADB) ’s working paper, the Central Asia Regional Economic Cooperation (CAREC) region faces severe food safety challenges due to fractured safety control systems. About Central Asia Regional Economic Cooperation: The Central Asia Regional Economic Cooperation (CAREC) Program is a partnership of 11 countries and development partners working together to promote development through cooperation, leading to accelerated economic growth and poverty reduction. It is guided by the overarching vision of “Good Neighbours, Good Partners, and Good Prospects.” The program is a proactive facilitator of practical, results-based regional projects, and policy initiatives critical to sustainable economic growth and shared prosperity in the region. Since its inception in 2001 and as of December 2021, CAREC has mobilized $41 billion in investments that have helped establish multimodal transportation networks, increased energy trade and security, facilitated free movement of people and freight, and laid the groundwork for economic corridor development. CAREC 2030 provides the new long-term strategic framework for the program leading to 2030. It is anchored on a broader mission to connect people, policies and projects for shared and sustainable development, serving as the premier economic and social cooperation platform for the region. Member countries includes Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, People’s Republic of China, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. MUST READ:  Asian Development Bank Source: DownToEarth Biosensing system for the detection of Endocrine Disrupting Chemicals Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has launched the Technology for Biosensing system for the detection of Endocrine Disrupting Chemicals in aquatic ecosystems (MEAN). The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Kolkata in collaboration with ICAR-CIFRI, Barrackpore under the ‘National programme on Electronics and ICT applications in Agriculture and Environment (AgriEnIcs)’ has developed the technology. The Biosensing based EDC detection system (MEAN), was also transferred to the selected industry Arogyam Medisoft Solution Private Limited for further commercialization of the same technology for deployment at different locations of North-East. About Endocrine-Disrupting Chemicals (EDCs): Endocrine-disrupting chemicals (EDCs) are substances in the environment (air, soil, or water supply), food sources, personal care products, and manufactured products that interfere with the normal function of your body’s endocrine system. Since EDCs come from many different sources, people are exposed in several ways, including the air we breathe, the food we eat, and the water we drink. EDCs also can enter the body through the skin. EDCs are chemicals or mixtures of chemicals that interfere with the way the body’s hormones work. Some EDCs act like “hormone mimics” and trick our body into thinking that they are hormones, while other EDCs block natural hormones from doing their job. Other EDCs can increase or decrease the levels of hormones in our blood by affecting how they are made, broken down, or stored in our body. EDCs can disrupt many different hormones, which is why they have been linked to numerous adverse human health outcomes including alterations in sperm quality and fertility, abnormalities in sex organs, endometriosis, altered nervous system function etc. About Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC): The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is an Indian autonomous scientific society, operating under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology for carrying out R and D in IT, Electronics and associated areas. The setting up of C-DAC in 1988 itself was to build Supercomputers in the context of denial of import of Supercomputers by the USA. Since then C-DAC has been undertaking the building of multiple generations of Supercomputer starting from PARAM with 1 GF in 1988. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Loan loss provision Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) published a discussion paper on “loan loss provision”, proposing a framework for adopting an expected loss (EL)-based approach for provisioning by banks in case of loan defaults. About Loan loss provision: The RBI defines a loan loss provision as an expense that banks set aside for defaulted loans. Banks set aside a portion of the expected loan repayments from all loans in their portfolio to cover the losses either completely or partially. In the event of a loss, instead of taking a loss in its cash flows, the bank can use its loan loss reserves to cover the loss. An increase in the balance of reserves is called loan loss provision. The level of loan loss provision is determined based on the level expected to protect the safety and soundness of the bank. It will enhance the resilience of the banking system in line with globally accepted norms. It is likely to result in excess provisions as compared to a shortfall in provisions as seen in the incurred loss approach. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Dinosaur eggs Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: A group of Indian researchers found rare cases of fossilised dinosaur eggs — an egg within an egg — among 256 newly discovered eggs from the Narmada Valley. The team discovered 92 nesting sites containing 265 fossilised eggs — measuring 15-17 centimetres in diameter — during field investigations in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh between 2017 and 2020. Unique discovery: The unique feature of egg within the egg has not been reported from any other dinosaur or even in other reptiles. Help to understand the diet and the type of water consumed and the environment in which the eggs were deposited. Fossilised eggs provide clues on reproductive biology, nesting behaviour and parental care About the discovery: Titanosaurs — one of the largest dinosaurs to have roamed the Earth — displayed a notable reproductive trait unique to modern-day birds. The egg has two yolks; this feature can be seen in birds, suggesting they share similar reproductive traits. They nested in colonies, a feature found in about 13 per cent of modern-day birds. They also laid eggs in sequential order like avian species. Titanosaurs buried their eggs in shallow pits, a behaviour seen in modern-day crocodiles. The eggs belonged to six species, suggesting a higher diversity of these extinct giants in India. Parental care was likely absent as the eggs were laid too close to each other. The spacing did not provide room for adults, suggesting that hatchings were forced to fend for themselves Dhiman speculates that the “egg-in-egg feature” did not benefit the dinosaurs. The pore canals get blocked due to the presence of two eggshell layers, one above the other. This could asphyxiate the embryo, she added. Among the fossils, the team also found unhatched eggs. Infertility, embryo death before hatching and deep burial could have contributed to their death. Environmental factors such as floods could also be involved Location: This region falls between the easternmost Lameta exposures at Jabalpur in the upper Narmada Valley (central India) and Balasinor in the west in the lower Narmada Valley (western central India) Lameta exposure is a sedimentary rock formation known for its dinosaur fossils. These sedimentary rocks are mostly exposed along the Narmada Valley The fossil records here are largely concealed by Deccan volcanic flows, which prevents their removal by erosion. Previous Year Question Q1) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (2017) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent Source: DTE Yangtze finless porpoise Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: New research done in the Dongting lake in China that joins the Yangtze river found the cetaceans were pushed out of certain stretches of their habitat due to sand mining. This divides up the population and increases stress among the individuals, especially during pregnancy Gaps between porpoises in the lake reached 27 kilometres in 2009 Yangtze finless porpoise: IUCN status – critically endangered The Yangtze finless porpoise belongs to the group of animals which also includes dolphins and whales. It is the only freshwater porpoise in the world and breeds just once in 18 months. It is the most critically endangered of its taxonomic group and the species has an 86 per cent chance of becoming extinct in the next century. Yangtze River dolphin was lost The lake is connected to the main body of the Yangtze river by a channel that runs under the Dongting Lake Bridge. The porpoise population would swim to and from the river through this channel but because of sand mining, they were not seen in this channel any longer. Sand Mining: Overfishing, increased shipping traffic and noise pollution have all been linked with the decline of the porpoise. Sand mining – mining activity posed multiple challenges to this endangered species. Sand mining was banned in the region in 2017 Mining-induced loss of near-shore habitats, a critical foraging and nursery ground for the porpoise, occurred in nearly 70 per cent of the water channels Sand mining, which has tripled in the last two decades, is an emerging concern for global biodiversity – Over 50 billion tonnes of sand is mined every year. The menace is most rampant in Asia, Africa and Latin America. It threatens biodiversity and interferes with ecological processes through “direct physical disturbances, habitat degradation and reducing water quality by altering sedimentation Higher urbanisation has made sand the second-most extracted natural resource in the world after water. Checking sand mining can help the population of the Yangtze finless porpoise to rebound Sources: DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?  (2015) Saltwater crocodile Olive ridley turtle Gangetic dolphin Gharial Kalashnikov AK-203 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: An Indo-Russian joint venture has started manufacturing Kalashnikov AK-203 assault rifles in Uttar Pradesh’s Amethi, a move that will lend greater firepower to the Indian armed forces. Russia and India continue to implement military-technical cooperation projects. AK 203: The AK-200-series assault rifles have retained all the advantages of the traditional AK scheme — reliability, durability and ease of maintenance. At the same time, they fully meet the latest requirements for firearms in the world in terms of ergonomics and the ability to mount high-tech additional equipment AK 203 has excellent ergonomics, adaptability to different shooters and high performance characteristics, it is one of the best assault rifles in the world Manufacturing: Today, India is the first country to start producing the AK-200-series assault rifles of the world-famous brand Korwa Ordnance Factory in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh, has produced the first batch of 7.62 mm Kalashnikov AK-203 assault rifles. Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited is the manufacturer It is a joint venture, registered and located in India, whose founders on the Russian side are Rosoboronexport and Kalashnikov Concern (both subsidiaries of the Rostec State Corporation) It fully complies with the government of India’s Made in India initiative and DAP (Defence Acquisition Procedure) 2020. Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited plans to ensure 100 per cent localisation of the production of AK-203 rifles in India. Rosoboronexport aims to cooperate on terms of transfer of technology put forward by the Indian side and in accordance with the Make in India initiative In future, the company may also increase output and upgrade its production facilities to produce advanced rifles based on the Kalashnikov assault rifle platform. High-quality, convenient and modern small arms will begin to enter service with India’s defence and law enforcement agencies Source: Business standard National Financial Reporting Authority Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has published the draft requirements on preparation and publication of Annual Transparency Report (ATR) by auditors and audit firms, towards enhancing transparency about management and governance of audit firms and their internal policy framework. National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) Aim Protect the public interest and the interests of investors, creditors and others associated with the companies or bodies corporate governed under Rule 3 by establishing high quality standards of accounting and auditing and exercising effective oversight of accounting functions performed by the companies and bodies corporate and auditing functions performed by auditors. About: NFRA is an independent regulator for the auditing profession under Ministry of Corporate Affairs Constituted in 2018 by the Government of India under Sub Section (1) of section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013. The authority consists of a chairperson, three full-time members and a secretary and total number of members should not exceed fifteen Over 6,800 companies come under NFRA purview, which include listed as well as unlisted companies. The NFRA can impose a penalty of not less than ₹1 lakh but not exceeding 5 times the fees collected. Functions: Recommend accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for approval by the Central Government; Monitor and enforce compliance with accounting standards and auditing standards; Oversee the quality of service of the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such standards and suggest measures for improvement in the quality of service ATR requirements: Objective is to ensure high quality audits and preventing the conflict of interest by maintaining independence. The ATR requirements are on the lines of the contemporary international best practices implemented by certain prominent Independent Audit Regulators in other jurisdictions Rule 8(2) of the NFRA Rules 2018 empowers the NFRA to require an auditor to report on its governance practices and internal processes designed to promote audit quality, protect its reputation and reduce risks including risk of failure of the auditor and may take such action on the report as may be necessary. It contains certain critical information about the auditor’s operational activities, management, governance and ownership structures, and policies and procedures necessary to deliver high-quality audits etc. The information contained in the ATR will be useful to the Investors, Audit Committees, Independent Directors and public at large. The ATR requirements are proposed to be implemented in a gradual manner for PIEs starting with Statutory Auditors of Top 1000 Listed Companies (by market capitalisation) with effect from the financial year ending on 31 March 2023. The ATR has to be published within three months from the end of each financial year. Source: Financial Express Atmanirbharta for New India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The AatmaNirbharta has evolved as a new model of sustainable development for India as a learning Nation which has unity in diversity. About Atmanirbharta: The meaning of the term ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ is self-reliant India. In his speech, the Prime Minister observed that to fulfil the dream of making the 21st century India’s, the way forward is through ensuring that the country becomes self-reliant. The aim is to make the country and its citizens independent and self-reliant. Five pillars of Aatma Nirbhar Bharat are Economy: contemplates not an Incremental change but a quantum leap so that we can convert the current adversity into an advantage. Infrastructure: that can be an image of modern India or it can be the identity of India. Systems: driven by 21st-century technology, and that is not based on old rules. Democracy: a vibrant democracy that is the source of energy to make India self-reliant. Demand: where the strength of our demand and supply chain is utilized intelligently. Significance of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan Self-reliance will make globalization human-centric. The definition of self-reliance has changed in a globalized world and it is different from being self-centred. India’s fundamental thinking and tradition of “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” provides a ray of hope to the world. This should be seen in the context of Human-Centric Globalization versus Economy Centralized Globalization. Self-reliance does not mean cutting India off from the world. India believes in the welfare of the world and India’s progress is linked with the world. The world trusts that India has a lot to contribute to the development of the entire humanity. Challenges associated with current trends in development: The economy is already struggling with a low number of jobs and the job situation in the country is poised to face severe damage due to the pandemic. India’s low state capacity, poor healthcare infrastructure, and highly populated urban centres have left it particularly affected by the pandemic, which has weighed further on the economy. If the government does not undertake the opening of various sectors to private enterprises, ease overbearing regulation, and privatise loss-making PSUs, India’s manufacturing sector will become further uncompetitive. This would make future governments averse to opening up the economy again. Schemes like more protectionist trade stance and any increase in tariff rates for imports may lead to punitive tariffs or the revocation of trade benefits from its partners. Insufficient support for the state governments – the state governments which are at the forefront of fighting the pandemic have not been supported adequately via fund transfers. Suggestive measures: This is a time when the legitimate aspirations of the diverse peoples of our country need to be reconciled self-reliant India working for Vasudaiva Kutumbakam. Atmanirbharta should be seen as a means for regaining India’s share in the global economy while simultaneously improving the quality of life for the common Indian. It will require a huge concerted effort from all stakeholders to restore India’s share in global trade to pre-colonial levels. Achieving global scales of production, improving the quality of our services to world standards and promoting goal-oriented R and D are efforts that will yield the desired goal of a higher share in global trade and manufacturing. No nation can progress without engaging its citizens in the development process. Citizenship is not just about participating in the electoral process. It is also about enlightening oneself with information, engaging with the state and its agencies and operating with a sense of empowerment. India has performed well in producing new knowledge, the focus should be now on harnessing this knowledge for economic growth. Source:  Indian Express Remote voting machines Open in new window Syllabus Mains –GS 2 Polity and Governance Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) could not demonstrate a prototype of its new Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM), which would allow domestic migrants to vote in national and regional elections. EVMs started being used on a larger scale in 1992 and since 2000, have been used in all Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections. About Remote Voting Machines: The Multi-Constituency RVM for migrant voting will have the same security system and voting experience as the EVM. RVM can handle multiple constituencies (up to 72) from a single remote polling booth. For this, instead of a fixed ballot paper sheet, the machine has been modified to have an electronic dynamic ballot display which will present different candidate lists corresponding to the constituency number of the voter read by a constituency card reader. The ECI has added a digital public display unit or a monitor to act as an interface between the constituency card reader and the BU display. the electronic ballot will be prepared by the Returning Officers (ROs) of home constituencies of voters, and forwarded to the remote RO for uploading in the SLU. Concerns of RVM: Lack of clarity on how these new devices communicate with each other, Whether it is a device with programmable memory Question on integrity – would it be possible to mess with the digital display to show a modified list to the voter, since the unit is connected to an external device for symbol loading Logistical and administrative challenges – including voter registration in remote locations, how names will be removed from the electoral rolls of the home constituency, how remote voting applications will be made transparent etc. Further, the challenges regarding the current EVMs will persist when it comes to the RVMs. How do existing EVMs work? The latest EVM is an M3 model which was manufactured from 2013 onwards. It has a Balloting Unit (BU) which is connected to the VVPAT printer, both of which are inside the voting compartment. The VVPAT is connected to the Control Unit (CU), which sits with the Presiding Officer (PO) and totals the number of votes cast, on its display board. Only once the PO presses the ballot button on the CU, does the BU get enabled for the voter to cast her vote by pressing the key corresponding to the candidate on the ballot paper sheet pasted on the BU. The VVPAT, which is essentially a printing machine, prints a slip with the poll symbol and candidate name, once the voter presses the key on the BU. This slip is visible to the voter on the VVPAT’s glass screen for seven seconds after which it gets dropped off in a box inside the VVPAT. Once a vote is cast, the BU becomes inactive till the PO schedules the next vote by enabling it again from the CU Voter Verified Paper Trail Audit (VVPAT) Developed by ECI along with two Public Sector Undertakings (PSU), in 2010 It is a mechanism that could help verify that the EVM had recorded the vote correctly as intended by the voter The use of VVPATs has become universal in elections since mid-2017. To create a VVPAT sheet on the laptop, an application is either downloaded from the ECI server or copied from a local device. It is then uploaded to another device or the Symbol Loading Unit (SLU) through a nine-pin cable, which in turn is connected to the VVPAT for upload. This process raises questions. Significance of Indian EVMs They are standalone, are not connected to the internet, and have a one-time programmable chip, making tampering through the hardware port or through a Wi-Fi connection impossible. As per ECI, EVMs are “robust, secure, and tamper-proof”, owing to the technical and institutional safeguards in place. Such as the sealing of machines with signatures of polling agents, first-level checks, randomisation of machines, and a series of mock polls before the actual voting, cannot be circumvented. Concerns about EVMs: A 2021 report titled, ‘Is the Indian EVM and VVPAT System Fit for Democratic Elections?’ highlighted the widely recognised ‘democracy principles’ to be adhered to while conducting public elections. Lack of transparency – Details of the EVM design, prototype, software, and hardware verification are not publicly available for technical and independent review, rendering it available only for a black-box analysis, where information about its inner workings is not accessible. EVM tampering  – claim that EVM tampering through a WIFI connection is not possible has been disrepute by multiple computer scientists as it does not take into account ‘side-channel’, insider fraud, and trojan attacks. Besides, the OTP chip which cannot be rewritten, also has a flip side Outsourcing – The ECI sends the EVM software to two foreign chipmakers (in the U.S. and Japan) to burn into the CPU and the manufactured chips are then sent to India for assembly into machines by the two PSUs (BEL and ECIL). This means that the manufacturers cannot read back the contents of the software to ensure its integrity is intact. Functionality tests done by manufacturers can only reveal if the machine is working properly. Hacking – A fixed number of votes are casted at the beginning of the polls in each polling station. Thus, a hack can easily bypass the first few votes, thereby preventing detection of foul play as every key press in the EVM is date and time stamped”. Concerns with VVPAT: EVM Tampering – Even if the voting machine is tampered, the same should be detectable in an audit. Machine dependence – For the voting process to be verifiable and correct, it should be machine-independent, or software and hardware independent, meaning, the establishment of its veracity should not depend solely on the assumption that the EVM is correct. Voter verification – The current VVPAT system is not voter verified in its full sense, meaning, while the voter sees their vote slip behind the VVPAT’s glass for seven seconds, it does not mean they have verified it. Vote cancellation – That would happen if the voter got the printout in their hand, was able to approve it before the vote is finally cast, and was able to cancel if there is an error. Former IAS officer Kannan Gopinathan, notes “voter should have full agency to cancel a vote if not satisfied; and that the process to cancel must be simple and should not require the voter to interact with anybody Voter penalisation is discouraging – Under the current system, if the voter disputes what they have seen behind the screen, they are allowed a test vote in the presence of an election officer, and if the outcome of the test vote is correct, the voter can be penalised or even prosecuted Questionable Assurance – by ECI that the EVM-VVPAT system is not connected to any external device has been questioned by former civil servants. Since, for the VVPAT to be able to generate voting slips, the symbols, names and the sequence of the candidates need to be uploaded on it which is done by connecting it to a laptop. Opacity regarding communication protocol – If the VVPAT is cleared and loaded with new information for every election, does this mean it has a programmable memory? These questions remain unaddressed. Way forward Ronald Rivest, an MIT professor and the inventor of encryption, defined that “a voting system is software (hardware) independent if an undetected change in software (hardware) cannot lead to an undetectable change in the election outcome” Elections should uphold the democratic principles – The election process should not only be free and fair but “also be seen to be free and fair”, meaning instead of being told to trust the process the general public should be provided with provable guarantees to facilitate this trust. Source: The Hindu Baba’s Explainer – Doppler Weather Radar Doppler Weather Radar Syllabus GS-3: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life. Context: Union Minister of State Science & Technology; Minister of State Earth Sciences; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space said, Entire Country will be covered by Doppler Weather Radar Network by 2025 According to the Annual Statement on Climate of India 2022 issued by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), 2,227 extreme weather-related deaths in India. Read Complete Details on Doppler Weather Radar Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Titanosaurs’, consider the following statements They resemble reproductive traits of crocodiles Their fossilised eggs have been discovered in India. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘National Financial Reporting Authority’, consider the following statements It comes under Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for compliance of auditing standards. It was established in 2015. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.3) The Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating national park in the world is in Meghalaya Manipur Assam Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 19th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th January- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Bhopal Gas Tragedy

 ARCHIVES Syllabus    GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their         design and implementation.    GS-3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development. Context: The Union of India calls the Bhopal gas leak tragedy the world’s largest industrial disaster. What was Bhopal Gas Tragedy? Post-midnight on December 3, 1984, Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) (Chemical formula- CH3NCO or C2H3NO) leaked from the pesticide plant of Union Carbide (now Dow Chemicals), an MNC, in Madhya Pradesh capital Bhopal. Methyl isocyanate is a colourless highly flammable liquid that evaporates quickly when exposed to the air. It has a sharp, strong odour. It is used in the production of pesticides, polyurethane foam, and plastics. The chemical is highly reactive to heat. When exposed to water, the compounds in MIC react with each other causing a heat reaction. Immediate health effects include ulcers, photophobia, respiratory issues, anorexia, persistent abdominal pain, genetic issue, neuroses, impaired audio and visual memory, impaired reasoning ability, and a lot more. Long-term health effects include chronic conjunctivitis, decreased lung function, increased pregnancy loss, increased infant mortality, increased chromosomal abnormalities, impaired associate learning and more. It is estimated that about 40 tonnes of gas and other chemicals leaked from the Union Carbide factory. The gas drifted over the densely populated neighbourhoods around the plant, killing thousands of people immediately and creating a panic as tens of thousands of others attempted to flee Bhopal. The final death toll was estimated to be between 15,000 and 20,000.  Some half a million survivors suffered respiratory problems, eye irritation or blindness, muscular dystrophy and other maladies resulting from exposure to the toxic gas. Some half a million survivors suffered respiratory problems, eye irritation or blindness, muscular dystrophy and other maladies resulting from exposure to the toxic gas. The study found out that babies born to women exposed to gas were significantly more likely to have “congenital malformations” than those born to women unexposed to gas. Congenital malformations can be defined as structural or functional anomalies that occur during intrauterine (within the uterus) life and can be identified prenatally, at birth, or sometimes may only be detected later in infancy. The stillbirth rate went up by 300% and the neonatal mortality rate shot up by 200%. There were mass burials and cremations in Bhopal. Flora and fauna were also severely affected evident by a large number of animal carcasses being seen in the vicinity. Trees became barren within a few days. Supply of food became scarce due to fear of contamination. Fishing was also prohibited. What actions were taken in the aftermath of tragedy? Inquiries showed that safety mechanisms that should have been rigorously tested were overlooked and additional safety mechanisms that should have been in place were not there primarily due to lax oversight The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act was passed in 1985, giving certain powers to the Indian government for settling claims. It said the Central Government would have the “exclusive right” to represent, and act in place of every person connected with the claims. Indian Supreme Court in 1989 ordered the Union Carbide Corporation to pay $470 million in damages for the toxic gas leak at Bhopal. Activists in Bhopal denounced the settlement as a betrayal of the 20,000 victims who still suffer from exposure to the deadly gas After the tragedy, the government of India enacted a Public Liability Insurance Act (1991), making it mandatory for industries to get insurance the premium for this insurance would contribute to an Environment Relief Fund to provide compensation to victims of a Bhopal-like disaster. In 1991, Bhopal authorities charged Warren Anderson, the CEO and Chairman of UCC at the time of the tragedy with manslaughter. He had come to Bhopal immediately after the disaster and was ordered by the Indian government to leave. After being charged, he failed to turn up in court and was declared a fugitive from justice by the Bhopal court in February 1992. Even though the central government pressed the US for extraditing Anderson, nothing came of it. Anderson died in 2014 never having faced trial. In 2010, Centre filed a review petition seeking for Rs. 5,786 crore for Bhopal gas victims. A 2014 report said that survivors still suffer from serious medical conditions including birth defects for subsequent generations and heightened rates of cancer and tuberculosis. The disposal of toxic waste lying inside and in the vicinity of the factory is still a problem. The groundwater and the soil have also been severely polluted. The fight for justice by the victims of this man-made disaster is still going on. UCIL is now owned by Dow Chemical Company. UCC still maintains that the accident was a result of sabotage by disgruntled employees. It was reported in June 2020, that in the wake of the Wuhan Coronavirus pandemic, survivors of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and their children accounted for 80% of the Covid-19 deaths in the city of Bhopal. As the virus targets those with weakened immune systems, the fatalities would increase in the coming days. What is the basis for the plea for more compensation? The basis of the $470 million settlement reached on May 4, 1989 was that there were only around 3,000 death cases in the gas leak incident. The government’s curative petition in 2010 said the actual figure is 5,295 deaths. However, a fortnightly report submitted by the Welfare Commissioner, Bhopal Gas Victims, and which is a part of the case records in the Supreme Court, shows the number of deaths have increased to 5,479 as on December 15, 2022. The Commissioner’s report further said the number of cases of cancer and renal failure were 16,739 and 6,711, respectively. Likewise, the curative petition said the estimated numbers for temporary disability and minor injury cases were 20,000 and 50,000, respectively, in 1989. But they are actually 35,455 and 5,27,894. What are the safeguards against chemical disasters in India ? The law in India provides protection to victims of chemical disasters The Environment Protection Act, 1986: Gives powers to the central government to undertake measures for improving the environment and set standards and inspect industrial units. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991: It is an insurance meant to provide relief to persons affected by accidents that occur while handling hazardous substances. National Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997: Under this act, the National Environment Appellate Authority (NEAA) can hear appeals regarding the restriction of areas in which any industries shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010: Provides for the establishment of a Tribunal for disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests. What are other prominent industrial disasters of our times? Gulf of Mexico oil spill, 2010 It started following an explosion at the British Petroleum’s Deepwater Horizon rigging well. Although it claimed only 11 lives, its damage to the environment has been described as “catastrophic” as it has been spewing over 5,000 barrels a day from the seafloor. Experts say the spill is now posing a serious threat to a range of marine animals from floating plankton to marine plants and animals living at the bottom of the sea. 1986 Chernobyl nuclear plant mishap It took place during a safety test in the plant in Ukraine (then in the Soviet Union). An explosion at the core of a nuclear reactor at the Chernobyl power station at Prypriat on April 26, 1986 released more than 50 tonnes of radioactive material into the atmosphere. About 59 people died at the accident site while more than 4,000 people died of cancer and thousands rendered disabled over the years due to of radiation exposure. Following the blast, about 350,000 people were evacuated from the area 1921, Oppau Explosion It was an explosion at a fertiliser plant in Oppau, Germany The incident occurred when a tower silo storing 4,500 tonnes of a mixture of ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate fertiliser exploded. Minamata Disaster, 1950s In mid-1950s, the world came to know about an industrial pollution known as ‘the Minamata disaster’, effects of which came to light more than three decades after the incident. The disturbing story began in the 1930s when a Japanese company started dumping of mercury compounds in the bay off Minamata, a western Japan town. But only after three decades, locals began to notice something wrong. They found themselves being affected by a strange illness which came to be known as Minamata disease. It is estimated that over 3,000 people suffered various deformities, showed severe mercury poisoning symptoms or died from the mysterious disease. Main Practice Question: What are the lessons from Bhopal Gas Tragedy? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Doppler Weather Radar

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life. Context: Union Minister of State Science & Technology; Minister of State Earth Sciences; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space said, Entire Country will be covered by Doppler Weather Radar Network by 2025 According to the Annual Statement on Climate of India 2022 issued by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), 2,227 extreme weather-related deaths in India. What is Doppler effect? Doppler Effect refers to the change in Wave Frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer. It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star. Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects. For instance, when a sound object moves towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch. Conversely, if it moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down. The drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples of the Doppler Effect. Edwin Hubble made the discovery that the universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect. It has important applications in the fields of astronomy and space technology. The use of Doppler Effect in astronomy in relation to light waves depends on the fact that the spectra of stars are not constant. Different stars exhibit different absorption lines at defined frequencies, but Doppler Effect is identifiable only when these absorption lines are away from these defined frequencies. There are various applications of Doppler Effect. It is used in: Sirens Astronomy Radar Medical imaging and blood flow managemen Flow management Velocity profile management Satellite communication Audio Vibration measurement What is RADAR? RADAR is the expansion for Radio, Detection and Ranging. Its basic components are a transmitter, receiver, antenna, power supply system, signal processing and high computing devices. It works on the principle of electromagnetic waves sent out by the transmitter. The same wave that strikes an object/dense medium is reflected back to the receiver. The distance up to the object is determined based on the speed of the electromagnetic wave, and the time to travel to the object and back. There are at least ten types of radars. The Ground Penetrating Radar studies the Earth’s crust up to 9-metre in depth and is being used by the Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment (DGRE) at Joshimath, Uttarakhand. The InSAR (Inferometric Synthetic Aperture Radar) that makes high-density measurements over large areas by using radar signals from Earth-orbiting satellites and measures changes in land-surface is also being used in Joshimath and other parts of Uttarakhand. What are Doppler Radars? A Doppler Radar is a specialised radar that uses the Doppler effect to produce velocity data about objects at a distance. When the source and the signal are in relative motion to each other, there is a change in the frequency observed by the observer. This is called the Doppler effect. If they are moving closer, the frequency increases and vice versa. A Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) works on the Doppler principle. It is designed to improve precision in long-range weather forecasting and surveillance using a parabolic dish antenna. DWR has the equipment to measure rainfall intensity, wind shear and velocity and locate a storm centre and the direction of a tornado or gust front. Unlike others, a DWR has the ability to detect air motion, wind, speed of wind, rains, temperature, thunderstorms, hail, squalls, lightning, cyclones and cloud movements and volumetric analysis of cloud and reflectivity index, among others. It costs approximately ₹10-20 crore per unit. Operation and maintenance cost depending on type is generally ₹20-40 lakh per annum. As on January 15, 2023, the country has 37 DWRs. These are mainly spread across the plains. But mountainous and coastal terrain requires more radars, which are being procured. By 2024-25, India is expected to have 25 more DWRs taking the total number to 62 radars. That would improve forecast precision. How have DWRs improved the weather forecast? The major advantages of DWRs are, they: cover the entire country give the most precise detection of weather parameters including dynamic weather events turbulence, cyclones, thunderstorms or lightning alone do volumetric analysis of clouds that help in the quantification of rain forecasts and cyclonic intensity and precipitation; and precisely detect in real-time normal or routine events Their best and famously documented use is in cyclone forecasting. As a cyclone comes within a 200 km range of the coast, the DWRs begin tracking it. This enables almost error-free forecasts with pinpoint precision. DWRs are also of great help in long-time lightning forecast of up to three to five days, down to 24 hours or even nowcast. DWRs are one of the most popular radars. The Indian Army and Air Force have deployed the Indian Doppler Radar (INDRA) for the detection of aircraft and other objects in the air. Main Practice Question: Explain the working of Doppler Radar and enumerate its advantages. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Delhi CM-LG stalemate

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive; Issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure Context: In the aftermath of election of the Mayor and deputy Mayor of the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD), AAP has accused the LG of issuing orders on “practically everything” and bypassing the elected government. How has the legal status of Delhi evolved in last one century? Before Independence, Delhi was a part of the province of Punjab, and was annexed to it under the Government of India Act, 1858. In 1911, Delhi not only became the capital of India, and the Delhi tehsil was separated from Punjab, and became a Chief Commissioner’s Province. The first specific law to govern Delhi came into the picture in 1912, where the Delhi Laws Act came into force, and as an effect, the Chief Commissioner was empowered to determine application of laws by issuing appropriate notifications. With the Government of India Act, 1919, and Government of India Act, 1935, Delhi was retained as a centrally administered territory. The 1935 Act, however, did attempt to decentralise powers to a federation but given that the decentralisation was still subject to the final consent of the Viceroy it was rejected by the Indian National Congress as a form of unacceptable diarchy. Just before the country gained independence, the Pattabhi Sitaramiyya Committee gave its report about the required changes in the administrative set up of Chief Commissioners’ Province in the Constitution. With specification to Delhi, it was suggested that Delhi would not be fragmented into Old and New Delhi, but kept intact with Central Government enjoying certain special powers. The High Court for Delhi was recommended to exercise both original, and appellate jurisdiction. For the governance arrangement, Delhi, along with Coorg, and Ajmer-Merwara, was suggested to function under a Lieutenant Governor, to be appointed by the President, but along with the administration by a Council of of Ministers, responsible to the elected Legislature, In 1950, when the Constitution of India came into force, all the provinces of Chief Commissioners became Part C states. With the enactment of the Government of Part C States Act, 1951, the Legislative Assemblies in these states was empowered to make laws on all matters except, public order, police, constitution. In 1952, the legislative assembly of Delhi came into existence. The structure of this assembly was directly elected unicameral legislature with reservation of seats for scheduled castes With the passing of the State Reorganisation Act, 1956, the Indian states were limited to being “States and Union Territories”, eliminating the previous system of system of Part A, B, C, and D States. While States were governed by a Council of Ministers appointed through elected representatives from the Legislative Assemblies; Delhi, like other Union Territories had an “Administrator” appointed by the President. Delhi Administration Act, 1966 was especially enacted for to provide it with limited representative government through metropolitan Council, comprising of 56 elected members and five nominated members. What is the present status of Delhi? The Government of India appointed on 24-12-1987 a Committee headed by Balakrishnan to go into the various issues connected with the administration of Delhi and to recommend measures inter alia for the streamlining of the administrative set-up. After such detailed inquiry and examination, it Balakrishnan recommended that Delhi should continue to be a Union territory and provided with a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers responsible to such Assembly with appropriate powers to deal with matters of concern to the common man. To ensure stability and permanence the arrangements should be incorporated in the Constitution to give the National Capital a special status among the Union territories. Reasoning for suggesting legislative assembly for Delhi is as follows With the population influx in the capital city, it was pointed out that an effective representative democratic system needs to be implemented to safeguard the rights of a large population. The absence of a fully empowered Legislative Assembly, entrenches an unaccountable form of government for the citizens residing in the capital city. Article 239 AA was inserted in the Constitution by The Constitution (69th Amendment) Act, 1991 to give Special Status to Delhi. With this, Delhi was constitutionally given the title of “National Capital Territory of Delhi” and would be administered by a Lieutenant Governor (LG) who was to be appointed by the President. It says that the NCT of Delhi will have Legislative Assembly. Legislative assembly has the power to make laws on state list and concurrent list except on the subject of police, public order, and land. Laws cleared by the Delhi assembly are routed to the President for his assent through the office of the L-G. Subjects under the Delhi’s government’s jurisdiction include education, health care, fire services, public buses, water supply, electricity and social welfare. Article 239AA(4) provided a mechanism for referring the matter to the President in case of a difference of opinion between the Lt. Governor and the Council of Ministers. Currently, Delhi has a 70-member assembly whose members are elected by the residents of the city. The political party with majority in the assembly forms the local government. Similarly, there are civic agencies which are independent of the city government. They include the three municipal corporations in the city in which leaders are elected through separate elections, a cantonment board and a municipal council that is in charge of the central area that houses the Parliament and Union government offices. There are two things that make Delhi distinct from a state. One, the excluded items under State list, i.e. item 1 (Public Order) ,2 (Police), and 18 (Land), on which the Delhi Legislative Assembly cannot make laws, are not restricted in states. Two, Parliament has concurrent legislative power over other items in the State list for the territory of Delhi as well. How are capitals governed in other parts of the world? Given that national capitals house critical infrastructure such as parliament, presidential estates, defence and foreign missions, most governments maintain strategic control over the city’s critical services like land and public order. Washington DC has a municipal corporation whose powers are curtailed by the federal government, which can overturn local laws and even approves the local budget. Canberra (Australia’s Capital) is run by an assembly which doubles up as a local executive but cannot make laws on subjects that include establishment of courts, police services and securities industry. What is the tussle between Centre & Delhi? The crux of the tussle relates to the extent of powers of the Lt. Governor and the elected Chief Minister of Delhi under Article 239AA. There has also been repeated attempts made by political parties of all hues for granting full statehood for Delhi. However, There are frequent frictions between the elected government in Delhi and the Union government which intervenes through the L-G – especially at times when two opposing political parties are in charge of the two governments. The incessant frictions in the power sharing structure between the Central and state government is not only disruptive, but also slows down the development story of Delhi The Delhi High Court in a judgment delivered on August 4, 2016 held that all proposal for legislation for policy changes of Delhi government must have the prior approval of the Lt. Governor. This was however appealed to Supreme Court. Delhi government had argued that this interpretation of the HC reduces Delhi to a department of the Union of India, effectively nullifying the utility of elected legislative assembly. In 2018, the Supreme Court’s intervention brought some clarity and helped reduce the power tussle. A five-judge Constitution Bench confined itself to the interpretation of Article 239AA, and left individual issues to be decided by regular Benches. In a judgment, the top court said that the L-G is bound by the aid and advice of the elected government in Delhi except for matters pertaining to land, police and public order. What is the latest flashpoint between Delhi CM and Lt. Governor? The LG appointed Satya Sharma, a BJP councillor, to preside over the mayoral polls issuing a gazette notification for the same. The AAP alleged that the LG had bypassed the tradition of nominating or appointing the senior-most councillor as the presiding officer and has also bypassed the elected government’s recommendation. The LG also nominated 10 aldermen to the MCD who were persons who needed to have “special knowledge or experience in municipal administration”. The General Body of a Municipality or Municipal Corporation constitutes of elected representatives called Councillors. Councillors can nominate eminent personalities of the city to become the members of the this body. These nominated members are called ‘Aldermen The AAP said that the aldermen had political links to the BJP and accused the LG of giving them voting rights in the mayoral polls, which is prohibited according to the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957. Also, Delhi CM has accused LG of issuing orders on “practically every” subject directly to the Chief Secretary who gets them implemented, completely bypassing the elected government. Delhi CM has that barring the three reserved subjects of police, public order and land, executive control over all other subjects (transferred subjects) lies with the elected government but the LG has been issuing orders on these subjects and having them implemented by the bureaucracy. What is Lt. Governor’s viewpoint? Replying to the accusations, LG said that there are Constitutional provisions, Statutes and Acts that outline the multi-layered scheme of administration in the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi that emanated out of serious deliberations in the Constituent Assembly, State Reorganisation Commission, and Parliament of India, interpreted by various Supreme Court judgments. LG said that these decisions were taken by him as he was the “administrator of NCT of Delhi”. The LG and the Chief Minister are supposed to have weekly meetings every Friday. However, since October 2022, these meetings have not taken place with the LG accusing the Chief Minister of not being available as he was busy with election campaigns in other States. What are the other flashpoints? Secretary, Information and Publicity, Delhi Government, has issued a notice to the Convenor of AAP to recover ₹164 crore spent on political advertisements of the Delhi Government that were published in the garb of government advertisements. Deputy Chief Minister said that the Central government was misusing its control over officers through the “services department” to target AAP and its leaders in false cases. The LG also sent back a file from the government seeking permission to send teachers from Delhi government schools on an international teacher training programme to Finland, asking for a cost-benefit analysis. The Delhi Government saw this as a direct attack on its education model questioning why the LG was not approving a proposal that has been made by the elected government which had won a clear majority The LG’s office said it had not stopped the proposal but had asked for a cost-benefit analysis What is the way forward? Having a powerful local government in a national capital is not incompatible with the national interest. It is a question of political culture. In Washington DC and Australian Capital Territory of Canberra, sub-national powers are indeed curtailed. But there are clear structures in place. What Delhi needs is more clarity (here comes the significance of the Judiciary). Its chief minister is a visible leader. It comes down to whether the national government and political parties have the maturity to be comfortable with federalism generally, and with strong local leadership in the national capital, in particular. Main Practice Question: What are the frequent flashpoints between Delhi CM & Lt. Governor? What institutional measures do you suggest to resolve these? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently forest officials of Katarniaghat division says it has plan for the financial inclusion of the Tharu people that live near the Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS). About Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS): The Sanctuary is a protected area in the Upper Gangetic plain in Uttar Pradesh. It was brought under the purview of the ‘Project Tiger’ in 1987. KWS with the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Dudhwa National Park it forms the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, which was established in 1975. Katerniaghat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and the Bardia National Park (Nepal). The Gairwa river flows in the sanctuary area is declared as a sanctuary for Mugger and Gharials. Fauna: Endangered species including, tiger, rhino, swamp deer, hispid hare, Bengal florican, the white-backed and long-billed vultures. It is among the few places in India where Gangetic dolphins (fresh water dolphins) are found in their natural habitat. Flora: Its fragile Terai ecosystem comprises a mosaic of sal and teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. About Tharu People/tribe: The word Tharu is believed to be derived from sthavir, meaning followers of Theravada Buddhism. Community belongs to the Terai lowlands, amid the Shivaliks or lower Himalayas in India and Nepal. They live mostly in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar in Indian terai region. They speak various dialects of Tharu, a language of the Indo-Aryan subgroup, and variants of Hindi, Urdu, and Awadhi. In central Nepal, they speak a variant of Bhojpuri, while in eastern Nepal, they speak a variant of Maithili. Tribe worship Lord Shiva as Mahadev, and call their supreme being “Narayan”. They believe “Narayan” is the provider of sunshine, rain, and harvests. Tharu women have stronger property rights than is allowed to women in mainstream North Indian Hindu custom. Source:  Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) recommended names for the posts of managing directors of Bank of Baroda and Bank of India. About Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB): It’s a government body set up under the department of financial service by central government in 2022. The Secretariat of the Bureau currently comprises of Secretary and four officers. It replaced Banks Board Bureau (BBB). It aims to identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. The board is entrusted to making recommendations of full-time appointment of directors and non-executive chairman of state-run financial services / Public sector organization and on other matters relating to personnel management in the institution. It comprises of Ex-Officio members from Government other the Regulatory Bodies and experts from the respective field. Function of FSIB: To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, transfer or extension of term of office and termination of services of the said directors. To advise the Government on the desired management structure at the Board level for Public Sector Bank, Public financial institution and Public Sector Insurers. To advice government for performance appraisal system and code of conduct and ethics for the directors. To ensure suitable training and development programmes for management in PSBs, FIs and PSIs. To Help institution for developing business strategy and raising capital plan. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The 21st Edition of the Bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France – Exercise Varuna commenced recently. About Exercise Varuna: The Indian and French Navies have been conducting bilateral maritime exercises since 1993. Since 2001, these exercises have been called ‘VARUNA’. These interactions further underscore the shared values as partner navies, in ensuring freedom of seas and commitment to an open, inclusive Indo-Pacific and a rules-based international order. The joint-exercises are held either in the Indian Ocean or Mediterranean Sea with the aim of improving Indo-French coordination on capabilities like: cross-deck operations, replenishment-at-sea, minesweeping, anti-submarine warfare and information sharing. Other Indo-French Joint Exercises: Desert Knight-21 and Garuda (Air exercise) Shakti (Army exercise) Source: NewsOnAir Neelakurinji Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has listed Neelakurinji ( Strobilanthes kunthiana) under Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, including it on the list of protected plants. About Neelakurinji: It is a shrub that is found in the shola forests of the Western Ghats in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Locally known as Kurinji, the flowers grow at an altitude of 1,300 to 2,400 metres. Nilgiri Hills, which literally means the blue mountains, got their name from the purplish blue flowers of Neelakurinji that bloom only once in 12 years. Kurinjimala Sanctuary of Kerala protects the Kurinji in approximately 32 km2 core habitat in Kottakamboor and Vattavada villages in Idukki district. Kurinji Andavar temple located in Kodaikanal of Tamil Nadu dedicated to Tamil God Murugan also preserves these plants. The Paliyan tribal people living in Tamil Nadu used it as a reference to calculate their age. Karnataka has around 45 species of Neelakurinji and each species blooms at intervals of six, nine, 11 or 12 years. Besides the Western Ghats, Neelakurinji is also seen in the Shevroy in the Eastern Ghats, Sanduru hills of Bellary district in Karnataka. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? (2019) Manas National Park Namdapha National Park Neora Valley National Park Valley of Flowers National Park Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: A radio signal originating from atomic hydrogen in an extremely distant galaxy was detected by the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) located in Pune, as per the scientific journal Monthly Notices of the Royal Astronomical Society. This is the largest astronomical distance over which such a signal has been picked up. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope(GMRT): GMRT is a low-frequency radio telescope that helps investigate various radio astrophysical problems ranging from nearby solar systems to the edge of the observable universe. It is located in Pune, India Using GMRT data, scientists have detected a radio signal from atomic hydrogen in a distant galaxy at redshift z=1.29. The signal detected by the team was emitted from this galaxy when the universe was only 4.9 billion years old; in other words, the look-back time for this source is 8.8 billion years. The atomic hydrogen mass of this galaxy is almost twice as high as its stellar mass. These results demonstrate the feasibility of observing atomic gas from galaxies at cosmological distances in similar lensed systems with a modest amount of observing time. Redshift: Redshift represents the signal’s wavelength change depending on the object’s location and movement; a greater value of z indicates a farther object. Atomic hydrogen: It is the basic fuel required for star formation in a galaxy. When hot ionised gas from the surrounding medium of a galaxy falls onto the universe, the gas cools and forms atomic hydrogen. This then becomes molecular hydrogen and eventually leads to the formation of stars. Understanding the evolution of galaxies over cosmic time requires tracing the evolution of neutral gas at different cosmological periods. Atomic hydrogen emits radio waves of 21 cm wavelength, meaning the wavelength is a direct tracer of the atomic gas content in nearby and distant galaxies. However, this radio signal is feeble and nearly impossible to detect the emission from a distant galaxy using current telescopes due to their limited sensitivity. Until now, the most distant galaxy detected using 21 cm emission was at redshift z=0.376, corresponding to a look-back time – the time elapsed between detecting the signal and its original emission – of 4.1 billion years. Source: DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? (2012) Detection of microwaves in space Observation of redshift phenomenon in space Movement of asteroids in space Occurrence of supernova explosions in space code 1 and 2 only 2 only 1, 3 and 4 None of the above FireAId initiative Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The FireAId initiative had a successful pilot as per the report at the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2023 being held in Davos, Switzerland. FireAId Initiative: It was launched in 2022 by the World Economic Forum (WEF) It aims at using artificial intelligence to effectively manage wildfire. The multistakeholder initiative that collaborates resources from governments, civil society and the private sector was formulated by Koç Holding, Turkey’s largest industrial conglomerate, and was joined by Deloitte, an international professional services network, that brought on board its own AI technology to develop a ‘digital twin’ for fire management. The project was made operational in the South Aegean and West Mediterranean region of Turkey, since a quarter of the country’s wildfires occurred there in 2010-2021 and accounted for 75 per cent of the total burned area during the period. From July-August 2021, Turkey experienced some of its worst wildfires that charred a total of 139,503 hectares. Static and meteorological data was used to map areas where fires can start, predicted the intensity and planned the logistics required for efficient response. The predictions reduced both response time and risk to firefighters The project can now be scaled up and expanded to other locations. Sources: DTE Mission Antyodaya Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: Under The Health and Healthcare Community Dinner organized by World Economic Forum at Davos, Switzerland, Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya said that India has initiated multiple schemes to strengthen health systems and improve health service delivery with focus on quality, accessibility, and affordability of healthcare services. Government is committed to implement the vision of Antyodaya as part of its pursuit of ensuring Universal Health Coverage. Mission Antyodaya: Adopted in Union Budget 2017-18, Mission Antyodaya is a convergence and accountability framework aiming to bring optimum use and management of resources allocated by 27 Ministries/ Department of the Government of India under various programmes for the development of rural areas. It is envisaged as state-led initiative with Gram Panchayats as focal points of convergence efforts. Annual survey in Gram Panchayats across the country is an important aspect of Mission Antyodaya framework. It is carried out coterminous with the People’s Plan Campaign (PPC) of Ministry of Panchayat Raj and its’ purpose is to lend support to the process of participatory planning for Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). Mission Antyodaya focus on most backward districts. The convergence of multiple schemes under a single scheme could enable the government to migrate all these to the digital Aadhar-enabled platform thereby contributing further to the Digital India mission. Ministry of Rural Development offers mobile app. Source: DTE Purana Qila Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture In News: Archaeological Survey of India, ASI is all set to begin excavation at Delhi’s Purana Qila again – third time after excavations in the year 2013-14 and 2017-18. For the exposure and preservation of the trenches that were excavated in previous years. Evidence of layers predating the Mauryan period was found. Purana Qila: Located in South Eastern part of New Delhi Purana Qilla, the 16th-century fort, was built by Sher Shah Suri and second Mughal emperor Humayun. The fort is standing on a site with thousands of years of history. Identified as ancient settlement of Indraprastha, a continuous habitation of 2500 years at Purana Qila was established in earlier excavations. Painted grey ware, belonging to 900 BC, an earthen pottery sequence from Maurya to Shunga, Kushana, Gupta, Rajput, Sultanates, and Mughal periods. Excavated Artefacts such as sickles, parers, terracotta toys, kiln-burnt bricks, beads, terracotta figurines, seals and dealings excavated. Historian Alexander Cunningham identified the fort with that of Indraprastha A fortification wall about 30 metre long was also found. Three arched gateways: the Bara Darwaza (Big Gate) facing west, which is still in use today; the south gate, also popularly known as the ‘Humayun Gate’ and lastly, the ‘Talaqi Gate’, often known as the “forbidden gate”. All the gates are double-storeyed sandstone structures flanked by two huge semi-circular bastion towers, decorated with white and coloured-marble inlays and blue tiles. They are replete with detailing, including ornate overhanging balconies, or jharokhas, and are topped by pillared pavilions (chhatris), all features that are reminiscent of Rajasthani architecture as seen in the North and South Gates, and which were amply repeated in future Mughal architecture. It also has Qila-i Kuhna Mosque and the Shermandal, both credited to Sher Shah Source newsonair Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) (Historical Place) (Well-known for) Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines Chandra-Ketugarh      : Terracotta art Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Role of Microfinance Institutions in the Financial Inclusion and Economic growth Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: With the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) increasing the maximum number of tie-ups for corporate agents and insurance marketing firms, insurance companies are approaching microfinance institutions for partnerships to leverage their last-mile connectivity for deeper penetration into the rural market. About Microfinance and Microfinance Institutions: Microfinance is a form of financial service which provides small loans and other financial services to poor and low-income households. The definition of “small loans” varies between countries. In India, all loans that are below Rs. 1 lakh can be considered as microloans. Microcredit is delivered through a variety of institutional channels viz: Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) (including small finance banks (SFBs) and regional rural banks (RRBs)). Cooperative banks. Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs). Microfinance institutions (MFIs) registered as NBFCs as well as in other forms. MFIs are financial companies that provide small loans to people who do not have any access to banking facilities. MFI promotes financial inclusion which enables the poor and low-income households to come out of poverty, increase their income levels and improve overall living standards. It can facilitate achievement of national policies that target poverty reduction, women empowerment, assistance to vulnerable groups, and improvement in the standards of living. Significance of Microfinance Institutions: It makes credit available easily thereby bettering the income and employment scenario. It helps in serving the under-financed sections such as women, unemployed people and those with disabilities. It helps low-income households to stabilize their income flows and save for future needs. In good times, microfinance helps families and small businesses to prosper, and at times of crisis it can help them cope and rebuild. Families benefiting from microloans are more likely to provide better and continued education for their children. Challenges of MFI: Inadequate Data: Despite the fact that total loan accounts have been rising, it is unclear how these loans will actually affect clients’ levels of poverty because the available information is dispersed. Over-indebtedness: The two main issues that are straining the microfinance sector in India are the expanding trend of consumers taking out multiple loans and ineffective risk management. The microfinance industry offers loans with no security, which raises the possibility of bad debts. Eroding social objective: The social goal of MFIs—to enhance the lives of society’s marginalised groups—seems to have been weakening over time as they pursue development and profitability. Regulatory Issues: Microfinance institutions have entirely different needs and organisational structures than other traditional lending institutions. The microfinance sector is finding it difficult to survive due to a lack of an adequate regulatory framework. Poor structuring of organization: Lack of standardised data and fraud management system creates more NPAs and affects the credibility of the institution. Lending for Non-income Generating Purposes: The percentage of loans used for non-income generating purposes may be significantly greater than the RBI’s limit of 30% of the MFI’s total loans. Way Forward: MFIs should concentrate on developing a scalable and sustainable microfinance strategy with a clear mission for both economic and social welfare. The microfinance institutions should be encouraged by RBI to use a “social impact scorecard” to track their social impact. Best usage of technological integration will be able to assist MFIs in providing services as well as repayment collection processes. Source: Financial Express ChatGPT Open in new window Syllabus Mains –GS 3 Science and technology, GS 4 Ethics Context: In 2022, OpenAI opened its most recent and powerful AI chatbot, ChatGPT, to test its capability. It amazed netizens across the world by answering questions, fixing broken code, etc. Some users have been testing the bot’s capability to do nefarious things – Illicit actors have tried to bypass the tool’s safeguards and write malicious code. ChatGPT: ChatGPT is a ‘conversational’ AI based on OpenAI’s GPT 3.5 series of language learning models (LLM). This is a kind of computer language model that relies on deep learning techniques to produce human-like text based on inputs. It has gone viral is because of the kind of responses it gives, being seen as a replacement for much of the daily mundane writing, from an email to even college-style essays. The model is trained to predict what will come next, and that’s why one can technically have a ‘conversation’ with ChatGPT. It is trained using “Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback (RLHF).” OpenAI uses Microsoft Azure’s cloud infrastructure to run these models. Users have the option of downvoting or upvoting a response. Applications: It will answer queries just like a human would. Such as tips on how to set up a birthday party, write an essay on why parliamentary democracy is better, and even a fictional meeting between two well-known personalities. It can answer follow-up questions and can also admit its mistakes, challenge incorrect premises, and reject inappropriate requests. It is being seen as a replacement for the basic emails, party planning lists, CVs, and even college essays and homework. It can also be used to write code, solve math equations, and even spot errors in code. It can write fiction but not at the level of a human. Ethical Challenges: Biased content – Since in case of machine learning, artificial intelligence is developed based on  input of information, incorrect or biased information can create “biased” content The chatbot displayed clear racial and sexist biases Lack of objectivity – Its knowledge of the world and events after 2021 is limited and may give inaccurate results. Lack of authenticity- It could give “plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical” data that raises issues of credibility such as it can sometimes overuse certain phrases Lack of relevance – Although the chatbot gives grammatically correct answers, these lack context and substance. Write Malware– ChatGPT is programmed to block obvious requests to write malicious Code for amateur coders looking to build malware. However, the more seasoned ones could trick the bot into correcting or enhancing malicious code they have partially developed. They could get through the system by phrasing their request in an innocuous way. Phishing emails – OpenAI notes that asking its bot for illegal or phishing content may violate its content policy. But for someone trespassing such policies, the bot provides a starting point. Cybersecurity firm Check Point’s researchers tested the bot by asking it to draft a phishing email for a fictional webhosting firm – ChatGPT gave an impressive ‘phishing email’ in reply. The response section included a warning that read: “This content may violate our content policy. If you believe this to be in error, please submit your feedback – your input will aid our research in this area.” Plagiarism chokepoint In education sphere, the bot could be used to turn in plagiarised essays that could be hard to detect for time-pressed invigilators since GPT models write in a statistically vanilla way. New York City’s education department banned ChatGPT in its public schools. Privacy and security concerns – Large language models (LLM) can be easily automated to launch complicated attack processes to generate other malicious artifacts. Inherently buggy code Stack Overflow, a forum for software programmers, banned its users from using any AI-generated code on the platform. Suggestions for future: Provide a universal framework of values, principles and actions to guide States in the formulation of their legislation, policies or other instruments regarding AI, consistent with international law. Protect,  promote  and  respect  human  rights  and  fundamental  freedoms,  human  dignity  and equality, including gender equality; to safeguard the interests of present and future generations; to preserve  the  environment,  biodiversity  and  ecosystems;  and  to  respect  cultural  diversity  in  all stages of the AI system life cycle Promote equitable access to developments and knowledge in the field of AI and the sharing of benefits, with particular attention to the needs and contributions of LMICs, including LDCs, LLDCs and SIDS In education sphere – where the answers coming from a human and ChatGPT are in a similar zone, a different kind of pedagogy could help such as looking beyond summarisation and reporting based on what is available on the Internet can help. Proportionality and Do No Harm  – none  of  the  processes  related  to  the  AI  system  life cycle shall exceed what is necessary to achieve legitimate aims Right to Privacy, and Data Protection – Data for AI systems be collected, used, shared, archived and deleted in ways that are consistent with international law and in line with the values and principles Human oversight and determination – it is always possible to attribute ethical and legal responsibility for any  stage  of  the  life  cycle  of  AI  systems to  physical persons or to existing legal entities. Human oversight refers thus not only to individual human oversight, but to inclusive public oversight Way forward National  and  international  governmental  and  non-governmental organizations, as well as transnational corporations and scientific organizations must collaborate to generate universal ethical values for AI. In education sphere, helping educators think through the different types of prompts to best assess students to help them stay away from using ChatGPT is important Source DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Mission Antyodaya’, consider the following statements It aims at providing free ration to the most backward districts of India. It is co-terminus with People’s Plan campaign of Ministry of Rural Development Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2 Recently in news, Redshift phenomenon is a result of which of the following Doppler Effect Raman Effect Wave theory of light Quantum theory Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS): It is located in terai region of Bihar The Gairwa river flows in the sanctuary area is declared as a sanctuary for Mugger and Gharials. Tharu tribal group lives near the sanctuary Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Maghi Mela Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Maghi Mela has been celebrated in the city of Sri Muktsar Sahib in Punjab for centuries in memory of 40 Sikh warriors who were killed fighting the Mughals in the Battle of Khidrana in 1705. About Maghi Mela: The Maghi fair is held to honour the memory of the forty Sikh warriors killed during the Battle of Muktsar in 1705. It is held in the holy city of Sri Muktsar Sahib every year in January, or on the month of Magh according to the Nanakshahi calendar. Guru Gobind Singh chose Maghi as one of the three festivals to be celebrated by Sikhs (the others are Baisakhi and Bandhi chor divas (Diwali). Nanakshahi calendar was designed by Sikh scholar Pal Singh Purewal to replace the Bikrami calendar, to work out the dates of gurpurab and other festivals. It is one of the most important festivals for Sikhs. History of the battle: Muktsar, originally called Khidrana, was named as Muktsar (“the pool of liberation”). These forty Sikhs, led by their leader Mahan Singh, had formally deserted Sri Guru Gobind Singh in the need of hour, and signed a written memorandum to the effect. When Mai Bhago, heard of this cowardly act, she scolded the Singh’s and inspired them refresh with spirit of bravery for which Sikhs are known. Hence, the unit returned and joined the Guru who was already engaged in action at Khidrana. All forty of them attained martyrdom. The memorandum (bedawa) was torn down by the Guru himself just before Mahan Singh died. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts            Location in the State of Dhauli                                                           Odisha Erragudi                                                 Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                  Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                             Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Miniature votive stupas at Nalanda Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Archeological Survey of India (ASI) has recently discovered two 1200-year-old miniature votive stupas during landscaping activities near Sarai Tila mound on the premises of ‘Nalanda Mahavihara’, a world heritage site in Nalanda district. About Miniature votive stupas: A Stupa is a hemispherical structure which symbolizes the burial mound of Buddha. It rose to prominence after the advent of Buddhism and peaked during Ashoka’s reign. Stupas evolved as Chorten in Tibet and pagodas in East Asia. Archeologists suggest that the stupas must be around 1200 years old. During the beginning of 7th century CE, small miniature terracotta stupas became popular as votive offerings. Votive is the form of the stupa, with its distinctive domelike drum, originating in eight cylindrical structures in which the Buddha’s relics were placed after his death. About Nalanda Mahavihara at Nalanda, Bihar The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in the State of Bihar, in north-eastern India. It comprises the archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. It includes stupas, shrines, viharas (residential and educational buildings) and important art works in stucco, stone and metal. Nalanda was established during the Gupta Empire era and was supported by numerous Indian and Javanese patrons – both Buddhists and non-Buddhists. The historical development of the site testifies to the development of Buddhism into a religion and the flourishing of monastic and educational traditions. Source: Times of India Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Historical place                       Well-known for Burzahom                      Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh         Terracotta art Ganeshwar                     Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Exoplanets Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) recently announced that the James Webb Space Telescope has discovered its first new exoplanet. Researchers have labelled the planet as LHS 475 b, and it’s roughly the same size as Earth. About Exoplanets: An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system. Most orbit other stars, but free-floating exoplanets, called rogue planets, orbit the galactic centre and are untethered to any star. They can be gas giants bigger than Jupiter or as small and rocky as Earth. They are also known to have different kinds of temperatures — boiling hot to freezing cold. Scientists rely on indirect methods for discovering exoplanets, such as the transit method, which is measuring the dimming of a star that happens to have a planet pass in front of it. About red dwarf stars: Such types of stars are the most common and smallest in the universe. As they don’t radiate much light, it’s very tough to detect them with the naked eye from Earth. However, as red dwarfs are dimmer than other stars, it is easier to find exoplanets that surround them. Therefore, red dwarfs are a popular target for planet hunting. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Dolphins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A new study has found that noise generated by human activity makes it harder for dolphins to communicate and coordinate with each other. Highlights of the study: Dolphins are social mammals that communicate through squeaks, whistles and clicks. They also use echolocation in order to locate food and other objects. As the levels of underwater noise increase, these mammals have to “shout” to each other. Echolocation occurs when an animal emits a sound wave that bounces off an object, returning an echo that provides information about the object’s distance and size. Therefore, anthropogenic noise coming from large commercial ships, military sonars or offshore drilling can severely impact their well-being. About Dolphins: River Dolphins: There are only six extant species of river dolphins left in the world today and they are all endangered or critically endangered. This is because pollution, dams, shipping and bycatch have taken their toll on this iconic species. There are currently 42 species of dolphins and seven species of porpoises. Dolphins are marine mammals. They must surface to breathe air and give birth to live young. A dolphin pregnancy last between nine and 16 months. The mother feeds her offspring on milk. The sons and daughters of resident orcas stay with their maternal family for life. Dolphins eat fish, squid and crustaceans. They do not chew they food but may break it into smaller pieces before swallowing. All dolphins have conical-shaped teeth. A Risso’s dolphin has 14 while a spinner dolphin can have 240. The orca (killer whale) is the largest dolphin. Hector’s dolphin and Franciscana are two of the smallest. The four river dolphin species inhabit the large waterways of Asia and South America. Dolphins have an array of vocalisations such as clicks, whistles and squeals which they use for their well-developed communication and echolocation skills. Lifespan varies from around 20 years in the smaller dolphin species to 80 years or more for larger dolphins such as orcas. Maui’s dolphin (a sub-species of the New Zealand dolphin) is the most endangered dolphin. Consequences of noisy oceans: Marine animals are known to use sound to navigate, find food and protect themselves. As sound travels faster in water than air, it makes for an important mode of communication because it can convey a lot of information quickly and over long distances. Scientists believe that fish species rely on sounds during reproductive activities, including mate attraction, courtship and mate choice. Sounds made by drilling, commercial ships and military operations lead to disruption of marine life. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Shukrayaan I Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: P. Sreekumar, the Satish Dhawan Professor at the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and advisor to its space science programme, said that the organisation is yet to receive approval from the Indian government for the Venus mission and that the mission could as a result be postponed to 2031. ISRO had originally hoped to launch Shukrayaan I in mid-2023 but cited the pandemic when it pushed the date to December 2024. Optimal launch windows from Earth to Venus occur once around every 19 months. But even more optimal windows, which further reduce the amount of fuel required at liftoff, come around every eight years. Both the U.S. and the European space agencies have Venus missions planned for 2031 — referring to VERITAS and EnVision Shukrayaan I or the Venus mission: It will be an orbiter mission i.e. a spacecraft designed to orbit a celestial body without landing on its surface The spaceship, GSLV Mark II will be used to launch the mission with a launch mass of 2,500 kg. Its scientific payloads currently include a high-resolution synthetic aperture radar and a ground-penetrating radar. It will be the first Venus orbiter to carry a sub-surface radar or ground-penetrating radar. It is used for imaging the subsurface of the target, in this case, a planet, using radar pulses. It means that the investigation method for the study of asphalt, metals, etc, of ISRO’s Venus orbiter will be non-intrusive. The mission is expected to study Venus’s geological and volcanic activity, emissions on the ground, wind speed, cloud cover, and other planetary characteristics from an elliptical orbit. It will help uncover the mysteries hidden beneath the sulfuric acid clouds that surround the planet and explore the surface and atmosphere of Venus in relation to the Sun and the Earth. In the year 2020, scientists announced that they have detected Phosphine (a life-friendly element indicative of possible life on the planet) in the atmosphere of Venus. ‘Shukrayaan-I’ will also bring with it some instruments that will examine infrared, ultraviolet and submillimeter wavelengths to study the claims more deeply. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2016) The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 RBI’s contingency fund Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: THE SURPLUS available with the Reserve Bank of India for transfer or the RBI dividend to the Union government is likely to remain low in the current financial year ending March 2023 because of higher expenditure incurred by the central bank due to rising interest rates and higher costs in managing surplus liquidity in the system. Contingency Fund This is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected and unforeseen contingencies, including depreciation in the value of securities, risks arising out of monetary/exchange rate policy operations, systemic risks and any risk arising on account of the special responsibilities enjoined upon the Reserve Bank. This amount is retained within the RBI. Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) It is maintained by the Reserve Bank to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices. Unrealised gains or losses on valuation of foreign currency assets (FCA) and gold are not taken to the income account but instead accounted for in the CGRA. Net balance in CGRA, therefore, varies with the size of the asset base, its valuation and movement in the exchange rate and price of gold. CGRA provides a buffer against exchange rate/ gold price fluctuations. It can come under pressure if there is an appreciation of the rupee vis-à-vis major currencies or a fall in the price of gold. When CGRA is not sufficient to fully meet exchange losses, it is replenished from the CF. IRA-FS and IRA-RS accounts: The unrealised gains or losses on revaluation in foreign dated securities are recorded in the Investment Revaluation Account Foreign Securities (IRA-FS). Similarly, the unrealised gains or losses on revaluation is accounted for in Investment Revaluation Account-Rupee Securities (IRA-RS). In the Investment Revaluation Account-Foreign Securities (IRA-FS), the foreign dated securities are marked-to market on the last business day of each week ending Friday and the last business day of each month and the unrealised gains or losses are transferred to the IRAFS. Economic capital framework Bimal Jalan-led panel was constituted to review the RBI’s Economic Capital Framework (ECF). The RBI transfers surplus to the government as per the economic capital framework (ECF) adopted by the RBI board The RBI normally pays the dividend from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency, among others. The RBI should maintain a Contingent Risk Buffer, which mostly comes from the CF, of between 5.5-6.5% of the central bank’s balance sheet. RBI should put in place a framework for assessing the market risk of its off-balance sheet exposures in view of their increasing significance. The surplus distribution policy should move away from targeting total economic capital alone. A review of RBI’s economic capital framework should be conducted every five years. Repo and Reverse repo: Repurchase Agreements (Repo) are conducted whenever the Central Bank is mopping up excess liquidity from the domestic market. A Repo is a collateralized loan involving a contractual arrangement between two parties, whereby one party sells a security at a specified price with a commitment to buy back the same at a later date. The repo rate is the interest paid by RBI to Commercial Banks for lending money in the repo market. Reverse Repos, on the other hand, are conducted whenever the Central Bank is injecting liquidity into the domestic market. Reverse Repo transactions therefore, involve purchase of Government securities by RBI from Commercial Banks. The reverse repo rate is the interest paid by commercial banks for borrowing money from the Central bank. Under reverse repo, the RBI borrows from banks, while under the repo window, RBI lends to banks. The reverse repo rate is 3.35 per cent and the repo rate is 6.25 per cent. Sources: Indian express Previous Year Question Q.1) If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do? (2020) Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Saltwater crocodile Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: As per Saltie census 2023, The population of saltwater crocodiles in the water bodies of Bhitarkanika National Park and its nearby areas in Odisha’s Kendrapara district has marginally increased in 2023. Bhitarkanika is the abode of 20 whitish estuarine crocodiles In 2006, the Guinness Book of World Records recorded a 23-foot long salt-water crocodile in Bhitarkanika as the largest crocodile in the world. Saltwater crocodile: Crocodylus porosus The saltwater crocodile is the largest of all crocodilians, and the largest reptile in the world. The species has a relatively large head, with a pair of ridges that run from the eye along the centre of the snout. Adults are generally dark in colour, with lighter tan or grey areas, and dark bands and stripes on the lower flanks. The juvenile is usually pale tan, with black stripes and spots on the body and tail, which gradually fade with age, although never disappear entirely. Female saltwater crocodiles are smaller in size than their male counterparts, normally reaching a maximum length of 2.5 to 3 m. As in all crocodilians, the eyes, ears and nostrils are located on top of the head, allowing the crocodile to remain almost totally submerged when lying in water, helping to conceal it from potential prey, while a special valve at the back of the throat allows the mouth to be opened underwater without water entering the throat. The saltwater crocodile is considered to be more aquatic than most crocodilians, and is less heavily armored along the back and neck. Juveniles are restricted to small insects, amphibians, reptiles, crustaceans, and small fish. Adults feed on crabs, turtles, snakes, birds, buffalo, wild boar, and monkeys. Saltwater crocodiles hide in the water exposing only their eyes and nose. They lunge at prey, often killing it with a single snap of the jaws, then drag the prey under water where it is more easily consumed. The total length of a crocodile is 7.5 times the length of the animal’s head. Distribution: Apart from the eastern coast of India, the saltwater crocodile is extremely rare on the Indian subcontinent The saltwater crocodile is also found in Bangladesh. A large population is present within the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary of Odisha while smaller populations occur throughout the Sundarbans. Populations are also present within the mangrove forests and other coastal areas of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India. Saltwater crocodiles were once present throughout most of the island of Sri Lanka. Major Threats: Illegal hunting for its meat and eggs, as well as for its commercially valuable skin. Habitat loss and habitat alterations. Negative attitude towards the species make conservation measures difficult to implement. Source: DTE Antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: A strand of antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea outbreak has hit Kenya, according to researchers at the Kenya Medical Research Institute (Kemri). Gonorrhoea Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with the Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium. N. gonorrhoeae infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract, including the cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes in women, and the urethra in women and men. N. gonorrhoeae can also infect the mucous membranes of the mouth, throat, eyes, and rectum. Gonorrhoea is the second-most common disease to be sexually transmitted across the world after chlamydia, according to the World Health Organization (WHO). Transmitted through sexual contact with the penis, vagina, mouth, or anus of an infected partner. Gonorrhea can also be spread perinatally from mother to baby during childbirth. Ejaculation does not have to occur for gonorrhea to be transmitted or acquired. Symptoms – urethral infection in men include dysuria or a white, yellow, or green urethral discharge, testicular or scrotal pain, etc. In women it includes dysuria, increased vaginal discharge, or vaginal bleeding between periods. People who have had gonorrhea and received treatment may be reinfected if they have sexual contact with a person infected with gonorrhea. CDC now recommends a single 500 mg intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone for the treatment of gonorrhea. Antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea Overuse of antibiotics, genetic mutations of the bacteria and repeated use of poor-quality drugs makes it drug-resistant Drug-resistant super gonorrhoea was first detected in samples taken from sex workers in the capital city, Nairobi, and other urban areas like Kiambu County. The incurable infection that is asymptomatic in some cases, can cause significant health challenges, including permanent damage to their reproductive systems. Other diseases that medics have expressed concern over due to total antimicrobial resistance include various strains of SARS-CoV-2, ebola virus disease, Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever, Lassa fever and marburg virus disease. Source NewsOnAIR Carbon Trading in the Agriculture Sector Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: Recently, The Union Ministry of Power has notified the implementation of the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, from January 1, 2023. The amendment empowers the Union government to lay down a carbon credit certificates trading scheme in India. About Carbon Trading and Carbon Credit: Carbon trading is a market-based system that aims to offer financial incentives to persuade enterprises to lessen their environmental footprint. In contrast to voluntary offsets, which allow consumers to pay to offset their carbon impact, carbon trading is a legally binding scheme. Carbon trading seeks to place a price on CO2 using the caps and trade principle and is calculated by individual governments and policymakers. The amount of emissions that are allowed for each carbon-producing industry, such as the power sector, the automobile industry, and air travel, is capped by the government. Carbon Credit: A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere. Carbon allowances or caps, meanwhile, are determined by countries or governments according to their emission reduction targets. Significance of Carbon Credit: Carbon credits allow carbon dioxide emissions to be traded as a commodity in the market which compensates sellers for investing in emission reduction practices and thus incentivises the net reduction of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Corporations that cannot directly reduce their GHG emissions can offset their emissions indirectly by purchasing carbon credits from other individuals and entities. As the significance of climate and sustainability increases for countries, investors (especially ESG-driven investments), employees, and customers’ demand for these credits is also expected to significantly increase. Various practices could be eligible for earning carbon credits, including renewable energy, afforestation, ecological restoration, agriculture, waste management, etc. Advantages of carbon credit in Agricultural Sector: Carbon credits could be generated in agriculture based on carbon dioxide sequestered and stored by the soil from the atmosphere as well as the reduction in carbon dioxide emissions during the cultivation process from ploughing to the management of stubble. For instance, various activities related to agriculture such as tilling of fields before sowing seeds, use of chemical fertilizers, stubble burning, etc. result in carbon dioxide emissions. Agriculture is also the biggest contributor to GHG emissions within the entire food system. Being a major source of emissions, agriculture could also serve as an important sink to store carbon and thus reduce, avoid or sequester carbon dioxide emissions. The improvement in the carbon-storing capacity of the soil could improve fertility, crop yields, farmers’ income, water conservation, etc., thereby aiding in making agriculture resilient in the long run. Use of the direct-seeding method to cultivate rice instead of transplantation of saplings in flooded fields can reduce methane emissions (generated from bacteria in flooded fields) and water consumption, and also improve soil nutrition. The promotion of similar practices could help in reducing emissions and providing carbon credits to farmers. Farmers can then sell these credits in the market and earn additional income, thus further incentivising them to implement such activities and improve soil carbon. Encouraging activities like zero-tilling agriculture, agroforestry, improved water management, crop diversification and reduced use of chemical fertilizers can improve soil health and its capacity to store carbon. It is estimated that soil carbon sequestration is a cost-effective measure to mitigate climate change and can sequester around 2.6 gigaton emissions per year. Challenges before Carbon credit in the Agriculture sector: This nascent level of agricultural carbon trading can be attributed to various reasons such as – Low level of stakeholder awareness Low level of methodology for determination of emissions reduced, avoided, or sequestered due to agriculture activities Non-permanence of carbon sequestered in the soil Verification of the quality of carbon credits Monitoring of underlying projects, Determination of the fair value of carbon credits to incentivise farmers to adopt sustainable practices etc. The average landholding size of an Indian farmer is just over one hectare. Therefore, the amount of carbon credits received may not be enough for a small farmer to adopt regenerative agriculture practices. Low Participation of Agriculture Sector: The carbon credits conceptually seem encouraging for climate change and agriculture but there is low participation of the agricultural sector in carbon trading markets. For example, as per the Berkeley Carbon Trading Project, agricultural activities accounted for only 1 per cent of all carbon credits issued for emissions reduction projects in 2021. Way Forward: Farmers need to be made aware of the existence and benefits of carbon credit programmes, so that all farmers practicing regenerative agriculture can benefit from it. Need of a streamlined policy to address these challenges which will help in expanding the currently under-utilized space for carbon credit trading from commercial agriculture. Thus the governments at the state and central level could attempt to align existing natural farming, regenerative farming, and organic farming schemes so as to nudge farmers to participate in carbon credit programmes along with the associated organizations. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Global Risks due to Climate Change Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Environment Context: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s (IPCC) sixth assessment report highlights the risks of increasingly severe, interconnected and often irreversible impacts of climate change on ecosystems, biodiversity, and human systems. Similarly, the recent Global Risks Report 2023 released by the World Economic Forum (WEF), titled as Cooperation in a Fragmented World these Global Risks Global Risk:                        ‘Global risk’ is defined as the possibility of the occurrence of an event or condition which, if it occurs, would negatively impact a significant proportion of global gross domestic product, population or natural resources, according to the WEF. The findings by the WEF are concerning since the impact of natural disasters or extreme weather events disproportionately affects low- and middle-income countries. Such events figure among the top five risks in 25 countries, especially developing coastal countries across Latin America, Africa and South-East Asia including India. In 10 countries, natural disasters and extreme weather events were perceived to be the top most severe risk in the short term or in the next two years Findings ‘Failure to mitigate climate change’ as well as ‘failure of climate change adaptation’ are the two most severe risks facing the world in the next decade ‘Natural disasters and extreme weather events’ is also the second-most severe risk that the world needs to be prepared for in the next two years This is followed by ‘Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse’. Over the next 10 years or by 2033, the interconnections between biodiversity loss, pollution, natural resource consumption, climate change and socioeconomic drivers will makes for a dangerous mix In the meantime, the current global pandemic and war in Europe has been held responsible for the energy, inflation and food crises. ‘Cost of living’ ranks as the top most serious global risk in the short term (over the next two years). Concerns for India: India recorded extreme weather events on 291 of the 334 days between January 1 and November 30, 2022 according to India’s Atlas On Weather Disasters prepared by the Centre for Science and Environment and Down To Earth (CSE/DTE). The country witnessed an extreme weather event of some sort in one or more of its regions for more than 87 per cent of the time over these 11 months. These extreme events have a link with human-caused greenhouse gas emissions and the climate crisis as the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change said in its sixth assessment report. The IPCC assessment, titled Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science Basis dedicated a chapter to weather extremes for the first time. Further, Human-caused greenhouse gas emissions have led to an increased frequency and / or intensity of some weather and climate extremes since pre-industrial times Global challenges: Atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide have all reached record highs. Emission trajectories make it very unlikely that global ambitions to limit warming to 1.5°C will be achieved. Existing measures to prevent or prepare for climate change have been “ineffective” or “highly ineffective”. Biodiversity within and between ecosystems is already declining faster than at any other point during human history. But unlike other climate-related risks, ‘Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse’ has not been perceived to be of concern over the short term. It has been ranked as the fourth most severe risk in the long term or over the next ten years (by 2033). Growing demands on public- and private-sector resources from these socio-economic short term crises attributed to geopolitical tensions, will likely reduce the speed and scale of mitigation efforts over the next two years. These have, in some cases, also reversed progress on climate change mitigation, at least over the short term. For example, the European Union spent at least 50 billion euros on new and expanded fossil-fuel infrastructure and supplies. Some countries including Austria, Italy, the Netherlands and France restarted coal power stations Suggestions for future: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) adopted at 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is thus a significant breakthrough as far as global action on biodiversity is concerned. COP 27 Commitments made in Sharm El-Sheikh like the loss and damage fund breakthrough agreement to provide funding for vulnerable countries hit hard by climate disasters. Accelerating Renewable Energy Transition in SIDS: Thirty-six small island developing States and their partners have come together to share strategies and galvanize momentum in the transition to renewable and resilient energy systems. Cool Coalition: See how the world is coming together to deliver efficient, climate-friendly cooling for all, including through enhanced national climate plans. The coalition highlights promising innovations such as “cooling paper” that keeps temperatures down in buildings. The Energy Efficiency Alliance: Three Percent Club: A coalition of government, corporate and non-governmental leaders, the alliance champions accelerated energy efficiency, helping individual countries prepare roadmaps to boost efficiency. The Three Percent Club sets a target of an annual 3 per cent improvement in energy efficiency. Coalition for Climate Resilient Investment of UN: This initiative mobilizes the global private financial industry, in partnership with key private and public institutions, to integrate climate risks in investment decision-making. It now has 65 members with nearly $10 trillion in assets and has helped develop tools for modelling risk-informed cash flow and infrastructure priorities. Ocean Risk and Resilience Action Alliance: ORRAA connects governments, financial institutions, the insurance industry, environmental organizations and actors from the Global South to build resilience to ocean risk. It pioneers finance and insurance products aimed at incentivizing $500 million in investment in nature-based solutions by 2030. Way forward At COP26 negotiations in Glasgow, India led a joint statement around phasing out coal. However, the progress towards the adaptation support required for those communities and countries increasingly affected by the impacts of climate change too will be insufficient. With G20 presidency in hand, India needs to act in global interest based on the principle of co-benefits to deal with climate change as the world is inter-related. Source DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Shukrayan I’, consider the following statements It is India’s first and world’s fourth Venus mission. It will be launched using GSLV Mk IIIs Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2 With reference to ‘Saltwater crocodile’, their largest population is found in which of the following protected areas? Sundarbans Guindy National Park Bhitarkanika National Park Nagarjuna Srisailam Tiger Reserve Q.3) With reference to recent discoveries in the field of Science, the term “ LHS 475 b” refers to Natural moon of Venus Exoplanet Black hole None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here