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Jan 19, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Yen green bonds Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, REC Limited issued the first Japanese Yen green bonds worth JPY 61.1 billion. Background:- REC Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Power, has achieved a significant milestone by issuing its inaugural Japanese Yen (JPY) 61.1 billion (approximately Rs 3,500 crore) green bonds. About Yen green bonds:- It is REC Limited’s eleventh venture into the international bond market and inaugural Yen Bond issuance, which is also the first Yen Green Bond issuance by any Indian PSU. These bonds, part of the $ 10 billion global medium-term notes programme, span 5-year, 5.25-year, and 10-year tenures. Proceeds from the bond issuance will be dedicated to financing eligible green projects, adhering to REC Limited’s green finance framework, Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) external commercial borrowings guidelines, and relevant approvals. It is the first Yen Green Bond issuance by any Indian PSU. It is the largest ever Euro-Yen issuance in South and South East Asia. It is the largest Yen-denominated issuance from India. It is the largest non-sovereign Yen-denominated issuance ever from South and South East Asia. About green bonds:- Green bonds are financial instruments designed to raise capital specifically for projects that have positive environmental and/or climate benefits. Green bonds function similarly to regular bonds, offering fixed or variable interest rates to investors. However, the key difference lies in the use of proceeds. They offer investors a platform to engage in good practices, influencing the business strategy of bond issuers. Benefits:- Positive Impact on Environment Attracts Investment Alternative to Bank Loan: Green bonds are also an effective tool in driving down the cost of capital and reducing asset-liability mismatches. MUST READ: Sovereign Green Bonds (SGB) SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Scheme for Residential Education for Meritorious Scheduled Caste (SC) Students (SHRESHTA) Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued instructions for Residential Private Schools interested in joining the Scheme for Residential Education for Meritorious Scheduled Caste (SC) Students (SHRESHTA). Background:- According to the official notification, eligible schools must be private residential institutions affiliated with CBSE up to class 12, operational for at least 5 years, and boasting a pass percentage of 75 or more in class 10 and 12 over the last 3 years. About SHRESHTA Scheme:- Launched: December, 2021. Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Salient Features:- This scheme was launched for Scheduled Castes, as they have faced historical injustices in a hierarchical society and education is the most powerful tool to empower them as a community. The scheme will provide a level playing field to the poor and meritorious SC students. It aims to enhance the reach of development Intervention of the Government and to fill the gap in service-deficient SCs dominant areas, in the sector of education through the efforts of grant-in-aid institutions (run by NGOs) and residential high schools offering high-quality education and provide the environment for socio-economic upliftment and overall development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs). (New National Education Policy) Modes of implementation:- The scheme is being implemented in two Modes:- SHRESHTA schools:- Under this, each year a specified number of meritorious SC students in States/UTs will be selected through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). These would be admitted to the best private residential schools affiliated by the CBSE/State Board in classes 9th and 11th for completion of education till 12th standard. Selection of schools: Best performing CBSE-based private residential schools, having more than 75% pass percentage for classes 10 and 12 for the last three years are selected by a Committee for admission of selected students. Eligibility/Selection of students: Approx 3000 (1500 for 9th class and 1500 for class 11th tentative) SC students, whose parent’s annual income is up to 2.5 lakh, are selected every year under the Scheme through a national-level test conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The choices of schools shall be offered to the students in accordance with their merit. (Education & Nation Building) NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels: These include EXISTING COMPONENT, Guidelines hereinafter applicable only for Mode 2 of the Scheme, Schools/Hostels. These are run by VOs/NGOs and other organizations having higher classes (up to class 12) and who have been receiving Grant-in-aid will be continued, subject to satisfactory performance. MUST READ: Gender gap in education SOURCE: FREE PRESS JOURNAL PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Windfall Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Government of India slashed the windfall tax on petroleum crude to Rs 1,700 a tonne from 2,300 rupees a tonne. Background:- The cut will be effective from Jan. 16, the order said. About Windfall Tax:- Windfall taxes are designed to tax the profits a company derives from an external, sometimes unprecedented event. The term “windfall” refers to an unexpected rise in profits. These are profits that cannot be attributed to something the firm actively did, like an investment strategy or an expansion of business. Example: The most common industries that fall target to windfall gains tax include oil, gas, and mining. Typically, it’s levied as a one-oﬀ tax retrospectively over and above the normal rates of tax. It can be used to fund social welfare schemes, and as a supplementary revenue stream for the government. Need for Windfall Tax:- To narrow the country’s widened trade deﬁcit on account of rising prices of oil, gas, and coal. To redistribute the unexpected gains when high prices benefit producers at the expense of consumers. To fund social welfare scheme. As a supplementary revenue stream for the government. MUST READ: Fuel Tax SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Guru Gobind Singh Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: Recently, Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, or the Prakash Parv of the tenth Sikh Guru, was celebrated. Background:- Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, also known as Prakash Utsav, is a significant Sikh festival commemorating the birth anniversary of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the tenth and last Sikh Guru. It was celebrated on January 17 this year. About Guru Gobind Singh:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com Birth: January 5, 1671. Death: 21 October, 1708. He was the tenth and last of the Gurus of Sikhism. He became Guru at the age of nine, in 1676, following the martyrdom of his father, the ninth Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji (killed by Aurangzeb). He is variously revered as Sarbans Dani (the merciful donor, who sacrificed his all), Mard Agamra (man without any parallels), Shah-e-Shahenshah (emperor of emperors), Bar do Alam Shah (ruler of both worlds), amongst others. He founded the Khalsa Panth in 1699, a community of baptized Sikhs dedicated to living a life of courage, sacrifice, and service. The Five Ks: He introduced the five Ks – Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (comb), Kirpan (sword), Kaccha (undergarment), and Kara (steel bracelet), symbolizing the ideals of the Khalsa. He was a divine messenger, a warrior, a poet, and a philosopher He completed the Guru Granth Sahib Ji, in the final form that we find today. Guru Gobind Singh Ji created the revered khalsa Vani “Waheguru Ji Ka Khalsa, Waheguru Ji Ki Fateh”. MUST READ: Sri Guru Teg Bahadur Ji SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (2022) The best means of salvation was devotion. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative. Logical arguments were meant for the highest bliss. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation. Q.2 ) Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (2013) Dadu Dayal Guru Nanak Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) presented an action plan January 2, 2024 to the NGT. Background:- It is aimed at improving the air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and its surrounding areas. CAQM’s proposed plan is multi-sectoral, detailing specific timelines and identifying responsible nodal agencies. Key aspects of the plan include reducing industrial pollution, curtailing air pollution from diesel generators (DG) sets and tackling emissions from thermal power plants (TPP). About Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):- Establishment: 2020. It was formed by an ordinance in October 2020. HQ: Delhi. (CAQM) The commission replaces the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). EPCA: it is a Supreme Court-mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region. It was notified in 1998 by Environment Ministry under Environment Protection Act, 1986. Objectives of CAQM:- For Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) For better co-ordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and For matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Powers of the CAQM:- The rulings by the Commission on air pollution will override anything contained in any other law. The powers of the Commission will also supersede that of any other body in matters of air pollution.. The Commission will have the power to take measures, issue directions and entertain complaints “for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of air in the National Capital Region”. It will also coordinate action taken by states on air pollution and will lay down parameters for air quality and emission or discharge of environmental pollutants. It will also have powers to restrict industries in any area, carry out random inspections of any premises including factories and be able to close down an industry or cut its power and water supply in case of non-compliance. It will also be monitoring the measures taken by the States to prevent stubble burning. Merits of CAQM:- Effective Mechanism to tackle Pollution: The permanent Commission envisages a multi-sectoral, public participatory, multi-state dynamic body for combating pollution on a war footing. More Teeth: It will now be binding on state governments to follow the directions of the Commission regarding air quality management. Consolidated Approach: The commission will have the power to coordinate with relevant state and central governments on the multi-sector plan including industry, power plants, agriculture, transport, residential and construction. Penal Powers: The penalty for non-compliance shall be imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to Rs 1 crore, or both. Relieves Supreme Court: The Centre seeks to relieve the Supreme Court from having to constantly monitor pollution levels through various pollution-related cases. Participatory Democracy: the Commission would function under the oversight of the elected representatives with regular reports to the Parliament. MUST READ: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal received a GI Tag. About Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal:- Location: Odisha. Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal is known for its prickly thorns on the stems and the whole plant. The green and round fruits contain more seeds as compared to other genotypes. It is famous for its unique taste and relatively short quick cooking time. The plants are resistant to major insects. They can be grown with minimal pesticide. It is being widely cultivated in Nayagarh district of the state. The growers are getting a yield of up to 200 quintals per hectare and selling at around Rs 60 per kg. Historical records also suggest that the locals got the brinjal from the hilly areas. They collected seeds from it and started raising seedlings nearly 100 years ago. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SCHEME MINISTRY Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna Ministry of Labor & Employment MPLADS (Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme) Ministry of Finance One District One Product Scheme Ministry of Commerce & Industry How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : SHRESHTA Scheme is under the Ministry of Education. Statement-II : It is for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal, consider the following statements: The green and round fruits contain more seeds as compared to other genotypes. It takes a long cooking time. They need a large amount of pesticide. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 19th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Jan 19, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Jan 18, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th January 2024

Jan 18, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Namma Yatri Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/ GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Namma Yatri debuted in Delhi with 10,000 auto drivers. Background:- This comes at a time when mobility has emerged as a significant contributor to transactions done through the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC). About Namma Yatri:- Launched:2020. It was launched in Kochi as “Yatri” in 2020. Namma Yatri is the first open network mobility application built with the idea to provide multi-modal service to commuters without the involvement of any middlemen. Open mobility is an open network where any mode of transport can contribute to providing services to commuters thereby removing the dependency on any third-party organizations. Auto rickshaws are the first of the many service providers to join this mobility network. Any Auto driver can complete the KYC verification and start using Namma Yatri. (Uber drivers to be considered workers and not freelance contractors: UK Supreme Court) This application is built on the common network standards defined by ONDC built on the Beckn protocol (open source). The common network standards allow for interoperability for any buyer app compliant with the network standards to offer rides. Namma Yatri family of apps currently operates in seven cities in the ONDC network. It is backed by Juspay, and it serves over 1.7 lakh drivers and over 40 lakh customers. The app claims drivers have earned ₹350 crore commission-free till date. The app charges subscription fee for drivers at ₹25 per day for unlimited trips or ₹3.5 per trip MUST READ: Urban Mobility Expansion SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proven so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: According to the recently data, every fourth beneficiary added under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme over the past two months is a woman. Background:- The new beneficiaries were added to the scheme under the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra (VBSY), the Centre’s flagship initiative to raise awareness on its schemes. About Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme:- Launched: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Objectives:- To supplement the financial needs of small and marginal farmers by procuring various inputs related to agriculture and allied activities. To give a boost to rural consumption. To augment government efforts with the aim of doubling farmers’ income by 2022. Salient Features:- PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India. It has become operational from 12.2018. Under the scheme income support of 6,000/- per year in three equal instalments is provided to all land-holding farmer families. The definition of family for the scheme is husband, wife and minor children. State Government and UT administration will identify the farmer families which are eligible for support as per scheme guidelines. The fund will be directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries. SCHEME EXCLUSION:- The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefits under the scheme. All Institutional Landholders. Farmer families which belong to one or more of the following categories: Former and present holders of constitutional posts Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils,former and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats. All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies(Excluding Multi Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees). All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is Rs.10,000/-or more. (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees) of the above category. All Persons who paid Income Tax in the last assessment year Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out their profession by undertaking practices. Significance:- It provides support to small and marginal farmers who are largely involved in subsistence farming and struggle to invest in agriculture inputs or technology. It will boost rural consumption and be positive for agriculture and allied sectors. Cash transfer programmes are an important tool for social protection and poverty reduction. MUST READ: Digital Platform Kisan Sarathi SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 World Economic Forum (WEF) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recent World Economic Forum (WEF) survey expect global economy to weaken in 2024. Background:- As the top leaders from across the world gather here for their annual congregation, a survey of chief economists forecasted a weakening of the global economy in 2024 and accelerated geo-economic fragmentation. About the World Economic Forum (WEF):- Establishment: 1971. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Mission: WEF is committed to improving the situation of the world by engaging business, political, academic, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional, and industry agendas. It was established as a not-for-profit foundation. It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests. The Forum strives in all its efforts to demonstrate entrepreneurship in the global public interest while upholding the highest standards of governance. The World Economic Forum provides a global, impartial and not-for-profit platform for meaningful connection between stakeholders to establish trust, and build initiatives for cooperation and progress. The Forum engages the foremost political, business, cultural and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. Working:- The Forum holds four major annual meetings: The World Economic Forum Annual Meeting: held in Davos-Klosters, Switzerland, shapes global, regional and industry agendas at the beginning of the calendar year. The Annual Meeting of the New Champions: the Forum’s annual meeting on innovation, science and technology, is held in the People’s Republic of China. The Annual Meeting of the Global Future Councils: held in the United Arab Emirates, brings together the world’s leading knowledge community to share insights on the major challenges facing the world today. The Industry Strategy Meeting: brings together Industry Strategy Officers to shape industry agendas and explore how industries can shift from managing change to pioneering change. In addition, regional meetings and national strategy days provide focused engagement on the issues dominating regional and local agendas. Major reports published by WEF:- Energy Transition Index. Global Competitiveness Report. Global IT Report WEF along with INSEAD, and Cornell University publishes this report. Global Gender Gap Report. Global Risk Report. Global Travel and Tourism Report. MUST READ: IMF and World Economic Outlook SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the (2019) International Monetary Fund United Nations Conference on Trade and Development World Economic Forum World Bank Q.2) Which of the following gives the ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (2017) World Economic Forum UN Human Rights Council UN Women World Health Organization Finance Commission Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Cabinet approved the creation of posts for the 16th Finance Commission. Background:- The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has approved the creation of three posts at the level of Joint Secretary i.e. two posts of Joint Secretary and one post of Economic Adviser for the 16th Finance Commission, which was constituted in pursuance of Article 280 of the Constitution vide Notification dated 31st December, 2023. About Finance Commission:- The Finance Commission is a constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. It is constituted by the President Article 280 of the Constitution. It is a constitutional body constituted every 5 years Core responsibility:- Evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments. Recommend the sharing of taxes between them. Lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Lay down measures to improve the finances of states to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities, and Any other matter referred to it. Timeline:- First Finance Commission :6th April 1952. Chairman: Shri K.C. Neogy. Fifteenth Finance Commission: on 27 November 2017. Chairman: NK Singh. Key Recommendations of 15th Finance Commission:- Share of States in Central Taxes: The Commission proposed maintaining the states’ share in central taxes at 41% for the 2021-26 period, a slight reduction from the 42% allocated during 2015-20 by the 14th Finance Commission. This 1% adjustment aims to accommodate the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh from the central resources. Fiscal Deficit and Debt Levels: The Commission recommended that the Centre aims to limit its fiscal deficit to 4% of GDP by 2025-26. For states, it advised specific fiscal deficit limits as a percentage of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) for different years within the 2021-26 period. States not fully utilizing the sanctioned borrowing limits in the initial four years (2021-25) can access the remaining amount in subsequent years. Significance:- Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism. Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability. MUST READ: Special Category Status (SCS) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2). Consider the following statements: (2023) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Accotrding to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: The preparations for recent 9th Edition of Arunachal Pradesh’s Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival is in line. Background:- The first-ever PPHF was held on January 16-18, 2015, with the aim of recognising the efforts of the Nyishi hunters-turned-conservationists of hornbills About Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival:- It is declared a state festival. It centers around wildlife conservation, especially hornbills found in the Pakke Tiger Reserve. The reserve harbors four hornbill species – Oriental Pied, Great Indian, Rufous-necked and the endangered Wreathed Hornbill. The week-long event generates awareness on preserving these iconic birds. PPHF also spotlights the role of indigenous Nyishi tribes in protecting hornbills after having earlier hunted them. The Nyishi is the largest tribal group in Arunachal Pradesh. It forges connections between forests, wildlife and local communities. The first PPHF was organized in 2015 with the goal to recognize Nyishi conservation efforts. This year, the festival’s theme is Domutoh Domutoh, Paga hum Domutoh. It translates to ‘Let Our Hornbills Remain’ in the Nyishi language. Key activities lined up include: Bird watching tours Literary competitions Panel discussions Tribal music/dance performances Significance:- Beyond promoting hornbill conservation, other key goals of launching the Hornbill Festival were generating alternate livelihood streams for locals. MUST READ: Wildlife conservation in Arunachal Pradesh SOURCE: DOWNT TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs (2022) Wetland/Lake: Location Hokera Wetland Punjab Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake Tripura Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Indian Army Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT EVENTS/DEFENCE Context: Recently, on the occasion of Army Day, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tribute to the extraordinary courage, unwavering commitment and sacrifices laid down by Army personnel. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on x: “On Army Day, we honour the extraordinary courage, unwavering commitment and sacrifices of our Army personnel. Their relentless dedication in protecting our nation and upholding our sovereignty is a testament to their bravery. They are pillars of strength and resilience.” About Indian Army Day:- India celebrates Army Day on January 15 every year. Objective: to commemorate the achievements of the first Indian Commander in Chief of the Indian Army — General (later Field Marshal) K.M. Cariappa and the defence forces. In the celebration of Army Day, the parade is organised every year at the Cariappa Parade Ground of Delhi Cantonment. India will celebrate its 76th Army Day on January 15 ,2024. Theme of Indian Army Day 2024: In Service of the Nation. (Defence Acquisition Council) Motto of the Indian Army: Seva Paramo Dharma and it means ‘Service Before Self’. It signifies that Army officials always prioritise the safety and security of the nation. It’s a day to pay homage to brave soldiers who have laid down their lives for the nation, to recognise the unwavering dedication of those who stand guard at our borders, and to appreciate the sacrifices made by their families. From 1949 till 2022, the Army Day parade was organised at the Cariappa Parade Ground in the Delhi Cantonment. In 2023, the Southern Command was in charge of the parade in Bengaluru. 2024 Army Parade: This year, the celebration will take place in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. MUST READ: The new defence systems handed over to Army SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: REPORTS ORGANIZATION Technical Cooperation Report ILO (International Labour Organization) World Employment and Social Outlook IAEA (International Atomic Energy Agency) Global Corruption Report (GCR) Transparency International How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Fifteenth Finance Commission was commissioned on 27 November 2017. Statement-II : Its chairman was YV Reddy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian Army Day, consider the following statements: The theme of Indian Army Day 2024 is’ In Service of the Nation’. The motto of the Indian Army is ‘Satyamev Jayate’. In 2023, the celebration took place in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Jan 17, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Digi Yatra Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, there was a surge in complaints from passengers using various airports about the “coercive and deceptive” manner in which both private staff and CISF personnel were enrolling them for Digi Yatra. Background:- In December 2023, as air travel peaked in the holiday season, it was found that security personnel and private staff were collecting facial biometrics at airport entry gates without the consent or knowledge of passengers for the Digi Yatra app. About Digi Yatra:- DigiYatra is an industry-led initiative that uses facial recognition technology to make terminal entry & security clearance at the airport a seamless, hassle-free, and paperless process. DigiYatra is a decentralised mobile-based ID storage platform where air travellers can save their IDs and travel documents. Introduced by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MOCA) and DigiYatra Foundation. This platform is the next step towards creating a digitally empowered society. DigiYatra enables the automatic digital processing of flyers with the benefit of reduced wait time. It makes the boarding process faster and more seamless. DigiYatra is built on four pillars, including connected passengers, connected flying, connected airports, and connected systems. It ensures easy entry at all checkpoints. It is a paperless entry at airports using facial recognition software. It results in lower-cost operations. Significance:- Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports. Enhance security standards and improve current system performance. MUST READ: Digital India Programme SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following (2022) Aarogya Setu CoWIN Digi Locker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Home Ministry cancelled the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) registration of the Centre for Policy Research. Background:- One of the reasons cited is that the institute published reports on “current affairs programmes”, which is a violation of the Act. About the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is responsible for regulating FCRA in India. The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs. The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”. The FCRA was amended in 2010 and 2020 by the government to give tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilization of foreign funds by NGOs. Definition of foreign contribution:- It defines the term ‘foreign contribution’ to include currency, articles other than gifts for personal use and securities received from foreign sources. While foreign hospitality refers to any offer from a foreign source to provide foreign travel, boarding, lodging, transportation or medical treatment cost. FCRA Registration:- NGOs that want to receive foreign funds must apply online in a prescribed format with the required documentation. FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs. Following the application by the NGO, the MHA makes inquiries through the Intelligence Bureau into the antecedents of the applicant and accordingly processes the application. FCRA Exceptions and Prohibitions:- Prohibited Categories: Foreign donations are not permitted for candidates during elections, journalists, media broadcast companies, judges, government servants, members of the legislature, political parties or their office-bearers, and organizations of a political nature. Eligibility Criteria: Applicants must not be fictitious, prosecuted for conversion activities, involved in creating communal tension or disharmony, or engaged in the propagation of sedition. Significance:– The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) plays a crucial role in regulating foreign donations in India. It ensures the utilization of foreign funds for legitimate purposes, prevention of activities detrimental to the national interest, and maintaining transparency and accountability. (New Foreign Trade Policy) MUST READ: FCRA Changes: Ease of Monitoring vs Crippling Curbs SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Essential Diagnostics List Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, ICMR started revising current National Essential Diagnostics List for the first time. Background:- The list contains the minimum diagnostic tests that should be available at healthcare facilities; ICMR asked stakeholders to submit suggestions on addition, deletion of tests by the end of February. About National Essential Diagnostics List:- It is a list that would provide guidance to the government for deciding the kind of diagnostic tests that different healthcare facilities in villages and remote areas require. The World Health Organisation (WHO) released the first edition of the Essential Diagnostics List (EDL) in May 2018. (National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2022) Even though WHO’s EDL acts as a reference point for the development of national EDL, India’s diagnostics list has been customised and prepared as per the landscape of India’s health care priorities. In India, diagnostics are regulated under the regulatory provisions of the Medical Device Rules, 2017. Diagnostics (medical devices and in vitro diagnostics) follow a regulatory framework based on the drug regulations under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945. The Indian Council of Medical Research released the first National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) in 2019 to make the availability of diagnostics an essential component of the health care system. NEDL has been developed for all levels of health care – village level, primary, secondary and tertiary care. It includes a group of general laboratory tests for routine patient care and for diagnosis of communicable and non-communicable diseases. It also recommends list of human resources such as ASHA workers, lab technicians pathologists for different levels of health care as per the proposed list of diagnostics. Significance:- This NEDL aims to bridge the current regulatory system’s gap that does not cover all medical devices and in-vitro diagnostic devices (IVD). MUST READ: National Institute of Biologicals (NIB) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Startup Ranking 2022 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Tamil Nadu was recognised as the ‘Best Performer,’ the top category in the States’ Startup Ranking 2022, released recently. Background:- It was the 4th edition of Startup India Ranking carried out by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. About Startup Ranking 2022:- Released by: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). Objective: to evaluate all of India’s States and Union Territories (UT) on their efforts to build an ecosystem conducive to startup growth. The States’ Startup Ranking is a periodic capacity building exercise . States’ Startup Ranking was launched in February 2018. It aims to evaluate the Indian startup landscape through the eyes of state / UT policy intervention and identify practices that accelerate ecosystem growth and development. The States’ Startup Ranking Exercise has led each state / UT to have dedicated startup policies and through its annual rankings, it is able to track the evolution of these policies and the overall efforts of states / UTs in ecosystem building. The States Startup Ranking Framework accelerates efforts put in by the Center and States / UTs to enliven the entrepreneurial mindset across the length and breadth of the country. Capacity-building measures have also been undertaken by the Startup India Team across States and Union Territories for ecosystem enablers and innovators in promoting economic growth by upholding the spirit of cooperative federalism. Startup Ranking 2022:- The fourth edition of the exercise was launched in 2022 wherein the ranking framework comprised of 7 reform areas with a total of 25 action points with score of 85 marks and an overall score of 100 marks including that of the feedback exercise. This edition saw the maximum participation across all editions, of 33 States and Union Territories. The states and union territories were divided into Category-A (Population more than 1 crore) and Category-B (Population less than 1 crore) to establish uniformity and ensure standardization in the ranking process. The results of the 4th edition of the States’ Startup Ranking 2022 on National Startup Day – 16th January 2024 at an event held in New Delhi at Bharat Mandapam. Category A States (Population more than 1 crore) Best performer: Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu. Top Performer: Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana. Leader: Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand. Aspiring leader: Bihar, Haryana Emerging Ecosystems: Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir Category B States (Population less than 1 crore) Best performer: Himachal Pradesh Top Performer: Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya Leader: Goa, Manipur, Tripura Aspiring leader: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Nagaland Emerging Ecosystems: Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Ladakh, Mizoram, Puducherry, Sikkim. Performers MUST READ: Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Jagannath Temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Jagannath Temple Heritage corridor project at Puri in Odisha will be open to the public on 17 Jan 2024. Background:- The Temple heritage corridor has been built to enhance the visual connection between devotees and the shrine. About Jagannath Temple:- It was built in the 12th century by Anatavarman Chodaganga of Eastern Ganga Dynasty. It was rebuilt over the centuries by later rulers like Gajapatis. It is believed to be the site of an earlier temple linked to King Indrayumna. An important Hindu pilgrimage site as part of Char Dham. It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra. Lord Jagannath is a form of Lord Vishnu. This temple was called the “White Pagoda” and is a part of Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram). It is a part of Char Dham circuit, called “Yamanika Tirtha”. Unique wooden deities replaced periodically. The temple’s main attraction is the Annual Rath Yatra festival, in which the three main deities of the temple, Lord Jagannath, Lord Balabhadra and Devi Subhadra are taken out in a grand procession on a chariot. The temple is also known for its unique food offering, the Architecture:- The temple stands in the center of an inner courtyard on a high-raised platform. It has four components:- Vimana or Deula (Garbagriha) Jagamohana Natamandapa Bhogamandapa The architectural style of the Jagannath temple is a combination of two types-Rekha and Pidha. It has Four intricately carved gates. Other features like Nila Chakra, Aruna Stambha. Nila Chakra is located on the top of the temple and a different flag, each named as Patita Pavana, is hoisted on the chakra daily. MUST READ: Somnath Temple SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 African cheetah Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, experts have appealed to IUCN to upgrade Horn of Africa cheetah status to ‘endangered’. Background:- A group of experts have appealed to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to reclassify the status of the Northeast African Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus soemmeringii), found in the Horn of Africa, to ‘endangered’ from ‘vulnerable’. About Africa cheetah:- Scientific Name: Acinonyx jubatus jubatus Habitat: African Savannahs. They have a long, slender body measuring 1.2 meters (4 feet), with a long tail (65–85 cm ) to balance, that generally ends in a white tuft. Their weight ranges from 34 to 54 kg (75 to 119 pounds), males being slightly larger than females. They are bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah. They have small black round spots all over their body, black markings running from the inside of the eye to the corner of the mouth. Its very name originates from Sanskrit and means ‘the spotted one’. They prey on small antelopes, mammals, birds. They are the fastest of all land animals. (Cheetah Reintroduction) Conservation status:- IUCN status: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Cheetahs and others: know the 7 big cats SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2019) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sundarbans Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Pygmy Hog Critically Endangered Kondana Rat Vulnerable Asiatic Lion Least concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : As per Startup Ranking 2022 ,Gujarat is one of the Best performer in Category A States. Statement-II : Bihar and Haryana are aspiring leaders in Category A States. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Jagannath Temple, consider the following statements: It was built in the 10th century. It was rebuilt over the centuries by later rulers like Gajapatis. It is an important Hindu pilgrimage site as part of Char Dham. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Jan 17, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th January 2024

Jan 17, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 15] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 15 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on the role your family has played in shaping your values and life choices. How has this influence manifested in your decisions? Think about a significant lesson you learned from a family member. What was the lesson, and why has it stayed with you? How do you balance your personal ambitions and goals with your responsibilities and commitments to your family? Set 2: Analyse the following issue: India is currently experiencing a significant push in infrastructure development, aiming to modernize cities, improve connectivity, and boost the economy. This initiative includes various projects, from transportation networks to smart cities. Let’s explore this – What are the potential impacts of this massive infrastructural development on India’s socio-economic landscape? Consider the challenges and opportunities of such large-scale projects, including aspects like sustainability, urban planning, and the displacement of communities. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Jan 16, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India-Maldives Bilateral Relation Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, the Maldivian delegation proposed the removal of Indian troops by March 15, 2024, at the first India-Maldives High-Level Core Group meeting. Background:- The deadline was not find a mention in the official statements by the foreign offices of the two countries. About India-Maldives Bilateral Relation:- IMAGE SOURCE: worldatlas.com India and Maldives share ethnic, linguistic, cultural, religious and commercial links steeped in antiquity. The relations have been close, cordial and multi‐dimensional. India was among the first to recognize Maldives after its independence in 1965 and to establish diplomatic relations with the country. Maldives’ proximity to the west coast of India (barely 70 nautical miles away from Minicoy and 300 nautical miles away from India’s West coast), and its situation at the hub of commercial sea lanes running through the Indian Ocean (particularly the 8° N and 1½° N channels) imbues it with significant strategic importance to India. India has a pre‐eminent position in the Maldives, with relations extending to virtually most areas. The importance of India’s strategic role in Maldives is well‐recognized, with India being seen as a net security provider. ‘India First’ has been a stated policy of the Government of Maldives (GoM). Recent high-level exchanges:- Prime Minister Modi attended the inauguration ceremony of President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih on 17 Nov 2018 as the only HoS/HoG. Foreign Minister Abdulla Shahid paid an Official Visit to India in Nov 2018. Trade:- India and Maldives signed a trade agreement in 1981, which provides for the export of essential commodities. Growing from modest beginnings, India-Maldives bilateral trade in 2020 stood at US$ 213.91 million with trade balance heavily in favour of India. Defence Cooperation:- India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF), meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. (India-Maldives Defence Relation) A Comprehensive Action Plan for Defence was also signed in April 2016. Tourism:- India remained the top market for Maldives tourism in 2022 dominating over 14% with 240,000 arrivals. Operations in Maldives:- Operation Cactus 1988: Under Operation Cactus the Indian Armed Forces have helped the government of Maldives in the neutralization of the coup attempt. Operation Neer 2014: Under Operation Neer India supplied drinking water to Maldives to deal with the drinking water crisis. Operation Sanjeevani: India supplied 6.2 tonnes of essential medicines to Maldives, under Operation Sanjeevani as assistance in the fight against COVID-19. MUST READ: India-Maldives relations SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2016) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 One Vehicle One FASTag Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, NHAI took the ‘One Vehicle One FASTag’ Initiative to Enhance the National Highway Experience. Background:- NHAI is encouraging FASTag users to complete ‘Know Your Customer’ (KYC) process of their latest FASTag by updating KYC as per RBI guidelines. FASTags with valid balances but with incomplete KYC will get deactivated/blacklisted by banks post 31st January 2024. NHAI has taken this initiative after the recent reports of multiple FASTags being issued for a particular vehicle and FASTags being issued without KYC in violation of RBI’s mandate. About One Vehicle One FASTag:- Launched: December 1, 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport & Highways. Objective: To enhance the efficiency of the Electronic Toll Collection system and provide seamless movement at the Toll Plazas. Salient Features:- The scheme is a unified electronic system across the country. It ensures that all the vehicles will be able to travel across the nation without worrying about paying cash at the toll plazas. FASTag is a reloadable tag that allows automatic deduction of toll without having to stop. The tag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted The tag uses radio frequency identification(RFID) technology and is fixed on the windscreen of the vehicle once active. The main aim of the FASTag scheme is to digitally integrate the collection of toll plazas and provide the seamless mobility of vehicles across India. The government initiated this FASTag scheme to overcome the current challenges in the imprint and track mechanism for the GST E-Way Bill system (EWB), which enhances the efficiency of its monitoring. Benefits:- It reduces air pollution and will also reduce the use of paper. ( National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)) It will also reduce the toll payment hassles and provide analytics for better highway management. It will also provide ease of payment as there will be no need to carry cash for the toll transactions. MUST READ: FASTag Mandatory For All Vehicles SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure India Post Payments Bank Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, India Post Payments Bank Celebrated a Milestone Achievement of Eight Crore Customers. Background:- Since its inception, the IPPB has been dedicated to providing accessible and affordable banking solutions to every corner of the nation. This remarkable achievement of reaching eight crore customers reflects the trust and confidence placed in IPPB by the people of India. About India Post Payments Bank:- Launched: 2018. Governed by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It was launched with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. It is a payments bank of the Indian postal department. It works through a network of post offices and nearly 4 lakh postmen. Objective: to build the most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for the common man in India. Focus group: While its services are available to all citizens, the IPPB is primarily focusing on serving social sector beneficiaries, migrant laborers, un-organized sector, Micro Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Panchayats, low-income households, in rural areas and the unbanked and under-banked segments in both the rural and urban areas. IPPB offers services through a mix of physical and digital platforms. Functions of IPPB:- It accepts deposits and offers remittance services, mobile banking, and third-party fund transfers. It offers 3 types of saving accounts: Regular Account – Safal, Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) – Sugam and BSBDA Small – Saral The maximum limit on deposits for current and savings accounts is Rs 1 lakh. The bank offers a 4% interest rate on savings accounts. They can issue debit cards and ATM cards. It cannot issue credit cards. It cannot loan money. It provides social security payments like MNREGA wages, and direct benefit transfer and gives access to third-party services insurance, and mutual funds. IPPB account holders will be issued a QR code-based biometric card with a unique QR code. Significance:- IPPB is committed to providing a fillip to a less cash economy and contributing to the vision of Digital India. MUST READ: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Pongal Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has extended his best wishes on the occasion of Pongal. Background:- Cultural celebrations are held across many states of India under different names – Makar Sankranti, Pongal, Magh Bihu, etc. on January 14. Unlike many Hindu festivals, the date for these festivals is largely fixed. This year it is being celebrated on January 15 in some parts of India, as 2024 is a leap year. About Pongal:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Pongal is celebrated with the distribution of new crop “Shankarai Pongal” which is basically rice cooked in milk and jiggery distributed as a The day is a marker for a change of season – warmer months are close and we are moving away from winter, which is seen as a period of inactivity in many ways. It is said that the northward journey of the sun (Uttarayan) begins on this day. In the Hindu belief system, the end of January heralds the beginning of longer days. It marks the Sun changing directions and shifting its trajectory towards the north, therefore, entering the Makara or Capricorn zodiac sign. Rituals associated with Makar Sankranti or Pongal:- Sankranti activities, like taking a bath, offering Naivedhya (food offered to the deity) to the Sun god Lord Surya, offering charity or Dakshina, performing Shraddha rituals and breaking fast should be done during Punya Kaal. Worshippers usually bathe in sacred rivers such as the Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery. To celebrate the day, they wake up early in the morning at the time of sunrise. For believers, taking a dip absolves them of their sins; it is also seen as a time of peace and prosperity, and spiritual deeds are performed on this day. There are some regional variations in celebrations. The four-day Pongal festival in Tamil Nadu begins with bhogi, the day marked for cleaning the house and decorating its entrances with rice powder kolam or rangoli made with dried and coloured vegetables and grains. The main festival is celebrated on the second day; the third day is celebrated as Mattu Pongal. With mattu meaning bull in Tamil and ponga meaning the abundance of rice. The festival honours the toil of bulls in ensuring a good harvest. Every year, farmers assemble at the temple to offer prayers and seek blessings from Goddess Parvati, Lord Shiva, Lord Ganesha and Lord Krishna. Pongal, a dish of rice mixed with boiled milk and sugar is a treat prepared by all during this festival. Other festive dishes include lemon and tamarind rice, vadas, vegetable gravies and Payasam (a sweet rice pudding). Different names of the same festival:- Makar Sankranti – Odisha, Maharashtra-Goa, Andhra-Telengana, Kerala and most of north India.( Makar Sankranti being celebrated all over India) Paush Parbon – Bengal Pongal – Tamil Nadu Bhogali Bihu – Assam Lohri – Punjab and Jammu Maghi – Haryana and Himachal Khichdi Parwa – parts of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh MUST READ: Attukal Pongala SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Conjoined silverline Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new butterfly species , conjoined silverline was discovered in Karnataka. Background:- The species was first sighted in 2008, followed by an extensive research in 2021. About Conjoined silverline:- Scientific Name: Cigaritis conjuncta. It is endemic to mid-elevation evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. Conjoined Silverline, distinguished by its shiny wing patterns. It has been identified in Karnataka’s Kodagu district ,the first such find in India’s Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot since the 1970s. ( Atapaka Bird Sanctuary) Specifically, the name refers to the fused spots and bands observed on the undersides of the wings, which are intersected by eye-catching silvery lines running through the middle of these bands. The new butterfly is the size of a one-rupee coin but is invaluable to conservationists. MUST READ: White Tufted Royal Butterfly SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Similipal Kai chutney Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Similipal Kai chutney got the GI Tag. About Similipal Kai chutney:- The chutney made with red weaver ants is a traditional delicacy of the tribals in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district. The ants are found in the forests of Mayurbhanj, including in the Similipal forests – Asia’s second-largest biosphere. It is rich in medicinal and nutritional value. The chutney is believed to be a good source of nutrients like protein, calcium, zinc, vitamin B-12, iron, magnesium, potassium, etc. The tribals prepare the Kai chutney by grinding the ants manually on a Sil Batta or the grinding stone. Mayurbhanj’s tribals also earn their livelihood by selling the red ants and the chutney made from the ants. They believe that its consumption helps boost immunity and prevents diseases. MUST READ: Similipal National Park SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PM-eBus Sewa Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, tenders for e-buses have been floated under PM-eBus Sewa scheme. Background:- Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep Singh Puri on Friday said that the Ministry has floated tenders for procuring buses under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme and the bidding process would be completed by the end of this month. About PM-eBus Sewa:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport. Under the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country. It will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States’. Segments of the scheme:- There are two segments of the scheme: Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure, and Green Urban Mobility initiatives. Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure: Under this segment, the scheme will augment city electric bus operations by extending Central Assistance (CA) for 10,000 electric bus operation on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model, bus depots and behind-the-meter power infrastructure. Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): Under this segment, the scheme will support the implementation of GUMI projects for complementing bus services and demonstrating a reduction in Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions in urban areas. Operation Model:- City bus operations managed through a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Bus services supported for 10 years, with states/cities responsible for operations and payments to operators. Benefits of PM e-bus Sewa scheme:- The scheme will promote e-mobility. (Challenges of Electric Vehicles) Cities will be supported for the development of charging infrastructure under Green Urban Mobility Initiatives. Adoption of Electric mobility will reduce noise and air pollution and curb carbon emission. MUST READ: Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEV) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GI TAG STATE Anardana Assam Wancho Wooden Craft Mizoram Kachchhi Kharek Gujarat How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Under the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10 lakh e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country. Statement-II : It will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the FASTag , consider the following statements: FASTag is a reloadable tag that allows automatic deduction of toll without having to stop. The tag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted The tag uses radio frequency identification(RFID) technology. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Jan 16, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th January 2024

Jan 15, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Udupi station has been included in the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) for redevelopment. Background:- The railway station is under the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) network and was in dire need of attention. About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):- Launched: August,2023. Ministry: Ministry of Railways. Objectives:- The preparation and implementation of master plans for railway stations to enhance the facilities beyond the minimum essential amenities and creating roof plazas and city centres at the station premises in the long term Meet the needs of all stakeholders based on the funding availability and inter-se priority The scheme will cater to the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities as well as the introduction of new amenities Salient Features:- The Amrit Bharat Station scheme envisages to take up 76 railway stations over Central Railway for upgradation/modernisation and out of that, the foundation stone will be laid at 38 stations. It involves the preparation of Master Plans and their implementation in phases to improve the amenities at the stations like improvement of station access, circulating areas, waiting halls, landscaping etc. keeping in view the necessity at each station. The scheme also envisages improvement of the building, integrating the station with both sides of the city, multimodal integration, amenities for Divyangjans, sustainable and environment-friendly solutions, provision of ballastless tracks, ‘Roof Plazas’ as per necessity, phasing and feasibility and creation of city centres at the station in the long term. It will cover stations that have undergone detailed techno-economic feasibility studies. However, the roof plazas in these stations will not be constructed in the near term as reallocation of structures and utilities is given higher priority. The scheme will be implemented based on the needs and patronage of the railway stations. Infrastructural development will be ensured for more than 1,000 stations under this scheme. Benefits:- Modern passenger amenities. Improved traffic circulation. Inter-modal integration. Sustainability and Eco-friendliness. MUST READ: Restructuring of Railways SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) for MSMEs hit 1 lakh certification milestone. Background:- At the time of filing this report, 1,02,642 MSMEs were certified, of which 1,01,962 were bronze-level certified, 339 units received silver certification and 341 had gold certification, as per data from the scheme’s portal. The cumulative financial support extended to MSMEs under the scheme stood at Rs 134.57 crore. About Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED):- Launched: October 2016. Ministry: Ministry of Micro,Small & Medium Enterprises. Objective: to achieve a twin goal of production of high quality products with clean technology. Salient Features:- The ZED Scheme aims to rate and handhold all MSMEs to deliver top-quality products using clean technology. It will have sector-specific parameters for each industry. Zero defects will provide with high-quality products for consumers and zero effect provides with minimal pollution of the environment. Thus scripting a new role for MSMEs according to changing socio-economic scenario. Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only. MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification can be attained in three levels after registering and taking the ZED Pledge: Certification Level 1: BRONZE Certification Level 2: SILVER Certification Level 3: GOLD Benefits:- ZED will act as a catalyst to accomplish the goals under Make in India. i.e. increasing the contribution of the manufacturing sector to 25% of the GDP and creating 100 million employment. ZED will enhance the productivity and efficiency of MSMEs. ZED will also aid in attracting investments. Enhancing the global and domestic competitiveness of the manufacturing sector so has to broaden the customer base. MUST READ: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only PRASADAM Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated the country’s 1st Healthy & Hygienic Food Street, ‘PRASADAM,’. Background:- It was inaugurated at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. About PRASADAM:- Launched: January, 2024. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. PRASADAM will connect common citizens in every corner of the country with pure and safe local and traditional food. This endeavour will align common people and tourists to safe and healthy eating habits. It is the country’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”. It is spread over 939 square metres with 19 shops. Prasadam offers convenient and culturally rich dining options for the 1-1.5 lakh devotees who visit the Mahakaleshwar Temple daily.( Nagara style of temples) The food street is designed to provide various facilities, including a kids’ play area, drinking water facility, CCTV surveillance, parking, public conveniences, and seating spaces. MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate raided several premises linked to an arrested TMC leader and his associates in connection with its probe into the alleged ration distribution scam in West Bengal. Background:- ED teams went to four premises in central Kolkata and the office of a chartered accountant in Salk Lake on the eastern fringes of the city to carry out search operations, officials of the central agency said. According to them, all these locations where searches were being conducted were linked to TMC leader and Bongaon Municipality’s former chairman Shankar Adhya. About Enforcement Directorate:- The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organizationfounded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters:New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) ( Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central governmenton the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure:up to 5 years. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Koraput Kala Jeera Rice Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Koraput Kala Jeera Rice got GI Tag. About Koraput Kala Jeera Rice:- From: Koraput district in Odisha. The rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. It is called the ‘Prince of Rice’. It is an aromatic variety of rice. (Basmati Rice) It is popular for its black colour, good aroma, taste, and texture. (Basmati Rice) The black-coloured rice variety, is famous for its aroma, taste, texture and nutritional value. Tribal farmers of the Koraput region have preserved the rice variety for around 1,000 years. As the rice grains resemble cumin seeds, it is also called Kala Jeera. Consumption of the rice variety helps in increasing haemoglobin levels and improves metabolism in the body. This fragrant grain has antispasmodic, stomachic, carminative, antibacterial, astringent, and sedative. MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Einstein Probe Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, China sent a new astronomical satellite called the Einstein Probe into space to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe that flicker like fireworks. Background:- It is a probe designed to scour the sky for bursts of X-rays that could help illuminate mysterious phenomena linked to black holes and merging stars, took flight this week. About Einstein Probe:- Launched from: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in Sichuan Province of China. Weight: approximately 1.45 tonnes. The EP utilizes cutting-edge X-ray detection technology. The lotus-inspired design incorporates 12 ‘petals’ housing wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and two ‘stamens’ containing follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT). (IN-SPACe) The two ‘stamens’ consist of follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT), designed for in-depth observation and the discovery of transient celestial objects. Together, these components form a space observatory with the primary objective of capturing the initial light emitted during supernova explosions and exploring the nature of transient celestial objects at the outer reaches of the universe. Designed with a lifespan of five years, the Einstein Probe employs the astronomical time-domain observation method, conducting a high-sensitivity real-time dynamic sky survey in the soft X-ray band. Named after Albert Einstein, the EP mission pays homage to the great scientist, particularly focusing on predictions from his theory of general relativity related to black holes and gravitational waves. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SCHEMES MINISTRY Kala Utsav Ministry of Culture Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna Ministry of Women and Child Development Rashtriya Swachhta Kendra Ministry of Jal Shakti How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Koraput Kala Jeera Rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. Statement-II : It is a non- aromatic variety of rice. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Einstein Probe, consider the following statements: It was launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in Cambodia. It weighs approximately 1.45 tonnes. The EP utilizes cutting-edge UV ray detection technology. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

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