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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st August 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   LOK ADALAT  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: A special five-day Lok Adalat is being held to mark 75 years of the Supreme Court. Background:- As part of the adalat, nearly 6,700 cases will be heard and disposed quickly. About Lok Adalat Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms. It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties. The persons deciding the cases in the Lok Adalats are called the Members of the Lok Adalats, they have the role of statutory conciliators only and do not have any judicial role; therefore they can only persuade the parties to come to a conclusion for settling the dispute outside the court in the Lok Adalat and shall not pressurize or coerce any of the parties to compromise or settle cases or matters either directly or indirectly. Disputes before Lok Adalat would be decided on the basis of the compromise or settlement between the parties. The members shall assist the parties in an independent and impartial manner in their attempt to reach amicable settlement of their dispute. National Lok Adalat National Level Lok Adalats are held for at regular intervals where on a single day Lok Adalats are held throughout the country, in all the courts right from the Supreme Court till the Taluk Levels wherein cases are disposed off in huge numbers. Permanent Lok Adalat The other type of Lok Adalat is the Permanent Lok Adalat, organized under Section 22-B of The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Permanent Lok Adalats have been set up as permanent bodies for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation and settlement of cases relating to Public Utility Services like transport, postal, telegraph etc. Here, even if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat gets jurisdiction to decide the dispute, provided, the dispute does not relate to any offence. Source: Indian Express QUAD  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – INTERNATIONAL Context: Recently, Quad grouping expressed its deepest concern over the war raging in Ukraine, and flagged respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity — a clear reference to Russian invasion of Ukraine. Background: During his visit to Russia on July 8-9, Prime minister Modi had publicly stated that solutions cannot be found on the battlefield. He also expressed concern over the killing of children in a Russian attack on a hospital in Kyiv. Key Takeaways: The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is an informal strategic forum comprising four countries: the United States, India, Australia, and Japan. QUAD serves as a platform for these nations to engage in discussions on regional security, defense cooperation, and shared interests in the Indo-Pacific region. Formation and Evolution: The QUAD was first conceptualized in 2007, with its initial meeting held on the sidelines of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) summit. The group has evolved over the years, with its activities waxing and waning based on the geopolitical climate. Unlike NATO, the Quad does not include provisions for collective defence. Objectives: Security Cooperation: The QUAD focuses on enhancing maritime security, countering terrorism, and ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific region. Economic Collaboration: The member countries work together on economic initiatives, including supply chain resilience and technological innovation. Health and Climate: The QUAD has also formed working groups to address global health challenges, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, and climate change. Recent Developments: In recent years, the QUAD has intensified its activities, particularly in response to China’s growing assertiveness in the region. The group has conducted joint naval exercises and expanded its agenda to include cybersecurity and disinformation countermeasures. Significance: The QUAD is seen as a counterbalance to China’s influence in the Indo-Pacific region. It promotes democratic values and aims to ensure a rules-based international order. Source: Indian Express REPORT ON CURRENCY AND FINANCE (RCF) FOR 2023-24  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Report on Currency and Finance (RCF) for 2023-24 was recently released by the reserve bank. Background: Report mentions the challenges and opportunities coming along with digitisation. Key takeaways from the report Digitalisation and Consumer Risks: Impulsivity and Security Concerns – Digitalisation improves accessibility and convenience of financial services. Digitalisation exposes consumers to impulsive spending, herd behaviour, and data security. In India, the average cost of data breaches was $2.18 million in 2023, a 28% increase since 2020, though less than the global average. Common attacks in India: phishing (22%) and stolen/compromised credentials (16%). Impact on Monetary Policy and Financial Stability: Behavioural Changes and Policy Implications – Digitalisation-induced changes in consumer and financial intermediary behaviour can affect monetary policy. Digitalisation creates a more complex and interconnected financial system with implications for financial stability. Digitalisation impacts inflation, output dynamics, and monetary policy transmission variably over time. Central banks need to incorporate digitalisation aspects into models for effective monetary policy and financial stability goals. RBI’s Proactive Measures: Harnessing Benefits and Mitigating Risks – The RBI is undertaking policy measures to harness digitalisation benefits while mitigating emerging risks. Digitalisation offers immense opportunities for India to transition from an emerging market economy to an advanced economy. Boost to External Trade: Enhancing Trade and Remittances – Digitalisation can boost India’s external trade in goods and services, leveraging its comparative advantage in modern services exports. Digitalisation in international payment systems can reduce the cost of receiving remittances, leading to higher income or savings for recipients. Role of Digital Trade Policies: Cross-border Digital Trade- Cross-border digital trade policies are crucial for harnessing new opportunities, building trust, and coordinating regulatory aspects like data security and cybersecurity. The internationalisation of the rupee is progressing, backed by a comprehensive and integrated policy approach. Source: Indian Express PRADHAN MANTRI GRAMIN DIGITAL SAKSHARTA ABHIYAN (PMGDISHA)  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology recently responded to a question regarding the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) in the Rajya Sabha. Background: Under the scheme, around 7.35 crore candidates were enrolled and 6.39 crore were trained, out of which 4.78 crore candidates were certified as per the reply. Scheme was to bridge the digital divide, specifically targeting the rural population including the marginalized sections of society like Scheduled Castes (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST), Below Poverty Line (BPL), women, differently-abled persons, and minorities. About Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) : Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyaan (PMGDISHA) is a Digital Literacy Scheme by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The main features of the PMGDISHA scheme: The scheme was implemented only in rural areas i.e. Gram Panchayat/Village to cover 6 crore rural households. Only one person (14 – 60 years of age) per eligible household was considered for training. The beneficiaries were provided with 20 hours of training consisting of 5 modules namely (i) Introduction to digital devices, (ii) Operating digital devices, (iii) Introduction to the internet, (iv) Communications using the internet, (v) Application of internet (includes citizen centric services) and use of financial tools for undertaking digital cashless transactions. The training content was made available in 22 scheduled languages and English. This content was made available in both online and offline mode. In addition, keeping in view the thrust of the government on promoting cashless transactions through mobile phones, the content on digital wallets, mobile banking, Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS), and PoS were included. After training of the candidate, a third-party assessment of the trained candidates was carried out by recognized certifying agencies. Digitally Signed Certificates were issued for all successful candidates. Source: PIB DEVELOPMENT AID TO NEIGHBOURING COUNTRIES  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: A major chunk of the Ministry of External Affairs’ outlay, Rs 4,883 crore, has been earmarked for “aid to countries”, of which countries from the neighbourhood – Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, Afghanistan, and Myanmar – get the lion’s share. Background: At the beginning of its third term, the NDA government explicitly stated its intention to focus on strengthening ties with neighboring countries. This commitment was underscored by the presence of leaders from the region, including Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina and Sri Lanka President Ranil Wickremesinghe, at the inauguration of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s third term. Development Aid to Neighbouring Countries: Bhutan has emerged as the top recipient of Indian government aid to foreign countries. It received the highest aid at Rs 2,068.56 crore, though slightly less than last year’s Rs 2,400 crore. Nepal stands out as a significant beneficiary with an allocation of Rs 700 crore, marking a substantial increase of Rs 150 crore from the previous year’s budget of Rs 550 crore, later revised to Rs 650 crore. Maldives maintained a consistent allocation of Rs 400 crore, despite a higher revised amount of Rs 770.90 crore for the previous year. Despite the anti-India protests as well as remarks from its top leadership late last year, which caused a diplomatic row, India’s investment in the archipelago nation continues to remain consistent. Sri Lanka received Rs 245 crore, an increase from Rs 150 crore last year. Afghanistan receives Rs 200 crore, illustrating India’s role in aiding the country’s stability and development amidst ongoing challenges. Maldives: Maldives got Rs 400 crore despite the anti-India protests and remarks from its top leadership. The Chabahar port project in Iran continues to receive a steady allocation of Rs 100 crore, unchanged for the past three years. African countries collectively received Rs 200 crore, showcasing India’s expanding influence and engagement with the continent. Seychelles receives Rs 40 crore, up from Rs 10 crore. Significance of Development Aid to Neighbouring Countries: It helps to strengthen diplomatic relations by enhancing diplomatic ties and fostering stronger political and economic relationships. It promotes regional stability leading to a more secure and stable region that benefits India’s strategic interests. It supports economic development by funding infrastructure projects, and development programs that can boost economic growth in recipient countries, creating a more prosperous region. The improved infrastructure can lead to increased trade and investment opportunities for India. It improves India’s strategic influence as India can exert influence and build alliances, ensuring that neighbouring countries align more closely with its interests. It helps in addressing humanitarian needs such as health care, education, and disaster relief, improving the quality of life in recipient countries. It strengthens India’s soft power and increases its reputation as a responsible regional leader. Source: Indian Express INTERNATIONAL LABOUR ORGANIZATION (ILO)  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India, a founding member of the International Labour Organization (ILO), is likely to raise a complaint against the UN agency over its India Employment Report 2024. Background: The India Employment Report 2024 sheds light on crucial labour market trends in India. About International Labour Organization (ILO) The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a tripartite U.N. agency established in 1919. It brings together governments, employers, and workers from 187 member States to set labour standards, develop policies, and promote decent work for all. The ILO’s mandate is to advance social and economic justice through international labour standards. History: It was created in 1919, as part of theTreaty of Versailles that ended World War I. Became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946. Headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. Received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for improving peace among classes. Functions and Achievements: Ensured labour rights during the Great Depression and supported decolonization. Played a role in the creation of Solidarność (trade union) in Poland and the victory over apartheid in South Africa. Currently supports building an ethical framework for fair globalization. Organizational Structure: International Labour Conference: Sets international labour standards and policies. Often called the “International Parliament of Labour.” Governing Body: Executive council of the ILO, meets three times a year in Geneva. Establishes programs and budgets. Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Lok Adalat Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Disputes before Lok Adalat would be decided on the basis of the compromise or settlement between the parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the International Labour Organization (ILO), consider the following statements: The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations. The ILO’s mission is to advance social and economic justice by setting international labour standards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Identify the country which is not part of ‘QUAD’: USA Australia India Canada Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  31st July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  30th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   ETHANOL IN PETROL NOW PRIMARILY DERIVED FROM MAIZE AND DAMAGED FOOD GRAINS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Cereal grains have overtaken sugarcane as the primary feedstock for the production of ethanol used in blending with petrol. Background: In the current supply year (November 2023 to October 2024), sugar mills and distilleries supplied 401 crore litres of ethanol to oil marketing companies by June 30. Of this total, 211 crore litres (52.7%) were produced from maize and damaged food grains, primarily broken or old rice unsuitable for human consumption. The remaining 190 crore litres were derived from sugarcane-based feedstocks, including molasses and whole juice/syrup. Key takeaways Modi government has targeted 20% ethanol blending in petrol by 2025. That ratio for all-India averaged 13% this supply year till June, as against 12.1% in 2022-23, 10% in 2021-22 and only 1.6% in 2013-14. Ethanol is 99.9% pure alcohol that can be blended with petrol. Alcohol production involves fermentation of sugar using yeast. In cane juice or molasses, sugar is present in the form of sucrose that is broken down into glucose and fructose. Grains contain starch, a carbohydrate that must first be extracted and converted into sucrose and simpler sugars before undergoing further fermentation, distillation, and dehydration to produce ethanol. Till 2017-18, ethanol was being produced only from so-called C-heavy molasses, the dense dark brown liquid byproduct containing sucrose that mills cannot economically recover and crystallise into sugar. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme saw a significant boost in 2018-19 when the Modi government allowed mills to produce ethanol from B-heavy molasses (which leaves less sugar available for crystallization and more for fermentation) and directly from whole cane juice/syrup. To compensate mills for the reduced or nil production of sugar, higher prices were paid for ethanol produced through these routes. A further fillip to the programme came when mills started using grains as supplementary feedstock. Companies installed multi-feedstock distilleries that could run on molasses and juice/ syrup during the crushing season (November-April) and on grain in the off-season (May-October), when cane wasn’t available. These grains were primarily surplus and broken/damaged rice sourced from the Food Corporation of India’s (FCI) stocks and the open market. However, with the Modi government halting the supply of FCI rice (from July 2023) and restricting the use of cane juice and B-heavy molasses for ethanol production (from December 2023) due to concerns over cereal and sugar inflation, maize has emerged as the leading ethanol feedstock. This shift has been incentivized by the government setting an ex-distillery price of Rs 71.86 per litre for ethanol produced from maize. This price is higher than the per-litre prices payable by oil companies for ethanol from other feedstocks: C-heavy molasses (Rs 56.28), B-heavy molasses (Rs 60.73), cane juice/syrup (Rs 65.61), FCI rice (Rs 58.50), and damaged food grains (Rs 64). Source: Indian Express RIGHT TO BE FORGOTTEN  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: Last week, the Supreme Court agreed to hear a case whose outcome will likely shape the contours of the right to be forgotten ( also known as right to erasure), in India. Background:- The Supreme Court must determine whether the right to be forgotten is a fundamental right and, if so, how it aligns with other fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India. What is the present case about ? A three-judge Bench, led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud, will hear a challenge to a Madras High Court ruling from February 27. The ruling directed the legal search portal Indian Kanoon to remove a judgment in a 2014 rape and cheating case. The man, who was acquitted, had approached the Madras High Court in 2021, arguing that he was denied Australian citizenship because his name appears in the judgment that is publicly available on the legal portal. What is the right to be forgotten? The right to be forgotten can be loosely described as the right to remove one’s digital footprint (from Internet searches, etc.) where it violates the right to privacy. In May 2014, the Luxembourg-based Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) established the right to be forgotten in the “Google Spain case.” The court ruled in favor of Spanish lawyer Mario Costeja González, who requested Google to remove information from 1998 about the forced sale of his property due to social security debt. Citing Articles 7 and 8 of the EU Charter on Fundamental Rights, the CJEU mandated that search engines must honor requests to remove data that are inadequate, irrelevant, or excessive in light of the time elapsed. Informational self-determination — an individual’s right to control and limit her personal information — is now widely recognised in EU law. Article 17 of the EU’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) describes the right to erasure. From victims of so-called “revenge porn” to individuals whose personal cases are on the Internet, the right to be forgotten is a crucial remedy. How is the right interpreted in India? In India, there is no statutory framework for the right to be forgotten. However, not all constitutional rights need to be explicitly stated. The 2017 Supreme Court judgment in Justice K S Puttaswamy v. Union of India recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right, linked to the rights to life, equality, and freedom of speech and expression. In a concurring opinion, Justice S K Kaul mentioned the right to be forgotten, stating that individuals should be able to remove personal data that is no longer necessary, relevant, or correct, and serves no legitimate interest. Justice Kaul also outlined valid reasons for violating this right, including exercising freedom of expression and information, complying with legal obligations, performing tasks in public interest, public health, archiving for public interest, scientific or historical research, statistical purposes, or for legal claims. Source: Indian Express GAZA’S TELL UMM AMER  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The World Heritage Committee (WHC) decided to include the Palestinian site of Tell Umm Amer in both the UNESCO World Heritage Site List and the List of World Heritage in Danger during its 46th session in New Delhi. Background: Also known as the ‘Monastery of Saint Hilarion’, the site lies in Gaza Strip which is under relentless attack from Israel. About TELL UMM AMER Situated on the coastal dunes of Nuseirat Municipality, 10 km south of Gaza City, the ancient Christian monastery was founded in the fourth century by Hilarion the Great (291-371 CE), often regarded as the father of Palestinian monasticism. Hilarion was born in Tabatha, near the site of his future monastery. He became a monk at 15. As his fame for performing miracles spread, his small hermitage evolved into a thriving monastery, attracting followers from far and wide who embraced Hilarion’s mendicant lifestyle. The present-day archaeological remains of the site span more than four centuries, from the time of Hilarion to the Umayyad period. The ruins comprise five successive churches, bath and sanctuary complexes, geometric mosaics, and an expansive crypt making the monastery one of the largest in the Middle East. The UNICEF listing of the site refers to Tell Umm Amer as the first monastic community in the Holy Land, and “a hub of religious, cultural, and economic interchange”. The monastery was likely abandoned after a seventh century earthquake, only to be uncovered by local archaeologists in 1999. With Israel’s ongoing onslaught reducing much of the Gaza Strip to rubble, monuments and sites of cultural significance have not been spared. This underscores the importance of Tell Umm Amer’s inclusion in the UNESCO lists. The 1972 World Heritage Convention, to which Israel is a party, outlines responsibilities for identifying, protecting, and preserving World Heritage sites. Importantly, states must not take any deliberate measures that could cause direct or indirect damage to these sites. The inclusion on the list of World Heritage in Danger opens the door to enhanced international technical and financial assistance mechanisms to guarantee the protection of the property and, if necessary, to help facilitate its rehabilitation. Source: Indian Express INTEGRATED DISEASE SURVEILLANCE PROGRAMME (IDSP)  Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: In India, a total of 1,862 disease outbreaks were reported to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme last year, the Lok Sabha was informed recently. Background: The highest number of disease outbreaks were reported from Kerala. About Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) The Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) is a decentralized, state-based surveillance system in India. It was initiated in 2004 with the assistance of the World Bank. The primary objective of IDSP is to detect early warning signals of impending disease outbreaks and facilitate an effective response in a timely manner. Key points about IDSP: Purpose: IDSP aims to strengthen and maintain a decentralized, laboratory-based, IT-enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic-prone diseases. Reporting: The program includes online reporting from all states and union territories. Surveillance: IDSP monitors disease trends and detects and responds to outbreaks during their early stages through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs). National Health Program: It is one of the major National Health Programs under the National Health Mission. Program Components: Integration and Decentralization: Surveillance units are established at the central, state, and district levels. Human Resource Development: Training for State Surveillance Officers, District Surveillance Officers, RRTs, and other medical staff. Information Technology: Leveraging technology for data collection, analysis, and dissemination. Strengthening Public Health Laboratories: Enhancing diagnostic capabilities. Intersectoral Coordination: Addressing zoonotic diseases. Source: Economic Times NATIONAL INITIATIVE FOR PROFICIENCY IN READING WITH UNDERSTANDING AND NUMERACY (NIPUN BHARAT) SCHEME  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, minister of state in the ministry of education, replied to questions on NIPUN BHARAT in Rajya Sabha. Background: This initiative aligns with the National Education Policy 2020. Key Takeaways : The National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) is a significant educational mission launched by the Ministry of Education. Its primary goal is to ensure that every child in the country attains foundational literacy and numeracy skills by the end of Grade 3. Key points about NIPUN Bharat: Objective: Achieve universal foundational literacy and numeracy in primary schools by 2025. Age Group: NIPUN Bharat focuses on children aged 3 to 9 years, including pre-school to Grade 3. Implementation Mechanism: The mission establishes a five-tier implementation mechanism at the National, State, District, Block, and School levels across all States and Union Territories. It operates under the Samagra Shiksha centrally sponsored scheme. Universal Acquisition of Skills: All Government, Government-Aided, and Private Schools are expected to work towards achieving universal foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) skills by 2026-27. Key Areas of Focus: Access and Retention: Ensuring children have access to quality education during their foundational years. Teacher Capacity Building: Enhancing teacher skills to effectively teach literacy and numeracy. Quality Learning Materials: Developing high-quality and diverse student and teacher resources. Progress Tracking: Monitoring each child’s progress in achieving learning outcomes. Source: Digital Sansad GOLAN HEIGHTS  Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu has vowed heavy retaliation against Hezbollah following a rocket strike that tragically killed many in the Israeli-controlled Golan Heights. Background: Israel aims to harm the Lebanon-based, Iran-backed Hezbollah movement, which it holds responsible for the attack, without escalating into an all-out war in the Middle East. The incident has raised concerns about further hostilities between Israel and Hezbollah, marking their worst tensions since the 2006 war. About Golan Heights : The Golan Heights is a rocky plateau located in south-western Syria, approximately 60 km (40 miles) south-west of Damascus. Despite its relatively small size, it holds immense political and strategic significance. Israel seized the Golan Heights from Syria during the closing stages of the 1967 Six-Day War. Prior to that, it was under Syrian sovereignty. The Golan Heights straddles the borders of Syria and Israel. Israel currently controls about two-thirds of the territory, while Syria holds the remaining third. Despite its contested status, the Golan Heights remains a focal point in the complex dynamics of the Middle East. While the United Nations recognizes it as part of Syria, Israel’s occupation persists, defying UN Resolution 242. The Golan Heights is bordered by Israel to the west, Lebanon to the northwest, and Jordan to the south. Source: Livemint Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Lebanon Jordan Egypt Iraq How many of the above-mentioned countries share a border with Golan Heights? Only one Only two Only three All four Q2.) With reference to the NIPUN Bharat, consider the following statements: It is an educational mission launched by the Ministry of Education. Its primary goal is to ensure that every child in the country attains foundational literacy and numeracy skills by the end of Grade 3. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements: The Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme is a decentralized, state-based surveillance system in India. The primary objective of IDSP is to detect early warning signals of impending disease outbreaks and facilitate an effective response in a timely manner It is one of the major National Health Programs under the National Health Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  29th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INNER LINE PERMIT SYSTEM  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: Different groups in the Khasi hills are applying pressure tactics to push for introduction of an Inner Line Permit system in Meghalaya. Background: There have been instances of locals setting up “check post” in Meghalaya to check documentation of vehicles entering the state from Assam and to check non-local workers in and around Shillong for work permits. About Inner Line Permit system Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document by the Government of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. It is obligatory for Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering into the protected state. The document is an effort by the government to regulate movement to certain areas. This is an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected Crown’s interest in the tea, oil and elephant trade by prohibiting “British subjects” from entering into these “Protected Areas” (to prevent them from establishing any commercial venture that could rival the Crown’s agents). The word “British subjects” was replaced by Citizen of India in 1950. Despite the fact that the ILP was originally created by the British to safeguard their commercial interests, it continues to be used in India, officially to protect tribal cultures in northeastern India. There are different kinds of ILP’s, one for tourists and others for people who intend to stay for long-term periods, often for employment purposes. The states which require the permit are: Arunachal Pradesh It is issued by the secretary (political) of the Government of Arunachal Pradesh. It is required for entering Arunachal Pradesh through any of the check gates across the interstate border with Assam or Nagaland. Mizoram It is issued by the Government of Mizoram. It is required for entering Mizoram through any of the check gates across the inter-State borders.If arriving by air, an ILP can be obtained on arrival at Lengpui Airport in Aizawl. Nagaland It is issued by the Government of Nagaland. It is mandatory for Indian citizens of other states entering Nagaland through any of the check gates across the interstate borders. Dimapur, Nagaland’s largest city is the only place in the state which does not require an ILP, and Indians arriving by air at Dimapur Airport can arrive and stay in the city without one. Source: Indian Express NICOBAR PORT PLAN  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A high-powered committee (HPC), appointed by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and tasked with revisiting the green clearance for the Great Nicobar infrastructure project, has concluded that a proposed transshipment port does not fall in the Island Coastal Regulation Zone-IA (ICRZ-IA), where ports are prohibited, but is in ICRZ-IB where these are permitted. Background:- The Great Nicobar ‘Holistic Development’ Project was conceived by the NITI Aayog and the key plan includes construction of an international container transshipment terminal among other facilities. Key takeaways A special bench of the NGT had constituted the HPC in April 2023, while hearing a challenge against the Great Nicobar project’s environmental clearance. NGT formed the HPC to revisit the environmental clearance to address some unanswered deficiencies. The special bench had ordered that no further work should happen until the HPC gave its report. Among the issues the HPC had to revisit was protection of 4,518 coral colonies, limited one-season baseline data collection for assessing the project’s environmental impact and the issue of project components falling in the ecologically sensitive ICRZ-IA area. Regarding the coral colonies, the HPC said that it agreed with the Zoological Survey of India’s recommendation to translocate 16,150 out of 20,668 coral colonies. For the remaining 4,518, for which there was no plan outlined, the HPC directed continuous observation from 15-30 metres depth to analyse the sedimentation load and rate of sedimentation before any decision is taken to translocate them. On baseline data collected, the HPC said that one-season’s, other than monsoon, was enough to assess environmental impact as per the EIA notification, 2006. HPC also concluded that the proposed transshipment port does not fall in the Island Coastal Regulation Zone-IA (ICRZ-IA). This conclusion by HPC is at variance with the information submitted by the Andaman & Nicobar (A&N) Coastal Management Authority during the green clearance process for the project. The Authority had stated that parts of the port, airport and township planned under the project are spread over 7 sq km in the ICRZ-IA area. About Island Coastal Regulation Zone-IA (ICRZ-IA) The ICRZ-IA areas comprise ecologically sensitive areas such as mangroves, corals and coral reefs, sand dunes, mudflats, marine parks, wildlife habitats, salt marshes, turtle nesting grounds and bird nesting grounds among others. Only eco-tourism activities such as mangrove walks and natural trails, roads and roads-on-stilts in defence and strategic projects and public utilities are allowed in this area with permits from the UT and Centre. About Andaman and Nicobar Islands The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a cluster of 836 islands, split into two groups — the Andaman Islands to the north and the Nicobar Islands to the south — by the 150-km wide Ten Degree Channel. Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest of the Nicobar Islands, a sparsely inhabited 910-sq-km patch of mainly tropical rainforest in southeastern Bay of Bengal. Great Nicobar has two national parks, a biosphere reserve, small populations of the Shompen and Nicobarese tribal peoples, and a few thousand non-tribal settlers. Source: Indian Express VENTURE CAPITAL FUND  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the proposal to set up a venture capital fund of Rs 1,000 crore dedicated to the space economy. Background: The announcement, made during the Union Budget presentation for the fiscal year 2024-25, highlights the government’s commitment to advance the Indian space sector. What is a Venture Capital Fund? A venture capital fund is a pooled investment vehicle that manages the money of investors seeking private equity stakes in startups and small- to medium-sized enterprises with strong growth potential. Key Characteristics High Risk, High Return: VC funds target high-growth firms that are also quite risky. The potential for high returns is what attracts investors. Long-Term Engagement: Investments are usually long-term, as it takes time for startups to grow and become profitable. Active Involvement: VC funds often take a hands-on approach, providing not just capital but also guidance and managerial expertise. How private venture funds work? Raising Capital: VC funds raise capital from external investors, which can include wealthy individuals, investment banks, and other financial institutions. Investment Process: Fund managers review numerous business plans to identify potential high-growth startups. They then create a prospectus, a formal document outlining the investment details, which is shared with potential investors. Stages of Investment: VC investments can be categorized into seed capital, early-stage capital, or expansion-stage financing, depending on the maturity of the business at the time of investment. Benefits for Startups Financial Support: Startups receive the necessary funds to grow their operations. Expertise and Guidance: In addition to financial support, startups benefit from the technical and managerial expertise of the venture capitalists. Source: Business Standard WHITE CATEGORY SECTORS  Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Industries categorised under the ‘white category’ by the Central Pollution Control Board will now not require prior permission of the state pollution control boards to establish and operate under the Air Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974, according to two separate draft notifications of the Environment Ministry. Background: These permissions known officially as ‘consent to establish’ (CTE) and ‘consent to operate’ (CTO) are granted to regulate industries that discharge effluents or emit pollutants into the environment. Categorisation of Industry The purpose of categorization of industry is to ensure that industries are established in a manner which is consistent with the environmental objectives. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has developed the criteria of categorization of industrial sectors based on the Pollution Index which is a function of the emissions (air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous wastes generated and consumption of resources. For this purpose the references are taken from the the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution ) Cess (Amendment) Act, 2003, Standards so far prescribed for various pollutants under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and Doon Valley Notification, 1989 issued by MoEFCC. The Pollution Index PI of any industrial sector is a number from 0 to 100 and the increasing value of PI denotes the increasing degree of pollution load from the industrial sector. The following are the criteria on ‘Range of Pollution Index’ for the purpose of categorization of industrial sectors. Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 60 and above – Red category Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 41 to 59 – Orange category Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 21 to 40 – Green category Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score incl.& upto 20 – White category So white category of industries pertains to those industrial sectors which are practically nonpolluting or least polluting. Wind and solar power projects, assembly of air coolers, bicycle assembly are some examples of the activities that come under the white category. Source: Indian Express YAMUNA RIVER  Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Several structures in the Yamunotri Dham area were damaged after water levels of the Yamuna River surged due to heavy rains. Background: Yamunotri Dham is a part of Chota Char Dham (along with Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath), the four major Hindu pilgrimages sites in the Himalayas. Key Takeaways : The Yamuna River originates from the Yamunotri Glacier near Bandarpoonch Peak in the Mussoorie range of the Lower Himalayas in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, India. It flows swiftly through the Himalayan foothills, exits Uttarakhand, and enters the Indo-Gangetic Plain. Along the border between Uttar Pradesh and Haryana, it feeds the Eastern and Western Yamuna canals. Cities and Landmarks: The Yamuna passes through Delhi, where it feeds the Agra Canal. It then flows south-eastward near Mathura, passing through Agra, Firozabad, and Etawah. Confluence: Near Prayagraj (Allahabad), after a course of about 855 miles (1,376 km), the Yamuna joins the Ganges (Ganga) River. This confluence is an especially sacred place for Hindus and hosts annual festivals and the Kumbh Mela, attended by millions of devotees. Tributaries: The Yamuna is nourished by several tributaries such as Chambal River, Sindh River, Betwa River, Hindon River Ken River and Tons River. Source: Hindustan Times NASA'S PERSEVERANCE ROVER  Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  NASA’s Perseverance rover recently made an intriguing discovery that could shed light on the ancient history of Mars and the possibility of past microbial life. Background: The rover has identified a rock named “Cheyava Falls” that exhibits intriguing characteristics, suggesting it may have hosted microbial life billions of years ago. About NASA’s Perseverance rover : Perseverance is part of NASA’s Mars 2020 Mission, which aims to study the geology, climate, and potential habitability of Mars. Its primary goal is to seek signs of ancient microbial life and collect samples for possible return to Earth. Launch and Landing: Launched on July 30, 2020, from Cape Canaveral, Florida, Perseverance embarked on its journey to Mars. It successfully landed in Jezero Crater on February 18, 2021, after a complex entry, descent, and landing sequence. Physical Characteristics: Perseverance is approximately 3 meters long, 2.7 meters wide, and 2.2 meters tall. Despite its car-like size, it weighs only about 1,025 kilograms due to careful design and lightweight materials. Scientific Instruments: The rover is equipped with a suite of scientific instruments, including cameras, spectrometers, and environmental sensors. Its robotic arm features a drill for sampling rocks and regolith (soil) from the Martian surface. Power Source: Perseverance relies on a Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG) for electricity. The MMRTG converts heat from the radioactive decay of plutonium into electrical power, allowing the rover to operate even in harsh Martian conditions. Sample Collection and Return: Perseverance will collect rock and soil samples, encase them in sealed tubes, and leave them on the Martian surface. A future mission (possibly by another rover) will retrieve these samples and bring them back to Earth for detailed analysis. Source: NASA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. All the States of North east India except Meghalaya have Inner Line Permit System. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the Perseverance rover, consider the following statements: Perseverance is part of NASA’s Mars 2020 Mission, which aims to study the geology, climate, and potential habitability of Mars. Its primary goal is to seek signs of ancient microbial life and collect samples for possible return to Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Which among the following rivers is not a tributary of the River Yamuna? Chambal Sindh Kosi Betwa Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  29th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  27th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  d Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here  

IASbaba’s TLP 2024 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [29th July, 2024] – Day 36

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal.   This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2025 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here – CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2024 (Phase 2) – CLICK HERE To Access Day 36 Questions – CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   PRIVATE BILLS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: MPs from various parties introduced several Private Member’s Bills in the Lower House, including proposals for private sector reservations for the socially disadvantaged, 10 Lok Sabha seats for those under 35, a special package for Dalits and backward communities in Bihar and a special Act to control floods in the state. Background: Private members bill have very less chance of getting through the house. About Private bills An MP who is not a minister is a private member and Bills introduced by private members are referred to as private member’s Bills and those introduced by ministers are called government Bills. Before the private Bill can be listed for introduction, the Member must give at least a month’s notice, for the House Secretariat to examine it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on legislation. While a government Bill can be introduced and discussed on any day, a private member’s bill are introduced and discussed on Fridays. To date, only 14 of Private Bills have become Acts. Six of the 14 Bills became law in 1956 and the last one to receive parliamentary approval was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, on August 9, 1970. Importance of Private Members’ Bills lies in the fact that they enable legislators to draw attention to issues which might not be represented in government Bills or to highlight the issues and gaps in the existing legal framework requiring legislative intervention. Though the last private Bill to be passed by Parliament was more than five decades ago, these draft laws constitute a major chunk of legislative business. The 16th Lok Sabha saw 1,114 Private Members’ Bills being introduced. In the last 10 years, as against 78 Government Bills, 459 Private Members’ Bills have been introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Source: Indian Express STORY OF MODERN OLYMPICS  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Paris olympics started on Friday with some celebration events attracting criticism for insensitivity. Background:- The first written evidence of the official Games dates from 776 BC, when the Greeks began measuring time in Olympiads, or the duration between each edition of the Olympic Games. The first Olympic Games were held every four years in honour of the god Zeus. In 393 AD, the Roman Emperor Theodosius I banned the Olympic Games for religious reasons, claiming that they encouraged paganism. They were not revived until the modern era. While French baron Pierre de Coubertin is widely recognized as the “father of the modern Olympics,” the concept dates back to 1830s Greece. Modern Greece and the Revival of the Olympics Greece gained independence after centuries of foreign rule, including four centuries under Ottoman control. The nation faced economic and cultural lag compared to much of Europe. Greek intellectuals viewed independence as a chance for national revival. Poet Panagiotis Soutsos (1806-1868) invoked Greece’s ancient glory to inspire national pride, writing several poems in the early 1830s. Soutsos suggested that March 25, the anniversary of the Greek War of Independence, be marked by a revived version of the ancient Olympics. By the 1850s, Evangelos Zappas, a wealthy veteran of the Greek War of Independence, supported Soutsos’ idea. Zappas proposed to the Greek government to hold the Games which he would fund from his own pocket. After three years of lobbying, Zappas’ Olympics were held in 1859 in a city square in Athens. A number of competitions were organised-and winners received cash prizes. Zappas left his fortune to fund future Olympiads. Thus, the games were held again in 1870, 1875, and 1888. Efforts to revive the ancient Olympics were not limited to Greece. In 1859, inspired by Zappas’ Olympics, W P Brookes, a doctor in Wenlock, England, organized the “Annual Wenlock Olympic Games.” In 1866, he held the first “National Olympic Games” in London, attracting participants from across Britain. The British aristocracy, promoting amateurism, restricted participation to “gentlemen,” a move that was adopted in Greece, leading to a decline in the quality and interest in the early Olympics. In 1880, Brookes proposed an international Olympic competition open to all, aiming to rejuvenate the Olympics. Thus far, both in Britain and Greece, the Olympics had been restricted to nationals. It is this idea that Pierre de Coubertin eventually claimed as his own in 1892, after meeting Brookes and witnessing the Wenlock games in 1890. In 1894, he organized the “Congress for the Revival of the Olympic Games” in Paris, leading to the proposal for the first International Olympic Games in Athens in 1896. The first Olympic Games of the modern era took place in Athens, in the country where the original Games took place in Antiquity, in April 1896. Paris hosted the second Games in 1900. The Paris 1900 Olympic Games saw women compete for the first time. Source: Indian Express MECHANISM TO DEAL WITH CYBER CRIMES  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, minister of state in the ministry of home affairs, gave a detailed answer to a question regarding government efforts to tackle cybercrimes in Rajya Sabha. Background: The country has been witnessing a massive increase in cyber crimes. Government efforts to tackle cybercrime The Ministry of Home Affairs has set up the ‘Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre’ (I4C) as an attached office to deal with all types of cyber crime in the country, in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. Seven Joint Cyber Coordination Teams (JCCTs) have been constituted for Mewat, Jamtara, Ahmedabad, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Vishakhapatnam, and Guwahati under I4C covering the whole country based upon cyber crime hotspots/ areas having multi jurisdictional issues by on boarding States/UTs to enhance the coordination framework among the Law Enforcement Agencies of the States/UTs. The state of the art ‘National Cyber Forensic Laboratory (Investigation)’ has been established, as a part of the I4C, at New Delhi to provide early stage cyber forensic assistance to Investigating Officers (IOs) of State/UT Police. The ‘National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal’ has been launched, as a part of the I4C, to enable public to report incidents pertaining to all types of cyber crimes, with special focus on cyber crimes against women and children. The ‘Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System’, under I4C, has been launched for immediate reporting of financial frauds and to stop siphoning off funds by the fraudsters. A toll-free Helpline number ‘1930’ has been operationalized to get assistance in lodging online cyber complaints. The Massive Open Online Courses (MOOC) platform, namely ‘CyTrain’ portal has been developed under I4C, for capacity building of police officers/judicial officers through online course on critical aspects of cyber crime investigation, forensics, prosecution etc. along with certification. The Ministry of Home Affairs has provided financial assistance to states/UT’s under the ‘Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children (CCPWC)’ Scheme for their capacity building such as setting up of cyber forensic-cum-training laboratories, hiring of junior cyber consultants and training of LEAs’ personnel, public prosecutors and judicial officers. National Cyber Forensic Laboratory (Evidence) has been set up at Hyderabad. Establishment of this laboratory provides the necessary -5- R.S.US.Q.NO. 249 FOR 24.07.2024 forensic support in cases of evidence related to cyber crime, preserving the evidence and its analysis in line with the provisions of IT Act and Evidence Act; and reduced turnaround time. Source: MHA EXERCISE KHAAN QUEST  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: An Indian contingent is part of the 21st edition of Khaan Quest, a multinational peacekeeping exercise, which commenced in Mongolia on July 27 with an opening ceremony held at the Five Hills Training Area in the Mongolian capital of Ulaanbaatar. Background: The exercise has around 430 participants from 23 countries, including Australia, Canada, China, Japan, Türkiye, the United States, and the United Kingdom, among others. About KHAAN QUEST The exercise first started as a bilateral event between USA and Mongolian Armed Forces in the year 2003. Subsequently, from the year 2006 onwards the exercise graduated to a Multinational Peacekeeping Exercise with current year being the 21st Aim of Exercise KHAAN QUEST is to prepare Indian Armed Forces for peacekeeping missions while operating in a multinational environment, thereby increasing interoperability and military readiness in peace support operations under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter. The exercise will focus on high degree of physical fitness, joint planning and joint tactical drills. Source: PIB PROJECT CHEETAH  Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Banni, a vast grassland in the southern part of Kutch, Gujarat, is being readied to host cheetahs from Africa as part of the next phase of Project Cheetah. Background: Banni offers the advantage of having no leopards, making it a potential long-term site for a larger cheetah population once sufficient prey is established. Key Takeaways : The Cheetah Reintroduction Project in India formally commenced on September 17, 2022, to restore the population of cheetahs, which were declared extinct in the country in 1952. The project involves the translocation of cheetahs from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in collaboration with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and cheetah experts from Namibia and South Africa. As of now, 20 cheetahs have been introduced in India under Project Cheetah: 8 cheetahs from Namibia (5 males and 3 females) introduced on September 17, 2022, at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. 12 cheetahs from South Africa (6 males and 6 females) introduced on February 18, 2023, at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. Purpose of Project Cheetah: Reintroduce Cheetahs in India: The primary objective is to reestablish a viable and sustainable population of cheetahs in India. These magnificent animals were declared extinct in the country in 1952, and Project Cheetah aims to reverse this loss. Conservation: Project Cheetah focuses on conserving the genetic diversity of cheetahs. By preserving the species, we ensure that future generations can appreciate and benefit from their existence. Ecosystem Balance: Reintroducing cheetahs plays a crucial role in restoring the balance of the ecosystem. As apex predators, cheetahs help regulate herbivore populations, which in turn affects vegetation and overall forest health. Research and Education: The project supports research and education related to cheetah conservation, ecology, and biology. By improving our understanding of cheetahs, we can better manage their habitats and protect them effectively. Ecotourism: Promoting ecotourism and wildlife tourism generates income and creates jobs for local communities. Simultaneously, it raises awareness about cheetah conservation, fostering a sense of responsibility among visitors. Community Engagement: Engaging local communities is vital. Project Cheetah addresses human-cheetah conflict, encourages coexistence, and ensures that communities actively participate in safeguarding these animals. National Pride: By restoring India’s pride in having cheetahs, the project showcases the country’s commitment to wildlife conservation. Cheetahs symbolize India’s rich biodiversity and cultural heritage. Global Cooperation: Collaboration with international organizations and other countries allows us to share knowledge, expertise, and resources. Together, we can work towards the long-term survival of this iconic species. Source: Hindu BIOPLASTICS FROM CASSAVA  Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: A consortium of smallholder farmers in Mokokchung, Nagaland, is pioneering a sustainable shift away from traditional plastics by producing and adopting compostable bioplastic bags derived from Cassava starch. Background: Despite government efforts to ban single-use plastics, the impact has been limited due to the lack of alternative lightweight materials. Key takeaways : Nagaland’s smallholder farmers are leading a remarkable initiative by producing compostable bioplastic bags made from cassava starch. This effort aims to reduce plastic usage and promote eco-friendly alternatives. The initiative producing compostable bioplastic bags made from cassava starch is supported by the North East Centre for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR), this project is spearheaded by Eco Starch, a local MSME. The primary goal is to replace single-use plastics with biodegradable alternatives. The concept of ‘cassava village’ is central to this initiative, emphasizing local economic growth, alternative livelihoods, and employment opportunities. Cassava-Based Bioplastics: Cassava, a root crop, serves as the raw material for these bioplastic bags. Eco Starch has established a manufacturing facility in Mokokchung, Nagaland, where they produce these eco-friendly bags. Farmers within a 30-40 km radius are mobilized to cultivate cassava, ensuring a steady supply of raw materials. The first cassava harvest is expected within a year, demonstrating the feasibility of this approach. Key Lessons: Sustainable Alternatives: Using locally available resources like cassava showcases the potential for sustainable alternatives to traditional plastics. Community Involvement: Empowering women’s self-help groups (SHGs) and local youth fosters community engagement and inclusive growth. Economic Empowerment: Developing ‘cassava villages’ provides alternative livelihoods and generates employment, benefiting the local economy. Scalability and Expansion: Diversifying product lines can create more jobs and cater to a broader market, further enhancing local economic benefits. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about a private bill Only opposition MPs are referred as private members and bills introduced by them are called private bills. Number of Private Bills introduced in parliament have considerably decreased over time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the Cassava-Based Bioplastics initiative in Nagaland, consider the following statements: The initiative to produce compostable bioplastic bags made from cassava starch are supported by the North East Centre for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR). The concept of ‘cassava village’ is central to this initiative. The primary goal is to replace single-use plastics with biodegradable alternatives. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) With reference to the project cheetah, consider the following statements: Project Cheetah is a program to reintroduce cheetahs to India which were declared extinct in the country in 1952. The project involves the translocation of cheetahs from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  26th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  d Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here