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[DAY 3] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 2 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act of 2016 Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology About Compensatory Afforestation : It seeks to ensure that forest lands getting ‘diverted’ for non-forest purposes, like industrial or infrastructure development, is mandatorily accompanied by afforestation effort on at least an equal area of land. This compensatory afforestation was made a legal requirement through the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act of 2016. About THE COMPENSATORY AFFORESTATION FUND ACT, 2016 : The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act was passed by the centre in 2016 and the related rules were notified in 2018. The Act was enacted to manage the funds collected for compensatory afforestation, which till then was managed by ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA). ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) A temporary structure of CAMPA functioning on the orders of the Supreme Court. In 2002, the Supreme Court of India observed that collected funds for afforestation were under-utilized by the states and it directed that an “ad hoc CAMPA” consisting of three officials and one representative of the Central Empowered Committee be set up till the final one is created. Objective: It seeks to establish the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. These Funds will receive payments for: compensatory afforestation net present value of forest (NPV) other project-specific payments. The determination of Net Present Value (NPV)  will be delegated to an expert committee constituted by the central government. Net Present Value (NPV)  quantifies the services provided by the forest like  goods and services (tourism and timber); regulating services (climate change); and non-material benefits (recreation). It seeks to provide safety, security, and transparency in the utilization of CAMPA funds which are currently kept in Nationalized Banks and managed by an ad-hoc body. The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%. These funds would be brought under the focus of Parliament and State Legislatures by transferring them to non-lapsable interest-bearing funds. According to the recently revised calculations, companies have to pay NPV at rates ranging between Rs 9.5 lakh and Rs 16 lakh per hectare, depending on the quality of forests getting diverted.  The Act also establishes the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities to manage the National and State Funds CAMPA funds can be used for the following purposes: Artificial regeneration (plantation) Assisted natural regeneration Forest management Forest protection Infrastructure development Wildlife protection and management Supply of wood Other forest produces saving devices. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, of 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboo grown on forest areas As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Scrub typhus Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recent studies reported that combination therapy can save more lives in Scrub typhus. About Scrub typhus : Scrub typhus is also known as bush typhus. It is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. Scrub typhus is spread to people through bites of infected chiggers (larval mites). The most common symptoms of scrub typhus include fever, headache, body aches, and sometimes rash. . No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. About Doxycycline : Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2)  Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Sea horses Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context : Recent reports show that ‘Hippocampus kelloggi’ or sea horse, could be migrating toward coastal Odisha due to fishing pressures. About Sea horses :   A seahorse is any of 46 species of small marine fish in the genus Hippocampus. Characteristic feature : Having a head and neck suggestive of a horse, They also feature segmented bony armor, an upright posture, and a curled prehensile tail. Habitat and Distribution across India : Seahorses are mainly found in shallow tropical and temperate saltwater throughout the world, from about 45°S to 45°N. They live in sheltered areas such as seagrass beds, estuaries, coral reefs, and mangroves.  Seahorses range in size from 1.5 to 35.5 cm.  They are named for their equine appearance, with bent necks and long-snouted heads, and distinctive trunks and tails. The species are distributed along the coasts of eight States and five Union Territories from Gujarat to Odisha, apart from Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.  Conservation status : IUCN status : Vulnerable  CITES: Appendix II Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) Copepods Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are detritivores? (2021) Earthworms Jellyfish Seahorse Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3, 4 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 One Nation One Challan Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives (Polity) Context: The Gujarat government recently told the High Court, that it was in the process of setting up virtual traffic courts in the state under the ‘One Nation One Challan’ initiative. About One Nation One Challan : One Nation, One Challan is an initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Objective : to bring all related agencies, such as the traffic police and the Regional Transport Office (RTO), on one platform, to enable the seamless collection of challans as well as data transfer. involves the detection of traffic violations through the CCTV network involves getting the registration number of the erring vehicle from applications like VAHAN (detecting the vehicle’s ownership details) and SARATHI (compilation of driving licenses). An e-challan is then generated with the relevant penalty amount and sent to the mobile number linked with the vehicle. About VAHAN (detecting the vehicle’s ownership details) : VAHAN is a software that enables the processes at RTO/DTO/MLO/SDM involving Vehicle Registration, Fitness, Taxes, Permits & Enforcement to get computerized. The State Transport Department is governed by both Central Motor Vehicle Regulation (CMVR) and state-specific Motor Vehicle Regulation (State MVR). VAHAN Services: Vehicle Registration. Permit Taxes Fitness Enforcement  About  Virtual traffic courts: If a challan amount is not paid within 90 days, it will be automatically forwarded to a virtual court and proceedings will begin. The accused will receive a summons on their mobile phone. The virtual court aims to eliminate the physical presence of litigants. The accused can search for their case on the virtual court’s website and pay the fine. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund Syllabus Prelims – Economy About The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund : The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund I is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects. Sponsors : the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company. This is a government-backed fund that was set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund It is registered with SEBI  in 2019. Objectives:  formed to complete construction of stalled, RERA-registered affordable and mid-income category housing projects which are stuck due to paucity of funds. Eligibility criteria: Real estate projects seeking last-mile finance from SWAMIH must be registered under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) and have been halted due to a lack of sufficient money. Each of these initiatives must be on the verge of being completed. They must also fall into the category of ‘Affordable and Middle-Income Projects’ (any housing projects wherein housing units do not exceed 200 sq.m.). SWAMIH funding is also available for initiatives with net worth-positive projects. The value of their receivables (debts due to them by buyers) plus the value of their unsold inventories is more than their completion expenses and outstanding liabilities for net-worth-positive projects. About Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA): Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) is an act that came into effect fully in 2017. The Act establishes Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) in each state for regulation of the real estate sector and also acts as an adjudicating body for speedy dispute resolution. It seeks to protect home-buyers as well as help boost investments in the real estate sector by bringing efficiency and transparency in the sale/purchase of real estate. Key Provisions of RERA Act Compulsory registration: According to the central act, every real estate project (where the total area to be developed exceeds 500 sq metres or more than 8 apartments is proposed to be developed in any phase), must be registered with its respective state’s RERA. Establishment of state level regulatory authorities. Render advice to the government and ensuring compliance with its Regulations and the Act Establishment of Real Estate Appellate Tribunal: Decisions of RERAs can be appealed in these tribunals. Mandatory Registration: All projects with plot size of a minimum 500 sq.mt or eight apartments need to be registered with Regulatory Authorities. Deposits: Developers needs to keep 70% of the money collected from a buyer in a temporary pass through account held by a third party (escrow account) to meet the construction cost of the project. Liability of the developer: A developer’s liability to repair structural defects would be for 5 years. Cap on Advance Payments: A promoter cannot accept more than 10% of the cost of the plot, apartment or building as an advance payment or an application fee from a person without first entering into an agreement for sale Carpet Area over super built-up: Clearly defines Carpet Area as net usable floor area of flat. Buyers will be charged for the carpet area and not super built-up area. Punishment for non-compliance: Imprisonment of up to three years for developers and up to one year in case of agents and buyers for violation of orders of Appellate Tribunals and Regulatory Authorities. MUST READ : About Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crores at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only c)All State Government employees joining the services after the state notification by the respective State    Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Mugger crocodiles, Valmiki Tiger Reserve and , Chitwan National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: According to a recent study, anthropogenic threats like illegal fishing and sand mining pose a threat to the mugger crocodiles (Crocodylus plaustris) of the Rapti river. About mugger crocodiles : The mugger crocodile (Crocodylus palustris ) is a medium-sized broad-snouted crocodile, also known as the mugger and the marsh crocodile. It inhabits marshes, lakes, rivers, and artificial ponds. Geographic Range: They are found all over south Asia — India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Bangladesh — as well as south-eastern Iran. The mugger is found in 15 Indian states, with the largest populations in the middle Ganges (Bihar-Jharkhand) and Chambal (Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan) basins.  Conservation Status: CITES Appendix I IUCN Red List: Vulnerable Conservation Projects: Mugger Project At Ramatirtha Kakra Crocodile Trail: it is going on in Terai Eastern Forest Division at Khatima, Uttarakhand. The Indian Crocodile Conservation Project: it was launched in 1975 in different states in the country. Other crocodiles species in India Saltwater or Estuarine Crocodile  Habitat: Blackish and freshwater regions of eastern India, Southeast Asia, and northern Australia. IUCN Red List: Least Concern Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) It is the longest among all living crocodilians. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered  Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES : Appendix I About Valmiki Tiger Reserve : Valmiki Tiger Reserve forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. It  is the only tiger reserve in Bihar. It is situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country; the forest has a combination of Bhabar and terai tracts. It lies in the northwestern portion of the West Champaran district of Bihar. Wild mammals found in the forests of Valmiki Tiger Reserve include tiger, sloth bear, leopard, wild dog, bison, wild boar, etc. About Chitwan National Park: Chitwan National Park (CNP), established in 1973, was Nepal’s first National Park. It is located in the Southern Central Terai of Nepal. The park is the last surviving example of the natural ecosystems of the ‘Terai’ region and covers subtropical lowland, wedged between two east-west river valleys at the base of the Siwalik range of the outer Himalayas. The core area lies between the Narayani (Gandak) and Rapti rivers to the north and the Reu River and Nepal-India international border in the south, over the Sumeswar and Churia hills, and from the Dawney hills west of the Narayani, and borders with Parsa Wildlife Reserve to the east. The Chitwan National Park (CNP) is a world heritage property. Beeshazar within it were designated as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. In 2003, and associated lakes the buffer zone About the Gandak River : It is also known as the Kali Gandaki and Narayani after the confluence with the Trisuli river in Nepal. It is a north-bank tributary of the Ganga in India. Origin — It rises in Tibet near the Nepal border. It flows southwest into India and then turns southeast along the Uttar Pradesh–Bihar state border and across the Indo-Gangetic Plain. About Rapti River: The West Rapti River is a tributary of the Ghaghara River. It has its origins in Nepal. The West Rapti River originates at a summit in the Western Himalayas and the Mahabharat range of mountains. It joins Ganga River near Patna, Bihar. Lungri Khola, Jhimruk Khola, Ami River, Rohini River are the major left-bank tributaries of  Rapti.   Arun Khola is the right bank tributary of the Rapti.  Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of the Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this? (2011) Bhitarkanika Chandipur-on-sea Gopalpur-on-sea Simlipal Q.2) A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal? (2011) Indian wild buffalo Indian wild ass Indian wild boar Indian gazelle Bio computers Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology About Bio computers : Researchers at the JHU have developed a technique wherein brain organoids are integrated with modern computing technologies to create “bio-computers”. The 3D cultures of brain tissue being created in the lab are called brain organoids or mini-brains. These are up to 4 mm in size. These are developed using human stem cells and thus they have the ability to capture various functional and structural features of a human brain. Such brain cultures that are created or developed are then coupled to the real world through various sensors and input/output devices. Plans are in place to also integrate rain organoids or mini-brains with machine learning (ML) techniques by developing such organoids inside flexible structures affixed with multiple electrodes (similar to the ones used to record EEG readings). Such a mechanism will help record the firing patterns of various neurons and deliver electrical stimuli to mimic sensory stimuli. Brain organoids will be grown inside flexible structures affixed with multiple electrodes to record the firing patterns of neurons and deliver electrical stimuli. Machine-learning techniques will be used to analyze the response patterns of neurons and their effect on human behavior or biology. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement : (2020) They can be used as the carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only  1, 2, 3 and 4 Nano-DAP in the aid of farmers Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy – Agriculture) Context: Centre has recently notified nano Di-Ammonia Phosphate (DAP) in the Fertilizer Control Order, allowing its commercial release for farmers. About Nano DAP: Nano-DAP is jointly manufactured by IFFCO in association with a private player Coromandel and is expected to contribute to bringing down the annual subsidy on non-urea fertilizers. DAP is a type of fertiliser that contains both nitrogen and phosphorus. Nano DAP is a variation of DAP that has been modified at the nano-scale to improve its effectiveness in agriculture to enhance crop growth and yield. It is produced by reducing the size of the DAP particles to the nano-scale (1-100 nanometres). The small size of the particles allows for better absorption of the fertiliser by plant roots, resulting in increased crop growth and yield. It is more efficient than traditional DAP, which means that less fertiliser is needed to achieve the same results. Significance of Nano DAP for India: Nitrogen Use Efficiency: Nano-DAP has a high nutrient use efficiency of more than 85%, which helps to fulfil the nitrogen requirement of plants. Cost Advantage: Nano-DAP is expected to be priced at around half the subsidized rate of traditional DAP, thus providing cost advantages to farmers. Better crop quality: The use of Nano-DAP is expected to improve crop quality, leading to better prices for farmers. Contribution to reducing subsidies: With the inclusion of Nano-DAP in the Fertilizer Control Order, it is expected to bring down the annual subsidy on non-urea fertilizers. Reduction in Chemical Fertilizers: Nano-DAP can help reduce the injudicious use of chemical fertilizers like urea by 50%, thus promoting efficient use of plant chemicals. Increase in Farmer Income: Nano-DAP is expected to lead to an increase in farmer income by reducing input costs, increasing crop yield, and improving crop quality. Issues associated with Nano-DAP: Cost: While Nano-DAP is expected to be cost-effective in the long run, the initial investment can be higher for farmers who may not have the resources to invest in new fertilizers. Awareness and education: The government and private sector will need to invest in educating farmers about the benefits of the new fertilizer and how to use it correctly. Limited availability: The production of Nano-DAP is currently limited and may not be sufficient to meet the demand of all farmers across India. Infrastructure: The government and private sector will need to invest in building the necessary infrastructure to ensure that the fertilizer reaches farmers in a timely and efficient manner. Resistance: While Nano-DAP is expected to be more efficient than traditional fertilizers, farmers will need to use it responsibly to prevent resistance from developing. Way Forward: Nano DAP is a promising technology that has the potential to revolutionize the agriculture industry, especially for a country like India which needs to ensure food security for its billion-plus population. However, further research is needed to fully understand these risks and ensure that the benefits of this technology outweigh any potential drawbacks. Thus, Overall, Nano DAP presents a promising solution for improving crop productivity and addressing food security challenges around the world. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes ? (2020) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets harvesters, Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks requirements of farm Consumption households Post-harvest expenses Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2,3,4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Cybercrime in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security Issues) Context: ‘Cyber Warrior’ Teams and Help Desks to Combat Rising Cybercrime in Visakhapatnam. During the year 2022, Visakhapatnam had reported as many as 610 cybercrime cases, as against 316 during the year 2021, which is almost a 93% increase. About Cyber Warriors: As part of the initiative, around 70 police personnel, including around 20 sub-inspectors and several ASIs will be undergoing virtual and offline training on various aspects of cybercrime. The cyber warriors team will be headed by a Sub-Inspector and staff. Cybercrime in India as per NCRB Report: India reported nearly 52,974 cybercrime incidents in 2021 which was an increase of nearly 6% from 2020. Telangana was the state with the highest number of cybercrime cases, accounting for more than 19% of the total. Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka saw a decrease in the number of cybercrime cases by 20% and 24%, respectively. The main challenges in prosecuting cybercrime cases are jurisdictional issues and difficulty in obtaining electronic logs from foreign service providers. Bengaluru had the highest number of cybercrime cases, but there has been a decline in cases over the past three years. Fraud was the most common motive for committing cybercrime, accounting for nearly 61% of cases. Karnataka recorded the highest number of cybercrimes against women in 2021, with 2,243 cases. The police pendency percentage in cybercrime cases improved from 3% in 2020 to 56.4% in 2021. The conviction ratio for cybercrime cases remains poor, and the charge-sheeting rate declined from 5% in 2020 to 33.8% in 2021. The court pendency percentage remained high, with 81.4% of total cases in trial in 2021 remaining. pending at the end of the year. Challenges of cybercrime: Lack of Awareness: Many people in India are still not aware of the risks associated with cybercrime, making them more vulnerable to attacks. Rapidly Evolving Cyber Threat Landscape: Cybercrime is evolving at a rapid pace, with new threats emerging regularly. It is challenging for law enforcement agencies to keep up with these developments. Low Cybersecurity Awareness: A large number of individuals and organizations in India lack basic cybersecurity awareness, making them easy targets for cybercriminals. Increasing Use of Technology: With the widespread adoption of technology in India, more people are becoming vulnerable to cybercrime, making it even more challenging to combat. Lack of Cybercrime Laws: India has outdated cybercrime laws that are not in line with current threats. There is a need for updated laws to be enacted to combat the ever-changing cybercrime landscape. Limited Cybersecurity Infrastructure: India’s cybersecurity infrastructure is still developing, and many organizations do not have adequate security measures in place to protect their networks and data. Need for controlling cybercrimes in India: Increasing Digitalization: With the growing digitalization of India, more people are using online services and technology, which has led to an increase in cybercrime incidents. National Security: Cybercrime can have severe consequences for national security, as it can compromise sensitive information and infrastructure, leading to potential political instability. Personal Privacy: Cybercrime can violate personal privacy, leading to identity theft, financial fraud, and other forms of cyberstalking. Economic Impact: Cybercrime has a significant economic impact on India, with losses amounting to billions of dollars annually. The country is also losing out on potential investments due to concerns about cybersecurity. Digital India Initiative: The Indian government’s Digital India initiative aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. However, cybercrime can hinder the initiative’s progress and undermine public trust in digital technologies. Cyber Security Jobs: With the growing importance of cybersecurity, there is a need for skilled professionals in the field, creating job opportunities in India. Government Initiatives To Tackle Cyber Crime in India: Banning of unsafe apps: India had banned apps that posed a threat to security. India had banned many apps (mostly of Chinese origin), which were found to be unsafe for usage by Indian citizens. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In): It operates as the national agency for tackling the country’s cybersecurity, and has helped in lowering the rate of cyber-attacks on government networks. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): To act as a nodal point in the fight against cybercrime To prevent misuse of cyber space for furthering the cause of extremist and terrorist groups National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC): It is a central government establishment, formed to protect critical information of India, which has an enormous impact on national security, economic growth, or public healthcare. Cyber Swachhta Kendra: Cyber Swachhta Kendra helps users to analyse and keep their systems free of various viruses, bots/ malware, Trojans, etc. Launched in early 2017. Cyber Surakshit Bharat: It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018 with an aim to spread awareness about cybercrime and building capacity for safety measures for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT staff across all government departments. The Cyber Warrior Police Force: It was organised on the lines of the Central Armed Police Force in 2018. Information Technology Act, 2000 (Amended in 2008): It is the main law for dealing with cybercrime and digital commerce in India. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) was created under Section 70A of IT Act 2000 to protect Cyberinfrastructure. Way Forward: Cybercrime is a crucial issue in India due to its economic, national security, and personal privacy implications.  It is necessary to take proactive steps to combat cybercrime and create a safe and secure digital environment in the country. Therefore, Cyber warriors are significant especially when India ranks fifth globally in terms of the number of incidents reported. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund: It is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects. It is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. It  is the only tiger reserve in Bihar. It is situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country; the forest has a combination of Bhabar and terai tracts. Which of the following tiger reserves is described in the above passage? Pakke Tiger Reserve Valmiki Tiger Reserve Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Buxa Tiger Reserve Q.3) Consider the following species: Gharials Mugger crocodile Saltwater crocodile Which of the above finds natural habitat in India? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 2] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 2 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) World Bank index on the life cycle of working women Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, India scored 74.4 on the World Bank index on the life cycle of working women. About the World Bank index on the life cycle of working women: The Index is an annual study conducted by the World Bank that measures the laws and regulations affecting women’s economic opportunities across 190 economies. The Index considers eight indicators measuring women’s interactions with the Law during their business. These are: Mobility Workplace Pay Marriage Parenthood Entrepreneurship Assets Pension. The index is divided into three categories: Starting a job, During employment, and After employment. Each category includes a set of indicators that measure the specific challenges and opportunities faced by women at different stages of their careers. Objective : The purpose of the index is to provide policymakers and stakeholders with data and insights that can be used to inform policies and programs aimed at improving women’s economic opportunities and outcomes. India’s performance: India has scored 4 out of 100 in the World Bank Index on the life cycle of working women, which measures factors like laws, regulations, and practices affecting women’s economic participation. This score places India at 140th out of 190 countries surveyed in the index. India’s score on the index that assesses the life cycle of the working woman dropped to 74.4. In the 2023 index only 14 (Belgium, Canada, Denmark, etc) economies scored a perfect 100. The primary reason for this was that the laws concerning wages and pensions were not providing equality among men and women. India’s score was above the regional average for South Asia (63.7) but lower than that of Nepal (80.6), which was the highest in the region. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically? (2015) The Asian Development Bank The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development The US Federal Reserve Bank The World Bank Q.2) India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (2016) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) World Economic Forum World Bank World Trade Organization (WTO) Samarth Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity (Government Schemes ), Economy Context: Recently, the government announced its plans to rope in more industry partners to increase the pace of training under its flagship SAMARTH scheme for skill development in the textile sector. About the SAMARTH scheme : Samarth is a demand-driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of the Ministry of Textiles. The implementation period of the scheme: is up to March 2024. The training programme and course curriculum have been rationalized keeping in view the technological and market demand of the domestic and international economies. In addition to the entry-level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in the Apparel & Garmenting segments. Samarth also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of the traditional textile sector such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute. Objectives : to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Implementation : The Samarth scheme is implemented through Implementing Partners (IPs) comprising of Textile Industry/ Industry Associations, State government agencies and Sectoral Organizations of the Ministry of Textiles like DC/ Handloom, DC/Handicrafts and Central Silk Board. Advanced features : Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS), Training of Trainers (ToT), CCTV recording of the training programme, a dedicated call centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web-based Management Information System (MIS), on-line monitoring of the training process etc. The State, District, and Training Centre-wise information/ data in the dashboard is available in the public domain. Source: THE ECONOMIC TIMES Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Yellowstone national park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography, Environment, and Ecology Context: Recently, Yellowstone celebrated its  151st anniversary. About Yellowstone national park : Yellowstone National Park is an American national park located in the western United States. Salient features : Yellowstone National Park was the first national park in the US and is also widely held to be the first national park in the world. The park is known for its wildlife and its many geothermal features, especially the Old Faithful geyser, one of its most popular. The subalpine forest is the most abundant. It is part of the South-Central Rockies forests ecoregion. The rivers of the Snake-Columbia basin, Green-Colorado basin, and Missouri River Basin all begin as snow on the Continental Divide as it weaves across Yellowstone’s peaks and plateaus. Yellowstone Lake is one of the largest high-elevation lakes in North America and is centered over the Yellowstone Caldera, the largest supervolcanic on the continent. Caldera : A large bowl-shaped volcanic depressionis more than one kilometre in diameter and rimmed by in facing scarps. It is usually formed by the collapse of the top of a volcanic cone or group of cones because of the removal of the support formerly furnished by an underlying body of magma (molten rock). Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: ( 2020) River                                    Flows into Mekong –                   Andaman Sea Thames –                     Irish Sea Volga –                     Caspian Sea Zambezi –                  Indian Ocean Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1,2 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2019) Sea                   Bordering country Adriatic Sea : Albania Black Sea: Croatia Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan Mediterranean : Sea Morocco Red Sea:  Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23) and INS Trikand Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: INS Trikand will be participating in the International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23) which will be held in the Gulf region. About International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23): IMX/CE-23 is one of the largest multinational maritime exercises in the world. This is Indian Navy’s maiden IMX participation. The International Maritime Exercise is coordinated by the US-led Combined Maritime Forces (CMF). Combined Maritime Forces (CMF) – a 34-nation naval group that seeks to promote security, stability, and prosperity. India became an associate member of CMF in 2022. It  marks the second occasion where an Indian Naval ship is participating in an exercise conducted by the CMF. Earlier, INS Trikand had participated in the CMF-led Operation Sea Sword 2 in 2022. About INS Trikand: ‘INS Trikand’ is a Stealth Frigate. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2013. It is the last of the three “Follow On Talwar Class” frigates built in the Russian Federation. The other ships of the class:  INS Teg and INS Tarkash INS Trikand carries a state-of-the-art combat suite which includes the supersonic BRAHMOS missile system, advanced Surface to Air missiles Shtil, upgraded A190 medium range gun, Electro-optical 30 mm Close-in Weapon System, Anti-Submarine weapons such as torpedoes and rockets and an advanced Electronic Warfare system. The weapons and sensors are integrated through a Combat Management System ‘Trebovanie-M’, which enables the ship to simultaneously neutralize multiple surfaces, sub-surface and air threats. The ship also incorporates innovative features to reduce radar, magnetic, and acoustic signatures, which have earned this class of ships the sobriquet of ‘Stealth’ frigates. The ship is powered by four gas turbines and is capable of speeds in excess of 30 knots. The ship can carry an integrated Kamov 31 helicopter which is best suited for airborne early warning roles. Source: PIB  Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Methane Global Tracker report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Agencies and reports , Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) released its annual Methane Global Tracker report. About Methane Global Tracker report: It is an annual report published by the International Energy Agency (IEA). Background : Methane is a greenhouse gas responsible for 30% of warming since preindustrial times, second only to carbon dioxide. Methane is 80 times more potent at warming than carbon dioxide. Key Findings of the report : The report shows that 75% of methane emissions can be reduced with cheap and readily available technology. Global Methane Pledge – 150 countries have joined the Global Methane Pledge which aims to reduce methane emissions from human activity by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. India has committed to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33-35% below 2005 levels by 2030. The energy sector accounts for around 40% of total average methane emissions. 80% of available options to curb methane emissions can be implemented at net zero cost. Implementing methane reduction measures would cost less than 3% of the net income received by the oil and gas industry in 2022. Reduction of 75% of natural gas wastage could lower global temperature rise by nearly 0.1 degree Celsius by mid-century. About the International Energy Agency (IEA) : It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Headquarters:  Paris The IEA is made up of 31 member countries. Objective:  to promote reliable, affordable, and clean energy for its member countries and the rest of the world. The Agreement on an International Energy Program (IEP Agreement) established the mandates and structure of the IEA under the umbrella of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Eligibility Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must have crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply. India became an Associate member of IEA in 2017. India inked a Strategic Partnership Agreement with the IEA to strengthen cooperation in global energy security, stability, and sustainability in 2021. India’s current strategic oil reserves equal 9.5 days of its requirement. India is not a member of the OECD but a key economic partner. IEA invited India to deepen its cooperation with IEA by becoming a full Member. Key publications of IEA : World Energy Outlook (WEO) Net Zero by 2050: a roadmap for the global energy sector Energy Technology Perspectives (ETP) Global EV Outlook (GEVO) Oil Market Report World Energy Investment Clean Energy Transitions Programme MUST READ Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q3. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea National Commission for minorities Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the National Commission for Minorities rescued stranded Indians from Libya. About the National Commission for minorities : It was established by the Union Government in 1992 under the National Commission for Minorities Act. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains are six religious communities that have been designated as minority communities by the Union Government in India’s Gazette. Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians, and Muslims were notified in 1993 Jains were added later in 2014. According to the 2001 Census, these six communist countries account for 18.8% of the country’s population. Composition: NCM consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and five members. All the members shall be from amongst the minority communities. A total of 7 persons to be nominated by the Central Government should be from amongst persons of eminence, ability, and integrity. Tenure: Each Member holds office for a period of three years from the date of assumption of office. The Chairperson or a member can resign from office by writing to the Central Government. Removal of Office of Chairperson The Central Government shall remove a person from the office of Chairperson or the member if they: Become an undischarged insolvent. Are declared having an unsound mind by a competent court. He refused to act or become incapable of acting. Have been convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offense which in the opinion of the Central Government involves moral turpitude. Absent from three consecutive meetings without obtaining leave of absence. Abused the position of chairperson or member in the opinion of the Central Government. Detrimental to the interest of minorities or public interest. However, No person shall be removed under this clause until the person has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter. Functions: Recommending Union and State Government regarding Implementation of Safeguards for the minorities. Address the complaints regarding the deprivation of rights of minorities and take up such matters with the rightful authorities. The commission shall perform any of the functions mentioned above and have all powers of civil court. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? (2014) The Finance Commission The National Development Council The Union Ministry of Rural Development The Union Ministry of Urban Development The Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hindu growth rate Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims –  Economy Context: Recently, former RBI Governor ,Raghuram Rajan claimed that India is ‘dangerously close’ to the Hindu rate of growth. About Hindu growth rate : Hindu rate of growth is a term describing low Indian economic growth rates from the 1950s to the 1980s, which averaged around 4%. The term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ was coined by Professor Rajkrishna, an Indian economist, in 1978 to characterize the slow growth and to explain it against the backdrop of socialistic economic policies. The term came into being to show India’s contentment with the low growth rate, post-independence. The word “Hindu” in the term was used by some early economists to imply that the Hindu outlook of fatalism and contentedness was responsible for the slow growth. Many economists believed that the so-called Hindu rate of growth was a result of socialist policies implemented by the then-staunch secular governments and had nothing to do with Hinduism. A small growth rate alone does not characterize the Hindu rate of growth. A prolonged low growth rate, albeit not an economic contraction, is not sufficient to be deemed as the Hindu rate of growth. In addition to growth being low and extending over a long period of time, the term also captures a low per-capita GDP, by factoring in the population growth. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (2021) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks Increase in the banking habit of the people Increase in the population of the country Rupee appreciation and depreciation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Rupee gained 8 paise to close at 82.50 against the U.S. dollar recently. About depreciation : Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. Rupee depreciation means that the rupee has become less valuable with respect to the dollar. It also means that the rupee is now weaker than what it used to be earlier. Factors affecting depreciation : Wear and Tear due to Use or Passage of Time: It is the deterioration that is followed by a decrease in the value of an asset, resulting from its use in business operations to earn revenue. Some orders of means lose their value after the agreement directing their use in business comes to an end after the expiry of the predetermined period. Obsolescence It is another factor driving the depreciation of fixed assets. It means being “out-of-date”. An actual asset that is becoming outdated on account of the availability of a better type of asset is referred to as obsolescence. Abnormal factors that are responsible for the drop in the use of the asset like accidents due to the earthquake, fire, cataracts, etc., Accidental loss is endless but not continuing. About appreciation : It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency  in a floating exchange rate system. Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy. Factors affecting appreciation : Appreciation is directly linked to demand. If the value of the currency appreciates (or goes up), demand for the currency also rises. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following statements: (2021) The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing Following an expansionary monetary policy India’s Health Sector Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Government of India and World Bank signed two complimentary loans worth $1 billion to support and enhance India’s healthcare infrastructure. About India’s healthcare sector at glance: In the Economic Survey of 2022, India’s public expenditure on healthcare stood at 1% of GDP in 2021-22 against 1.8% in 2020-21 and 1.3% in 2019-20. India had 7 physicians per 1,00,000 people in 2017 (in contrast to 98 in Pakistan, 100 in Sri Lanka and 241 in Japan). 53 beds per 1,00,000 people(in contrast to 63 in Pakistan, 79.5 in Bangladesh, 415 in Sri Lanka and 1,298 in Japan). 7 nurses and midwives per 1,00,000 people(in contrast to 220 in Sri Lanka, 40 in Bangladesh, 70 in Pakistan, and 1,220 in Japan). India has among the highest out-of-pocket (OOP) expenditures of all countries in the world- 62% of the total health expenditure in India is OOP. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), India ranks 184 out of 191 countries in health spending. The US spends over 16% of its total GDP on healthcare, while Japan, Canada, Germany etc. spend over 10% of their GDP on healthcare. Health Index for states developed by Niti Aayog: The Health Index for States developed by Niti Aayog in consultation with the health ministry and the World Bank has rankings for large states, smaller states and Union territories. It is based on 23 health parameters ranging from mortality rate and sex ratio to functioning cardiac care units. In 2019, Kerala was the top performer followed by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. The index results indicated that states even with a lower economic output are performing better on health and well-being. Challenges associated with India’s healthcare sector: Low Budget Spending: India’s public expenditure on healthcare is only 2.1% of GDP in 2021-22 while Japan, Canada and France spend about 10% of their GDP on public healthcare. Unequal distribution: India’s health care system is concentrated in urban areas with very little presence in the rural areas where majority of the population lives. Lack of Medical Research: In India, R&D and cutting-edge technology-led new projects receive little attention. Low doctor-patient ratio: The doctor patient ratio in India is about 1:1500 much higher than the WHO norm of one doctor for every 1,000 people. Lack of Affordability: The contribution of private sector in healthcare expenditure in India is around 80 percent while the rest 20 percent is contributed by Public Sector. The private sector also provides for 58 percent of the hospitals and 81 percent of the doctors in India. Govt of India Initiatives to improve healthcare sector in the country: Pradhan Mantri-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): it aims to strengthen India’s health infrastructure and improve the country’s primary, secondary and tertiary care services. Ayushman Bharat : Follows a two- pronged approach by Creation of health and wellness centres to bring health care closer to homes. formulation of a Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) to protect poor and vulnerable families against financial risk arising out of health episodes. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: aims to connect the digital health solutions of hospitals across the country. Under this, every citizen will now get a digital health ID and their health record will be digitally protected. National Ayush Mission: it is a centrally sponsored scheme for the  development of traditional medicines Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY):aims to correct regional imbalances in the availability of affordable/reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country. Way Forward: There is an urgency to focus on all the three levels of primary, secondary and tertiary healthcare, it is imperative that the government look towards improving primary health care as a public good. The lesson emerging most unequivocally from the pandemic experience is that if India does not want a repeat of the immeasurable suffering and the social and economic loss, we need to make public health a central focus. There is also a need to declutter policy dialogue and provide clarity to the nomenclatures.  India needs to move beyond the doctor-led system and Para medicalise several functions. India should focus on technology upgradation and preventive care to further its march towards healthy India. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indian Tea Industry Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: India has taken several steps to boost the output, create a niche brand for Indian tea, and ensure the welfare of the families associated with the tea industry. About Indian Tea Industry: India is the 2nd largest tea producer and largest black tea producer after China and 4th largest exporter of Tea in the world. India is also the largest consumer of black tea and accounts for 18% of the total World tea consumption. The main tea-growing regions are in the Northeast (including Assam) and in north Bengal (Darjeeling district and the Dooars region). Tea is also grown on a large scale in the Nilgiris in south India. Ideal climate condition for tea cultivation: Originate in tropical and subtropical climates. Major tea growing regions are mainly concentrated in Asia, Africa, South America. Tea requires cool to warm temperatures with at least 5 hours of sunlight per day. The average annual temperature for tea plants to grow well is in the range of 15 – 23°C. The rainfall needed is between 150-200 cm. Market Size of Tea Industry in India: In 2020, nearly 10 million tons of tea was consumed in the country. The market in the country is projected to witness a further growth in the forecast period of 2022-2027, growing at a CAGR of 4.2%. In 2026, the tea industry in India is expected to attain 1.40 million tons. Tag for Geographical Indication (GI) The first GI tag product was Darjeeling Tea, also known as the “Champagne of teas” due to its floral aroma. Green and white tea, the other two Darjeeling tea varieties, also have GI tags. The Indian tea industry is being developed and promoted by the Tea Board of India. About Tea Board of India: The genesis of the Tea Board India dates back to 1903 when the Indian Tea Cess Bill was passed. The present Tea Board was set up under Section 4 of the Tea Act 1953. It is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce. The Board is constituted of 31 members (including Chairman) drawn from Members of Parliament, tea producers, tea traders, tea brokers, consumers, and representatives of Governments from the principal tea producing states, and trade unions . HQ: Kolkata The Board is reconstituted every three years. Earlier, the Tea Board had offices in Cairo and Kuwait. But these two offices were relocated to Dubai. Issues associated with the Indian Tea sector: Stiff competition and improved standards in the world market – due to low product prices from Kenya and other countries – increasing demand for organic tea and quality assurance that entails environmental justice. Decline in productivity and quality – Tea bushes must be replanted every five years, but most Tea bushes older than 20 yrs.; uneven rainfall due to climate change – is affecting the productivity and quality of Indian Tea leading to lower prices at Tea auctions. Poor worker conditions and low wages – despite the provisions of the Plantation Labor Act, 1951 most workers and their families live in unsanitary conditions and receive low wages – this issue needs to be addressed given the fact that “starvation deaths” in North Bengal caught the international media attention. Small Tea Growers – the challenges faced by the Small Tea Growers’ sector is as follows Not getting the right green leaf price Unlike large estates, STG’s are not able to capitalize on scale and marketing of product as a collective is difficult – since it is unorganized Issue of workers’ rights – since STG’s are not governed by the PLA, 1951 Most of them are not recognized by the Tea Board of India due to landownership regulations and related procedural problems – this means lesser data available on the state of the STG’s making it difficult for policy coordination Some global factors like the decline in demand from European markets in the wake of the Russia-Ukraine war have compounded the problem. Suggestive measures: The One District and One Product (ODOP) program can aid in promoting Indian Tea’s fame. The “AROMA” of tea needs to be improved in order for the industry to become profitable, viable, and sustainable. Support small farmers to raise production to satisfy domestic and international demand while improving quality and sustainability. Create infrastructure to boost exports and concentrate on high value markets like the EU, Canada, South America, and the Middle East to re-energize. Promote GI tea and organic tea using brand marketing and promotion. Modernization: To help local supply networks be strengthened and tea producers to become self-sufficient Adaptability: Focus on the importance of a risk proof ecosystem, that is, the need for sustainable solutions to make tea plantations meet the challenges of climate change. India being the second largest producer of Tea has numerous opportunities to develop the Tea Industry as it is providing employment to a huge number of people in the north eastern states. A win-win for all and therefore a truly sustainable and transparent model — is the key requirement for a highly labour-centric industry like tea plantations. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following States: Andhra Pradesh Kerala Himachal Pradesh Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States? (2022) Only one State Only two States Only three States All four States Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following organizations recently released Index on the life cycle of working women? World Bank Ministry of Women and Child Development Un Women NITI Aayog Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA): It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Presently the IEA is made up of 61 member countries. India became a member of IEA in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) The Yellowstone national park often mentioned in the news is in Australia United States of America Japan Brazil Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’6th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 1] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 1 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations About Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC): It is a regional organization that was established in 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation). It became renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the inclusion of Myanmar. It became a  seven Member organization with the admission of Bhutan and Nepal in 2004. The BIMSTEC Charter was signed and adopted during the ‘Fifth BIMSTEC Summit’ held in the virtual format in Colombo, Sri Lanka, in 2022. It is headquartered in Dhaka, Bangladesh. H. E. Mr. Tenzin Lekphell assumed office as the Secretary-General of BIMSTEC in 2020 as the third BIMSTEC Secretary-General. Chairmanship-the Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States. India hosted the first meeting of Governing Board of BIMSTEC Energy Centre in Bengaluru in 2023. BIMSTEC Principles Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be based on respect for the principle of sovereign equality, territorial integrity, political independence, non-interference in internal affairs, non-aggression, peaceful co-existence, mutual respect, and mutual benefit. Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be complementary to and not be a substitute for bilateral, sub-regional, regional, or multilateral cooperation involving the Member States. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 ,2, and 3 Sisupalgarh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the ancient city of Sisupalgarh was in news due to the damages by the Land mafias. About Sisupalgarh: It is located near the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It was once the capital of Kalinga, which is the ancient name of Odisha. It dates back prior to the Mauryan period. It is a 2,000-year-old fortified city. It is considered one of the largest and best-preserved ancient fortifications in India. The remains of the fortification were discovered in 1948 by the Indian archaeologist B.B. Lal. Features of Sisupalgarh : It was designed and constructed in a complete square shape that was surrounded by defensive walls. Each side spreads for over half a mile, and the interior is full of stone ruins and sculptures. The walls of the fortification are a little over nine meters (30 feet) tall. There were eight gateways into the city, two on each of the four sides of the wall. The gateways were connected by streets in a grid-like arrangement with the palace in the center. The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone. There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater. Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space. It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka. The construction of Sisupalgarh was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which in Odia is known as the GadaKhai concept. Jala Durga is a type of Durga or fort, which must be situated within a water body. It is divided into two categories, viz., the Anterdvipa (Island fort) and the Sthala Durga (Land fort). Antardvipa-Durga (island fortress) is surrounded by natural (sea or river) water bodies. Sthala-Durga (plain fortress) is surrounded by artificial moats or irrigated by a river. MUST READ Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place           Well-known for (1) Burzahom              Rock-cut shrines (2) Chandraketugarh  Terracotta art (3) Ganeshwar Copper artifacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.  Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Battle of Bakhmut Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –  International Relations Context:  Bakhmut has been  in news recently, regarding the Russian-Ukrainian war. About the Battle of Bakhmut: Bakhmut is a city in the eastern Ukraine region of Donetsk Bakhmut is currently in ruins, having been the focal point of Russian assaults and a site of dogged defence by the Ukrainian military. The industrial city, is known for its salt and gypsum mines. It’s also the site of a winery established on the order of Soviet dictator Joseph Stalin in 1950. Background : Bakhmut has been caught up in conflict since 2014, when Russia-backed separatists launched a push to capture Donetsk. The separatists briefly seized parts of the city that year, before Ukrainian forces drove them out. Bakhmut is proximate to multiple important roads which may have some strategic value to the Russian advance. It’s an important transport hub, a lot of supply lines go through there and Russia could use it as a base. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?(2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) Chin China Israel Iraq Yemen Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity (Government Schemes ), Geography Context: Recently, the Government of India has constituted Greater Panna Landscape Council(GPLC). About Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC): It has been constituted under the chairmanship of the Chief Secretary, Govt of Madhya Pradesh. Objective: To ensure systematic and time-bound implementation of the Greater Panna Landscape Management plan. Its goal is to ensure a “win-win” situation for conservation through integration with the development process based on a balanced approach and considering the diverse stakes. About Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) :   Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP), the first interlinking of rivers project. It is  under National Perspective Plan (NPP). It would be a game-changer for the socio-economic prosperity of the Bundelkhand region, which faces recurrent drought situations. The project is aimed at not only providing water security in the Bundelkhand but also ensuring the overall conservation of the region and especially for landscape-dependent species such as tigers, vultures, and gharial. Apart from taking mitigation measures as per the approved Environmental Management Plan, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has prepared a comprehensive Integrated Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) for the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity not only in Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) but also in surrounding areas. The Integrated Landscape Management Plan under the Ken-Betwa Link Project is one of the major and unique conservation measures being initiated in the conservation history of India. Implementing Agency: A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) called Ken-Betwa Link Project Authority (KBLPA) will be set up to implement the project. About Ken and Betwa Rivers: Ken and Betwa rivers originate in MP and are the tributaries of Yamuna. The river originates near the village of Ahirgawan on the north-west slopes of Kaimur Range in the district of Jabalpur. Important tributaries of the Ken River:  Sonar, Bearma, Kopra, Bewas, Urmil, Mirhasan, Kutni, Kail, Gurne, Patan, Siameri, Chandrawal, Banne, and others. Sonar, the longest tributary. Ken meets with Yamuna in the Banda district of UP and with Betwa in the Hamirpur district of UP. Ken River passes through the Panna tiger reserve. Betwa River, Sanskrit Vetravati (“Containing Reeds”), rises in the Vindhya Range just north of Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh. It flows generally northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh states and empties into the Yamuna River just east of Hamirpur. The Jamni and Dhasan rivers are the main tributaries. About Panna Tiger Reserve: It is a national park located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It was declared in 1994 as the twenty-second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh. Panna was given the Award of Excellence in 2007 as the best-maintained national park of India by the Ministry of Tourism of India. In 2020, UNESCO included Panna National Park of Madhya Pradesh under its list of Biosphere reserves Among the animals found here is the tiger, leopard, chital, chinkara, nilgai, sambhar, and sloth bear. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a frog endemic to the higher altitudes of Western Ghats was rediscovered after 89 years. About Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus): Uperodon montanus, also known as Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog, Jerdon’s ramanella, mountain dot frog, mountain globular frog, or Malabar Hill frog. It is a species of narrow-mouthed frog (family Microhylidae) It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. This species is found in Moist deciduous forests, Semi-evergreen forests, and Evergreen forests. It is classified as ‘Near Threatened’ in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species.  Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) Consider the following animals  (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) and Hallmark Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government of India recently announced that the sale of gold jewellery and gold artefacts hallmarked without a six-digit alphanumeric shall not be permitted from April 1, 2023. About Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS): BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 It works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. It was formerly the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), set up under the Resolution of the Department of Industries and Supplies in 1946. The ISI was registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. A new Bureau of Indian standard (BIS) Act 2016 was brought into force in 2017. BIS has its Headquarters in New Delhi. President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Vice President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Objectives:  harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BIS is involved in various activities as given below: Standards Formulation Product Certification Scheme Compulsory Registration Scheme Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme Hall Marking Scheme Laboratory Services Laboratory Recognition Scheme Sale of Indian Standards Consumer Affairs Activities Promotional Activities Training Services, National & International level Information Services About Hallmark: Hallmarks are thus official marks used in many countries as a guarantee of the purity or fineness of precious metal articles. The principle objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme : to protect the public against adulteration to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness. Who issues Hallmark: Bureau of Indian Standards For which products: Gold and silver jewellery Applicable since: It is applicable for gold since 2000 and for silver since 2005. Procedure For Obtaining Registration by Jeweller for Sale of Hallmarked Jeweller / Artefacts Any jeweller willing to obtain a certificate of registration for selling Hallmarked Gold and Silver Jewelry/artefacts shall apply online in the BIS portal. The certificate of registration is granted instantly to the jeweller without the need to upload any document or pay any fees for the same. The certificate of registration stands valid for a lifetime.  About  Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID): HUID is a six-digit alphanumeric code . It is given to every piece of jewellery at the time of hallmarking and is unique for each piece. It is being implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) in a phased manner. Hallmarking & HUID are mandatory for 14-, 18- and 22-carat gold jewellery and artefacts. The Government has made it mandatory the introduction of a HUID number in every piece of jewellery. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (SC) has stated the rules for appointment of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs). Highlights of the Supreme Court rulings: A high-power committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India. In case no leader of Opposition is available, the leader of the largest opposition Party in the Lok Sabha in terms of numerical strength will take in that position. This is an example of violation of the separation of powers between legislature and the judiciary. Earlier, Vishaka guidelines formed by the SC was one such example. For funding of ECI, government should create a permanent Secretariat and expenditure be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. About Election Commission India: The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country. It is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission. Constitutional Provisions: Its powers, appointment and duties are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act. Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission. Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the ground of religion, race, caste or sex. Article 326: Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to legislature. Article 328: Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature. Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. Composition of Election Commission: Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote. Appointment ,Tenure and Privileges of Commissioners: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament. Removal of Election Commissioners: They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. Issue in Removal of other Commissioners: The Constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Power and Functions of ECI: Determining the Electoral Constituencies’ territorial areas throughout the country. Preparing and periodically revising electoral rolls and registering all eligible voters. Notifying the schedules and dates of elections and scrutinising nomination papers. Granting recognition to the various political parties and allocating them election symbols. The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power. Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. Further, the cases of persons found guilty of corrupt practices at elections which come before the Supreme Court and High Courts are also referred to the Commission for its opinion on the question as to whether such person shall be disqualified and, if so, for what period. The opinion of the Commission in all such matters is binding on the President or, as the case may be, the Governor to whom such opinion is tendered. The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law. The Commission has also the power for removing or reducing the period of such disqualification as also other disqualification under the law. Significance of current Judgement: The functional autonomy of the CEC and the EC has a direct link with the process by which they are selected. As stated by the Court, “a vulnerable Election Commission would result in an insidious situation and detract from its efficient functioning.” The SC’s verdict, apart from ensuring fairness in the process, can act as a constitutional lesson in India’s troubled times. It found that in India, there is “an unrelenting abuse of the electoral process”. The judgment recognises the fine distinction between conventional democracy and constitutional democracy. In the former, the majority alone matters. In the latter, it is the Constitution that matters. In the judgment, the country finds an activist judiciary after a long time. This revival of judicial activism is well supported by legal reasoning and binding precedents. It has come out during a dark phase of majoritarianism with an aggrandising executive. This adds to the intrinsic value of the judgment. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements : The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 On regulating online sale of drugs in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: All-India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists threatens a country-wide agitation against e-pharmacies. Recently, the Ministry of Health has pulled up at least 20 companies including Tata-1mg, Flipkart, Apollo, PharmEasy, Amazon and Reliance Netmeds, by issuing them a show cause notice, for selling medicines online. About E-Pharmacy: E-pharmacy, or online pharmacy, refers to a platform that allows customers to purchase medicines and other healthcare products online. E-pharmacies operate through websites or mobile apps where users can upload their prescriptions, select the products they need, and place orders. The products are then delivered to the customers’ doorstep leading to such mode becoming increasingly popular due to their convenience, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness. However, they also pose regulatory challenges and concerns related to the safety, authenticity, and quality of medicines sold online. Draft e-pharmacy rules: The draft e-pharmacy rules were introduced in 2018, and were intended to whip e-pharmacy businesses into shape, but were shoved into cold storage. E-pharmacies made a bang in the market in 2015 by offering hefty discounts on medicines and calling themselves facilitators of doorstep delivery. However, companies like PharmEasy are building a supply chain from the ground up by buying out big and small wholesale drug distributors. Since 2015, e-pharmacies have recorded losses year-on-year. Tata-1 Mg posted a loss of ?146 crore in FY22, whereas PharmEasy’s losses widened to ?2,700 crore in the same fiscal. Both e-pharmacies and offline retail pharmacists have realized that it is futile to stick to any one way of doing business. Associated concerns: The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately. It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines. The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under. Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist. Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales. Significance E-pharmacies are a part of the government’s intent to build digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy. The potential of India’s over $344 million e-pharmacy market is promising and is expected to grow at an enviable 40-45% owing to its surging internet connectivity, mobile phone penetration, government initiatives, and rising investments. E-pharmacies can provide access to affordable and genuine medicines, especially in areas where traditional pharmacies may not be accessible. Associated challenges: The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately. It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines. The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under. Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist. Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales. Laws regulating e-pharmacies: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) first banned the online sale of medicines in 2015. The latest draft New Drugs, Medical Devices, and Cosmetics Bill, 2022, has comprehensive provisions including: Periodic inspections, complaint redressal mechanisms, monitoring e-pharmacies, and others. Indian regulations require that pharmacies, both online and offline, be registered with the central drugs regulator CDSCO and have permits from state regulators for sales and distribution. Previously, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry developed a self-regulation code for e-pharmacies in 2016. Way Forward: In recent years, the market penetration of e-pharmacies has seen a growth from 3% to 5%. It is an important option for consumers for buying chronic care medicines for diabetes, high blood pressure, cardiac issues, and so on. Hence, an outright ban on heaving e-pharmacies to the hellbox must be avoided. It goes against the government’s intent of building digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy. Therefore, It is crucial for the government and stakeholders to work together towards ensuring that e-pharmacies operate efficiently and legitimately, while protecting the health and safety of the public. Source: The Hindu    Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following countries: India Sri Lanka Pakistan Nepal Myanmar Which of the above are part of  Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)? 1 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 4 and 5 only 2 3 and 5 only All of the above Q.2) The construction of site was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which is known as the GadaKhai concept. It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka. The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone. There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater. Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space are other features of the site. Which of the following sites described in the above passage? Sisupalgarh Rakhigarhi Vadakkupattu Adichanallur Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS): BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. BIS has its Headquarters in Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’4th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[New Batch] PRELIMS PINNACLE – Your Roadmap to Success in UPSC Prelims 2023 – Starts 8th March

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