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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chilka lake Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Chilka lake in Odisha, Asia’s biggest brackish water lagoon, saw an increase in the number of migratory birds this winter compared to the previous year. About Chilka lake: Chilka Lake is Asia’s biggest inland saltwater lagoon situated near Satapada in Odisha. Located at the mouth of the Daya River, Chilka Lake is the largest coastal lagoon in India and also the second largest saltwater lagoon in the world after the New Caledonian barrier reef in New Caledonia. The lake is studded with small islands including the most charming Honeymoon Island and the Breakfast Island. The lake is an ecosystem with large fishery resources. It sustains more than 150,000 fisher folk living in 132 villages on the shore and Islands. In 1981, Chilka Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. The lake also acts as one of the most supportive ecosystems in the name of Chilka Lake Sanctuary. It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent. Birds from the Caspian Sea, Lake Baikal, Aral Sea and other remote parts of Russia, Kirghiz steppes of Mongolia, Central and Southeast Asia, Ladakh and Himalayas come here. White bellied sea eagles, Graylag Geese, Purple Moorhen, Jacana, Herons and Flamingos are among the many species which make the lake a bird watcher’s delight. Chilika in fact, is home to one of the world’s largest breeding colonies of Flamingos. Being richly famous for the presence of aquatic wildlife, Chilika Lake sanctuary also houses Irrawaddy dolphins which are different from the other dolphins as their colour and dorsal fin being less prominent. Apart from the avifaunal species, the region also highlights varied wild animals such as Blackbuck, Golden Jackals, Spotted Deer and Hyenas. One of the most famous tourist attractions near Chilika Wildlife Sanctuary is Kalijai Temple, devoted to Goddess Kalijai. Makar Sankranti is celebrated with great pomp and cheer at the temple that attracts numerous travelers and devotees. Top Attractions in Chilika Nalabana bird sanctuary Situated in the heart of Chilika, Nalabana Island deserves a special mention since it is a prime refuge point for thousands of resident and migratory birds. It got the status of a sanctuary in 1987 and specially acts as a treat for the bird-watchers during winter season. Kalijai Temple Island of Goddess Kalijai is the most frequent spot for tourists. The island is famous as a centre of religious worship due to the temple of Kalijai. There is a story behind the place which is centred around an innocent girl called “Kalijai” who got married and was going by boat along with her in-laws through this lake. Satapada Satapada is the ultimate place to watch Irrawaddy dolphins. Beacon Island This island is an architectural marvel with a conical pillar and a small room constructed on the submerged mass of rock in the Rambha bay near Ghantasila hill. The pillar was constructed to put a light on the top. The water spread around the Beacon Island is very charming, surrounded by the Eastern Ghat. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake:                      Location Hokera Wetland                   Punjab Renuka Wetland               Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                   Tripura Sasthamkotta                     Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Sagol Kangjei Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Union Home Minister  Inaugurated,  122-foot-tall statue of a polo player astride a Manipur Pony in Imphal. It is believed that Sagol Kangjei, the modern-day Polo game originated in Manipur. About Sagol Kangjei: It is a sport indigenous to Manipur, in which players ride horses, specifically the Manipur Ponies, which are referenced in records dating back to the 14th century. The sport originated in Manipur and is associated with ancient manuscripts like Kangjeirol. Even festivals in Manipur such as Lai Haraoba Festival shows a play sequence in which Maibi (priestess) with a polo stick in hand goes out in search of a bride. There are no goalposts in traditional form as the players scores a point by hitting the ball out of the field. About the Manipur Pony: The Manipur Pony is one of five recognised equine breeds of India, and has a powerful cultural significance for Manipuri society. The Marjing Polo Complex has been developed as a way to conserve the Manipur Pony. One source stated Tibetan ponies as its ancestors while another source stated its origin to be a cross between Mongolian wild horse and Arabian. In some manuscripts, it is referred to as Mangal-sa or Mongolian animal. In Manipuri mythology, the Manipuri pony was regarded to have descended from “Samadon Ayangba” the winged steed of Lord Margjing, one of the guardian deities of Manipur. The 17th Quinquennial Livestock Census 2003 had recorded 1,898 Manipur Ponies; The number fell to 1,101 in the 19th Quinquennial Livestock Census in 2012. In 2014, it was found difficult to count even 500. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award The award was received by Formula One players so far. Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Liquified Natural Gas Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The EU is weaning itself off piped Russian gas by rapidly expanding imports of liquified natural gas, much of it fracked in the US. About Liquified Natural Gas: Natural gas is a fossil energy source that formed deep beneath the earth’s surface. Natural gas contains different compounds. The largest component of natural gas is methane, a compound with one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms (CH4). Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state, at about -260° Fahrenheit (161 degrees Celsius), for shipping and storage. The volume of natural gas in its liquid state is about 600 times smaller than its volume in its gaseous state. This process makes it possible to transport natural gas to places where pipelines do not reach. Significance of LNG: Energy efficient: Natural gas produces more energy than any of the fossil fuels in terms of calorific value. Cleaner fuel: Natural gas is a superior fuel as compared with coal and other liquid fuels; being an environment-friendly, safer and cheaper fuel. Emission commitments: India made a commitment to COP-21 Paris Convention in December 2015 that by 2030, it would reduce carbon emission by 33%-35% of 2005 levels. Diverse applications: Natural gas can be used as domestic kitchen fuel, fuel for the transport sector as well as a fuel for fertilizer industries and commercial units. Source: Indian Express Arab Spring Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: K.P. Fabian’s newly launched book, ‘The Arab Spring That Was and Wasn’t’ was seen in the news recently. About Arab Spring: The Arab Spring was a series of pro-democracy uprisings that enveloped several largely Muslim countries, including Tunisia, Morocco, Syria, Libya, Egypt and Bahrain. The events in these nations generally began in the spring of 2011, which led to the name. However, the political and social impact of these popular uprisings remains significant today, years after many of them ended. When protests broke out in Tunisia in late 2010 and spread to other countries, there were hopes that the Arab world was in for massive changes. The expectation was that in countries where people rose, such as Tunisia, Egypt, Yemen, Libya, Bahrain and Syria, the old autocracies would be replaced with new democracies. But Tunisia is the only country where the revolutionaries outwitted the counter-revolutionaries. They overthrew Zine El Abidine Ben Ali’s dictatorship, and the country transitioned to a multi-party democracy. But except Tunisia, the country-specific stories of the Arab uprising were tragic. Source: Indian Express Sunni Dam Hydro Electric Project Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs recently has approved an investment of Rs 2,614 crore for 382 MW Sunni Dam Hydro Electric Project in Shimla and Mandi districts. About the project: It is a run of the river type development proposed to harness the hydel potential of river Satluj. It aims to provide various benefits to local suppliers/ local enterprises/MSMEs. It is part of the Luhri project, which is designed to comprise three hydropower dams; Luhri Stage-I (210 MW), Luhri Stage-II (163 MW), and Sunni dam (382 MW). It will be governed by Indus water Treaty signed between India and Pakistan in 1960. This is because the project lies in Satluj basin, which is a part of Indus Basin. Its objective to produce as much energy as possible, with minimum cost and fewer negative impacts on the environment. Benefits of the project: It will reduce carbon dioxide emissions by 1.1 Million tons annually Encourage entrepreneurship opportunities Promote employment and socio-economic development of the region. Aid in fulfilling peak electricity demand and the growing energy deficit in the Northern Region. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs        :        States Ghataprabha :        Telangana Gandhi Sagar :      Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar :        Andhra Pradesh Maithon :               Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Cloud Forest Bond Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News:  According to a new report, Cloud Forest Assets Financing is a Valuable Nature-Based Solution released by Earth Security – a global nature-based asset management advisory firm. The report is aimed at three stakeholders – national governments, non-profits and communities. About cloud forests:                                       Cloud Forests are montane rainforests They refer to the vegetation of tropical mountainous regions where there is heavy rainfall and persistent condensation resulting from the cooling of the moisture being pushed upwards by the mountains. They are usually characterized by a persistent, frequent and seasonal low-lying layer of mist and cloud cover usually at the canopy level. Cloud forests are rare since the exceptional conditions that create these forests are only found in tropical areas with tall mountains. Due to their unique characteristics, cloud forests are usually found along the sides of the mountains at elevations of between 3000 and 10000 feet but as low as 1650 feet in the Tropics between coordinates 23°N and 23°S. Only 1% of the global woodlands are considered as cloud forests following a decline from 11% in the 1970s due to interferences by human activities and global warming. Just 25 countries hold 90 per cent of the world’s cloud forests These twenty-five countries are Indonesia, Tanzania, Democratic Republic of Congo, Colombia, Peru, Venezuela, Mexico, Papua New Guinea, Brazil, Ethiopia, Ecuador, Cameroon, Bolivia, China, Laos, Kenya, Malaysia, Angola, Uganda, Madagascar, Philippines, Gabon, Vietnam, Republic of Congo and Myanmar. Significance: Their hydrological function is of existential value to millions of people living downstream. They capture moisture from the air, providing fresh and clean water to people and industries below. These 25 countries have around 979 hydropower dams and around half of them use water from the cloud forest. The total value of hydroelectricity that currently depends on cloud-affected forests across these 25 countries is estimated to be $118 billion over 10 years. This will increase to $246 billion when new hydropower plants that are being developed become operational. Cloud forest bonds: Cloud Forest Bond will incentivise governments to protect their cloud forests — forests that are on top tropical mountains, largely shrouded in mist. Cloud forest bonds will provide governments with financial actors like philanthropy, public finance and private investment to capture the economic value of the ecosystem services of the cloud forests. Such a tool will encourage carbon storage and provide funding to set up sovereign-level carbon finance schemes as well as payments for ecosystem services The report proposes to mobilise financing for cloud forest protection through payments schemes under which hydropower projects and other industrial water users benefiting from cloud forests pay for this service. While these investments must conform to rigorous social and environmental impact safeguards, ensuring the protection of these forests upstream should be included as a risk management priority for investors, project developers and policy-makers. The Cloud Forest Bonds will allow the developing countries to improve their debt position and fund the creation of new, long-term income streams from services provided by nature. These bonds can be in the form of new bond issuances, debt-swaps and results-based financing instruments, which are matched to the circumstances of each of the twenty-five countries. Forest protection is highest where land ownership rights of indigenous peoples and local communities are fully recognised and exercised – by providing a fair share of the benefits from forest carbon and water revenues A Cloud Forest 25 (CF25) Investment Initiative to establish a collective of all 25 countries that have high cloud forest to accelerate the international application of market templates and aggregate the blended finance and data needed to achieve solutions at scale. Source: DTE Dwarf boa Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A new species of dwarf boa has been discovered in the upper Amazon basin, reported a paper published in the journal European Journal of Taxonomy. Dwarf Boa: The snake from the Tropidophiidae family was found in the cloud forest in northeastern Ecuador and was up to 20 centimetres long. Tropidophis cacuangoae can be identified from other reptiles in the same genus based on its external features and bone structure. Its colouring is primarily light brown with darker brown or black blotches — similar to a boa constrictor. The species inhabits eastern tropical piedmont and lower evergreen montane forests in the Amazon tropical rainforest biome It is suspected to be an Ecuadorian endemic. Both specimens were found within 50 kilometres of each other — Colonso Chalupas national reserve and in the private Sumak Kawsay park. The species is unusual for having a “vestigial pelvis”, which is characteristic of primitive snakes. This could be evidence that snakes descended from lizards that lost their limbs over millions of years. The snake’s name honours Dolores Cacuango, an early 20th-century pioneer in the fight for indigenous and farmers’ rights in Ecuador. The discovery of T cacuangoae demonstrates that small and cryptic vertebrates can undergo large periods of time without being detected. The discovery of this new species highlights a critical need to accelerate research in remote areas where information gaps remain but are suspected of harbouring high biodiversity and are severely threatened by human impacts Source: DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) Some species of turtles are herbivores. Some species of fish are herbivores. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. Some species of snakes viviparous. Which of the statements given above arc correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 ‘MV Ganga Vilas’ Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will flag off the ‘MV Ganga Vilas’ from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh. MV Ganga Vilas It is the world’s longest river cruise. The luxury cruise will cover more than 3,200 kilometres across 27 river systems in five States in India and Bangladesh. The MV Ganga Vilas cruise is curated to bring out the best of the country to be showcased to the world. The 51 days cruise is planned with visits to 50 tourist spots including World Heritage Sights, National Parks, river Ghats, and major cities like Patna in Bihar, Sahib Ganj in Jharkhand, Kolkata in West Bengal, Dhaka in Bangladesh and Guwahati in Assam. The MV Ganga Vilas vessel is 62 meters in length, 12 meters in width. It has three decks, 18 suites on board with a capacity of 36 tourists, with all the amenities to provide a memorable and luxurious experience for the tourists. The ship is equipped with pollution-free mechanisms and noise control technologies. The maiden voyage of MV Ganga Vilas will witness 32 tourists from Switzerland relishing the Varanasi to Dibrugarh journey. The development of this sector would generate employment opportunities in the hinterland. The river tourism circuits will be developed and integrated with the existing tourism circuits for maximum exposure and rapid development of this sector in the country. Source: News on air Parshuram Kund Festival Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Parshuram Kund Festival Also known as The Kumbh of Northeast Parshuram Kund Mela is an annual religious fair which is celebrated near Parshuram Kund, which is based at nearly 3 miles from the north-eastern portion of Tezu, Arunachal Pradesh which is the district headquarters of the district of Lohit in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It is believed that a dip in the holy water of Parshuram Kund washes away all the sins. Parashuram Kund is situated within the Kamlang Reserve Forest area. This place on the Lohit River carries a strong mythological link with the legend of Parshurama, a Hindu sage. According to the legend, sage Parsurama washed away his sin of matricide in the waters of the Lohit river at Bramhakund. Each year thousands of pilgrims from all over the country congregate on Makar Sankranti day, to wash away their sins. A fair (mela) is held during this period. On Paush sankranti, a Parshuram Mela is held near this place on 4th January every year, which is attended by innumerable saints and devotees from across the nation, despite the severe cold. The Kund is surrounded by dense forest of Ruddraksha trees, the fruit of which is considered sacred to Hindu ascetics as well as general believers of the faith. This place on the Lohit River carries a strong mythological link with the Kalika Purana, the Srimad Bhagavat and the Mahabharata Source PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                                        State 1. Chapchar Kut Festival   —           Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad —              Manipur 3. Thang-Ta Dance           —             Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 UGC’s Draft Regulations for Foreign Universities Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the University Grants Commission (UGC) released draft regulations to allow foreign universities to enter India. The draft regulations of the UGC on Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India 2023 pave the way for the entry of foreign universities into the groves of higher education in the country. About UGC: It is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges. Previously, UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of dealing with all the then existing Universities. After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United Kingdom. The UGC was however, formally established in November 1956, by an Act of Parliament as a statutory body of the Government of India. Key highlights of the draft regulations: Eligibility Criteria: The UGC draft regulations-2023 have “top 500 foreign universities” and the ranking will be decided by the UGC “from time to time”. In NEP-2020, only the top-100 QS ranking universities could establish their branch campuses in India to provide quality higher education to Indian students who aspire to gain foreign degrees. The draft regulations-2023 set another criterion for a branch campus to be opened up in India that “the applicant should be a reputed institution in its home jurisdiction”. Fee Structure: The draft regulations-2023 allow foreign higher educational institutions to decide a fee structure that is “transparent and reasonable”. Foreign higher educational institutions now have the freedom to decide “qualifications, salary structure, and other conditions of service for appointing faculty and staff”. Physical Infrastructure: It states that “The Foreign Higher Educational Institutions should arrange for adequate physical infrastructure”. No Equivalence Requirement: All Indian students with foreign degrees are required to get an equivalence certificate from the Association of Indian Universities. The draft regulations-2023 waive off equivalence requirement for the degrees granted by the foreign branch campuses in India. Safeguards for Indian Students: The draft states that the UGC will have the right to inspect the campuses at any time. Campuses will not be outside the purview of anti-ragging and other criminal laws. Repatriation of Profits: The draft regulations-2023 allow for smooth repatriation of profits earned by the foreign branch campuses under the rules and regulations of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) 1999. The draft regulations also require the foreign universities to submit audit reports and annual reports to the UGC “certifying that [their] operations…in India are in compliance with FEMA 1999” and other relevant government policies. Restrictive Instructions: Foreign Higher Educational Institutions shall not offer any such programme of study which jeopardises the national interest of India or the standards of higher education in India. The operation of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions shall not be contrary to the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency, or morality. The UGC shall impose a penalty and/ or suspend/ withdraw its approval at any time if the university’s “activities or academic programmes are against the interest of India”. National Education Policy view about Foreign universities: The National Education Policy [NEP], 2020, has envisioned that top universities in the world will be facilitated to operate in India. A legislative framework facilitating such entry should be brought by the Government. Foreign universities will be given special dispensation regarding regulatory, governance, and content norms on par with other autonomous institutions of India. Challenges associated with Draft Regulations: Vague Criteria for Reputation: It is not clear how the UGC would determine the reputation of such foreign universities that do not appear in any world rankings but are considered “reputed” in their home country. Issue of Accessibility: The draft guidelines gives foreign branch campuses in India an upper hand in deciding different fees for different programmes. As a result, programmes with higher market value would be more expensive and not accessible to many students. Determining Need for Scholarship: Although there is a provision for “full or partial need-based scholarships” to be provided by the FHEI (foreign higher educational institution) from funds such as endowment funds, alumni donations, tuition revenues, and other sources, determining “need” will be a challenging task. Investment on Infrastructure: The provision for physical infrastructure would be problematic for foreign higher education institutions reluctant to go for major infrastructural investment and many would prefer to wait and watch for others to take the initiative. Attracting Top Universities: It will ultimately depend on whether top universities find the Indian market attractive enough to invest in a branch campus in the country. Surely the top 100 universities were not terribly keen to open their campuses in India. Removal of Equivalence Certificate: After waiving off equivalence requirements, it would be difficult to ensure that the degrees offered by the foreign branch campuses would be accepted by the employers in the home countries of the campuses. Restrictions on Faculty Members: The foreign faculty members may find it difficult to balance state policies, sensibilities and laissez-faire intellectual standpoint. In days to come, this is going to be a major issue in the process of knowledge creation and transaction in India. Way Ahead: India is a young nation with an increasing need for higher education and an ever-increasing demand for foreign degrees. As committed in NEP-2020, India should cater to the needs of a large section of Indian society termed “Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Groups-SEDGs” that include women, transgenders, SCs, STs, OBCs, EWS, differently abled, migrants and geographically disadvantaged groups. India should provide physical infrastructure to facilitate its strategy of internationalisation of higher education. The guidelines should not open floodgates for such foreign educational institutions whose sole objective is to only earn profit. Source: Indian Express India and Nepal relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: The electoral verdict in Nepal’s recent elections reflected a clear emergence of voter preference for more responsive governance and upholding the aspirations of the youth and the disadvantaged. It also reconfirmed the successful ‘taking root’ of democracy in the Himalayan country after great struggle, sacrifices and ideological adjustments across the political spectrum. Between the two countries, now is the time for fresh thinking on economic recovery; bilateral cooperation; restructuring supply chains; human as well as conventional security; energy cooperation; people-to-people contacts; and the untapped potential for technology to accelerate inclusive growth, and soft power to maximise mutual advantage.  Bilateral relationship: India and Nepal share unique ties of friendship and cooperation characterized by an open border and deep-rooted people-to-people contacts of kinship and culture. There has been a long tradition of free movement of people across the border. India’s focus towards Nepal has been on non-partisan support for inclusive economic development, interdependence, communication links, people-to-people contacts, and building on the compulsive logic of economic complementarities, especially in hydropower where Nepal has huge but largely unexplored potential. The extent of its linkages of history, geography, culture, religion, and economy with Nepal facilitate management of its security concerns within tolerable limits. Economic: Trade: India is the largest trading partner of Nepal and has a trade surplus with Nepal. Total bilateral trade in 2018-19 reached INR 57,858 cr. Nepal’s main imports from India are petroleum products; motor vehicles and spare parts Investment: Indian firms are among the largest investors in Nepal, accounting for more than 30% of the total approved foreign direct investments. There are about 150 Indian ventures operating in Nepal Agriculture: In 2018, the ‘India-Nepal New Partnership in Agriculture’ was launched with a focus on collaborative projects in agricultural research, development and education. Water resource cooperation: A three-tier bilateral mechanism established in 2008, to discuss issues relating to cooperation in water resources, flood management, inundation and hydropower between the two countries, has been working well. Defence and Security: India has been assisting the Nepal Army (NA) in its modernisation by supplying equipment and providing training. . Several defence personnel from Nepal Army attend training courses in various Indian Army training institutions. The ‘Indo-Nepal Battalion-level Joint Military Exercise SURYA KIRAN’ is conducted alternately in India and in Nepal. India and Nepal have been awarding each other’s Army Chief with the honorary rank of General in recognition of the mutual harmonious relationship between the two armies.  The Gorkha regiments: About 32,000 Gorkha Soldiers from Nepal are serving in the Indian Army. Defence Wing of the Indian Embassy in Kathmandu arranges the disbursement of pensions and organise welfare programmes for re-training, rehabilitating and assisting ex-Gorkha soldiers and their families. Connectivity and Development: India has been assisting Nepal in development of border infrastructure through upgradation of 10 roads in the Terai area; development of cross-border rail links at Jogbani-Biratnagar, Jaynagar-Bardibas; and establishment of Integrated Check Posts at Birgunj, Biratnagar, Bhairahawa, and Nepalgunj. The total economic assistance earmarked under ‘Aid to Nepal’ budget in FY 2019-20 was INR 1200 crore. Further, in 2018 Nepal-Bharat Maitri Pashupati Dharmashala in Kathmandu was inaugrated. Government of India has extended Lines of Credit of USD 1.65 billion for undertaking development of infrastructure, including post-earthquake reconstruction projects. Energy: India and Nepal have a Power Exchange Agreement since 1971 for meeting the power requirements in the border areas of the two countries, taking advantage of each other’s transmission infrastructure. India is currently supplying a total of about 600 MW of power to Nepal The first high-capacity 400 kV Muzaffarpur (India) – Dhalkebar (Nepal) cross-border power transmission line, with GoI LoC funding of US$ 13.2 million for Nepal portion of the line, was completed in 2016. An Agreement on ‘Electric Power Trade, Cross-border Transmission Interconnection and Grid Connectivity’ between India and Nepal was signed on 21 October 2014. Joint Technical Team (JTT) was formed for preparation of a long-term integrated transmission plan covering projects up to 2035. South Asia’s first cross-border petroleum products pipeline, constructed and funded by Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., connecting Motihari in India to Amlekhgunj in Nepal was remotely inaugurated by the two Prime Ministers in 2019. Education and Culture: Around 6,00,000 Indians are living/domiciled in Nepal. GoI provides around 3000 scholarships/seats annually to Nepalese nationals for various courses. The B.P. Koirala India-Nepal Foundation was set up in 1991 to foster educational, cultural, scientific and technical cooperation and to promote mutual understanding and cooperation through sharing of knowledge and professional talents in academic pursuits and technical specialization. The Swami Vivekananda Centre for Indian Culture was set up in Kathmandu in August 2007 to showcase the best of Indian culture. The Nepal-Bharat Library was founded in 1951 in Kathmandu. It is regarded as the first foreign library in Nepal. An Indian Citizens’ Association (ICA) of Nepal was formed on 14 September 1990. ICA is the only association of resident Indian citizens in Nepal and provides a platform for discussion on matters pertaining to the legitimate interest of resident Indians in Nepal and works for the protection of such interests. Challenges: Hung Parliament in the final results of the recent election created is a recipe for instability and frequent changes of government in the coming years. This could easily translate into an inability to deal with the many daunting challenges confronting the country and the continuing unpredictability in the graph of India-Nepal cooperation. China’s interference in Nepal’s polity to promote its own interests and to the detriment of India’s interests such as unsuccessfully attempting to prod the left wing in the political spectrum to reunite. Traditional irritants such as the 1950 India-Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship and the border issue need not be kept festering but should be sorted out in an open and transparent manner. Solutions: Mutual empathy: The will of the political class across party lines, bureaucracies, and civil society on either side of the border to understand what the world looks like from the other side. Diverse but balanced and constructive approaches: will contribute to a clearer understanding of the past, better awareness of present trends, and new roadmaps for substantive upgrading of ties in the years to come. New and innovative approaches: such as Nepalese yearn for a sense of equality and Indian respect for their identity. Way forward: Public opinion in Nepal is now alert to the reality of Chinese intentions, the risks of falling into a debt trap, and the limitations in terms of Chinese capacities in comparison to India’s. Nepal is a transforming country. India is a player on the global stage. The world itself is heading towards major transformations, with new challenges, changing priorities and boundless possibilities. Source The hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Recently in news, ‘Cloud Forest Bond’ has been released by which of the following? International Monetary Fund World Bank Global Environment Facility Earth Security Q.2) With reference to ‘MV Ganga Vilas’, consider the following statements? It is the world’s second longest river cruise. It covers India exclusively. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) The Nalabana bird sanctuary often mentioned in news, is in Andhra Pradesh Bihar Odisha Karnataka Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 9th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th January- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) RBI- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released the Annual Report of the Ombudsman Schemes. Key highlights of the report: The volume of complaints received under the Reserve Bank of India’s ombudsman schemes and consumer education and protection cells stood at 4,18,184 in 2021-22, an increase of 9.39 per cent compared to the previous year. In the fiscal year ended March 31, 2021, close to 3,82,292 complaints were received. According to the annual report, Of the total complaints received in 2021-22, about 42 per cent were related to the digital modes of payment and transactions. About Ombudsman: A government official who deals with complaints made by ordinary people against public organizations. This concept of Ombudsman arrived from Sweden. It means an officer appointed by the Legislature to handle complaints against a service or administrative authority. In India an Ombudsman is appointed to resolve grievances in the following sectors. Insurance Ombudsman Income Tax Ombudsman Banking Ombudsman About Integrated Ombudsman Scheme: The Scheme was framed by the Reserve Bank in exercising the powers conferred on it under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The Scheme integrates the existing three Ombudsman schemes of RBI namely, the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006; the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018; and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019. In addition to integrating the three existing schemes, the Scheme also includes under its ambit Non-Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks with a deposit size of ?50 crore and above. The Scheme adopts the ‘One Nation One Ombudsman’ approach by making the RBI Ombudsman mechanism jurisdiction neutral. According to the central bank, the internal ombudsman shall be either a retired or a serving officer, not below the rank of deputy general manager or equivalent in any financial sector regulatory body, credit information companies, a non-banking financial company (NBFC) or bank. He/she should possess necessary skills and experience of at least seven years in banking, non-banking finance, financial sector regulation or supervision, credit information, or consumer protection. Some of the salient features: A Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre has been set up at RBI, Chandigarh for receipt and initial processing of physical and email complaints in any language. The responsibility of representing the Regulated Entity and furnishing information in respect of complaints filed by customers against the Regulated Entity would be that of the Principal Nodal Officer in the rank of a General Manager in a Public Sector Bank or equivalent. The Regulated Entity will not have the right to appeal in cases where an Award is issued by the ombudsman against it for not furnishing satisfactory and timely information/documents. RBI’s Executive Director-in charge of Consumer Education and Protection Department would be the Appellate Authority under the integrated scheme. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 DNA mitochondrial profiling Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Hair and bone samples of Shradha Walkar were sent for DNA mitochondrial profiling by police. Mitochondrial DNA is the circular chromosome found inside the cellular organelles called mitochondria. Located in the cytoplasm, mitochondria are the site of the cell’s energy production and other metabolic functions. Offspring inherit mitochondria — and as a result mitochondrial DNA — from their mother. About DNA mitochondrial profiling: It examines biological evidence when nuclear DNA is present in very low quantities or when bones and hair are degraded. It determines the mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) sequence from samples such as hair, bones, and teeth. It can be done where DNA extraction is difficult. Mitochondria is extracted from the cell and genome sequence is then matched with the family. Maternal inheritance of mitochondria allows scientists to compare it with maternally related individuals of a missing person. Unique identifications are not possible using this analysis. Source: Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: assess the age of a plant or animal. distinguish among species that look alike. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes. Q.3) Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred Across different species of plants. From animals to plants. From microorganisms to higher organisms. Select the correct Solution using the codes given below. (2013) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gaan Ngai festival Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Gaan Ngai festival was celebrated in the state of Manipur. About Gaan Ngai festival: Gann Ngai is a regional public holiday in the Northeastern Indian state of Manipur on the 13th day of the month of Wakching in the Manipuri calendar. It falls in either December or January in the western calendar. It is also known as Chakaan Gaan Ngai and is the biggest festival of Zeliangrong community. Gann Ngai takes place after the end of the harvest season. Gaan-Ngai literally means the festival of winter season. Gaan or Ganh means winter or dry season and Ngai means festival. The Zeliangrong people, comprising the Zemei, Liangmei and the Rongmei tribes, are one of the major indigenous communities living in Manipur. They also have sizable populations in the neighbouring states of Assam and Nagaland. The most significant part of the festival is the worshipping of “Tingkao Ragwang”, which is the Supreme God. This is a festival during which those who died in the previous year are given a ritual farewell or departure; their graves are beautified; dances are performed and a feast is held in honour of the dead, which is why this festival is sometimes known as the festival of the dead and the living. At the beginning of this festival the head of the village creates a ‘new fire’ by rubbing bamboo cord with bamboo gauze placed under a piece of dry wood. This traditional method of making fire is called “Mhai Lapmei”, meaning extraction of the sacred fire. Source: NewsOnAir Gangasagar Mela Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, West Bengal Chief Minister urged Central government to declare Gangasagar Mela as a ‘national mela’ (national festival). About Gangasagar Mela: Gangasagar is largest and oldest living tradition or festival in West Bengal. It is celebrated during Makar Sankranti for a week since as early as 400 BCE on the island of Gangasagar in West Bengal’s 24 South Parganas District. Gangasagar or Sagar Island is in the Ganges delta, lying on the continental shelf of Bay of Bengal about 100 kms south of Kolkata. It is mentioned in both Ramayana and Mahabharata. Pilgrimage started when First Kapil Muni’s temple was constructed by Queen Satyabhama in 430 AD. Devotees take a sacred dip at the confluence of the Ganga and the Bay of Bengal known as Gangasagar which is an island. It is India’s second largest pilgrimage gathering after the Kumbh Mela. Source:  Hindustan Times Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Tradition                                                        State Chapchar Kut festival                      Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad                  Manipur Thang-Ta dance                                Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (2018) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Traditions                         Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival            Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra             Gonds Wari-Warkari                          Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2017) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above India’s kala-azar cases declined 98.7% since 2007 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Diseases In News: Around 99.8% endemic blocks in India have achieved elimination status Kala-azar cases in India fell to 834 in 2022 from 44,533 in 2007 — a 98.7 per cent decline. As many as 632 endemic blocks (99.8 per cent) spread across Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and West Bengal have received elimination status (less than one case per 10,000). Only one block (Littipara) of Pakur district, Jharkhand is in the endemic category (1.23 cases / 10,000 population) Globally: Visceral leishmaniasis or kala-azar is the most serious form of the disease and as of November 2022, about 89 per cent of the global cases were reported from eight countries: Brazil, Eritrea, Ethiopia, India, Kenya, Somalia, South Sudan and Sudan India contributes 11.5 per cent of total cases reported globally. The disease mainly affects poor people in Africa, Asia and Latin America, and is associated with malnutrition and poor housing, population displacement, weak immune system and lack of resources Kala-Azar After malaria, kala-azar is the deadliest parasitic disease in the world. It is one of the three conditions in the disease group called leishmaniasis caused by the protozoa parasite Leishmania. The parasite is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, a tiny 2-3 mm long insect vector. This type of leishmaniasis affects the internal organs, usually the spleen, liver and bone marrow. Some people have no symptoms. For others, symptoms may include fever, weight loss and swelling of the spleen or liver. Medication exists to kill the parasites. If left untreated, severe cases are typically fatal. Up to 20% of the patients who are correctly treated and cured, develop a skin condition called Post-Kala-Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) which surfaces within months to years after treatment. These patients can contain large amounts of parasites in their skin lesions, making them an important source of transmission. Steps being taken by India to Eliminate this Disease Development of a plan for the “unreached poorest” or underprivileged sections in endemic areas. Leveraging of Kala-azar elimination programme within POSHAN Abhiyaan for maximum benefit at community level. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under the flagship program of the Prime Minister Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), along with rural electrification, testing, treatment and periodic high-level review, incentivising through award distribution. Exploration of the opportunity of providing improved housing under State Schemes. Involvement of Rural Health Practitioners (RHPs) Co-ordination with the rural development department and engage with Panchayati Raj functionaries for awareness, community engagement, environment management and social empowerment. Supporting the states in active case detection, surveillance, treatment as well as supply of diagnostic kits, medicines, sprays. Source: Down to Earth Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Conservation In News: A recent article says the endangered Asian Elephant has lost most of its “optimal” habitat: flat terrain that is easily navigable. Conserving elephants in the southernmost western ghats The Western Ghats is an escarpment running north–south along the western coastline of India, interrupted towards the south by the low-lying Palghat Gap that separates the northern from the southern elephant populations. The northern part of the WG includes the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve [NBR] and its surrounding PAs [protected areas], which contain the largest remaining population of wild elephants, ca. 6000 animals. Nilgiris Elephant Corridor: The corridor is situated in the ecologically fragile Sigur plateau, which connects the Western and the Eastern Ghats and sustains elephant populations and their genetic diversity. It is situated near the Mudumalai National Park in the Nilgiris district. Challenges for the Elephants Human Encroachment: Human settlements and crop cultivation have hindered the movement of the elephants, keeping them confined to the hilly areas, considered sub-optimal habitats. Narrow Passage Width + Interception: In these sub-optimal habitats, their chances of survival are lower due to dangerous terrain for animals of this size. Study shows that when barriers are erected, particularly in areas with slopes, their movement is blocked and gene flow reduced. This could ultimately lead to increasing the extinction risk of this endangered species. Presence of highways and Railway lines What happens when the movement is restricted and gene flow reduced? There is more in-breeding Low genetic diversity Pushing up chances of disease Lowering fertility rates A 2021 paper published in the scientific journal  Global Ecology & Conservation found moderate levels of genetic differentiation between the northern and southern populations, indicating limited gene flow between the two regions. A blueprint for conservation Students in the Nilgiris are being sensitised on the need to protect elephants. Ironically, most elephant reserves in India are found in mountainous habitats. Enclosing protected areas without ensuring connectivity through maintaining corridors for elephants to pass through severs gene flow between populations. Project Elephant: It is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in February 1992 for the protection of elephants, their habitats and corridors. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through the project. About Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve The first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986 States: Located in the Western Ghats Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka Exemplifies the tropical forest biome which portrays the confluence of Afro-tropical and Indo-Malayan biotic zones of the world. One of the noted Biodiversity Hotspots (regions having highest density of endemic species) for speciation in the tropics. Vegetation: Evergreen, semi evergreen, moist deciduous montane sholas and grassland types of vegetation Fauna: Nilgiri tahr, Nilgiri langur, slender loris, blackbuck, tiger, gaur, Indian elephant and marten, Freshwater fishes such as Nilgiri danio (Devario neilgherriensis), Nilgiri barb (Hypselobarbus dubuis) and Bowany barb (Puntius bovanicus) are endemic to this Biosphere Reserve. Tribal population: Todas, , Kurumbas, Paniyas, Adiyans, Edanadan Chettis, Cholanaickens, Allar, Malayan, Kotas, Irullas, etc. Source: The Hindu Mission Olympic Cell Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Sports About: A dedicated body created to assist the athletes who are selected under the Target Olympic Podium (TOP) scheme. The MOC is under the chairmanship of the Director General, Sports Authority (DG, SAI). The committee meetings are attended by representatives of the respective national sports federations (NSFs) and project officers of the SAI besides other members. The idea of the MOC is to debate, discuss and decide the processes and methods so that the athletes receive the best assistance. The MOC also focuses on selection, exclusion and retention of athletes, coaches and training institutes that can receive TOPS assistance. The selected athletes can seek assistance under the scheme for the following: Customized training under reputed coaches at institutes having world-class facilities. Participation in international competition. Purchase of equipment. Services of personnel like physical trainer, sports psychologist, mental trainer and physiotherapist. Any other support specific to the sport discipline. Out-of-pocket allowance of INR 50,000 a month to the athletes as an incentive Target Olympic Podium Scheme Formulated in July 2014 under the overall ambit of National Sports Development Fund (NSDF) with the aim to identify, groom and prepare potential medal prospects for the olympic and paralympic games. It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The idea of the scheme is to also keep an eye on the future and fund a developmental group of athletes who are medal prospects for the Olympic games in Paris in 2024 and Los Angeles in 2028. Source: PIB National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Science & Tech About: An autonomous society under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India Formed on April 4, 1978 Headquarters: Kolkata The NCSM initiated process to set up National level science museums/centres, Regional Science Centres and District Science Centres located in metropolis, state capitals and district headquarters respectively. Central Research & Training Laboratory (CRTL), in Kolkata is the Council’s central hub for professional training, research and development. In addition, NCSM develops Science Centres/museums for different States and Union Territories of India. Collaborated internationally for development of Museum/Science Centres or for galleries such as Rajiv Gandhi Science Centre, Mauritius, ‘India’ gallery on Buddhism at ‘International Buddhist Museum’, Sri Lanka etc. NCSM strives to communicate Science and educate masses by its Mobile Science Exhibitions, Lectures and Demonstrations, Training and Workshops, Publications etc. NCSM has also sent exhibition to countries like Trinidad and Tobago, Guyana, Russia, USA, Bhutan, China, Bangladesh, Bulgaria, France and the journey continues. News Source: PIB Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Art & Culture About: Established in the memory of Jawaharlal Nehru (1889-1964) An autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India Located in the majestic Teen Murti House, the official residence of the first Prime Minister of India. It has four major constituents, namely: Memorial Museum A library on modern India A Centre for Contemporary Studies The Nehru Planetarium. The NMML houses a specialized library which has been designed and developed as a specific research and reference centre on colonial and post-colonial India with its very rich and varied collection of books, journals, photographs and other resource materials on microfilm and microfiche. The NMML has a rich manuscript section. It also acquires and preserves private papers of distinguished individuals and records of political and other non-official organizations, associations and societies that played a significant role in the development of modern India. These archival materials which form the primary source of information for research are made available to scholars. News Source: PIB Geospatial Mapping of the Cooperatives Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently, a national database on cooperatives has been initiated by the Ministry of Cooperation for single-point access to information on cooperatives of different sectors and to develop a process for better understanding of cooperatives. Key Highlights: In the first phase of development of the National Cooperative Database, data collection of cooperatives of three sectors – primary agricultural credit societies, dairy and fisheries – is being taken up. Maharashtra has the highest number of cooperative societies, followed by Uttar Pradesh. About Geospatial data Infrastructure: A Spatial Data Infrastructure, also called geospatial data infrastructure, is a data infrastructure implementing a framework of geographic data, metadata, users and tools that are interactively connected in order to use spatial data in an efficient and flexible way. About Cooperative society: Cooperatives are organizations formed at the grassroots level by people to harness the power of collective bargaining in the marketplace. This can mean different kinds of arrangements, such as using a common resource or sharing capital, to derive a common gain that would otherwise be difficult for an individual producer to get. Amul is perhaps the best-known cooperative society in India. On July 6, 2021, the government carved out a separate Cooperation Ministry. Constitutional Provision: Cooperatives are a state subject in seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution. However, there are many societies whose members and areas of operation are spread across more than one state. g. most sugar mills along the districts on the Karnataka-Maharashtra border procure cane from both states. Through the 97th constitutional amendment, Part IXB (The Co-Operative Societies) was inserted into the Constitution. The right to form cooperative societies was included as Right to Freedom under article 19 (1) under part III of the Indian Constitution. Article 43-B (Promotion of Cooperation societies) was inserted as one of the Directive principles of state policy. Report of the Geospatial Infrastructure in India: National Geospatial Policy 2022 provides the framework to develop geospatial infrastructure, skills and knowledge, standards and businesses. By 2030, the government will look to establish an Integrated Data and Information Framework, under which a Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure will be developed. A high-resolution topographical survey and mapping as well as a high-accuracy Digital Elevation Model for the entire country will be developed by 2035. The national database for cooperatives needs to have geospatial database creation with geo-referencing of cooperative societies to make a decision-support model. Significance of Geospatial Mapping of Cooperative Societies: Understanding of the Heterogeneity and Diversity: The cooperative movement is all set for acceleration of membership. The plan of acceleration requires an understanding of the heterogeneity and diversity in spatial distribution. Analyzing the Polarisation of Cooperatives: The distribution of cooperative societies reflects polarization of societies in a few States in the west and south while the number of cooperative societies in the east and northern parts is low. Geospatial mapping of these cooperatives will help to analyze the reason for such polarization. District-wise mapping of cooperatives: District-wise mapping of cooperatives along with database collection is essential to provide a more precise picture of cooperatives at the State and national levels. The advanced geospatial tools and technologies will help in predicting, analyzing, modelling, and visualizing spatially explicit information. Understanding the Contrasting Diversities: Some contrasts are seen like nil dairy cooperatives in the North-East States of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya, while Sikkim is better positioned. Fisheries cooperatives are also formed around inland water resources in contrast to coastal lines in the western and eastern parts of the country. It is essential to map these contrasting diversities and analyze the reasons, which could be the resource base of the State. It is essential to undertake research on the major parameters that contribute to the development of such societies and their distribution in specific regions. Way Forward: Thematic GIS mapping along with research and analysis of the distribution of cooperative societies is to be committed towards addressing the developmental issues at the grassroots level. The proposed database shall facilitate all stakeholders in policy-making and implementation to strengthen the cooperative movement in the country. The geospatial mapping of the cooperative ecosystem will generate ease of doing business outcomes and the potential to be utilized to conduct in-depth mapping and analysis which will be of immense help to planners, managers and administrators in quickly storing, retrieving and updating the required information for the management of cooperatives. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Draft New Industrial Policy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the draft – Statement on Industrial Policy 2022 Make in India for the world – has been circulated to different ministries for their views and comments. Key highlights of the Draft New Industrial Policy: Prepared By the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry Setting up of a development finance institution to provide finance at competitive rates Considering using some part of foreign exchange reserves for such funding. Aims in addressing issues and challenges of industry through certain policy measures to foster and create an innovative and competitive industrial ecosystem in the country. Objectives of the Draft New Industrial Policy: Focus on competitiveness and capability; Economic integration and moving up the global value chain; Promoting India as an attractive investment destination; Nurturing innovation and entrepreneurship; and Achieving global scale, and standards. Made in India brand: The scheme could serve as a platform for manufacturers to demonstrate local value addition which can enhance the country’s credibility as a source of quality products. It is making finance accessible to industry and for marketing the Made in India brand. Evolution of  Industrial Policy in India: The quest for industrial development started soon after independence in 1947. This will be the third industrial policy after the first in 1956 and the second in 1991. It is likely to replace the industrial policy of 1991 which was prepared against the backdrop of the balance of payment crisis. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 defined the broad contours of the policy delineating the role of the State in industrial development both as an entrepreneur and authority. This was followed by comprehensive enactment of Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951 (referred as IDR Act) that provides for the necessary framework for implementing the Industrial Policy and enables the Union Government to direct investment into desired channels of industrial activity inter alia through the mechanism of licensing keeping with national development objectives and goals. Economic reforms initiated since 1991 envisages a significantly bigger role for private initiatives. Issues associated: The potential role of industrial policy has been consistently downplayed in developing countries outside of East Asia ever since the early 1980s after the growing dominance of the orthodox paradigm with well-known consequences in much of India, Latin America and also sub-Saharan Africa. Industrial policies are more focused on large firms and many of the industries currently chosen to be under PLI (production linked incentives) are highly capital- and skill-intensive. Even in Japan and South Korea, where industrial policy has been otherwise successful, it has often mainly helped large firms. In a world of geo-political conflicts and supply chain disruptions, national security is often considered a major goal. Hence sometimes resources are less allotted to the industrial sector . Indian politicians and bureaucracy are more comfortable with “top-down” over-centralised policies. The government had failed to instil confidence even as its policies till now had crippled the construction, manufacturing, real estate, pharma and other major contributors to the economy. Lakhs of workers have lost job opportunities because of the retrogressive policies. The role of industrial policy is not only to prevent coordination failures but also to avoid competing investments in a capital-scarce environment. Excess capacity leads to price wars, adversely affecting profits of firms — either leading to bankruptcy of firms or slowing down investment, both happening often in India (witness the aviation sector) Imperfect information with respect to firm-level investments in learning and training; and lack of information and coordination between technologically interdependent investments. Industry’s inadequate expenditure on research and development (R&D) and micro, the small and medium enterprises sector facing tough competition from cheap imports from China and other countries Lack of human capital has been a major constraint upon India historically being able to attract foreign investment (which Southeast Asian economies succeeded in attracting). Suggestive measures: The implementation of an integrated investment promotion strategy by involving district, state, national and international market synergies is needed. Leveraging fintech and encouraging MSMEs to choose the corporate bond market. Accepting intellectual property rights as collaterals for loans. Rolling out social security schemes for women workers, and inclusion of labour-intensive industries under the production-linked incentive scheme. Enabling supply chain financing. Encouraging microfinance institutions to form cooperative groups and finance micro-enterprises at affordable rates. Providing performance-based loans and incentives for innovation and green growth. Incentivising public procurement to promote Make in India, creating a national digital grid, developing a robust data protection regime, setting up of a technology fund, and creating a task force to continuously identify skill gaps. On nurturing innovation, the creation of innovation zones at the level of urban local bodies and the formulation of a national capacity development program should be done. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Nilgiri Bioshpere reserve: It spreads across four states only It is the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986 It spreads across both western ghats and eastern ghats Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Mission Olympic Cell: The MOC is under the chairmanship of the Director General, Sports Authority. It is a dedicated body created to assist the athletes who are selected under the Target Olympic Podium (TOP) scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) The National Council of Science Museums works under the aegis of Ministry of Culture Ministry of Earth Science Ministry of Science and Technology None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th January- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Demonetisation Verdict

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. GS-3: Money Laundering GS-2: Governance Context: Recently, Supreme Court in the majority opinion (4-1) upheld the government’s demonetisation order of November 8, 2016. However, Justice B V Nagarathna disagreed with the reasoning and conclusions in the majority opinion. What is Demonetisation? Demonetisation is referred to as the process of stripping a currency unit of its status to be used as a legal tender. In simple words, demonetisation is the process by which the demonetised notes cease to be accepted as legal currency for any kind of transaction. After demonetisation is done, the old currency is replaced by a new currency, which may be of the same denomination or may be of a higher denomination. Demonetisation in India has taken place three times till now, namely in the years of 1946, 1978 and 2016 The first demonetisation event happened in 1946, at that time the denominations of Rs.1000 and Rs.10000 were removed from circulation. There was a visibly low impact of the demonetisation as the higher denomination currencies were not available to the common people. In 1954, these notes were again introduced with an additional denomination of 5000. The second demonetisation in India took place in 1978, at that time the Prime Minister was Morarji Desai. During the second demonetisation the denominations of 1000, 5000 and 10000 were taken out of circulation. The whole purpose of demonetisation was to reduce the circulation of black money in the country. The announcement was made by Morarji Desai over the radio. The latest demonetisation was announced on 8th of November, 2016 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. During this demonetisation the notes that were taken out of circulation were the denominations of 500 and 1000. PM Modi also introduced new currency of denominations 500 and 2000 after demonetisation. What were the objectives of 2016 demonetisation? The objectives of demonetisation are as follows: To stop the circulation of black money in the market. To help in creation of cashless economy To formalise the informal Indian Economy. To remove counterfeit/fake notes from the market. To help reduce anti-social activities who use black money and money laundering techniques. To help in reducing the interest rates of the prevalent banking system What was the popular narrative with Demonetisation? Narratives are often intertwined in the cultural belief systems of the society. They create myths which endure despite rational appeal to facts. The Weimar hyperinflation of 1921-24 is so deeply embedded in the German consciousness, that even now, nearly 100 years after the event, German society treasures financial stability and distrusts public debt. Fiscal conservatism remains the dominant narrative and has inhibited the post-2008 recovery in Europe. The demonetisation of high-value currency in India in 2016 is a classic case of policy based on faulty narratives. The demonetisation story in India is based on popular myth that ill-gotten wealth is stored in stacks of currency notes and gold, hoarded in safes, boxes, or concealed cupboards. The dramatic action of demonetisation was considered powerful blow against this wealth because it was believed that this money was now rendered useless. Such an action on black money was deeply satisfying psychologically as the narrative of black money is almost always in deeply moral terms. The narrative ignores the fact black money is not really kept in cash except in small quantities but mostly accumulated through real estate and other assets. Although income from corruption or criminal activities is by definition black money, most black money is earned through perfectly legal activities though not declared to the tax authorities. Also, the narrative included that such a measure will solve terrorism by stopping terror financing (old notes no more valid & terrorists cannot exchange it) The way the narrative was framed made it hard for critics to explain their opposition. To denounce it outright would suggest that they have a vested interest in defending black money and corruption. The narrative started to change the focus from black money and fake currency to digital/cashless payments, as time passes and it was realised that it was a failure. Appeals to nationalism and patriotism was also invoked to sustain the narrative. The act (of demonetisation) was considered as an act of collective sacrifice. The people in long queues were reminded of the sacrifices of the soldiers guarding the nation’s borders and not to think of their own suffering. The moral high ground claimed by the demonetisation narrative overshadowed the economic criticism of the policy and the observed reality. Paradoxically, the failure of demonetisation policy does not appear to alter the narrative and, consequently, there is very little price to pay for its failure Why is demonetisation considered as failure? Demonetisation was done on two previous occasions, in 1946 and 1978, with poor results. But, unlike the limited impact of the previous events, the demonetisation in 2016 caused widespread disruption in the economy. Very little of 2016 demonetisation’s declared objectives — of eliminating black money, corruption, moving towards a “less cash and more digital economy”, or increased tax compliance — were achieved.  Expectations of windfall gains of some ₹2 trillion-3 trillion failed to materialise as more than 3% of the cancelled notes returned to the banks. According to RBI report, after verification and reconciliation, the total value of the ₹ 500 and ₹,1000 as on November 8, 2016,  the day before note ban came into effect, was R₹15,417.93 lakh crore. The total value of the such notes returned from circulation was ₹15,310.73 lakh crore by August 2018. If black money had existed as stockpiles of illegal cash, clearly all of it was very efficiently laundered. By every measure, demonetisation as economic policy was a gross failure. But, as a narrative, it succeeded in creating a favourable or positive view of the policy. Despite personal hardship, long queues, and the loss of income and savings, there was a degree of ambiguity in criticising the decision. Most tended to distinguish the intention from the reality. That the policy was good but perhaps not implemented well seemed to be the main theme. What were the legal questions regarding Demonetisation that was resolved by Supreme Court? Extent of Powers of Central Government Whether the power available to the Central Government under sub-section (2) of Section 26 of the RBI Act can be restricted to mean that it can be exercised only for “one” or “some” series of bank notes and not “all” series. The petitioner argued that RBI has power only to recommend “a particular series” of notes, but to demonetise “all series” of a particular denomination, it was considered necessary to do so by way of a separate enactment of Parliament. The majority view disagreed with the petitioner’s argument, and held that the term has to be given a purposive interpretation and that any other meaning would lead to absurdity. The majority view contended that the Central Government has the power to demonetise “all” series of bank notes of “all” denominations Dissenting judgement: Such an extensive power to demonetise cannot be exercised by issuance of a simple gazette notification but through a plenary legislation. Decision making process There was question raised as to whether the impugned Notification dated 8th November 2016 is liable to be struck down on the ground that the decision making process is flawed in law? Majority view: The majority view relied on the government’s argument that merely because the process was initiated by the Centre, it could not be struck down. The ruling notes that the minutes of the RBI Central Board meeting that recommended demonetisation on November 8, 2016 itself stated that the RBI and the Centre had discussed the idea for over six months before it was notified. Dissenting view: Justice Nagarathna held that it is in violation of Section 26(2) RBI Act that the recommendation for demonetisation originated from the Centre and not the RBI’s Central Board. The dissenting view also states that if the Centre indeed initiated the proposal, then it ought to have brought in legislation in Parliament. If urgency and haste were needed, the dissent asks why an Ordinance could not have been brought which could have been subsequently ratified by Parliament. Test of Proportionality Majority view: The majority decision applies a four-pronged test of proportionality to the constitutionality of the decision. The four ingredients of the test to be satisfied are: i) legitimate purpose (ii) rational connection with the purpose (iii) necessity (iv) whether the action taken is proportional or balanced. The majority verdict states that curbing fake currency, black money and terror funding are legitimate interests of the state and have a rational nexus with demonetisation. For the third aspect, the court has to determine if the decision was necessary, and that there were no alternative measures that could have achieved a similar purpose with a lesser degree of harm for citizens. Here, the court said that it is “exclusively within the domain of the experts”, that is the RBI, to answer this question. On the fourth aspect, the court said “what alternate measure could have been undertaken with a lesser degree of limitation is very difficult to define”. Dissenting view: Justice Nagarathna said that since she had already held the demonetisation decision unlawful, this question need not be answered. Reasonable Period for exchange of notes Majority view: The court cited an earlier instance of demonetisation in 1978 where a three-day period was provided for exchanging the demonetised notes. This was upheld by a Constitution Bench of the court. Relying on this decision, the majority view said that the period of 52 days provided for exchange was reasonable. Dissenting view: Since the dissent had already held the demonetisation decision unlawful, it did not answer this question. Main Practice Question: What is demonetisation and why it is done? Do you think the 2016 Demonetisation exercise has served its purpose? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Free Foodgrain Scheme

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Public Distribution System- objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping 
 GS-3: Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Context: Centre decided to provide 5 kg of free foodgrains per month for the 81 crore beneficiaries of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) during 2023, rather than charging them a subsidised amount of ₹3 a kg of rice, ₹2 a kg of wheat and ₹1 a kg of coarse cereal as is currently done. This will soften the blow of the termination of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). What was Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY)? It was introduced by the Narendra Modi government during the first nationwide lockdown due to  Covid-19 in March 2020. Under this scheme, the center provides 5kg of free food grains per month to the poor. This is in addition to the subsidized ration provided under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) to families covered under the Public Distribution System (PDS). The scheme which can be availed through the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) plan was first introduced from April to June 2020 during the stringent lockdown in India and has been extended six times ever since Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance. The overall expenditure of PMGKAY will be about Rs. 3.91 lakh crore for all the phases. It was initially announced for a three-month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till September 2022. What is National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013? It was 10 September, 2013. Objective: To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity. Coverage: 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). Overall, NFSA caters to 67% of the total population. Eligibility: Priority Households to be covered under TPDS, according to guidelines by the State government. Households covered under existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana. Provisions: 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains. The existing AAY household will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month. Meal and maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000 to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth. Meals for children upto 14 years of age. Food security allowance to beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals. What is the fiscal impact of government’s latest decision of providing free foodgrains under NFSA? In a normal year, without COVID disruptions, the Centre’s food subsidy bill on account of the NFSA amounted to around ₹2 lakh crore. The PMGKAY effectively doubled that sum for the past two years. Now that the Centre plans to give free foodgrains under the NFSA for a year, it will spend an additional ₹15,000 crore to ₹16,000 crore on that. However, the Centre will save around ₹2 lakh crore by ending the PMGKAY scheme. Overall, the move will relieve a major burden on the Union Budget. What is the impact of latest decision on foodgrain stocks? The move will be even more of a relief for stressed foodgrain stocks. The annual foodgrain requirement for the NFSA is about 520 lakh tonnes, while the PMGKAY required an additional 480 lakh tonnes. The difference comes from the fact that the poorest families coming under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana category received 35 kg a family every month under the NFSA, but received 5 kg per person under the PMGKAY. At the time when the PMGKAY was launched, foodgrain production, government procurement and government stocks were regularly breaching record levels. In 2022, however, the situation is different. Rice and wheat harvests have both been lower this year, hit by climatic events and fertilizer shortages in some areas. The global stress due to the Russia-Ukraine war has also led to a situation of high foodgrain inflation. Continuing the PMGKAY would have been unsustainable without further increasing procurement levels. India’s wheat stocks in particular, have dipped dangerously close to the required buffer stock levels, with the Centre resorting to a ban on exports to ensure food security for the domestic market. It is estimated that the Central pool may have just 159 lakh tonnes of wheat on January 1, 2023, barely above the buffer norm of 138 lakh tonnes. At the end of the day, continuing PMGKAY was more a problem of grain, not cash. What is the impact of latest decision on beneficiaries? Ration card holders who have received 10 kg of grains a person every month for the past two years will see their entitlement abruptly halved. Of course, their expenditure on their NFSA entitlement will also come down — for instance, someone spending ₹8 for four kg of wheat and ₹3 for a kg of rice under NFSA will now get those grains free, saving ₹11 a month. However, that is dwarfed by the additional ₹150-₹175 they will need to spend to buy the 5 kg previously provided free under the PMGKAY in the open market (estimating market prices for rice and wheat at around ₹30-₹35 per kg). The Right to Food Campaign estimates that poor families will be forced to spend ₹750-₹900 a month to access the current level of ration entitlement. The increased expenditure will be even more stark for those in States which anyway provide free NFSA rations, since beneficiaries in those States will not even receive any savings due to the Centre’s announcement. What are the political implications of the free foodgrain decision? This is definitely a political move. A purely economic decision here would have been to end the PMGKAY, which was always meant to be a temporary measure, and return to a normal pre-COVID situation. But this free foodgrain announcement is damage control, to combat any adverse fallout from ending PMGKAY. However, it is unclear what will happen at the end of 2023, when the free foodgrain measure is set to end. Of course, this will have to be continued beyond one year. This is because the government can ill afford to roll back free foodgrains in 2024, in the run-up to general election. The more subtle political fallout will be in the States, especially those such as Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal and Jharkhand, which all provide free foodgrains anyway, using their own money to further subsidise the Central allocation. A handful of others such as Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Telangana also provide further subsidies, though their ration is not completely free. This will give them a financial surplus, but it takes away an important political plank for States. The Centre will now take full credit for something they had been providing previously. It is also unclear whether States or Centre will now bear the cost of transportation of foodgrains. A senior food official in Tamil Nadu estimated that the State is set to save more than ₹1,300 crore through the Centre’s announcement. Tamil Nadu already provides universal food security. The focus now needs to be on nutrition security. If the States do not already do so, it is suggested that they spend their new savings on providing subsidised or free pulses, spices or edible oil through the public distribution system in addition to foodgrains. Main Practice Question: With income levels increased since liberation period, do you think that government should continue to provide highly subsidised food grains through its public distribution? Discuss. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Black Carbon and black carbon aerosols Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A recent study conducted on Tibetan plateau showed that increase in South Asian black Carbon aerosols is increasing loss of glaciers from Tibetan Plateau. Key highlights of the study: Black carbon deposition in snow reduces the albedo of surfaces which accelerate melting of glaciers and snow cover and changes hydrological process and water resources in the region. Albedo is ability to reflect back Sun’s radiations. Black carbon aerosols in South Asia heat up the middle and upper atmosphere and increases North South temperature gradient. This increases convective activity in South Asia which causes convergence of water vapour in South Asia. Black carbon also increases the number of cloud condensation nuclei in the atmosphere. About Black Carbon: Black carbon is the sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants, and other sources that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter or PM, which is an air pollutant. Impact of black carbon: Climate impacts: It has a warming impact that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2 on climate. It converts incoming solar radiation to heat. It influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns. Health impacts- With size of 2.5 micrometres (PM2.5) or smaller, it can penetrate into lungs and facilitate transport of toxic compounds into the bloodstream. 5 can cause premature death and cause heart and lung disease, strokes, heart attacks, chronic respiratory disease like bronchitis, asthma and pneumonia. Impacts on ecosystem and vegetation- if deposited on plant leaves it will decrease its capability of photosynthesis and thus reduce food production. It can reduce sunlight that reaches the earth and modify rainfall patterns. About Black Carbon aerosols: It is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It has strong absorption of solar radiation like- visible and infrared radiation. It is also called soot and is part of particulate matter above PM2.5. Thus, it contributes to pollution and Global warming. It can increase the temperature of atmosphere and darken surfaces, specifically snow and ice. It has short lifetime in atmosphere and gets removed in 1-2 weeks, so its impacts tend to be more regional rather than global. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Green Urban Oases Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) launched report on Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands. Key findings of the report: 35% of the world’s largest cities are built in the world’s drylands. It includes Cairo, Mexico City and New Delhi. They are home to 2 billion people, 90% of them in developing countries. Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands, these sprawling and crowded dryland cities face a high risk of social, environmental and economic crisis as they grow. They are becoming hotter and more polluted and face mounting pressure on their scarce natural resources. Weak infrastructure, making them among the most vulnerable places in the world to external shocks from the extreme weather events that climate change brings. More than half of the global population lives in cities and 95% of urban growth between now and 2050 is expected to take place in the global South. Thus, preserving and planting trees has been shown beneficial effect on the lives and health of the people. About Green Urban Oases Programme: It was Launched in 2021 by FAO. It contributes to the FAO Green Cities initiative, which was launched in 2020. It aims to improve the resilience of dryland cities by tackling climate, health, food and economic challenges. To transform dryland cities into ‘green urban oases’ by strengthening their overall resilience to climatic, health, food and economic crises for the improved health and well-being of urban communities. It focuses on developing policy, technical capacity and outlines several pathways for transforming urban spaces by planting trees. Key Recommendation from report: Community Level: Boosting participation and a sense of ownership, providing incentives to encourage tree planting and building capacity through environmental education, awareness raising campaigns towards public engagement. Government Level: Implementing robust policies for protection of urban greenery. Several initiatives including the Great Green Wall in Africa and the Three-North Shelter Forest Programme in China have been put in place to support the implementation of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies in dryland rural areas. Source:  FAO Previous Year Question Q.1) The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces Development of gardens genetically modified flora using Creation of mini forests in urban areas Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Article 19 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: By ruling that a citizen can seek enforcement of the fundamental rights to freedom of speech not just against the state, the Supreme Court has, effectively, extended the ground for seeking these rights against other citizens. About Article 19: Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental freedoms to every citizen of India, namely: Freedom of speech and expression; Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms; Freedom to form associations, unions or co-operative societies; Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, and Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. Importance of Article 19 This freedom is essential because the censorial power lies in the people over and against the Government and not in the Government over and against the people. The freedom of speech and expression is required to fulfil the following objectives : To discover truth Non self-fulfilment Democratic value To ensure pluralism Reasonable Restrictions under Article 19: The State can impose restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression in the interests of Sovereignty And Integrity Of India, The Security Of The State, Friendly Relations With Foreign States, Public Order, Decency Or Morality, Or In Relation To Contempt Of Court, Defamation, Or Incitement To An Offence. Key details of the Supreme Court ruling: The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2). Article 19 which guarantees freedom of speech and expression is a right invoked against the state. The court, extending free speech against private citizens, opens up a range of possibilities in Constitutional law. This interpretation could also bring an obligation on the state to ensure private entities also abide by Constitutional norms. K S Puttaswamy case: The Court relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy where a nine-judge bench unanimously upheld privacy as a fundamental right. One of the key arguments by the government was that privacy is a right enforceable against other citizens and, therefore, cannot be elevated to the status of a fundamental right against the state. Under Indian Constitution, all the Fundamental Rights are available against the State but only 4 fundamental Rights are available against both State and individuals. Article 15(2) – no citizen shall be subjected to any form of discrimination based on caste, religion, place of birth, or caste. Article 17 – abolition of Untouchability. Article 23 – Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour. Article 24 – Prohibits employment of children in factories and hazardous place. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021) Legal right available to citizens only Legal right available to any person Fundamental Right available to citizens only Neither fundamental Right nor legal right Q.2) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 National Skill Development Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Minister chaired the  3rd meeting of the steering committee of National Skill Development Mission. About National Skill Development Mission: The National Skill Development Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 01.07.2015, and officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 15.07.2015 on the occasion of World Youth Skills Day. The Mission has been developed to create convergence across sectors and States in terms of skill training activities. Further, to achieve the vision of ‘Skilled India’, the National Skill Development Mission would not only consolidate and coordinate skilling efforts, but also expedite decision making across sectors to achieve skilling at scale with speed and standards. It will be implemented through a streamlined institutional mechanism driven by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Key institutional mechanisms for achieving the objectives of the Mission have been divided into three tiers, which will consist of a Governing Council for policy guidance at apex level, a Steering Committee and a Mission Directorate (along with an Executive Committee) as the executive arm of the Mission. Mission Directorate will be supported by three other institutions: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA), The NSDA focuses on policy research via National Skills Research Division, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies. It develops protocols for training and accreditations for private trainers, etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) NSDC overlooks training, capacity building aspects of trainers, both public and private, lead the engagement with industries, drive the sectors skills councils., and Directorate General of Training (DGT) The DGT maintains the skill training structures of Advanced Training Institutes (ATIs), Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTIs) and other such institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. all of which will have horizontal linkages with Mission Directorate to facilitate smooth functioning of the national institutional mechanism. Seven sub-missions have been proposed initially to act as building blocks for achieving overall objectives of the Mission. They are: (i) Institutional Training, (ii) Infrastructure, (iii) Convergence, (iv) Trainers, (v) Overseas Employment, (vi) Sustainable Livelihoods, (vii) Leveraging Public Infrastructure. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Halteria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists made a monumental breakthrough by identifying an organism, Halteria  that dines entirely on viruses. About Halteria: Halteria is a microscopic ciliates (a single-celled organism with minuscule hairs) that populate freshwater worldwide which can thrive wholly on a virus-only diet or ‘virovory’. Virovory is sufficient to support an organism’s physiological development and even population increase. They’re made up of nucleic acids, a lot of nitrogen and phosphorous. Source:  ScienceAlert Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved regarding “Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development” (BIND) scheme at a cost of ₹2,539.61 crore. Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND): Aim: For infrastructure development and for providing financial support to Prasar Bharati for expenses related to expansion and upgradation of its broadcasting infrastructure, content development and civil work related to the organization. The BIND scheme will enable the public broadcaster to undertake a major upgradation of its facilities with better infrastructure which will widen its reach, including in the LWE, border and strategic areas Development of high-quality content for both domestic and international audience and ensuring availability of diverse content to the viewers by upgradation of capacity of DTH platform to accommodate more channels. About the scheme: Central Sector Scheme Under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Purchase of OB vans and digital upgradation of DD and AIR Studios to make them HD ready will be also be done as part of the project. The Scheme will increase coverage of AIR FM transmitters in the country to 66% by geographical area and 80% by population up from 59% and 68% respectively. The Scheme also envisages free distribution of over 8 lakh DD Free Dish STBs to people living in remote, tribal, LWE and border areas. The Project for modernization and augmentation of broadcast infrastructure also has the potential to generate indirect employment by way of manufacturing and services related to supply and installation of broadcast equipment. Content generation and content innovation for AIR & DD has the potential of indirect employment of persons with varied experience of different media fields in the content production sector including TV/Radio production, transmission and associated media related services. Government of India reiterates its commitment to the development, modernization and strengthening of Doordarshan and Akashvani (Prasar Bharati) infrastructure and services, which is a continuous process. Prasar Bharti: Prasar Bharati is the public broadcaster of the country and consists of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD) It is the most important vehicle of information, education, entertainment and engagement for the people especially in the remote areas of the country through Doordarshan and All India Radio. Prasar Bharati played a stellar role in communicating public health messages and awareness to the public during the covid pandemic. At present, Doordarshan operates 36 TV channels including 28 regional channels and All India Radio operates more than 500 broadcasting centres. Source: PIB Silent Valley National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A bird survey conducted at the Silent Valley National Park identified 141 species, of which 17 were new. So far, 175 species of birds have been spotted in Silent Valley. About the survey The survey was held in association with the Kerala Natural History Society. Brown wood owl, Banded bay cuckoo, Malabar wood shrike, White-throated kingfisher, Indian nightjar, Jungle nightjar, and Large cuckoo shrike were among the 17 species newly identified in the Silent Valley. Silent valley national park Silent Valley National Park is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2 which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2 Declared national park in 1984, inaugurated in 1985 In 1914, Silent Valley forests were declared as Reserved Forest. During 1921, it came under control of Palakkad Forest Division This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. It is located in the rich biodiversity of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Mukurthi peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda peak are also located in its vicinity. Bhavani River, a tributary of Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of Bharathappuzha river, originate in the vicinity of Silent Valley. The Kadalundi River has also its origin in Silent Valley. 41 mammals, 211 birds, 49 reptiles, 47 amphibians, 12 fishes, 164 butterflies and 400 species of moths are found here. Lion tailed macaques is the flagship species of the Park. The indigenous tribal groups that live within park boundaries include Irulas, Kurumbas, Mudugas and Kattunaikkars, the ethnic heritage of these communities is well protected. Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, and Nedumkayam Rainforest in Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram district, Attappadi Reserved Forest in Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, and Mukurthi National Park of Nilgiris district, are located around Silent Valley National Park. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sustainable Aquaculture In Mangrove Ecosystem (SAIME) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A new initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation provides hope for mangrove restoration in Sundarbans. SAIME: The community-based initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation is being conceived by NEWS and Global Nature Fund (GNF), Naturland Bangladesh Environment and Development Society (BEDS). The initiative started in 2019, has established a collaborative ecosystem integrating several key stakeholders from government departments, academia, and research institutes for co-creation and comprehensive advancement of this project. Farmers have taken up cultivation of shrimp in West Bengal including indigenous varieties of shrimps such as black tiger shrimp (P. monodon) and giant freshwater prawn (M. rosenbergii ). A research program on the contribution of mangrove leaf litter in the nutritional dynamics in SAIME ponds has been initiated in collaboration with the Centre for Excellence in Blue Economy (CoE-BE) of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata Fishing, particularly shrimp cultivation, is one of the key occupations of the people of Sundarbans, which is a complex network of rivers and low-lying islands that face a tide surge twice a day. Shrimp cultivation is practised in about 15,000 to 20,000 hectares of the unique ecosystem in India. T The Sundarbans forest is about 10,000 sq. km across India and Bangladesh, of which 40% lies in India. MUST READ: Sunderbans Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following protected areas Bandipur Bhitarkanika Manas Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 American foulbrood (AFB) disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) has granted a conditional license for world’s first vaccine for honeybees to curb American foulbrood (AFB), a fatal bacterial disease for the insect, reported The Guardian. Honeybee populations are declining sharply, spurred by habitat loss, pesticide use and the climate crisis. Fewer honeybees mean not just less honey but also less food — honeybees are critical to pollinating up to 95 crops in the US. AFB AFB is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae. Infected broods usually die at the pre-pupal or pupal stage. It is not a stress-related disease and can infect the strongest to the weakest colony in an apiary. Heavy infections can affect most of the brood, severely weakening the colony and eventually killing it. The disease cannot be cured, meaning that the destruction of infected colonies and hives or irradiation of infected material is the only way to manage AFB. The bacteria Melissococcus plutonius causes another similar disease, European foulbrood. However, the incidence of EFB is generally higher when the colony is under stress. Vaccine: The first such vaccine, developed by biotechnology company Dalan Animal Health, gives hope of a new weapon against diseases that routinely ravage colonies relied upon for food pollination. The vaccine technology exposes queen bees to inactive (ie, “dead”) bacteria, which enables the larvae hatched in the hive to resist infection. The vaccine is mixed in queen candy — the primary food source for both the queen bees and the attendant bees living in cages. Worker bees consume the vaccine with the queen candy, which is then digested and transferred to the glands that produce the royal jelly. Worker bees then feed the royal jelly containing the vaccine to the queen bee. The queen digests the royal jelly and the vaccine is transferred to her ovaries. She is then released into the hive. The vaccine gets transferred to the developing eggs. The developing larvae get vaccinated and are more immune to infection as they hatch. Tests also showed no negative impact on honey. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants development of India’s own satellite navigation system radio collar for wildlife tracking spread of viral diseases National Green Hydrogen Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister has approved India’s Rs 20,000 cr National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). About Hydrogen: Hydrogen is the chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. Hydrogen is the lightest element and the most abundant chemical substance in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all normal matter. It is colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, and highly combustible. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines and as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. Extraction of Hydrogen: Hydrogen exists in combination with other elements. Hence, for using it as a source of energy, it has to be extracted from naturally occurring compounds like water (which is a combination of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom). The sources and processes by which hydrogen is derived are categorised by different colours. Benefits of Green Hydrogen Creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors Self-Reliance: Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock Make in India, for India: Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities Creation of employment opportunities Development of cutting-edge technologies Major Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen: Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. About National Green Hydrogen Mission (NHM): NGHM is a part of National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. The Prime Minister of India also announced the National Hydrogen Mission on India’s 75th Independence Day. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will formulate the scheme guidelines for implementation of the respective components. Objectives of the mission: To make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen. To harness green hydrogen energy to fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Key Components of the mission: The NGHM will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. An enabling policy framework will be developed to support establishment of the Green Hydrogen ecosystem. A public-private partnership framework for R&D will be facilitated under the Mission. R&D projects will be goal-oriented, time bound, and suitably scaled up to develop globally competitive technologies. Significance of the NGHM: Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country It will boost Investment opportunities for India and create sustainable employment. Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gas Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26. Initiatives taken by the world countries and India: Japan: Basic Hydrogen Strategy 2017 and plan to develop the international hydrogen supply chain by 2030. South Korea: Hydrogen Economy Development and Safe Management of Hydrogen Act, 2020. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) issued a notification proposing amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 with safety evaluation standards for hydrogen fuel cell-based vehicles. Delhi State Government: Hydrogen Spiked Compressed Natural Gas Buses (H-CNG) i.e. 18% blend of hydrogen with CNG (Plan to have 80% H-CNG buses by 2025) NTPC Ltd is operating a pilot to run 10 hydrogen fuel cell-based electric buses and fuel cell electric cars in Leh and Delhi. Way Forward: The National Hydrogen Mission have the capability of  ensuring integration of India’s clean energy supply chains with that of the world when Inter-Ministerial and various departments work together. The National Hydrogen Mission  will also will ensure realization of the goal of making India carbon neutral and global hub of clean hydrogen energy and will have multiplier effects on the $5 trillion economy. Source: Indian Express India and France relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: 36th India-France Strategic Dialogue between National Security Adviser Ajit Doval and Diplomatic Adviser to the President of France, Emmanuel Bonne was held in New Delhi. India and France reiterated their commitment to take forward their strategic partnership to ensure peace, stability and security in the Indo-Pacific based on common beliefs in the rules-based international order and strategic autonomy. Both sides reiterated that in view of the emerging uncertainties and volatile global security environment, there was a need for closer cooperation between India and France, including in the UNSC and other multilateral forums..  Bilateral relationship: The new French Indo-Pacific strategy advances three key threats to be met by Paris, beyond dealing with North Korean belligerence: Transnational terrorism Chinese challenges to the multilateral order in the region Climate change Indo Pacific: France is a preferred partner in the Indo-Pacific and there is now a blueprint for cooperation in this field in the form of a Joint Strategic Vision for cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region concluded by both countries in 2018. Economic: France is the 7th largest foreign investor in India with a cumulative FDI stock of USD 9 billion from 2000 to 2020, which represents 2 % of the total FDI inflows into India. In FY 2020-21, bilateral trade stood at $ 9.12 Bn and has increased to $ 9.87 Bn during the period April 2021 – January 2022. Launch of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in France “Co-localisation of production” with India as a priority indicates urgency to take steps for ensuring a more diversified and stable Indo-Pacific and global periphery. Security: Bilateral defence ties are in fine fettle and France has largely stuck to the promised delivery of Rafale aircrafts to India. The challenge here is to move from a buyer-seller relationship to an investor-investee one by making defence equipment in India accompanied by a transfer of technology. Safran Group’s decision to set up their largest and first aircraft engine MRO (maintenance, repair, and overhaul) facility in Hyderabad. The facility will be set up with an investment of Rs 1200 cr and is expected to create about 1,000 high-skilled jobs in Telangana. India and France have conducted joint patrols from the Reunion Island for the first time. The patrol was conducted by a P-8I aircraft with French Navy personnel on board. Bilateral military exercises Exercise Shakti (Army) Exercise Varuna (Navy) Exercise Garuda (Air Force) IMEX 22 Technology: For the first time, the two countries concluded a Joint Vision for Space Cooperation in 2018. The vision document talks of bringing societal benefits of space technology, situational awareness in space domain and cooperation in satellite navigation and related technologies. As for nuclear energy, the two leaders must review progress in the joint construction of the world’s largest nuclear park in Jaitapur, Maharashtra. The French tech services multinational Atos, for instance, provides India with supercomputing hardware and quantum computing simulation software. A recent Track 1.5 Dialogue hosted jointly by think tanks — Gateway House in Mumbai and Ifri in Paris — revealed the importance of Bangalore for the French economy, noting the large number of tech engineers from France who are located in the southern city. France also has a special tech visa for Indian engineers, enabling robust exchanges. Digital cooperation is being stepped up in cyber security and on building standards for public digital infrastructure. Environment and Ecology: India will be the first “country of honour” at the Sea Tech . Week in Brest, France, a major international event bringing  together Blue Economy stakeholders. France announced its support for Prime Minister Modi’s Lifestyle for the Environment (LIFE) initiative, and will seek to work with India on promoting sustainable lifestyles to fight climate change. Regarding solar alliance, India has started having annual summits with France and Germany from 2000. 2021: Year Of Indo-French Alliance Towards A Greener Planet To strengthen Indo-French cooperation in sustainable development, increase the effectiveness of actions in favour of global environment protection and give them greater visibility. Based on five main themes: (1) Environmental protection; (2) Climate change; (3) Biodiversity conservation; (4) Sustainable urban development; (5) Development of renewable energies and energy efficiency. Suggestions for future: France holds the rotating presidency of the EU In this regard, discussion on FTA and the Investment Agreement that India is negotiating with the EU and persuade France to weigh in favourably with the Brussels bureaucracy and other stakeholders. More can be done in the area of digital sovereignty where India is a potential model for France with its use of open platforms and open-source public goods like India Stack and MOSIP; regulation, especially personal data empowerment and protection; health data and health tech. France and India must now invest in preventing digital platforms from being weaponised and avert threats to critical infrastructure. They must use their unique strengths — India in conceptualising and deploying large-scale open-source platforms, foundational IDs, IT services and fintech, and France in AI, cyber, quantum technologies, data empowerment and protection, to create the next-gen solutions for the world. Accelerate investment between two countries in low carbon alternatives like wind, solar PV, biomethane, heat pumps, nuclear and clean hydrogen. India has the market, France has the technology and capital, and the EU has the political will and incentives to drive the transition to green hydrogen. Major French multinationals such as Air Liquide, Engie and TotalEnergies are already pursuing hydrogen energy, and pilot projects with Indian partners can be planned They discussed expanding the scope of defence cooperation to include the co-development of futuristic technologies in line with India’s priorities of Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat. Way forward: Newer areas of cooperation such as connectivity, climate change, cyber-security and science and technology. In these important areas, the two leaders will be briefed by officials about progress made so that roadblocks, if any, can be tackled. France has supported India’s G20 presidency and it goes a long way in strengthening ties between the two countries. Source: The hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Silent Valley National Park’, consider the following statements? Lion tailed macaque is its flagship species It comes under Annamalai Biosphere reserve Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘American foulbrood (AFB) disease’, consider the following statements? The disease affects pollination in maize plants. It is caused by spore-forming bacteria Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following: Households Agriculture Fossil fuels Transportation Which of the are sources of Black carbon which has serious consequences on climate change? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Remote Voting by ECI

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-1: Indian Society, Urbanisation and problems GS-2: Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential GS-2: Fundamental Rights. Context: The Election Commission (EC) has recently announced that it is ready to pilot remote voting for domestic migrants, so they don’t have to travel back to their home states to vote. This comes on the back of EC’s acknowledgement of migration-based disenfranchisement. What is the scenario of India’s internal migration? Huge Numbers: India has an estimated 600 million migrants. In other words, roughly half of India is living in a place where it wasn’t born. Intra-State Migration: An estimated 400 million Indians “migrate” within the district they live in. The next 140 million migrate from one district to another but within the same state. Inter-State Migration: And only about 60 million — that is, just 10% of all internal migrants — move from one state to another. Rural Migration: The most dominant form of migration is from rural to rural areas. Only about 20% of the total migration (600 million) is from rural to urban areas. Urban Migration: 20% of the total migration is from one urban area to another urban area. As such, urban migration (rural to urban as well as urban to urban) accounts for 40% of the total migration. Potential for increase in future: As India adopts a strategy of rapid urbanisation — for example, by building so-called smart cities and essentially using cities as centres of economic growth — levels of internal migration will increase further. COVID-19 induced Shock: It is estimated that close to 60 million moved back to their “source” rural areas in the wake of pandemic-induced lockdowns. That number is roughly six-times the official estimates. That estimate also gives a measure of the sense of labour shock that India’s economy faced as migrants moved back. The concern of “vulnerable circular migrants” 200 million were broadly affected by the Covid disruption. The worst-hit were “vulnerable circular migrants”. These are people who are “vulnerable” because of their weak position in the job market and “circular” migrants because even though they work in urban settings, they continue to have a foothold in the rural areas. Such migrants work in construction sites or small factories or as rickshaw pullers in the city but when such employment avenues dwindle, they go back to their rural setting.  They constitute 75% of the informal economy outside agriculture — most shocks, be it demonetisation or GST or the pandemic disruption, tend to rob them of their livelihood. How significant is the migrant vote? While registered voters do not end up voting for a variety of reasons, domestic migration is a major contributor in the Indian context. In a concept note, the EC has admitted that the absence of a central database for migrants poses a problem on the issue of remote voting. However, the EC recognises that “migration-based disenfranchisement is indeed not an option in the age of technological advancement.” As per the 2011 census, 45.36 crore Indians (37% of the population) were internal migrants, settled in a place different from that of their registered residence. While 67.4% of the eligible 91.2 crore Indians voted in the 2019 Lok Sabha election, about one-third or close to 30 crore voters did not cast their vote. Voters who are absent from their home locations on the day of polling, even if they wish to vote, are unable to travel to vote due to various reasons. This means that there is a large chunk of the population which is denied its franchise due to exigencies of work or lack of resources to travel. This goes directly against the EC’s “No voter left behind” goal. Inability to vote due to internal migration (domestic migrants) is one of the prominent reasons to be addressed to improve voter turnout and ensure participative elections. What is the Remote EVMs, the proposed solution to migrant voting problem? To further understand this issue, the EC had formed a “Committee of Officers on Domestic Migrants”, which submitted a report in late 2016 after considering various possible solutions such as internet voting, proxy voting, early voting and postal ballots for migrant workers. However, all of these ideas were rejected due to reasons such as the lack of secrecy of the vote, the lack of sanctity of one person one vote principle, issues of accessibility for unlettered voters, etc. Thus, a technological solution was proposed which relies on the creation of a robust electoral roll and identification mechanisms (to stop duplicate voting), and allow voters to vote remotely, in a safe and controlled environment. ECI has developed a prototype for a Multi-Constituency Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM) that can handle multiple constituencies from a single remote polling booth. The RVMs are “stand alone, non-networked systems,” effectively providing the voter the same experience as currently used EVMs. They will be set up in remote locations outside the state under similar conditions as current polling booths. The unique feature of RVMs is that a single Remote Ballot Unit (RBU) will be able to cater to multiple constituencies (as many as 72) by using a “dynamic ballot display board” instead of the usual printed paper ballot sheet on EVMs. The Ballot Unit Overlay Display (BUOD) will show the requisite candidates based on the constituency number read on the voter’s Constituency card. A barcode scanning system will be used to read these cards. The voting process will be as follows: after verifying a voter’s identity, their constituency card will be read with a public display showing the constituency details and candidates. This will also be displayed privately, on the BUOD in the RVM’s RBU. The voter will then vote and each vote will be stored constituency-wise in the control unit of the voting machine. The VVPAT system is expected to work along the same lines with the new technology. The EC has invited all recognised eight national and 57 state political parties on January 16 to demonstrate the functioning of the RVM and has asked for their written views by January 31. The RVM was developed with the assistance of Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL). It is based on the currently used EVM system. What are the hurdles? The system has issues, some of which the EC has itself acknowledged. Non-Uniform Constituency: Migrants are not a uniform and defined class, with fluid identities, locations and situations. In context of the transience of migration in India, the problem for the EC is to create an inclusive definition of migrants which at the same time does not open the system up to misuse. Trust on technology: As various countries reject EVMs for paper-based ballots, does this move have the potential to raise further questions on the sanctity of the electoral process itself. While the EC claims that RVMs are as secure as currently used EVMs, more technological components are bound to raise further questions. Favours Rich & National Parties: There are questions raised as to how remote voting affect elections and campaigning? In a playing field which is far from level, remote voting can theoretically provide an added edge to bigger parties and richer candidates who can campaign across the constituency and beyond. Main Practice Question: Elaborate on the technological measures taken by Election Commission of India to fulfil its Constitutional mandate? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Jallikattu & the controversy

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-1: Indian Society and History GS-2: Federalism; Judiciary GS-3: Animal Conservation and Rural Economy Context: With the Supreme Court recommencing its work after the winter vacation, all eyes in Tamil Nadu are on the verdict of a five-member Constitution Bench of the Court on a batch of petitions seeking to strike down a 2017 Tamil Nadu law that protects jallikattu, a traditional event involving bulls. As the conduct of the event will coincide with the Pongal festival, the Supreme Court’s verdict is keenly watched. What is Jallikattu? A tradition over 2,000 years old, Jallikattu is a competitive sport as well as an event to honour bull owners who rear them for mating. It is a violent sport in which contestants try to tame a bull for a prize; if they fail, the bull owner wins the prize. In an age when the farm sector is largely mechanised, there are no major monetary benefits for bull owners in breeding Jallikattu bulls other than the prizes they get during the Jallikattu events. Traditionally, these used to be a dhoti, a towel, betel leaves, bananas and a cash prize of Rs 101. Over the last two decades, the prizes have included grinders, a fridge and small furniture. The bull-taming sport is popular in Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, Theni, Pudukkottai and Dindigul districts — known as the Jallikattu belt. Jallikattu is celebrated in the second week of January, during the Tamil harvest festival, Pongal. It is a controversial sport which has faced long legal battles over cruelty to animals, and which at the same time is a symbol of Tamil culture. Is there any historical evidence of Jallikattu being conducted since ancient times? Jallikattu has been known to be practiced during the Tamil classical period (400-100 BC). It was common among the Ayyar people who lived in the ‘Mullai’ geographical division of the ancient Tamil country. Later, it became a platform for display of bravery and prize money was introduced for participation encouragemen A seal from the Indus Valley Civilization depicting the practice is preserved in the National Museum, New Delhi. A cave painting in white kaolin discovered near Madurai depicting a lone man trying to control a bull is estimated to be about 1,500 years old. Why is Jallikattu important in Tamil culture? Preservation of Native Breeds: Jallikattu is considered a traditional way for the peasant community to preserve their pure-breed native bulls. Prevents Slaughtering: At a time when cattle breeding is often an artificial process, conservationists and peasants argue that Jallikattu is a way to protect these male animals which are otherwise used only for meat if not for ploughing. Pride associated with rearing premium breeds: Kangayam, Pulikulam, Umbalachery, Barugur and Malai Maadu are among the popular native cattle breeds used for Jallikattu. The owners of these premium breeds command respect locally. Agrarian Economy: The political economy of such games is about showcasing the quality of cattle, the breeding skills of cattle rearers, the centrality of cattle in an agrarian economy, and the power and pride they bring to farmers. Symbol of Tamil Culture: Jallikattu’s linkages with Pongal has lifted it above its regional and community origins and transformed it into a symbol of Tamil culture and pride. Such games are a cultural manifestation of this political economy. As a tradition, it links an agrarian people to the elemental aspect of their vocation. Shapes Political Discourse: Pride in Tamil culture is central to Dravidian nationalism, which continues to shape the political discourse in Tamil Nadu. Cultural Representation & Continuity: There exists tangible evidence to show that this battle between man and beast is a cultural representation. What are the arguments against the Jallikattu? Ethical issues: An investigation by the Animal Welfare Board of India concluded that “Jallikattu is inherently cruel to animals”. Human deaths: The event has caused several human deaths and injuries and there are several instances of fatalities to the bulls. Cruelty to animal: A report submitted by the AWBI before the Supreme Court in this case highlighted unimaginable torture inflicted- tails twisted and fractured, chemicals poured into eyes, ears mutilated, sharp edged weapons used to poke the animal. Manhandling of animals: Animal welfare concerns are related to the handling of the bulls before they are released and also during the competitor’s attempts to subdue the bull. What is the legal battle that Jallikattu is facing? In India, legal battles surrounding animal rights issues emerged in the early 1990s. A notification from the Environment Ministry in 1991 banned the training and exhibition of bears, monkeys, tigers, panthers and dogs, which was challenged by the Indian Circus Organisation in the Delhi High Court. In 1998, dogs were excluded from the notification. Jallikattu first came under legal scrutiny in 2007 when the Animal Welfare Board of India and the animal rights group PETA moved petitions in the Supreme Court against Jallikattu as well as bullock cart races. The Tamil Nadu government, however, worked its way out of the ban by passing a law in 2009, which was signed by the Governor. In 2011, the UPA regime at the Centre added bulls to the list of animals whose training and exhibition is prohibited. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) and PETA filed a petition in the Supreme Court again and contested that – the regulations were not being followed and that bulls were indeed being subjected to cruelty as defined under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. In May 2014, days before the BJP was elected to power, the Supreme Court banned the bull-taming sport, ruling on a petition that cited the 2011 notification In January 2016, in what could be seen as a clearly political move, the union environment ministry revoked the ban by issuing a notification months before the elections in Tamil Nadu were due to be held. The Supreme Court stayed this 2016 Union Government notification, as it was challenged by the Animal Welfare Board of India(AWBI) and PETA. PETA – People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals – is an international NGO (having presence in India as well) founded in 1980 and is dedicated to establishing and defending the rights of all animals. PETA operates under the simple principle that animals are not ours to experiment on, eat, wear, use for entertainment, or abuse in any other way In January 2017, several hundreds of protesters conducted a rally at Chennai Marina opposing the ban on Jallikattu. Tamil Nadu passed the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017. The statutes had re-opened the gates for the conduct of the popular bull-taming sport in the name of culture and tradition despite the 2014 ban by the Supreme Court. In the aftermath of Jallikattu comeback due to Tamil Nādu legislation the Supreme Court had referred a bunch of petitions to the Constitution Bench in February 2018. The main question to be resolved is whether the Jallikattu tradition can be protected as a cultural right of the people of Tamil Nadu which is a fundamental right. Article 29 (1) mandates that “any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same”. How is the case being presented now? The primary question involved is whether jallikattu should be granted constitutional protection as a collective cultural right under Article 29 (1) — a fundamental right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution to protect the educational and cultural rights of citizens. The court examined if the laws — the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017 — “perpetuate cruelty to animals” or were actually a means to ensure “the survival and well-being of the native breed of bulls”. This assumes relevance in the context of the Court quashing 2014 the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Jallikattu Act, 2009, which had allowed jallikattu. The Court had then talked of how bulls were being “tortured to the hilt” in the process of performing for the event. The apex court then scrutinised the question of whether the new jallikattu laws were “relatable” to Article 48 of the Constitution which urged the state to endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. The Constitution Bench also looked into whether jallikattu and bullock-cart race laws of Karnataka and Maharashtra would actually sub-serve the objective of “prevention” of cruelty to animals under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act of 1960. Main Practice Question: What is Jallikattu and what are the legal challenges it is facing? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Black Carbon and black carbon aerosols Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A recent study conducted on Tibetan plateau showed that increase in South Asian black Carbon aerosols is increasing loss of glaciers from Tibetan Plateau. Key highlights of the study: Black carbon deposition in snow reduces the albedo of surfaces which accelerate melting of glaciers and snow cover and changes hydrological process and water resources in the region. Albedo is ability to reflect back Sun’s radiations. Black carbon aerosols in South Asia heat up the middle and upper atmosphere and increases North South temperature gradient. This increases convective activity in South Asia which causes convergence of water vapour in South Asia. Black carbon also increases the number of cloud condensation nuclei in the atmosphere. About Black Carbon: Black carbon is the sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants, and other sources that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter or PM, which is an air pollutant. Impact of black carbon: Climate impacts: It has a warming impact that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2 on climate. It converts incoming solar radiation to heat. It influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns. Health impacts- With size of 2.5 micrometres (PM2.5) or smaller, it can penetrate into lungs and facilitate transport of toxic compounds into the bloodstream. 5 can cause premature death and cause heart and lung disease, strokes, heart attacks, chronic respiratory disease like bronchitis, asthma and pneumonia. Impacts on ecosystem and vegetation- if deposited on plant leaves it will decrease its capability of photosynthesis and thus reduce food production. It can reduce sunlight that reaches the earth and modify rainfall patterns. About Black Carbon aerosols: It is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It has strong absorption of solar radiation like- visible and infrared radiation. It is also called soot and is part of particulate matter above PM2.5. Thus, it contributes to pollution and Global warming. It can increase the temperature of atmosphere and darken surfaces, specifically snow and ice. It has short lifetime in atmosphere and gets removed in 1-2 weeks, so its impacts tend to be more regional rather than global. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Green Urban Oases Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) launched report on Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands. Key findings of the report: 35% of the world’s largest cities are built in the world’s drylands. It includes Cairo, Mexico City and New Delhi. They are home to 2 billion people, 90% of them in developing countries. Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands, these sprawling and crowded dryland cities face a high risk of social, environmental and economic crisis as they grow. They are becoming hotter and more polluted and face mounting pressure on their scarce natural resources. Weak infrastructure, making them among the most vulnerable places in the world to external shocks from the extreme weather events that climate change brings. More than half of the global population lives in cities and 95% of urban growth between now and 2050 is expected to take place in the global South. Thus, preserving and planting trees has been shown beneficial effect on the lives and health of the people. About Green Urban Oases Programme: It was Launched in 2021 by FAO. It contributes to the FAO Green Cities initiative, which was launched in 2020. It aims to improve the resilience of dryland cities by tackling climate, health, food and economic challenges. To transform dryland cities into ‘green urban oases’ by strengthening their overall resilience to climatic, health, food and economic crises for the improved health and well-being of urban communities. It focuses on developing policy, technical capacity and outlines several pathways for transforming urban spaces by planting trees. Key Recommendation from report: Community Level: Boosting participation and a sense of ownership, providing incentives to encourage tree planting and building capacity through environmental education, awareness raising campaigns towards public engagement. Government Level: Implementing robust policies for protection of urban greenery. Several initiatives including the Great Green Wall in Africa and the Three-North Shelter Forest Programme in China have been put in place to support the implementation of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies in dryland rural areas. Source:  FAO Previous Year Question Q.1) The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces Development of gardens genetically modified flora using Creation of mini forests in urban areas Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Article 19 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: By ruling that a citizen can seek enforcement of the fundamental rights to freedom of speech not just against the state, the Supreme Court has, effectively, extended the ground for seeking these rights against other citizens. About Article 19: Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental freedoms to every citizen of India, namely: Freedom of speech and expression; Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms; Freedom to form associations, unions or co-operative societies; Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, and Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. Importance of Article 19 This freedom is essential because the censorial power lies in the people over and against the Government and not in the Government over and against the people. The freedom of speech and expression is required to fulfil the following objectives : To discover truth Non self-fulfilment Democratic value To ensure pluralism Reasonable Restrictions under Article 19: The State can impose restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression in the interests of Sovereignty And Integrity Of India, The Security Of The State, Friendly Relations With Foreign States, Public Order, Decency Or Morality, Or In Relation To Contempt Of Court, Defamation, Or Incitement To An Offence. Key details of the Supreme Court ruling: The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2). Article 19 which guarantees freedom of speech and expression is a right invoked against the state. The court, extending free speech against private citizens, opens up a range of possibilities in Constitutional law. This interpretation could also bring an obligation on the state to ensure private entities also abide by Constitutional norms. K S Puttaswamy case: The Court relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy where a nine-judge bench unanimously upheld privacy as a fundamental right. One of the key arguments by the government was that privacy is a right enforceable against other citizens and, therefore, cannot be elevated to the status of a fundamental right against the state. Under Indian Constitution, all the Fundamental Rights are available against the State but only 4 fundamental Rights are available against both State and individuals. Article 15(2) – no citizen shall be subjected to any form of discrimination based on caste, religion, place of birth, or caste. Article 17 – abolition of Untouchability. Article 23 – Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour. Article 24 – Prohibits employment of children in factories and hazardous place. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021) Legal right available to citizens only Legal right available to any person Fundamental Right available to citizens only Neither fundamental Right nor legal right Q.2) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 National Skill Development Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Minister chaired the  3rd meeting of the steering committee of National Skill Development Mission. About National Skill Development Mission: The National Skill Development Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 01.07.2015, and officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 15.07.2015 on the occasion of World Youth Skills Day. The Mission has been developed to create convergence across sectors and States in terms of skill training activities. Further, to achieve the vision of ‘Skilled India’, the National Skill Development Mission would not only consolidate and coordinate skilling efforts, but also expedite decision making across sectors to achieve skilling at scale with speed and standards. It will be implemented through a streamlined institutional mechanism driven by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Key institutional mechanisms for achieving the objectives of the Mission have been divided into three tiers, which will consist of a Governing Council for policy guidance at apex level, a Steering Committee and a Mission Directorate (along with an Executive Committee) as the executive arm of the Mission. Mission Directorate will be supported by three other institutions: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA), The NSDA focuses on policy research via National Skills Research Division, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies. It develops protocols for training and accreditations for private trainers, etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) NSDC overlooks training, capacity building aspects of trainers, both public and private, lead the engagement with industries, drive the sectors skills councils., and Directorate General of Training (DGT) The DGT maintains the skill training structures of Advanced Training Institutes (ATIs), Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTIs) and other such institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. all of which will have horizontal linkages with Mission Directorate to facilitate smooth functioning of the national institutional mechanism. Seven sub-missions have been proposed initially to act as building blocks for achieving overall objectives of the Mission. They are: (i) Institutional Training, (ii) Infrastructure, (iii) Convergence, (iv) Trainers, (v) Overseas Employment, (vi) Sustainable Livelihoods, (vii) Leveraging Public Infrastructure. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Halteria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists made a monumental breakthrough by identifying an organism, Halteria  that dines entirely on viruses. About Halteria: Halteria is a microscopic ciliates (a single-celled organism with minuscule hairs) that populate freshwater worldwide which can thrive wholly on a virus-only diet or ‘virovory’. Virovory is sufficient to support an organism’s physiological development and even population increase. They’re made up of nucleic acids, a lot of nitrogen and phosphorous. Source:  ScienceAlert Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved regarding “Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development” (BIND) scheme at a cost of ₹2,539.61 crore. Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND): Aim: For infrastructure development and for providing financial support to Prasar Bharati for expenses related to expansion and upgradation of its broadcasting infrastructure, content development and civil work related to the organization. The BIND scheme will enable the public broadcaster to undertake a major upgradation of its facilities with better infrastructure which will widen its reach, including in the LWE, border and strategic areas Development of high-quality content for both domestic and international audience and ensuring availability of diverse content to the viewers by upgradation of capacity of DTH platform to accommodate more channels. About the scheme: Central Sector Scheme Under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Purchase of OB vans and digital upgradation of DD and AIR Studios to make them HD ready will be also be done as part of the project. The Scheme will increase coverage of AIR FM transmitters in the country to 66% by geographical area and 80% by population up from 59% and 68% respectively. The Scheme also envisages free distribution of over 8 lakh DD Free Dish STBs to people living in remote, tribal, LWE and border areas. The Project for modernization and augmentation of broadcast infrastructure also has the potential to generate indirect employment by way of manufacturing and services related to supply and installation of broadcast equipment. Content generation and content innovation for AIR & DD has the potential of indirect employment of persons with varied experience of different media fields in the content production sector including TV/Radio production, transmission and associated media related services. Government of India reiterates its commitment to the development, modernization and strengthening of Doordarshan and Akashvani (Prasar Bharati) infrastructure and services, which is a continuous process. Prasar Bharti: Prasar Bharati is the public broadcaster of the country and consists of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD) It is the most important vehicle of information, education, entertainment and engagement for the people especially in the remote areas of the country through Doordarshan and All India Radio. Prasar Bharati played a stellar role in communicating public health messages and awareness to the public during the covid pandemic. At present, Doordarshan operates 36 TV channels including 28 regional channels and All India Radio operates more than 500 broadcasting centres. Source: PIB Silent Valley National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A bird survey conducted at the Silent Valley National Park identified 141 species, of which 17 were new. So far, 175 species of birds have been spotted in Silent Valley. About the survey The survey was held in association with the Kerala Natural History Society. Brown wood owl, Banded bay cuckoo, Malabar wood shrike, White-throated kingfisher, Indian nightjar, Jungle nightjar, and Large cuckoo shrike were among the 17 species newly identified in the Silent Valley. Silent valley national park Silent Valley National Park is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2 which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2 Declared national park in 1984, inaugurated in 1985 In 1914, Silent Valley forests were declared as Reserved Forest. During 1921, it came under control of Palakkad Forest Division This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. It is located in the rich biodiversity of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Mukurthi peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda peak are also located in its vicinity. Bhavani River, a tributary of Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of Bharathappuzha river, originate in the vicinity of Silent Valley. The Kadalundi River has also its origin in Silent Valley. 41 mammals, 211 birds, 49 reptiles, 47 amphibians, 12 fishes, 164 butterflies and 400 species of moths are found here. Lion tailed macaques is the flagship species of the Park. The indigenous tribal groups that live within park boundaries include Irulas, Kurumbas, Mudugas and Kattunaikkars, the ethnic heritage of these communities is well protected. Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, and Nedumkayam Rainforest in Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram district, Attappadi Reserved Forest in Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, and Mukurthi National Park of Nilgiris district, are located around Silent Valley National Park. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sustainable Aquaculture In Mangrove Ecosystem (SAIME) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A new initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation provides hope for mangrove restoration in Sundarbans. SAIME: The community-based initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation is being conceived by NEWS and Global Nature Fund (GNF), Naturland Bangladesh Environment and Development Society (BEDS). The initiative started in 2019, has established a collaborative ecosystem integrating several key stakeholders from government departments, academia, and research institutes for co-creation and comprehensive advancement of this project. Farmers have taken up cultivation of shrimp in West Bengal including indigenous varieties of shrimps such as black tiger shrimp (P. monodon) and giant freshwater prawn (M. rosenbergii ). A research program on the contribution of mangrove leaf litter in the nutritional dynamics in SAIME ponds has been initiated in collaboration with the Centre for Excellence in Blue Economy (CoE-BE) of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata Fishing, particularly shrimp cultivation, is one of the key occupations of the people of Sundarbans, which is a complex network of rivers and low-lying islands that face a tide surge twice a day. Shrimp cultivation is practised in about 15,000 to 20,000 hectares of the unique ecosystem in India. T The Sundarbans forest is about 10,000 sq. km across India and Bangladesh, of which 40% lies in India. MUST READ: Sunderbans Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following protected areas Bandipur Bhitarkanika Manas Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 American foulbrood (AFB) disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) has granted a conditional license for world’s first vaccine for honeybees to curb American foulbrood (AFB), a fatal bacterial disease for the insect, reported The Guardian. Honeybee populations are declining sharply, spurred by habitat loss, pesticide use and the climate crisis. Fewer honeybees mean not just less honey but also less food — honeybees are critical to pollinating up to 95 crops in the US. AFB AFB is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae. Infected broods usually die at the pre-pupal or pupal stage. It is not a stress-related disease and can infect the strongest to the weakest colony in an apiary. Heavy infections can affect most of the brood, severely weakening the colony and eventually killing it. The disease cannot be cured, meaning that the destruction of infected colonies and hives or irradiation of infected material is the only way to manage AFB. The bacteria Melissococcus plutonius causes another similar disease, European foulbrood. However, the incidence of EFB is generally higher when the colony is under stress. Vaccine: The first such vaccine, developed by biotechnology company Dalan Animal Health, gives hope of a new weapon against diseases that routinely ravage colonies relied upon for food pollination. The vaccine technology exposes queen bees to inactive (ie, “dead”) bacteria, which enables the larvae hatched in the hive to resist infection. The vaccine is mixed in queen candy — the primary food source for both the queen bees and the attendant bees living in cages. Worker bees consume the vaccine with the queen candy, which is then digested and transferred to the glands that produce the royal jelly. Worker bees then feed the royal jelly containing the vaccine to the queen bee. The queen digests the royal jelly and the vaccine is transferred to her ovaries. She is then released into the hive. The vaccine gets transferred to the developing eggs. The developing larvae get vaccinated and are more immune to infection as they hatch. Tests also showed no negative impact on honey. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants development of India’s own satellite navigation system radio collar for wildlife tracking spread of viral diseases National Green Hydrogen Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister has approved India’s Rs 20,000 cr National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). About Hydrogen: Hydrogen is the chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. Hydrogen is the lightest element and the most abundant chemical substance in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all normal matter. It is colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, and highly combustible. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines and as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. Extraction of Hydrogen: Hydrogen exists in combination with other elements. Hence, for using it as a source of energy, it has to be extracted from naturally occurring compounds like water (which is a combination of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom). The sources and processes by which hydrogen is derived are categorised by different colours. Benefits of Green Hydrogen Creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors Self-Reliance: Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock Make in India, for India: Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities Creation of employment opportunities Development of cutting-edge technologies Major Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen: Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. About National Green Hydrogen Mission (NHM): NGHM is a part of National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. The Prime Minister of India also announced the National Hydrogen Mission on India’s 75th Independence Day. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will formulate the scheme guidelines for implementation of the respective components. Objectives of the mission: To make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen. To harness green hydrogen energy to fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Key Components of the mission: The NGHM will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. An enabling policy framework will be developed to support establishment of the Green Hydrogen ecosystem. A public-private partnership framework for R&D; will be facilitated under the Mission. R&D; projects will be goal-oriented, time bound, and suitably scaled up to develop globally competitive technologies. Significance of the NGHM: Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country It will boost Investment opportunities for India and create sustainable employment. Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gas Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26. Initiatives taken by the world countries and India: Japan: Basic Hydrogen Strategy 2017 and plan to develop the international hydrogen supply chain by 2030. South Korea: Hydrogen Economy Development and Safe Management of Hydrogen Act, 2020. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) issued a notification proposing amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 with safety evaluation standards for hydrogen fuel cell-based vehicles. Delhi State Government: Hydrogen Spiked Compressed Natural Gas Buses (H-CNG) i.e. 18% blend of hydrogen with CNG (Plan to have 80% H-CNG buses by 2025) NTPC Ltd is operating a pilot to run 10 hydrogen fuel cell-based electric buses and fuel cell electric cars in Leh and Delhi. Way Forward: The National Hydrogen Mission have the capability of  ensuring integration of India’s clean energy supply chains with that of the world when Inter-Ministerial and various departments work together. The National Hydrogen Mission  will also will ensure realization of the goal of making India carbon neutral and global hub of clean hydrogen energy and will have multiplier effects on the $5 trillion economy. Source: Indian Express India and France relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: 36th India-France Strategic Dialogue between National Security Adviser Ajit Doval and Diplomatic Adviser to the President of France, Emmanuel Bonne was held in New Delhi. India and France reiterated their commitment to take forward their strategic partnership to ensure peace, stability and security in the Indo-Pacific based on common beliefs in the rules-based international order and strategic autonomy. Both sides reiterated that in view of the emerging uncertainties and volatile global security environment, there was a need for closer cooperation between India and France, including in the UNSC and other multilateral forums..  Bilateral relationship: The new French Indo-Pacific strategy advances three key threats to be met by Paris, beyond dealing with North Korean belligerence: Transnational terrorism Chinese challenges to the multilateral order in the region Climate change Indo Pacific: France is a preferred partner in the Indo-Pacific and there is now a blueprint for cooperation in this field in the form of a Joint Strategic Vision for cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region concluded by both countries in 2018. Economic: France is the 7th largest foreign investor in India with a cumulative FDI stock of USD 9 billion from 2000 to 2020, which represents 2 % of the total FDI inflows into India. In FY 2020-21, bilateral trade stood at $ 9.12 Bn and has increased to $ 9.87 Bn during the period April 2021 – January 2022. Launch of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in France “Co-localisation of production” with India as a priority indicates urgency to take steps for ensuring a more diversified and stable Indo-Pacific and global periphery. Security: Bilateral defence ties are in fine fettle and France has largely stuck to the promised delivery of Rafale aircrafts to India. The challenge here is to move from a buyer-seller relationship to an investor-investee one by making defence equipment in India accompanied by a transfer of technology. Safran Group’s decision to set up their largest and first aircraft engine MRO (maintenance, repair, and overhaul) facility in Hyderabad. The facility will be set up with an investment of Rs 1200 cr and is expected to create about 1,000 high-skilled jobs in Telangana. India and France have conducted joint patrols from the Reunion Island for the first time. The patrol was conducted by a P-8I aircraft with French Navy personnel on board. Bilateral military exercises Exercise Shakti (Army) Exercise Varuna (Navy) Exercise Garuda (Air Force) IMEX 22 Technology: For the first time, the two countries concluded a Joint Vision for Space Cooperation in 2018. The vision document talks of bringing societal benefits of space technology, situational awareness in space domain and cooperation in satellite navigation and related technologies. As for nuclear energy, the two leaders must review progress in the joint construction of the world’s largest nuclear park in Jaitapur, Maharashtra. The French tech services multinational Atos, for instance, provides India with supercomputing hardware and quantum computing simulation software. A recent Track 1.5 Dialogue hosted jointly by think tanks — Gateway House in Mumbai and Ifri in Paris — revealed the importance of Bangalore for the French economy, noting the large number of tech engineers from France who are located in the southern city. France also has a special tech visa for Indian engineers, enabling robust exchanges. Digital cooperation is being stepped up in cyber security and on building standards for public digital infrastructure. Environment and Ecology: India will be the first “country of honour” at the Sea Tech . Week in Brest, France, a major international event bringing  together Blue Economy stakeholders. France announced its support for Prime Minister Modi’s Lifestyle for the Environment (LIFE) initiative, and will seek to work with India on promoting sustainable lifestyles to fight climate change. Regarding solar alliance, India has started having annual summits with France and Germany from 2000. 2021: Year Of Indo-French Alliance Towards A Greener Planet To strengthen Indo-French cooperation in sustainable development, increase the effectiveness of actions in favour of global environment protection and give them greater visibility. Based on five main themes: (1) Environmental protection; (2) Climate change; (3) Biodiversity conservation; (4) Sustainable urban development; (5) Development of renewable energies and energy efficiency. Suggestions for future: France holds the rotating presidency of the EU In this regard, discussion on FTA and the Investment Agreement that India is negotiating with the EU and persuade France to weigh in favourably with the Brussels bureaucracy and other stakeholders. More can be done in the area of digital sovereignty where India is a potential model for France with its use of open platforms and open-source public goods like India Stack and MOSIP; regulation, especially personal data empowerment and protection; health data and health tech. France and India must now invest in preventing digital platforms from being weaponised and avert threats to critical infrastructure. They must use their unique strengths — India in conceptualising and deploying large-scale open-source platforms, foundational IDs, IT services and fintech, and France in AI, cyber, quantum technologies, data empowerment and protection, to create the next-gen solutions for the world. Accelerate investment between two countries in low carbon alternatives like wind, solar PV, biomethane, heat pumps, nuclear and clean hydrogen. India has the market, France has the technology and capital, and the EU has the political will and incentives to drive the transition to green hydrogen. Major French multinationals such as Air Liquide, Engie and TotalEnergies are already pursuing hydrogen energy, and pilot projects with Indian partners can be planned They discussed expanding the scope of defence cooperation to include the co-development of futuristic technologies in line with India’s priorities of Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat. Way forward: Newer areas of cooperation such as connectivity, climate change, cyber-security and science and technology. In these important areas, the two leaders will be briefed by officials about progress made so that roadblocks, if any, can be tackled. France has supported India’s G20 presidency and it goes a long way in strengthening ties between the two countries. Source: The hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Silent Valley National Park’, consider the following statements? Lion tailed macaque is its flagship species It comes under Annamalai Biosphere reserve Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘American foulbrood (AFB) disease’, consider the following statements? The disease affects pollination in maize plants. It is caused by spore-forming bacteria Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following: Households Agriculture Fossil fuels Transportation Which of the are sources of Black carbon which has serious consequences on climate change? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }