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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bisphenol A Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recent studies have reported that ‘Bisphenol A’, may shorten the life cycle  of a mosquito and lead to a population explosion. About Bisphenol A: Bisphenol A is a synthetically obtained colourless, crystalline organic compound that occurs in the solid phase belonging to the diphenylmethane group. It is soluble in organic solvents but poorly dissolves in water It is also used as eyewear glasses. It is a chemical is widely used to soften plastics, paints, and other products. It is known to impair reproduction and development in aquatic organisms. Its exposure is delayed larval development and pupation time in common fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster). Uses of Bisphenol A : BPA polycarbonate plastics are very sturdy in nature and are used to make large variants of microwave-proof utensils.  It is used as a material for safety glasses, bulletproof windows and helmets. Bisphenol A acts as a component in epoxy resins that are very good coating agents and therefore is used for the protective coating of pipelines and to cover the inner surface of food cans. It is used in many medical devices such as heart-lung machines, incubators, artificial kidneys, dental fillers, and sealants. It is also used as eyewear glasses , due to their optical clarity. Environmental impacts of Bisphenol A: BPA can enter the environment directly through the leaching of chemicals or degradation of materials containing bisphenol A and may render the land unfertile and barren making it unsuitable for agriculture. It  affects the growth and reproduction of marine life. It causes endocrine effects in fish, amphibians, and reptiles. Adverse effects of Bisphenol A on human health: When ingested, the chemical disrupts the endocrine system by interfering with the hormones and affecting the brain and       prostate gland of foetuses, infants, and children. It can cause high blood pressure, diabetes and cardiovascular disease in adults. BPA is a xenoestrogen and mimics estrogen present in the body, thus exhibiting hormone-like properties. It can indirectly aid in the spread of vector-borne diseases in humans and animals. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” is considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit-ripening substances Reused plastic containers Toiletries Olive Ridley turtles , Rushikulya river Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context : Recently, experts reported that suitable climatic and beach conditions are the reasons for the early mass nesting of Olive Ridley turtles. About Olive Ridley turtles: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. They are found to be inhabiting the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans. They are carnivores and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs, and a variety of fish and their eggs. The males and females grow to the same size. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica. The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. They lie in Scheduled 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 They are in Appendix I of the CITES. About Rushikulya river : It is one of the major rivers in Odisha and covers the entire catchment area in the districts of Kandhamal and Ganjam. The Rushikulya originates at an elevation of about 1000 meters from the Daringbadi hills of the Eastern Ghats. The tributaries of the Rushikulya River are Dhanei, Badanadi, and Baghua. It does not have any delta in its mouth region. This river is extremely rich in mineral wealth and some of the prime ones include-Lime stone, sand talc, grinding materials, black sand, and clay. This is one of the remote areas for mass nesting and is regarded as a site of Ridley Olive sea turtles. Source:        DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                      Location Hokera Wetland                    Punjab Renuka Wetland                   Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                  Tripura Sasthamkotta                       Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2)  Which of the following is a filter feeder? (2022) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Caveat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the CJI reprimanded a student for filing a caveat in a petition seeking menstrual leave. About Caveat A caveat refers to a “formal notice requesting the court to refrain from taking some specified action without giving prior notice to the person lodging the caveat.” The person lodging the caveat is called a “caveator”. The term “caveat” is not expressly defined anywhere except in the Calcutta High Court’s 1978 ruling in the “Nirmal Chandra Dutta vs Girindra Narayan Roy” case. It is a precautionary measure taken against the grant of probate or letters of administration, as the case may be, by the person lodging the caveat. Section 148A of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) , elaborating upon a caveat was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976, after the Law Commission’s recommendation. Any person can lodge a caveat in a Court. The caveator or the person lodging is also required to serve a notice of the caveat by “registered post” to the person on whose plea they are lodging the application It was recently used in the  “Shailendra Mani Tripathi v. Union of India & Others”, a petition seeking menstrual leave for female students and working women across Indian institutions. Source: The Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: (2022) Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian  Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently,  a  Congress leader was booked under IPC sections including 153A, 505, and 295A. About Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC): Origin: In the pre-Independence Rangila Rasool case, the Punjab High Court had acquitted the Hindu publisher of a tract that had made disparaging remarks about the private life of the Prophet, and had been charged under Section 153A. Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) penalizes “promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony”. This is punishable with imprisonment up to three years, with a fine, or with both. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code. Section 505, penalizes “statements conducing to public mischief” . The data from the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) show that the rate of conviction for Section 153A is very low. In 2020, the cases registered were  six times higher than the cases in 2014. However, the conviction rate in 2020 was 20.2%, suggesting that the process often becomes the punishment. Safeguards against misuse of Section 153 A: Sections 153A and 153B require prior sanction from the government for initiating prosecution. This is required before the trial begins, and not at the stage of preliminary investigation. To curb indiscriminate arrests, the Supreme Court laid down a set of guidelines in its 2014 ruling in Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar. According to this, for offenses that carry a sentence of fewer than seven years, the police cannot automatically arrest an accused before investigation. In a 2021 ruling, the SC said that the state will have to prove intent for securing a conviction under Section 153A. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Borthekera Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Science and technology Context: In recent studies, the medicinal plant commonly called Borthekera in Assamese was found to have cardioprotective potential. About  Borthekera:     Garcinia pedunculata, commonly called ‘Borthekera’ is  a medicinal plant found in  Assam. The tree is endemic to the south-eastern regions of Asia such as parts of Myanmar and north-eastern parts of India. It is traditionally forbidden for raw consumption. It has been found to protect from heart diseases. Uses of Borthekera : The administration of the dried pulp of its ripe fruit reduces cardiac hypertrophy indicators, oxidative stress, and heart inflammation. The sun-dried slices of the ripe fruit are used for culinary and medicinal purposes and are known to have therapeutic properties like anti-inflammatory, anthelmintic, antibacterial, antifungal, antidiabetic, hypolipidemic, nephroprotective, and even neuroprotective activity. Borthekera is a rich source of antioxidants. In Assam, such slices are used for preparing delicacies like “tenga diya masor jol” meaning Assamese sour fish curry. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, 5, and 6 only 2, 4, 5, and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Q.2) In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? (2021) Fern Lichen Moss Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 4 only 2 only 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 Q3. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? (2021) They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment They may release Sulphur dioxide as a pollutant Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED) , Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC ) and e-NAM Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, a Nashik onion cultivator destroyed 200 quintals of ready-to-harvest crops, fearing bad returns. About National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED): National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED) was established in  1958. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. It was set up with the object to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed. Objectives : to  facilitate, coordinate, and promote the marketing and trading activities of the cooperative institutions, partners, and associates in agricultural, other commodities, articles, and goods. to undertake or promote on its own or on behalf of its member Institutions or the Government or Government Organizations, Inter-State, and international trade and commerce. to act as an agent of any Government agency or cooperative institution, for the purchase, sale, storage, and distribution. to act as an insurance agent and to undertake all such work that is incidental to the same. to organize consultancy work in various fields for the benefit of the cooperative institutions. to undertake the manufacture of agricultural, machinery and implements, processing, packing, etc. to maintain transport units of its own or in collaboration with any other organization in India or abroad. to undertake marketing research and dissemination of market intelligence. to subscribe to the share capital and undertake business collaboration. to arrange for the training of employees of marketing/ processing/supply cooperative societies Additional Information: About Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC ) The  Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee was established under the provisions of the APLM Act. These are marketing boards set up by state governments to eliminate farmer exploitation by intermediaries The APMC laws in most states require farmers to sell a variety of goods in their neighbourhood mandis. A State is geographically divided into various units and markets (also known as Mandis) which are established in different places within the state. All food must be brought to market and auctioned off. Benefits of APMC : They safeguard the farmers from exploitation by creditors and other intermediaries. They provide storage facilities such as go-downs etc. to the farmers. They arrange for farmer markets so that the farmers could sell their produce to the consumers directly. They help in controlling price fluctuations. About National Agriculture Market or eNAM: eNAM platform is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. It was launched in 2016 as a pan-India electronic trade portal linking agricultural produce market committees (APMCs) across all states. It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. It facilitates farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading in commodities. It provides for contactless remote bidding and mobile-based anytime payment for which traders do not need to either visit mandis or banks for the same. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare Source:  THE TIMES OF INDIA Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Q3. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Orangutans Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently , Orangutans smuggling was caught by authorities. About  Orangutans:   Orangutans are great ape’s native to the rainforests of Indonesia and Malaysia. They are now found only in parts of Borneo and Sumatra. They have proportionally long arms and short legs and have reddish-brown hair covering their bodies. Bornean and Sumatran orangutans differ a little in appearance and behavior. The Bornean orangutan is  estimated as Endangered as per IUCN status. The Sumatran are categorized as Critically Endangered as per IUCN status. The Tapanuli orangutan is the most endangered of all great apes. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Cyberattacks Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security) Context: Ransomwares have emerged as the most predominant of malicious cyberattacks worldwide. About Cyberattacks: Cyberattacks are unwelcome attempts to steal, expose, alter, disable or destroy information through unauthorized access to computer systems. Typically such forms of attacks to keep networks from functioning after encrypting data, are carried out by ransomware-seeking entities. In ransomware, the perpetrators demand hefty payments for the release of withheld data. Recent cases of ransomware attacks AIIMS Cyberattack: The ransomware attack was faced by the servers of India’s premium institute, the All India Institute of Medical Sciences. Nearly 40 million health records were compromised and it took over two weeks for the systems to be brought online. Cyberattack on Solar Industries Limited: A ransomware gang, BlackCat, breached the parent company of Solar Industries Limited, one of the Ministry of Defence’s ammunition and explosives manufacturers, and extracted over 2 terabytes of data. Overall data: Data shows that over 75% of Indian organisations have faced such attacks, with each breach costing an average of Rs.35 crores of damage. Reasons for increasing Cyberattacks: Increasing dependency on technology: As we grow faster, more and more systems are being shifted to virtual space to promote access and ease of use. However, the downside to this trend is the increased vulnerability of such systems to cyber-attacks. Asymmetric and covert warfare: Unlike, conventional warfare with loss of lives and eyeball-to-eyeball situations, cyber warfare is covert warfare with the scope of plausible deniability, i.e. the governments can deny their involvement even when they are caught. Therefore, cyber warfare has increasingly become the chosen space for conflict between nations. Lack of robust law enforcement mechanisms: India’s approach to cyber security has so far been ad hoc and unsystematic. Despite a number of agencies, policies and initiatives, their implementation has been far from satisfactory. Adverse relations with China: China is considered one of the world leaders in information technology. Therefore, it is expected to have capabilities to disable or partially interrupt the information technology services in another country. Combined with the recent border standoff and violent incidents between the armies of the two countries, the adversity in relations is expected to spill over to attacking each other’s critical information infrastructure. Asymmetric and covert warfare: Unlike conventional warfare with loss of lives and eyeball to eyeball situations, cyber warfare is covert warfare with the scope of plausible deniability, i.e. the governments can deny their involvement even when they are caught. Lack of International Coordination: International cooperation and consensus is missing in this field. Low digital literacy among the general public and digital gaps amongst nations create an unsustainable environment in the cyber domain. It is often reported that people are duped easily by click-baiting them into clicking interesting content, which often has malware attached to itself. Challenges associated with cyberattacks: Need of a cyber security policy: With cyber threats capable of undermining our critical infrastructure, industry and security, a comprehensive cyber security policy is the need of the hour. Scarcity of workforce: Most organisations lack the tools to identify cyberattacks, let alone prevent them. India also faces an acute scarcity of cybersecurity professionals. Nearly two-thirds would find it challenging to respond to a cybersecurity incident due to the shortage of skills within their team. India is projected to have a total workforce of around 3,00,000 people in this sector in contrast to the 1.2 million people in the United States. Digital Geneva Convention: Most of our organisations are private, and their participation remains limited in India’s cybersecurity structures. They would be advised to look at the Digital Geneva Convention, where over 30 global companies have signed a declaration to protect users and customers from cyber breaches and collaborate with like-minded intergovernmental and state frameworks. Need for a global framework: With most cyberattacks originating from beyond our borders, international cooperation would be critical to keeping our digital space secure. India’s Preparedness to Ensure Cybersecurity: Banning of unsafe apps: India had banned apps that posed a threat to security. India had banned many apps (mostly of Chinese origin), which were found to be unsafe for usage by Indian citizens. Awaited National cybersecurity strategy: Comprehensive plan in preparing & dealing with cyber-attacks (Pre, Post and During the attack). Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): Launched in 2018, It is an apex coordination centre to deal with cybercrimes. Evolving Technology: Cyber attackers are continuously working on novel ways to sabotage the systems. CERT-In (Cyber Emergency Response Team, India): is an office within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of the Government of India. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing. It strengthens security-related defence of the Indian Internet domain. National Cyber Security Policy, 2013: The policy provides the vision and strategic direction to protect the national cyberspace. Cyber Swachhta Kendra: Launched in 2017, these helps users to analyse and keep their systems free of various viruses, bots/ malware, Trojans, etc. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): Launched in 2018, It is an apex coordination centre to deal with cybercrimes. Cyber Surakshit Bharat: It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018 with an aim to spread awareness about cybercrime and building capacity for safety measures for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT staff across all government departments. The Cyber Warrior Police Force: It was organised on the lines of the Central Armed Police Force in 2018. Personal Data Protection Bill: The bill mandates the strengthening of data infrastructure by private companies to safeguard the data of individuals. Information Technology Act, 2000 (Amended in 2008): It is the main law for dealing with cybercrime and digital commerce in India. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) was created under Section 70A of IT Act 2000 to protect Cyberinfrastructure. Way Forward: Human resource is crucial and there is an urgent need to create an informal Indian team of Cyber Warriors. The critical infrastructure managers should also be well trained in cyber warfare and well equipped with all the technologies for isolating viruses and attacks. There should be a reward for white hackers who can highlight their shortcomings. The managers and common mass must be made aware. There is a need to enhance the general awareness levels of the government installations as well as the general public to counter such threats. Separate wing under Army or Navy as Cyber Command on lines of US. The need of the hour is to come up with a futuristic National Cyber-Security Policy which allocates adequate resources and addresses the concerns of the stakeholders. Similarly, there is a need for quicker up-gradation of the existing infrastructure as information technology is a fast-evolving field and there is a need to stay ahead of the competition. Cooperation with G20: The G-20 summit this year in India, which will see participation by all the stakeholders driving the global levers of power, is a rare opportunity to bring together domestic and international engagement groups across the spectrum, and steer the direction of these consultations. India could try to conceptualise a global framework of common minimum acceptance for cybersecurity. Source: The Hindu India’s sticky Inflation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Last week, CSO released the inflation data, it showed that in January, India’s retail inflation surged by 6.5%. In other words, the general price level facing the consumers in January 2023 turned out to be 6.5% higher than the price level in January 2022; this is called a year-on-year (or y-o-y) growth rate. About Inflation:   Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc. Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time. The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This is measured in percentage. Measures of Inflation in India: In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation. There are two main set of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI). GDP deflator is also used to measure inflation. Significance of Inflation spike in recent times: The headline retail inflation rate was 7.4% in September 2022 but since then it was fast losing steam every month and fell to 5.7% in December. This moderation had convinced many to demand that the RBI should avoid raising interest rates — something the RBI did not do when it met on February 8. In fact, the RBI raised the repo rate the interest rate at which it lends money to the banking system by 25 basis points (100 basis points make up a full percentage point). RBI raises the repo rate when it believes that inflation is not in control. Higher interest rates drag down overall demand for goods and services by making loans costlier. Lower demand is expected to cool down inflation. The recent surge was also an unexpected event — most economists and observers expected inflation to rise by just 6% and it has renewed the apprehensions of the RBI raising the interest when it meets again in April. RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meets every two months to reconsider its monetary policy stance. As increase in interest rate, while doing its bit towards containing inflation, impacts on India’s economic growth. To be sure, there is a constant trade-off between maintaining price stability (read containing inflation) and boosting growth (which hopefully creates jobs and reduces unemployment) Therefore, if inflation stays persistently high (‘sticky’), it would necessitate the RBI to keep raising interest rates  or, at the very least, keep them at a high level for a longer period and, in doing so, hurt India’s economic recovery out of the twin shocks of the Covid pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war. Reasons for recent Inflation trends: Inflation being sticky essentially means that inflation is taking longer than expected to fall. Essentially, higher food and fuel prices have seeped into the broader economy and made other things costlier. “A deeper dive into the core inflation basket suggests that firms continued to pass on higher input costs to consumers, while inflation is moderating in the services sector. Core goods inflation continued to inch up to 6% y-o-y in January from 7.5% in December and 7.1% six months back. Core services inflation, by contrast, has progressively been moderating from 5.5% in September to 5.0% in January Rise in food and fuel prices got increasingly generalised over ensuing months. This was reflected in highly elevated and sticky core inflation. Unprecedented input cost pressures got translated to output prices, particularly goods prices, in spite of muted demand conditions and pricing power. As the direct effects of the conflict waned and international commodity prices softened, the strengthening domestic recovery and rising demand enabled pass-through of pent-up input costs, especially in services, adding persistence to elevated inflationary pressures. However, for what it is worth, India is not the only country facing sticky inflation; many others such as the US and countries in the euro zone — are also struggling to extricate themselves from sticky inflation. Way Forward: Both the government and Reserve Bank of India try to tackle inflation with their policies which are known as Fiscal and Monetary Policies respectively. Fiscal policies correspond to tax related measures taken by government to control inflation (money supply). RBI through its various monetary policies limit the money supply by altering rates like CRR, Repo, Reverse Repo etc. Administrative measures taken by government like strengthening of Public Distribution System also plays a crucial role in curbing inflation. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Agriculture Market or eNAM: It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Communications. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED): It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following rivers: Dhanei Badanadi Ken Which of the above is/are tributaries of Rushikulya river: 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) THE Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: Recently, after objections, ICHR stopped singing the daily national anthem, and removed the images of Bharat Mata and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya. About THE INDIAN COUNCIL OF HISTORICAL RESEARCH (ICHR) : The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, Government of India. It was established by the Ministry of Education & Social Welfare, Govt. of India (now, Ministry of Education) in 1972. ICHR was registered under the Societies Registration Act (Act xxi of 1860), an Act for the registration of Literary, Scientific and Charitable Societies in India. The primary aim and objective of the Indian Council of Historical Research are to promote and give directions to historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of history. Some of the objectives of the Council: To foster objective and scientific writing of history such as to inculcate an informed appreciation of the country’s national and cultural heritage; To review the progress of historical research from time to time. To advise the Government of India on all such matters pertaining to historical research and training in history methodology as may be referred to it from time to time. To sponsor historical research programmes. To provide technical assistance for the formulation of historical research programmes by individuals or institutions. To promote publications of historical research of a high standard Generally, take all such measures as may be found necessary from time to time to promote historical research and its utilization in the country.  Functions: To provide fellowships and financial assistance to young teachers in colleges, universities and registered research organizations, To publish a biannual Journal – the Indian Historical Review, and another journal Itihas in Hindi. To maintain a large and expanding Library-cum-Documentation Centre with facilities of DELNET and J-STOR. To maintain two regional centres namely ICHR North-East Regional Centre (Guwahati) and ICHR Southern Regional Centre (Bangalore)  MUST READ :  About Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Source:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Kaziranga National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has sought a “factual report” on the rhino population enumeration conducted in the Kaziranga National Park in March 2022. About Kaziranga National Park: Kaziranga National Park is a prestigious national park of India situated in the northeastern part of the country in the district of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam. It was created in the year of 1904. It was declared a National Park in 1974. It was declared a tiger reserve in 2007. Kaziranga was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO for its unique natural environment in the year of 1985. The park has been identified as an Important Bird Area by the Birdlife International Society as it is home to various species of migrating and inhabitant birds. It is situated on the banks of the river Brahmaputra. It is majorly known for the ‘big four’ species— Rhino, Elephant, Royal Bengal tiger, and Asiatic water buffalo. The National Highway 37 passes through it.  The Diphlu River runs through it.  The landscape is marked by: Tropical moist mixed deciduous forests and tropical semi-evergreen forests, tall grasses, open jungle, and short grasses . About the One -horned Rhino: The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. It is found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and India. It is Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and lies in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act. It is in Appendix I of the  Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): India is home to over 85 % population. It is found in UP, West Bengal and Assam. According to WWF data from 2012, Assam has 91 % of the total Rhino in India which is mainly concentrated in Kaziranga National Park, and Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary. Others include Manas Tiger Reserve, Orang Tiger Reserve and Laokhowa Reserved Forests There are five rhino species: Great One horned rhino- Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List. White rhinos – near threatened in the IUCN Red List. Black rhinos in Africa – critically endangered in the IUCN Red List. Javan rhino- Critically endangered in IUCN Red List. Sumatran rhinos- extinct. There are three species of rhino in Asia—Greater one-horned (Rhinoceros unicornis), Javan and Sumatran. Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India. Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedeghog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chances of being captured by predators , which of the above organisms roll up /rolls up /protects its/their vulnerable parts ? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Neutral citation system Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud announced that the Supreme Court will adopt a “neutral citation system” for its judgments. About the Neutral citation system : A case citation is an identification tag for a judgment that would contain a reference number, the year of the judgment, the name of the court that delivered that judgment, and a shorthand for the journal publishing the judgment. A neutral citation means that the court would assign its own citation — distinct from those given by traditional Law Reporters. For example: in the All-India Reporter (AIR), the citation is AIR 1973 SC 1461 Significance of a Neutral citation : With artificial intelligence (AI) enabling the translation of judgments and transcribing of court proceedings, a uniform citation is necessary. To ease the adjudicatory process. To avoid confusion arising out of one case being cited by different people in a number of different ways. Several High Courts including Delhi High Court have started a neutral citation format. Implementation : All 30,000 judgments are going to have neutral citations. The first tranche will be till January 1, 2023, then the other tranche will be till judgments from 2014 and then finally it will go back to 1950. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA) and Gulfood 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA)  participated in the 28th edition of Gulfood 2023 held in UAE. About  the Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA): It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Head Office: New Delhi It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for organic exports. Chairman – appointed by the Central Government. Functions : Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance. Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed. Fixing standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughterhouses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places Improving packaging of the Scheduled products; Improving marketing of the Scheduled products outside India. Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products. APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetables and their Products. Meat and Meat Products. Poultry and Poultry Products. Dairy Products. Confectionery, Biscuits, and Bakery Products. Honey, Jaggery, and Sugar Products. Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages. Cereal and Cereal Products. Groundnuts, Peanuts, and Walnuts. Pickles, Papads, and Chutneys. Guar Gum. Floriculture and Floriculture Products. Herbal and Medicinal Plants. De–oiled rice bran. Green pepper in brine. Cashew Nuts and Its Products. Basmati Rice has been included in the Second Schedule of the APEDA Act. APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the import of sugar as well. About Gulfood 2023: The 28th edition of Gulfood 2023 which was held in the UAE. GULFOOD which is a platform that connects food and beverage sectors around the globe. The Indian pavilion at Gulfood 2023 is one of the largest pavilions at the show to cater food product exports to more than 125 countries participating in the event. More than 50 Indian exporters from different categories like women entrepreneurs, Start-ups, merchants, and manufacturers showcasing agricultural, dairy, pulses, and meat-based produce with a focus on Millet and its products through the APEDA pavilion, are being showcased. Over the years APEDA has participated in Gulfood and brought a strong contingent of suppliers from the Indian diaspora. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Zebrafish Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, researchers, for the first time, have used the body’s own chemistry to develop electrodes in the tissues of zebrafish (a small freshwater fish). About Zebrafish : It is a tropical freshwater fish belonging to the minnow family (Cyprinidae) of the order Cypriniformes. Habitat: Native to rivers and streams of South Asia. It is a freshwater fish found in tropical and subtropical regions. The fish is native to South Asia’s Indo-Gangetic plains, where they are mostly found in the paddy fields and even in stagnant water and streams. Features: It is a popular aquarium fish. It is about 4 cm long and has dark-blue and silvery longitudinal stripes. IUCN Red List Status: Least concerned. Significance of Zebrafish: Zebrafish have the ability to heal their heart after injury through a regenerative process.  If part of their heart is removed, they can grow it back in a matter of weeks. Humans cannot regenerate their hearts upon myocardial damage and a person who suffered a heart attack cannot functionally heal the damaged heart muscle, resulting in reduced pumping efficiency. Till now, there is no treatment available to restore the damaged heart function in humans. Hence scientists have sought to decode the heart regeneration processes using this model animal. In May 2021, it was announced by researchers at the Queen’s University in Belfast, UK that the hibernation form known as induced torpor found in zebrafish will give radio-protective effects, that may be useful for interplanetary voyages Replicating hibernation may therefore protect astronauts against the harsh conditions of space flight Zebrafish have also been found to regenerate photoreceptor cells and retinal neurons following injury.  Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperm of a prospective parent. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3  Q.2) Which of the following are detritivores? (2021) Earthworms Jellyfish Seahorse Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, and 4 only 2, 3, 4, and 4 only 1, 3, and 5 only 1,2,3,4 and 5 Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework adopted recently, respects the rights of indigenous people regarding biodiversity. About Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: The “Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework” (GBF) was adopted by the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity. It includes four goals and 23 targets to be achieved by 2030. COP 15 took place in Montreal, Canada. Through Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), countries agreed to protect 30 percent of the planet by 2030. The countries pledged to achieve 23 targets to reverse ecosystem degradation under four overarching goals for the survival of the natural world. Under the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), countries also agreed to reduce harmful government subsidies worth 500 billion dollars annually, while vowing to identify subsidies that are harmful to biodiversity by 2025. Its other targets include reducing the use of pesticides by half and raising annual international financial flows from developed to developing countries to at least 20 billion dollars by 2025, and to at least 30 billion dollars by 2030. Impact on India: The Global Biodiversity Plan gives India legroom on farm subsidies. The GBF gives elbow space to India both in terms of continuing farm subsidies and pesticide use. About Nagoya Protocol: This protocol was established at the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement that aims to fairly and equitably distribute the advantages that result from the use of genetic resources. The procedure was approved in Nagoya, Japan, in 2010 and came into effect in 2014. The Nagoya Protocol has been ratified by 137 parties as of April 2022, including the European Union and 136 UN member states. India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011 and ratified it in October 2012. The ratification by India was done at the 11th Conference of Parties (COP) to the CBD, which was conducted in Hyderabad. Members are required under the protocol to implement procedures pertaining to compliance, benefit sharing, and access to genetic resources. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2)  Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat of the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5  Q.3) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only Missing Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The 17th Lok Sabha has completed three years and seven months of its term; however, the House has not elected a Deputy Speaker. Presiding officers of Lok Sabha: Speaker and Deputy Speaker: There are two presiding officers for the Lok Sabha, namely the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, who are elected by the members of the House. Constitutional provisions: Under Article 93 of the Constitution, as soon as the House meets after the election these two presiding officers are elected one after the other. Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state. Officers of Parliament: The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are described in the Constitution as officers of Parliament, which signifies their importance in the parliamentary system. About Deputy Speaker: Article 93 of Constitution of India: The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respective Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be. Election: In the Lok Sabha, the lower House of the Indian Parliament, both Presiding Officers – the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected from among its members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House. Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House. When he presides over a sitting, he has all the powers of a Speaker. Gaining importance: In addition to presiding over the House in the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker chaired committees both inside and outside of Parliament. Ensures continuity of Speaker’s office: The Deputy Speaker ensures the continuity of the Speakers office by acting as the Speaker when the office becomes vacant: Illness, or by death, or because of resignation or any other reason. When the Speaker’s post falls vacant, it is the Deputy Speaker who assumes all the powers of the Speaker and exercises both legislative powers and administrative powers. Presiding officer in specific cases: When a resolution for removal of the Speaker is up for discussion, the Constitution specifies that the Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings of the House. A Deputy Speaker is also the ex-officio chairman of some committees by virtue of his position. From ruling party or opposition: In the case of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the position has varied over the years. Until the fourth Lok Sabha, the Congress held both the Speaker and Deputy Speakers positions. In the fifth Lok Sabha, whose term was extended due to the Emergency, an independent member, Shri G G Swell, was elected the Deputy Speaker. The tradition for the post of the Deputy Speaker going to the Opposition party started during the term of Prime Minister Morarji Desai’s government. Historical background of Deputy Speaker: The history of the office of Deputy Speaker goes back to the government of India Act of 1919 when he was called Deputy President as the Speaker was known as the president of the central legislative assembly. This tradition was continued after Independence, when a Deputy Speaker was elected to chair, besides the Speaker, the meetings of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative). The first Speaker was G V Mavlankar and the first Deputy Speaker was M Ananthasayanam Ayyangar who was elected by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on September 3, 1948. Later under the new Constitution, he was elected the first Deputy Speaker of the House of the people on May 28, 1952. Thereafter, every Lok Sabha had a Deputy Speaker who would be elected after a few days after the election of the Speaker. Power of Deputy Speaker: The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when he presides over a sitting of the House. Similarly no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker. So the Speaker is powerless in the matter of revising or overruling a decision of the Deputy Speaker. Under Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker gets all the powers of the Speaker when the office of the Speaker is vacant, so the Deputy Speaker can also determine the petitions relating to disqualification under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling. In the eventuality of the Speaker remaining absent for a longer time due to illness or otherwise the government will have to grapple with the unpredictability of a ruling or an adverse decision by a Deputy Speaker who comes from the Opposition ranks. Need for Deputy Speaker: Unprecedented Move: It is quite unfortunate that the Deputy Speaker has not been appointed for more than two years now (for the first time in the history of independent India). Decreasing Discussion in recent times: Parliament is viewed as a temple of deliberation and discussion. But, in the recent Lok Sabha Monsoon session, there has been zero discussion on any policy issue. Falling productivity: In 2020-21, Lok Sabha functioned for 34 days while Rajya Sabha functioned for 33 days. It was the lowest ever in India. Winter session 2020 was not conducted completely. Even Budget Session 2021 was reduced by two weeks because of election campaigning. Hasty legislation: No bill was passed to the Parliamentary Committee. Every bill introduced in this Monsoon Session was passed within the same session. Surprisingly, 18 bills were passed in Lok Sabha with only one bill being discussed over 15 minutes. Issues associated with the role of Deputy Speaker: No specific timeline for Deputy Speaker’s appointment: Article 93 for Lok Sabha and Article 178 for state Assemblies state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be”, choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The Constitution and the Assembly rules do not specify a time-frame for filling a vacancy in the post. Maintaining Neutrality: It would be unrealistic to expect a Presiding Officer to completely abjure all party considerations while functioning as there are structural issues regarding the manner of appointment of the Speaker and his/her tenure in office. Way Forward: The office of the Deputy Speaker is as important as the office of the speaker. The constitution has created this office for the smooth functioning of the house. Therefore, in the present circumstances, the post of Deputy Speaker is desirable to maintain neutrality and smooth functioning of the Parliament. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Genetic Information and Right to Privacy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has held in a judgment that children cannot be subjected to DNA tests in each and every case to establish proof of infidelity. About Genetic Privacy: It is a term that seeks to prevent a third party from using a person’s genetic data without his permission. A person’s genes are the blueprint of his or her physical or biological being, personal life and information about the future, present and history. Other information that can be abstracted: alcoholism, depression, aggressiveness, sexual orientation, mental productivity etc. When a person’s genetic data is used for testing, medical purposes, or other purposes, his privacy should be protected. Genetic data is made up of a person’s deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chromosomes. DNA sample sources: hair, teeth, blood etc. SC rulings on genetic information: Genetic information is personal and intimate. Thus, a child’s genetic information is part of his fundamental right to privacy. Children have the right to not have their legitimacy questioned before a court of law. DNA tests would harm the reputation and dignity of the mother. The children should not to be subjected to forensic/DNA testing during the divorce proceedings. Family courts should direct for a DNA test only in the situations where it is a last resort and in the interest of justice. Status of Genetic Privacy in India: In 2018, The Delhi High Court stated that discrimination in health insurance against people based on their genetic origin, in the absence of genetic test is unconstitutional. Genetic discrimination breaches Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law. In Justice KS Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India, SC stated that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental Right under Article 21. Genetic discrimination in other countries: In 2008, the United States had passed the Genetic Information Non-discrimination Act (GINA), to protects people from genetic discrimination in health care and jobs. Council of Europe has adopted the Guidelines on the use of genetic knowledge for insurance purposes. Under Canada’s Genetic Non-discrimination Act, it is illegal for insurers or employers to request DNA testing or findings. Advantages of genetic information: Genetic information may disclose information about a disease, illness, or a person’s health status. It can make a person more aware of his or her health. A person can learn about his ancestors and distant relatives. One’s data can be used in medical research. If a person learns about his illness early on, he would be able to take more preventative steps to treat it. Disadvantages of genetic Information: Based on the profile available in the domain, genetic evidence can be fabricated in any crime scene through engineered DNA samples not taken from a real individual. Data such as person’s personal life, health, family members, and other private information when assessed by a third party can be misused. If such information is revealed, it can negatively impact individuals lives, such as discrimination from employers, insurance providers, the government, and others. UN Convention on the Rights of the Child: It is a treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. It recognises a child as every human being under 18 years old. It is an international agreement that is legally binding on the members. It sets out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child, regardless of their race, religion or abilities. It includes rights such as Right to Education, Right to Rest and Leisure, Right to Protection from Mental or Physical Abuse including Rape and Sexual Exploitation. It has been ratified by all members of the UN except for the United States. It is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in the history of the world. Way Forward: Thus with improvements in encryption, safe storage, and data transfer protocols, there may be potential to improve privacy protections technologically. From an ethical standpoint, it will be crucial to keep educating the public about the benefits and dangers of genetic testing and data sharing. It may entail activities to provide fair access to genetic testing and benefits as well as efforts to support transparency, openness, and accountability around the collection, use, and sharing of genetic data. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR): It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture. It is statutory body established under the Societies Registration Act 1980. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, consider the following statements: Assam has more than 90 % of the total Rhino in India. Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India. One -horned Rhinos are listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Nagoya protocol: This protocol was established at the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity. India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011. Protocol is an international agreement that aims to fairly and equitably distribute the advantages that result from the use of genetic resources. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and International Labour Organization (ILO) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India , has been selected as External Auditor of the International Labour Organization in Geneva for a four-year term from 2024 to 2027. About CAG: CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in chapter V under Part V. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse. He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. Incumbent CAG of India: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG: Article 148–151 , in  Part V of the constitution of India deals with the appointment, oath and conditions of service ,Duties and Powers of CAG. Article 279 – The calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule – Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule– According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. In addition, these bodies’ accounts are audited in such manner as CAG may think fit, and the reports relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. About International Labour Organization (ILO): It was established by the Treaty of Versailles in 1919. It is the only tripartiteN. agency. It brings together governments, employers and workers. Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland. It receivedthe Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 The eight-core conventions of the ILO are: Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105) Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100) Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111) Minimum Age Convention (No.138) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182) Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87) Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98) India is afounding member of the ILO India has ratified six out of the eight-core/fundamental ILO conventions. These conventions are: Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105) Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100) Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111) Minimum Age Convention (No.138) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182) Key reports by ILO : World Employment and Social Outlook. Global Wage Report. Source:AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The third e-auction to offload wheat under Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) took place recently. About OMSS: The government sells the excess stock of food grains in the open market through e-auctions through this scheme. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) on instructions from the Government, sells wheat and rice in the open market from time to time. The purpose of OMSS is to dispose of surplus stocks of wheat and rice held by FCI(Food Corporation of India)and to regulate the prices of wheat in the open market. FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX). NCDEX – a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities. Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus: (2019) Transportation cost only Interest cost only Procurement incidentals and distribution cost Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns Q.2) With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements: (2018) The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains. The eldest woman in a household, age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Shipping Industry in India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways  stressed upon reducing pollution intensity and evolve strategies to introduce renewable energy and green hydrogen in the shipping sector. About Shipping Industry in India : According to the Ministry of Shipping, around 95% of India’s trading by volume and 70% by value is done through maritime transport. India has 12 major and 205 notified minor and intermediate ports. Mumbai Port is India’s largest port by size. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of major ports in India. Krishnapatnam Port, is the deepest port in India . India is the sixteenth-largest maritime country in the world with a coastline of about 7,517 kms.  The Indian Government plays an important role in supporting the ports sector. It has allowed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) of up to 100% under the automatic route for port and harbour construction and maintenance project India’s merchandise exports in FY22 were at US$ 417.8 billion, up 40% from the previous year. Indian ports received cumulative FDI inflow worth US$ 1.63 billion between April 2000-June 2021. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) Special Economic Zone (SEZ) became the first of its kind operational port-based multi-product SEZ in India. APSEZ (Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone) plans to become the world’s largest private port company by 2030 and carbon neutral by 2025. India was ranked 44th in the Logistics Performance Index, a measure through which the World Bank ranks countries based on their logistics performance. Logistics Performance Index (LPI) : It is released by World Bank  India ranked 44th on the LPI in 2018 Government Initiative to boost Shipping Industry: The Sagarmala Programme – It is the flagship program of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led developmentin the country. It aims to modernize India’s Ports Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilizers, and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Q.2) India’s ranking on the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (2016) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) World Economic Forum World Bank World Trade Organization (WTO) Khajuraho temples Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: While Khajuraho is internationally recognized for its rich architectural grandeur of the Western Group of temples that UNESCO recognizes as world heritage, the districts of Chhatarpur and Panna have lesser-known destinations that can serve as model local tourist destinations. About Khajuraho Temples : The Temples of Khajuraho are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of templesas the temples consist of a sanctum, a narrow ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (mahamandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a mandapa or nave and an ambulatory passage (Pradakshina-path) which is lighted by large windows. These are a collection of Hindu and Jain temples located in Madhya Pradesh. They are known for its ornate temples, was built by the Chandela rulers between 900 CE to 1130 CE. These are located in the Vindhya Mountain range. They  got the status of UNESCO’s World Heritage Site in 1986. Erotic imagery is very common in the Temples of Khajuraho. Sculptures of celestial nymphs with broad hips, heavy breasts and languishing eyes are commonly found in the Kandariya Mahadeva and Vishwanath Temple. These sculptures are believed to reflect the idea of female beauty and fertility. Other scenes depicted on the walls of the temples are a part of the Narathara (the human life cycle) signifying how sexual procreation and kamaare an essential aspect of human life. The major focus of the study of the Temples of Khajuraho have been on the sculptures. The walls of these temples have some of the best sculptures of the time, making Khajuraho a representation of excellent artistic features. It is believed that the temples constitute five different sets of sculptures: cult images the parivara, parsva and avarana devatas the apsaras and the surasundaris secular sculptures of miscellaneous themes (dancers, musicians, disciples and domestic scenes) mythical creatures (vyalas, sardula and other animals) The first mention of Khajuraho and its temples is in the accounts of Abu Rahyan al Biruni( 1022 CE) and Ibn Batuta (1335 CE). The carvings on them reflect the four goals of life in Hinduism, viz, dharma, kama, artha, moksha. One theory posits their construction can be understood as a part of the proliferation of the Siva-Sakti cult. The other theory is that the temples are a representation of thedevadasis who were once a major part of the temple activities. The Temples of Khajuraho are divided into three groups, the Western Group, the Eastern Group and the Southern Group. The Western Group: Chausath Jogini Temple-this temple stands on the low rocky eminence to the south west of the Sib-Sagar Kandariya Mahadeva Temple– Largest of all the temples in Khajuraho, it dates back to the 10th century CE. Devi Jagdamba Temple -this temple is now known by the name of Devi Jagdambaor the ‘Mother Goddess of the World’. Chitragupta or Bharatji’s Temple -This temple is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), an image of the Sun God is enshrined within the sanctum, wearing high boots and driving a chariot of seven horses. Vishwanath Temple – Vishwanath, or the ‘Lord of the Universe’, is another name for Lord Shiva to whom this temple is dedicated. Laxmana Temple -also known as the Chaturbhuj Temple. It is popularly known for its innovation in the technique of architecture. The Eastern Group: Brahma Temple -situated on the banks of Khajuraho Sagar. Vamana Temple -situated on the north-east side of the Brahma Temple Ghantai Temple -this temple got its name from the bells suspended on chains which adorn the pillars of its portico. Parsawanatha Jain Temple – it is the largest of the Jaina temples. It is believed to be a shrine of Parsawanatha, the 22nd Jain Tirthankara. The Southern Group: Duladeo Temple – It is about a mile and a half away from the main Khajuraho Temples and was originally dedicated to the Siva Jatkari or Chaturbhuja Temple -situated near the Jatkari village, this temple faces west. It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. About Chandela Dynasty: The Chandela Empire ruled central India from the tenth to the fourteenth centuries. Chandela were well known for their interest in art and architecture. Although followers of Shaivism, the Chandela were also said to have been inclined towards Vaishnavism and Jainismas well. About Panna Biosphere : The Panna Biosphere is located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. It  is situated in the Vindhya Mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh Ken River, a tributary of the Yamuna River, flows through the reserve. The ken-Betwa river interlinking projectwill be located within the tiger reserve. The region is also famous forPanna diamond mining. The Panna National Parkgot the status of  India’s 22nd tiger reserve in 1994. In 2011, it was notified as a Biosphere Reserve by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of tigersin the country followed by Karnataka and Uttarakhand. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Kalyana Karnataka Utsav Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, For the first time, a mega event celebrating the region — the Kalyana Karnataka Utsav, is being  organized by the Government of Karnataka About  Kalyana Karnataka Utsav: The Kalyana Karnataka Utsav is been organized by the Government of Karnataka. It is the  first time, a mega event celebrating the region is being organized. Seven districts including Bidar, Raichur, Yadgir, Koppal, Kalaburagi, Vijayanagara, and Ballari are participating in the grand festival. The theme is focused on educational development and heritage. About Monuments at Kalaburagi : Kalaburagi is a place that housed several Sufi saints who lived to build communal harmony and teach humanity. The region was home to the 12th-century social reformer Basavanna, the 14th-century Sufi Khwaja Bandanawaz Gesudaraz, and the 19th-century saint Sharana Basaveshwara. The region, which was ruled by the Maurya’s, Rashtrakutas, Chalukyas, Bahmani’s, and Nizams, still holds much rich cultural heritage and wonders like The  Bahmani fort consists of a large Jama Masjid and one of the world’s longest cannons. the Haft Gumbaz, where the Bahmani kings were buried. The tomb of Firoz Shah Bahmani which is particularly well-known for its ornamentation with stucco-work and black stone carvings on the doors and windows. The Syed Khalilullah Husseini dargah complexwhich was inspired by Bahmani and Adil Shahi architecture.   There is also a small tomb of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb’s daughter carved with white marble. The palaces of the last two Nizams, Mir Mahbub Ali Khan and his son Mir Osman Ali Khan are also located in the heart of Kalaburagi city and have a high influence of the Gothic style of structures with the addition of the architectural style of local Patel homes. Muhammad bin Yusuf Al-Hussaini, commonly known as Banda Nawaz Gaisu Daraz, was a HanafiMaturidi scholar and Sufi saint from India of the Chishti Orde Basavanna was a 12th-century philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet, and social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka, India. He spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination, superstitions, and rituals. He presided over the Sharana movement which attracted people from all castes. He is the first Kannadiga in whose honour a commemorative coin has been minted in recognition of his social reforms. He introduced new public institutions such as the Anubhava Mantapa, that welcomed men and women from all socio-economic backgrounds to discuss spiritual and mundane questions of life, in open. Taj-ud-din Firoz Shah also known as Firuz Shah Bahmani was the ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate from 1397 to 1422. Firuz Shah is considered an important ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate. He enlarged his realm and even conquered the Raichur Doabfrom the Vijayanagara kings. Mahboob Ali Khan was the youngest son of 5th Nizam Afzal-ud-Daulah. Mir Osman Ali Khan was the last Nizam of Hyderabad, a princely state in British India, and the second richest man in the world in his time. Source:   THE DECCAN HERALD Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: (2020) Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakavasi” sect belongs (2018) Buddhism Jainism Vaishnavism Shaivism Q.3) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Mohiniyattam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Noted dancer Kanak Rele, who gave academic status to Mohiniyattam, passed away recently. About Mohiniyattam: It originated in the state of The dance is performed by women in honor of the Hindu god Vishnuin his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. Mohiniyattamis characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It belongs to the Lasya style which is feminine, tender, and graceful. The references to Mohiniyattam can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiriand in Ghoshayatra, written later by poet Kunjan Nambiar. Mohiniyattam is exclusively danced by women. The Classical dances recognized by the Government of India are: Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu)- Bharatanatyam has grown out of the art of dancers dedicated to temples, and was earlier known as Sadir or Dasi Attam. It is the first of India’s traditional dances to be refashioned as a theatre art. The musicians include at least one vocalist, a Mridangam (drum)-player, and a flutist or violinist or Veena (lute)-player. Kathak (North India)- It is the principal dance of northern India, and is widely practiced in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, and even parts of western and eastern India. It is believed to be connected with the narrative art of Kathakaras or story-tellers. The music of traditional Kathak consists of the Thumri and other lyrical song-forms, and the essential musical instruments are the Tabla, Pakhawaj, and Sarangi. Kathakali (Kerala)- Kathakali or ‘story play’ took shape in Kerala in southern India in the seventeenth century under the patronage of the prince of Karnataka, who wrote plays for performance drawn from the epic Ramayana in Malayalam. Kathakali categorizes its characters according to their nature and employs make-up and costume to build them up as symbolic personalities. Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh)- It originated from Andhra Pradesh, where it grew largely as a product of Bhakti movement beginning in the 7th Century AD and derives its name from the village Kuchelapuram. Kuchipudi today is performed either as a solo, duet or a group presentation, but historically it was performed as a dance drama, with several dancers taking different roles. Odissi (Odisha)- It was performed as part of temple service by ‘meharis’ or female temple servants. The traditional dance was remodeled as a theatre art towards the middle of the twentieth century. The dancer is supported by a singer, a drummer who plays the Pakhawaj, flute and Sitar. Sattriya (Assam)- ‘Sattriya dance’ refers to the body of dance and danced drama developed in the sattras or monasteries of Assam since the sixteenth century, when the Vaishnava faith propagated by the saint and reformer Shankaradeva (1449-1586). Group dances are also common in traditional and modern Sattriya dance, and these may be prefaced with a brief musical ‘interlude’ on drums, the Gayan Bayan. Manipuri (Manipur)- It evolved in Manipur, is anchored in the Vaishnava faith of the Manipur valley. Manipuri dance is introverted and restrained compared to most other dances of India – the artist never establishes eye contact with the audience. The Pung, a drum, and flute are the principal instruments used in Manipuri dance. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deep-Sea Mining Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) and Environment Context: Recently, a study published in the journal Frontiers in Marine Science has warned that commercial deep-sea mining could pose a serious risk to ocean ecosystems. About Deep-Sea Mining: It refers to the extraction of minerals and other resources from the seabed, which can be found in large quantities in the deep ocean. These minerals include metals such as copper, nickel, cobalt, and rare earth elements, as well as valuable resources such as oil and gas. Despite the risks to ocean ecosystems, the Pacific Island nation of Nauru plans to start deep-sea mining, invoking a two-year rule inserted as a part of the UN Convention on Law of the Seas (UNCLOS). The “two-year rule” clause of the UNCLOS requires the ISA to put in place the governance infrastructure – the rules, regulations, and procedures governing the contours of deep-sea mining within two years of approval. India has been allotted a site of 75,000 square kilometers in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the UN International Sea Bed Authority for exploitation of polymetallic nodules. A fraction of that reserve can meet the energy requirement of India for the next 100 years, India’s Exclusive Economic Zone spreads over 2.2 million square kilometres. A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools. Major types of deep-sea mining: Manganese nodule mining: This involves collecting nodules of manganese, iron, and other metals that are scattered on the ocean floor. Seafloor massive sulphide (SMS) mining: This involves extracting mineral deposits formed near hydrothermal vents, which can contain high concentrations of copper, zinc, and other metals. Cobalt crust mining: This involves collecting crusts of cobalt, nickel, and other metals that form on the surface of seamounts. Significance of Deep-Sea mining: Growing demand for minerals: It has the potential to provide a reliable and abundant supply of minerals the demand for which is rapidly increasing, driven by the growth of industries such as renewable energy, electric vehicles, and consumer electronics. Depletion of land-based resources: Deep-sea mining presents an opportunity to access new sources of valuable resources such as cobalt and rare earth metals which are essential to modern technology and industry but are becoming increasingly scarce on land. Strategic importance: Developing a domestic supply of these resources is seen as strategically important for India as many of the minerals and metals that are found in deep sea mining, such as cobalt and rare earth metals, are essential to national security and defence. Economic benefits: It has the potential to create jobs, stimulate economic growth, and generate revenue for governments and companies. Major Issues associated with the deep-sea mining: Environmental impacts: Mining operations can disturb and damage fragile deep-sea ecosystems, including coral reefs, hydrothermal vents, and other important habitats. Thermal pollution: The mining vehicles also generate sediment plumes that could smother the benthic species at the bottom of the ocean. Noise pollution: The process generates noise pollution that can overlap with the frequencies at which cetaceans communicate, causing auditory masking and behavioral changes in marine mammals. Regulatory gaps: There is currently a lack of international regulations governing deep-sea mining, which could lead to environmental harm and other negative impacts. Social and economic impacts: The potential benefits of deep-sea mining may not be evenly distributed, and could lead to social and economic disparities between different communities. Technological challenges: Deep-sea mining requires advanced technologies and equipment that are currently under development, and may not be cost-effective or efficient enough to make the practice commercially viable. Govt of Initiatives to promote deep sea mining: National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR): It was established in 2020 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in Goa, which is tasked with exploring the country’s deep-sea mineral wealth. Draft Deep Seabed Mining Regulations, 2021: It has been formulated by the Indian government to provide a legal framework for the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the country’s exclusive economic zone (EEZ). International collaborations: The government is also considering setting up a nodal agency to regulate deep sea mining activities in the country, in line with the International Seabed Authority (ISA) and the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Way Forward: Studies for understanding deep sea: To understand what species live in the deep sea, how they live, and how they could be affected by mining activities baseline studies are needed with more funds for training and educational programmes focused on improving our understanding of the deep sea. Environmental impact assessments: These assessments are also needed to ensure that the loss of biodiversity as a result of mining operations is properly accounted for in mining regulations set by authorities, well before any decision to mine is approved. The costs to the marine environment should be included in the financial and economic assessments conducted by mining companies. Enhanced regulation: The ISA is operating with the dual mandate of promoting the development of deep-sea minerals whilst ensuring that this development is not harmful to the environment. This challenging and conflicting mandate will require improved oversight by the international community – including government representatives and the general public – to ensure that marine life is adequately protected. To avoid possible conflicts of interest due to the dual mandate of ISA, the organization should consider divesting itself of some of its responsibilities, and placing them on independent entities. Mitigation: Current technologies may not be sufficient to avoid serious and lasting harm to the environment, including the loss of biodiversity. Mining operations strategies should be based on the avoidance of environmental impacts. This requires stringent and precautionary controls on the permissible extent and duration of mining operations to keep large parts of the seabed undisturbed. Minimising impacts should involve, among other things, improving mining equipment to reduce seafloor disturbance. Circular economy: The repair, recycling and reuse of products should be encouraged to help reduce the demand for raw materials from the deep sea. Enhancing product design to make use of less or alternative materials can also reduce the demand. Source: Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG): CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. According to Fifth schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding temples of Khajuraho: They are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of temples architecture. These are a collection of Hindu and Buddhist temples at the Khajuraho. They got the status of UNESCO’s World Heritage Site in 1986. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) It originated in the state of Kerala. The dance is performed by women in honor of the Hindu god Vishnu in his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. It is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It belongs to the Lasya style which is feminine, tender, and graceful. The references to this dance can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and in Ghoshayatra, written later by poet Kunjan Nambiar. It is exclusively danced by women. The above passage describes which of the following classical dances/ Kathakali Mohiniyattam Bharatanatyam Odissi Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  23rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine JANUARY 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is January 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of January 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you Download The Magazine - January 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Judiciary in India Digitalization Self-Reliance in Defense National Green Hydrogen Mission Natural Farming Digital Economy World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2023 UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra India-Egypt Relations And Much More.... Download The Magazine - January 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Teja chilli Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently export demand for Teja variety of red chilli has gone up due to its culinary, medicinal and other wide-ranging uses. About Teja Chillies: Chilli was originally cultivated in North Mexico but is believed to be brought to India by the Portuguese. It is a fine variety of Guntur chilli. It is a fruit that belongs to genus Capsicum. Health benefits of Teja Chilli: Rich in Vitamins and Minerals like Copper, Potassium, Vitamin C, Vitamin B, Vitamin A. It is a powerful anti-oxidant. Studies suggest that it aids in weight loss. Clears congestion. Boosts mood and reduces pain. It has antibacterial properties that helps in curing skin infection. Decreases the risk of osteoporosis. Protects the body against prostate problems. Source:The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Dark galaxy Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Italian researchers have discovered a Dark Galaxy or Invisible Galaxy using Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA). About Dark Galaxy: It is termed invisible because the light emitted couldn’t be seen from the earth. The presence of the galaxy has been discovered using the gravitational lensing technique. Gravitational lensing technique: It is an effect of Einstein’s theory of general relativity – simply put, mass bends light. The gravitational field of a massive object will extend far into space, and cause light rays passing close to that object to be bent and refocused somewhere else. It is discovered as compact. It is young and has interstellar dust. It is forming new stars at the rate of 1000 times the Milky Way. Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA): It is an international partnership of the European Southern Observatory (ESO), with U.S., Japan, Canada, Taiwan, Korea and Chile. It is the world’s largest ground-based facility for observations in the millimeter/submillimetre regime. It is a single telescope composed of 66 high precision antennas. It is located on the Chajnantor plateau, 5000 meters altitude in northern Chile. It allows scientists to unravel longstanding and important astronomical mysteries, in search of our Cosmic Origins. Source:  Livescience Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Extended Producer Responsibility Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: India’s Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) framework for used tyres, batteries, and revised rules for e-waste and plastics kindled interest among the G20 countries. About Extended Producer Responsibility: Extended producers’ Responsibilities is a globally recognized policy used as an effective tool to put the onus on the producers for efficient end of life waste management of the plastic, electronic and electrical equipment. The concept of EPR responsibility is based on three foundation principles: Pollution prevention approach Life cycle thinking, Polluter pay principle EPR responsibility makes it the responsibility of the producers not only to take back products for recycling but also to design better and longer life products to minimize the amount of waste generated. EPR in India: EPR responsibility Certificate: EPR responsibility Certificate is authorized by Central Pollution Control Board which is mandatory for Producers/Importers of the Electronic products. Under these rules, the producers have a responsibility to delegate this responsibility to the third party or specialized organizations which manufacturers can financially aid for proper waste management. EPR Responsibility Policies under E-Waste Management Rules: E-Waste (management and handling) Rules, 2016 adopted Extended Producers Responsibility for the first time in India. EPR responsibility under E-Waste (management) Rules, 2016 stipulates collection targets of E–Waste for producers. The producers are responsible for setting up collection centres for e-waste and financing and organizing a system for environmentally sound management of e-waste. The producers are required to have an arrangement with dismantlers and recyclers through either the Producers responsibility organization or the E-Waste exchange system. Marketing or selling any electronic equipment without EPR responsibility Authorization is considered a violation of the rules. EPR responsibility Policy under Plastic Waste Management Rules: The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022 provide guidelines for strengthening the circular economy of plastic packaging waste as well as promoting alternatives to plastic. Producers of waste are mandated to ensure that generation of plastic waste is minimized, and plastic waste is not littered and stored at the source, which is then handed over to local bodies or authorized agencies. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 REAIM 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, World’s first global summit on Responsible AI in the Military was organized in Netherlands. About REAIM: It brings together governments, corporations, academia, startups, and civil societies to raise awareness, discuss issues, and possibly, agree on common principles for deploying and using AI in armed conflicts. India wasn’t part of this summit. It was co-hosted by the Republic of Korea. Themes of REAIM: “ Myth busting AI: breaking down the characteristics of AI “. Aim: To put the topic of responsible AI in the military domain higher on the political agenda. To mobilise and activate a wide group of stakeholders to contribute to concrete next steps. To foster and increase knowledge by sharing experiences, best practices and solutions. Source: The Hindu Vinyl Chloride Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently Vinyl chloride – the chemical in several of the train cars that derailed and burned in East Palestine, Ohio– can wreak havoc on the human liver. About Vinyl Chloride: It is a colourless gas that burns easily. It is produced industrially for its commercial uses. It can’t occur naturally. Used primarily to make polyvinyl chloride (PVC). PVC is a hard plastic resin used to make a variety of plastic products, including pipes, wire and cable coatings, and packaging materials. It spread through inhaling contaminated air, tobacco smoke, drinking contaminated water, etc. Disease burden: rare forms of liver cancer, as well as primary liver cancer brain and lung cancers, lymphoma, and leukemia. Source:                  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries KAVACH-2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, the All-India Council for Technical Education and the Bureau of Police Research and Development Jointly Launched KAVACH-2023. About KAVACH-2023: It is a National Level Hackathon to tackle cyber threats and provide effective solutions. Hackathon: It is a competition in which participants use technology to achieve an objective. Aims: To identify innovative ideas and technological solutions for addressing the cyber security and cybercrime challenges of the 21st century. Conducted by: Ministry of Education’s Innovation Cell, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) and Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). Objective: To challenge the country’s innovative minds to conceptualize frameworks focusing on cybersecurity issues while using artificial intelligence, machine learning, automation, big data and cloud computing. It includes 20 unique and important matters such as women’s safety apps, obscenity blocker solutions, phishing detection solutions, dark web crawlers, citizen safety apps and malware analysis tools. Source:  Indian Express System for Advance Manufacturing Assessment & Rating (SAMAR) and Electronic Maintenance Management System (e-MMS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Defense Minister of India has inaugurated e-MMS and SAMAR portal. About SAMAR and e-MMS: SAMAR serves as the standard by which defense manufacturing companies are evaluated for their competence. It is an outcome of the collaboration between DRDO and Quality Council of India (QCI). e-MMS was launched by Indian Air Force (IAF). It is one of the largest Maintenance Repair Overhaul (MRO) IT implementation in the world. It has been designed and developed by the Indian IT giant Wipro. It seeks to seamlessly connect squadrons, wings, commands, and Air headquarters after its implementation. It will transform IAF’s paper-based legacy maintenance system to an online system as it will be implemented in IAF’s hierarchy and functioning. It will help to monitor the operational availability of all fleets and systems in real time at various hierarchical levels. Source:  NewsOnAir New policy to help Indian communities displaced by coastal erosion Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) received the final inputs on the draft of India’s first national policy for the mitigation and rehabilitation of the people affected by river and coastal erosion. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has directed NDMA to draft a policy based on the 15th Finance Commission’s report. About Disaster and its classification: Disaster is an undesirable catastrophe resulting from the forces that are largely beyond human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, and causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property. For example, earthquake, tsunami, cyclone, flood, etc. Categories of Natural Disaster: Natural Disasters are broadly categorized as − Atmospheric Disasters, Terrestrial Disasters, Aquatic Disasters and Biological Disasters. Atmospheric disasters include blizzard, thunderstorm, lightning, tropical cyclone, tornado, drought, hailstorm, frost, heat wave, cold waves, etc. Terrestrial disasters include earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, avalanches, subsidence, etc. Aquatic disasters include flood, tidal waves, storm surge, tsunami, etc. Biological disasters include fungal, bacterial, and viral diseases (e.g. bird flu, dengue, etc.). About NDMA: National Disaster Management Authority is an apex body for disaster management in India. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India and has a Vice-Chairman, nine members, and a CEO. It was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and provides guidelines for disaster management to various agencies. It is responsible for preparing and implementing disaster management plans at national, state, and district levels. Major highlights of the policy: Allocations: 15th Finance Commission’s report allocates Rs 1,500 crore for 2021-26 for mitigation measures to prevent erosion under NDMF. Rs 1,000 crore allocated for resettlement of displaced people affected by erosion under NDRF for the same period. Both funds require state governments to contribute 25% of costs on a cost-sharing basis, except Northeastern states which only need to contribute 10% of state funds. NDMA to coordinate allocations and expenses under NDRF and NDMF for mitigation and rehabilitation. Implementation and institutional mechanisms: District disaster management authorities (DDMAs) to implement measures, aided by other district agencies and a specific panchayat-level committee. DDMA to prepare mitigation and rehabilitation plans and submit them to SDMAs for appraisal by NDMA and approval by home ministry’s high-level committee for disbursal of funds. DDMAs will be responsible for organizing, monitoring, and evaluating efforts under supervision of state and national counterparts. NDMA to consultant and emphasize the need for qualified disaster management professionals in all teams. Challenges and recommendations Policy addresses erosion-linked displacement but not displacement caused by deposition of eroded materials and soil piping. Financial allocation under policy not yet clear; funds currently allocated on first-come, first-serve basis for states. Population density should be considered during allocation. Hazard assessments carried out by central agencies should be made available to SDMAs in GIS formats. Policy recommends mapping of fallow areas for rehabilitation with input from affected and vulnerable communities. Significance of disaster management in India: Human lives are at stake: Disaster management can help reduce the loss of life and minimize the impact of disasters which leads to loss of life and property, and long-term health consequences. Climate change: Effective disaster management can help in mitigating the effects of climate change which has led to more frequent and severe natural disasters. Economic impact: Disaster management can help minimize the economic impact of disasters which have a significant impact on the economy, including loss of property and infrastructure, decreased productivity, and disrupted supply chains. Humanitarian assistance: Disaster management can help in coordinating relief efforts and ensuring that assistance reaches those who need it the most. Infrastructure: It can help in improving the resilience of infrastructure which are vulnerable to natural disasters such as roads, bridges, and buildings. Challenges of disaster management: Lack of preparedness: Despite frequent disasters, there is still a lack of preparedness at all levels of governance and society leading to delays in response time and inadequate resources to deal with disasters effectively. Population density: India is one of the most densely populated countries in the world, which can make evacuations and relief efforts more difficult during disasters. Climate change: With the increasing threat of climate change, India is experiencing more frequent and intense disasters, such as floods, droughts, and cyclones putting pressure on the country’s disaster management systems to adapt and respond effectively. Funding: Despite the increasing frequency and severity of disasters, funding for disaster management is often inadequate which often limit the resources available for preparedness, response, and recovery efforts. Lack of coordination: There is often a lack of coordination between different agencies involved in disaster management, such as the government, NGOs, and international organizations leading to duplication of efforts and inefficiencies. Poor infrastructure: Many areas in India lack basic infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and communication networks, making it difficult to reach affected areas during disasters. Way Forward: Disaster management in India faces various challenges, such as inadequate resources, poor infrastructure, limited awareness and education, weak institutional capacity, inadequate coordination and communication, and inadequate research and innovation. Therefore, steps such as continuous improvement and innovation in disaster management, based on the best available science, technology, and practices, and involving all stakeholders in a participatory and inclusive manner can go a long way in changing the scenario. Source: DownToEarth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): It is a statutory body established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is headed by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Vinyl Chloride, a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? Low-density polyethylene Polyvinyl Chloride Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA): It is an international partnership of the European Southern Observatory (ESO), with U.S., Japan and other countries. It is located on the Chajnantor plateau. It is the world’s largest ground-based facility for observations in the millimeter/submillimetre regime. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:  The IEPFA is seeking applications from young students and scholars for its short-term internship programme which began recently. About IEPFA: IEPF is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Companies Act 2013. It administers the Investor Education and Protection Fund. IEPF Authority has undertaken a proactive approach to achieve its mandate of promoting investor education, awareness and protection. Its objective is to promote Investor Education, Awareness, and Protection. The Amounts credited to IEPF are maintained under the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266 of the Constitution). Composition: Secretary Ministry of Corporate Affairs is the Chairperson of the Authority. The Joint Secretary Ministry of Corporate Affairs is the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority. The Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the Investor Education Protection Fund (IEPF), make refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors and to promote awareness among investors. The Authority has taken a 360 degree approach to sensitize stakeholders to include household investors, housewives, professionals, etc. across the country in rural and urban areas through direct investor awareness programmes, media campaign and engaging with other stakeholders with the common goal. In the urban and semi-urban areas the Authority organizes investor awareness programmes in association with the Institute of charted Accountants of India, Institute of Cost Accountants of India and Institute of Company Secretaries of India. In the rural areas the programmes are organised in collaboration with CSC e-governance Services Private Limited through the Common Service Centre (CSC’s) located in villages. Multilingual Information, Education and Communication booklets and films have been developed for creating awareness. A Joint Awareness campaign has been launched in association with Reserve Bank of India, Securities and Exchange Board of India & Department of Consumer Affairs. The IEPF is to be utilized for : The refund of unclaimed dividends , matured deposits, debentures , application money due for refund and interest thereon. Promotion of investor’s education, awareness and protection. Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants for shares or debentures , shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who have suffered loss due to wrong actions by any one person , in accordance with the ordered made by the court which had ordered disgorgement. SOURCE:   AIR Previous year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to “National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crores at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Special Rupee Vostro Accounts Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, government of India informed that Russian banks have opened Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) with partner banks in India. About Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA): The SRVA is an additional arrangement to the existing system that uses freely convertible currencies. It works as a complimentary system to facilitate transactions that cannot be executed through the existing banking setup. About Vostro Accounts: A Vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency. In this, a foreign bank acts as an agent providing financial services on behalf of a domestic bank. It enables domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs. Domestic banks use Vostro accounts to facilitate transfers, conduct business transactions, accept deposits, and gather documents on behalf of the foreign bank. Significance: The system could reduce the “net demand for foreign exchange, the U.S. dollar in particular, for the settlement of trade flows” It will reduce the dependence on foreign currencies. It can make the country less vulnerable to external shocks. Ensure timely payments. This helps domestic banks to gain wider access to foreign financial markets and serve international clients without having to be physically present abroad. Vostro accounts are not restricted to banks, they can be used by other entities such as insurance companies and business entities to keep funds with another entity. When Vostro accounts are used by corresponding banks, the domestic bank can execute transfers, deposits, and withdrawals on behalf of the corresponding bank. Functioning : The framework entails three important components, namely, invoicing, exchange rate and settlement. Invoicing entails that all exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR. The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined. The final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR). Domestic importers are required to make payment in INR into the SRVA account of the correspondent bank against the invoices. Domestic exporters are to be paid the export proceeds in INR from the balances in the designated account of the correspondent bank of the partner country. Legal framework: All reporting of cross-border transactions are to be done in accordance with the extant guidelines under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. Eligibility criteria of banks: Banks from partner countries are required to approach an authorised domestic dealer bank for opening the SRVA. The domestic bank would then seek approval from the apex banking regulator providing details of the arrangement. Domestic banks should ensure that the correspondent bank is not from a country mentioned in the updated Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Public Statement on High Risk & Non-Co-operative jurisdictions. Authorised banks can open multiple SRV accounts for different banks from the same country. Balances in the account can be repatriated in freely convertible currency and/or currency of the beneficiary partner country depending on the underlying transaction, that is, for which the account was credited. There are 3 types of accounts : Vostro, Nostro and Loro Accounts Vostro accounts -are maintained in the domestic currency. Nostro accounts- are maintained in foreign currency. A Loro account -is a current account that is maintained by one domestic bank for another domestic bank in the form of a third-party account, unlike nostro and vostro which is bilateral correspondence. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): It is a civil law dealing with foreign exchange market in India. Under it the Central Government can regulate the flow of payments to and from a person situated outside the country. Financial transactions concerning foreign securities or exchange cannot be carried out without the approval of FEMA. The Act empowers RBI to place restrictions on transactions from capital Account even if it is carried out via an authorized individual. SOURCE:   THE HINDU Previous year Questions Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facilities” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2)  ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an : (2016) the agency created by the EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from the Middle East agency of the EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries agency of the EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade agency of the EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member countries The New START Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, the Russian President announced that Russia is suspending its participation in the New START. About New START: The name START comes from the original “Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty”, known as START-I, which was signed between the US and the erstwhile USSR in 1991, and came into force in 1994. It is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation. It replaced the Treaty of Moscow (SORT), which was to expire in 2012. START-I, which capped the numbers of nuclear warheads and intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) that each side could deploy at 6,000 and 1,600 respectively, lapsed in 2009 and was replaced first by the Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT or Treaty of Moscow), and then by the New START treaty. SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs : (2019) Sea Bordering country Adriatic Sea Albania Black Sea Croatia Caspian Sea Kazakhstan Mediterranean Sea Morocco Red Sea Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) The town is sometimes mentioned in the news Country Aleppo Syria Kirkuk Yemen Mosul Palestine Mazar-i-Sharif Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 International Mother Language Day Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The world celebrates International Mother Language Day on February 21, 2023. About International Mother Language Day: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)celebrates 21st February as International Mother Language Day. It is celebrated to promote mother tongue-based multilingual education. The theme of the 2023 International Mother Language Day, is “Multilingual education – a necessity to transform education”. It was Bangladesh’s initiative to introduce the idea of International Mother Language Day to UNESCO. The United Nations agency initiated the International Decade of Indigenous Languages (2022-2032) . About  Languages in India: Indian Languages are classified into several groups, including the Indo-Aryan group, the Dravidian group, the Sino-Tibetan group, Austric, and others. Article 343 (1)of the Indian Constitution mentions that “the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.” Part XVIIof the Indian constitution deals with the official languages of India from Article 342 to 351. There are 22 languageslisted under the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution namely Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Santhali, and Maithili. Recent studies show that tribal languages are moving towards extinction in India. Linguist experts say that the most threatened language is Majhi in Sikkim. Similarly, the Mahali language in eastern India, Koro in Arunachal Pradesh, Sidi in Gujarat, and Dimasa in Assam are facing extinction. There are 62 tribal groups in the state of Odisha, including 13 particularly vulnerable ones, literature but the education material is available only in Santali and Ho Only six tribal languages — Santali, Ho, Soura, Munda and Kui — have a written script in Odisha. SOURCE:  DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to : (2015) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes determine the boundaries between states determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats protect the interests of all the border States Special Category Status Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context:  Recently , the Union Finance Minister announced that the Centre will not consider the demands for “special category status “ for any states About Special Category Status : It is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. Under this, the Central government extends financial assistance to states that are at a comparative disadvantage against others. There is no provision of SCS in the Constitution of India. The concept emerged in 1969 with the approval of the Gadgil formula in the Fifth Finance Commission in 1969.  The parameters required for Special Category Status: Must be economically backward with poor infrastructure. The states must be located in hilly and challenging terrain. They should have low population density and significant tribal population. Should be strategically situated along the borders of neighboring countries. First SCS was accorded in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland. The 14th Finance Commission has done away with the ‘special category status’ for states, except for the North-eastern and three hill states. Presently, eleven states have the Special Category Status in the country including Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand, and Telangana. Benefits to States with SCS: The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally-sponsored scheme to special category status states as against 60% or 75% in case of other states, while the remaining funds are provided by the state governments. Preferential treatment in getting central funds. 30 percent of the Centre’s gross budget also goes to special category states. Unspent money does not lapse and is carried forward. Significant concessions are provided to these states in excise and customs duties, income tax and corporate tax. These states can avail the benefit of debt-swapping and debt relief schemes. SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2019) From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is (2014) inclusive growth and poverty reductions inclusive and sustainable growth sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth. Survey of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Centre officially released the National Geospatial Policy of India which allows any private agency to make high-resolution maps. About Survey of India: Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science & Technology. It is the oldest scientific department of the Indian government. It was established in 1767 to help consolidate the Indian territories of the British East India Company. Its assigned role as the nation’s Principal Mapping Agency. It is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It is India’s principal mapping agency and functions under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and                   Technology, Government of India. It provides base maps for expeditious and integrated development of the country by ensuring that all resources contribute to the progress, security, and prosperity of the nation for the present and the future. It is headed by the Surveyor-General of India. Source:  THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of? (2015) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defense India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim a scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region Q.2) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? (2018) Mobile phone operations Banking operations Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Global Assessment of Soil Carbon in Grasslands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: FAO(Food and Agricultural Organization) published its first Global Assessment of Soil Carbon in Grasslands. Key Findings: The study found that if the SOC content in the 0–30 cm depth layer of available grasslands increased by 0.3 percent after 20 years of the application of management practices that enhance soil organic carbon sequestration, 0.3 tonnes C/ha per year could be sequestered. Grasslands contain approximately 20 percent of the world’s SOC Grasslands have suffered losses because of human activities such as intensive livestock grazing, agricultural activities, and other land-use activities. Most of the world’s grasslands have a positive carbon balance, meaning the land is stable or well-maintained. About Grasslands: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. Distribution: Grasslands are found in areas having well-defined hot and dry, warm and rainy seasons. Grasslands can majorly be divided into two parts: Tropical Grasslands – Savannah, Campos, and Llanos Temperate Grasslands- Pampas, Prairie, Veld, Steppe, and Down Significance of Grasslands : Farmers who keep cattle or goats, as well as shepherds who keep sheep, are highly dependent on grasslands. Domestic animals are grazed in the ‘common’ land of the village. Fodder is collected and stored to feed cattle when there is no grass left for them to graze in summer. The grass is also used to thatch houses and farm sheds. The thorny bushes and branches of the few trees that are seen in grasslands are used as a major source of fuelwood. Nutrient cycling (biogeochemical cycles) Ecological succession or ecosystem development Distribution across the World : SOURCE :FAO Previous Year Questions Q.1) If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (2022) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. Q.2) The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. (2021) Which of the following are such conditions? Burrowing animals and termites Fire Grazing herbivores Seasonal rainfall Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only Q.3) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? (2018) Hard and waxy leaves Tiny leaves Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 APJ Abdul Kalam SLV Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: India’s first hybrid rocket launched from Tamil Nadu’s Pattipulam. About APJ Abdul Kalam SLV: Martin Foundation in association with Dr APJ Abdul Kalam International Foundation and Space Zone India completed the project known as Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Satellite Launch Vehicle Mission 2023. It is India’s first hybrid sounding rocket by private players . The reusable rocket was made by the selected top 100 students, while the rest made the satellite. About Hybrid Rocket: is a type of rocket engine that combines features of both liquid-fueled and solid-fueled rockets. In a hybrid rocket, a solid fuel is burned in combination with a liquid or gaseous oxidizer to produce thrust. The solid fuel in a hybrid rocket is typically made of a polymer, such as hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB), which is cast into a cylindrical shape and placed inside the rocket motor. They are generally simpler and less expensive to manufacture than liquid rockets. They are also safer than both liquid and solid rockets SOURCE :THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Q.3) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only India’s potential of blue economy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, G20 Environmental and Climate Sustainability Working Group discussed issues of land degradation, blue economy and the circular economy. About Blue Economy: According to the World Bank, It is defined as the “sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ecosystem.” The blue economy offers coastal nations like India a huge socioeconomic opportunity to responsibly use ocean resources for societal benefit. The rise in demand of ocean-linked products such as seafood, energy generation, etc. has led to the growth of the blue economy globally, with estimated global turnover ranging between US$ 3-6 trillion annually. The concept began seeping into the consciousness of academics and policymakers after the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in 2012. Significance of India’s Blue Economy: Below image shows Indian Marine Exports (in US$ Billions). India’s blue economy: It is a subset of the national economy comprising the entire ocean resources system and human-made economic infrastructure in marine, maritime, and onshore coastal zones within the country’s legal jurisdiction. India is strategically located between two important plug points called Strait of Hormuz and Strait of Malacca, through which most of trade in commercial shipping moves in the Indian Ocean. Coastal states and islands: With some 7,500 kilometres, India has a unique maritime position. Nine of its 29 states are coastal, and it’s geography includes 1,382 islands. Ports and Exclusive Economic Zone: There are nearly 199 ports, including 12 major ports that handle approximately 1,400 million tons of cargo each year. Besides, India’s Exclusive Economic Zone of over 2 million square kilometres has a bounty of living and non-living resources with significant recoverable resources such as crude oil and natural gas. Coastal settlements: The coastal economy sustains over 4 million fisherfolk and coastal communities. Govt of India Initiatives to promote sustainable blue economy: Sagarmala Project: Vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics cost for export-import and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment. Coastal Economic Zones: The government identifies CEZs in the National Perspective Plan for Sagarmala Programme. CEZs aims to promote exports by providing infrastructure and facilities to entrepreneurs to set up businesses and industries near Ports. Indian Ocean Rim Association: India has been taking active participation in the IORA for promotion of blue economy in Indian Ocean littoral states. Matsya Sampada Yojana: It is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector in the country. It will bring about the Blue Revolution by harnessing fisheries’ potential in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive and equitable manner. Polymetallic Nodules: India has received the sanction from International Seabed Authority for deep-sea mining in the Central Indian Ocean. Deep Ocean Mission: It was launched with an intention to develop technologies to harness the living and non-living resources from the deep-oceans. India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy for Sustainable Development: It was inaugurated jointly by both the countries in 2020 to develop and follow up joint initiatives between the two countries. Way Forward: With its vast maritime interests, the blue economy occupies a vital potential position in India’s economic growth. It could well be the next multiplier of GDP and well-being, provided sustainability and socio-economic welfare are kept centre-stage. India should look to adopt the Gandhian approach of balancing economic benefits with sustainability for meeting the broader goals of growth, employment generation, equity and protection of environment. Source: Down To Earth     Child Marriage in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Activists working on ground suggest that the COVID-19 pandemic combined with poverty may have worsened the phenomenon of child marriage in India. About Child marriage: Child marriage can be described as a formal marriage or an informal union entered into by an individual before attaining the prescribed eligible age. The legally prescribed marriageable age in some jurisdictions is below 18 years, including India. Child marriage in India: Child marriage prevalence is generally defined as the percentage of women 20-24 years old who were married or in union before age 18. India is estimated to have over 24 million child brides. According to the National Family Health Survey, 40% of the world’s 60 million child marriages take place in India. According to the International Centre for Research on Women, India has the 14th highest rate of child marriage in the world, Eight States have a higher prevalence of child marriage than the national average — West Bengal, Bihar and Tripura top the list with more than 40% of women aged 20-24 years married below 18, according to NFHS data. In Kerala, women who got married before the age of 18 stood at 6.3% in 2019-20, from 7.6% in 2015-16. Reasons for child marriage in India: Customs and Traditions: Traditions like dowry put a lot of stress on the family because the parents have to give a lot of money, jewellery, land etc. for their daughter to get married. Generally the amount of dowry rises with age of the girl, so families prefer to marry their girls young. Poverty: Poor Families ‘sell’ their children through marriage to pay off debts or to get out of the cycle of poverty. Child marriage makes families poorer because young girls who get married won’t be educated or skilled enough to do well in the workforce. “Protecting” the Girl’s Sexuality: In some cultures, marrying a girl young is thought to “protect” the girl’s sexuality and the family’s honour. Security: Parents often marry their daughters off young to “secure” a good future for them. Abuse, rape, and other crimes against girls, as well as extreme poverty, can make parents turn to child marriage as a way to protect their daughters. Laxity in Implementation of Laws: Laws are not implemented stringently. In many cases the ages of the bride and groom aren’t checked at the time of registration of marriage. Many child marriages aren’t even registered. Discrimination based on gender: Child marriage is a manifestation of discrimination against girls and women. According to a UNICEF report on ‘Child Marriage and the Law’, “The discrimination often manifests itself in the form of domestic violence, marital rape, and deprivation of food, lack of access to information, education, healthcare, and general impediments to mobility”. Harmful impacts of Child Marriage: Child Rights Issues: Children who are forced to get married young lose their rights including the right to an education, the right to be safe from physical and mental violence, injury, or abuse, among others. Health Issues: According to NFHS-5, prevalence of child stunting is 35.5% in 2019-21. Premature Pregnancy: Most young brides don’t know much about contraception and don’t have easy access to reproductive health services. They get pregnant at a younger age and have more than one child before their mind and bodies are ready. Maternal Mortality: Girls under 15 are five times more likely to die during childbirth or pregnancy. The leading cause of death for girls ages 15 to 19 around the world is pregnancy-related deaths. Infant Mortality: Babies born to mothers younger than 20 have almost 75% higher death rates than babies born to mothers older than 20 years. The children who do make it are more likely to be born pre-mature and with a low birth weight. Illiteracy: Child brides are often taken out of school and not allowed to get further education. Research shows that child marriage and pregnancy are the biggest factors that keep girls from going to school. Intergenerational Cycle of Poverty: Child marriage negatively affects the economy and can lead to an intergenerational cycle of poverty. Girls and boys married as children more likely lack the skills, knowledge and job prospects needed to lift their families out of poverty. Early marriage leads girls to have children earlier and more children over their lifetime, increasing economic burden on the household. Teen Widows: In a society that allows child marriages, it is not unusual to find widows and divorcees under the age of 18. Laws and Policies to prevent child marriages: The Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929: It is also known as the Sarda Act. It was a law enacted to restrain the practices of Child Marriage. Its main goal was to eliminate the evils placed on young girls who could not handle the stress of married life and to avoid early deaths. This act defined a male child as 21 years or younger and a female child as 18 years or younger. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act of 2006: Under this act, the marriageable age for a male is prescribed as 21 years and that of a female is 18 years. Child Marriage is prohibited in India as per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006. Hindu Marriage Act, 1956: Under Hindu Marriage Act, there are no certain provisions for punishing the parents or people who solemnized the marriage. A girl can get the marriage annulled only if she wants to get married before attaining the age of fifteen years and she challenges the marriage before turning eighteen. Muslim Personal Law: Under the Muslim Laws, there is no bar to child marriage. The couple after marriage has an “option of puberty” known as Khayar-ul-bulugh in which they can repudiate the marriage after attaining the age of puberty. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012: which aim at protecting children from violation of human and other rights. A parliamentary standing committee is weighing the pros and cons of raising the age of marriage for women to 21, which has been cleared by the Union Cabinet. Way forward: The solution lies in empowering girls, creating proper public infrastructure and addressing societal norms. It should be ensured that Child Protection Committees and Child Marriage Prohibition officers are doing the job and community support groups should be activated. Such efforts can lead to Child Marriage Free Villages like in Odisha which now has over 12,000 such villages. Local gram panchayat members should be oriented to spread awareness on child marriage, not only that it is illegal to get a child married off before 18, but also the dangers to the child’s health and her offspring. There has been a rise in child marriages during the pandemic, but many have been prevented as well. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements Survey of India: It is the national survey and mapping organization of the country works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It is headquartered in Delhi. It is headed by the Surveyor-General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Grasslands and location Savanna – Western Africa Pampas – Argentina Prairies – USA Down – New Zealand How many pairs given above is/are correct? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Q.3) Consider the following statements Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA): It is a statutory body established under the Companies Act 2013. It works under the Ministry of Education. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here