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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) New cricket species Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A new cricket species was discovered by researchers on the Ashoka University campus. About the Species: Hexacentrus ashoka is a genus of predatory katydids. In India, the genus Hexacentrus is represented by 7 species of which 6 are morphologically characterized while one is only acoustically characterized. Hexacentrusis the type genus of bush-crickets in the subfamily Hexacentrinae. Most species of this genus occur in Southeast Asiaand in Africa. About Crickets Crickets are divided into two groups- true crickets (ground and tree crickets) bush crickets/katydids. Crickets are nocturnal in nature. Bush crickets belong to an order called Orthoptera. This order includes species of grasshoppers and crickets. SOURCE: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3  3 and 4 1 and 4 Q2. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis BBNJ Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: A new round of negotiations on the much-awaited United Nations High Seas Treaty for conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) began in New York recently. About BBNJ Treaty : The “BBNJ Treaty”, also known as the “Treaty of the High Seas”. It is an international agreement on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. It encompasses the high seas, beyond the exclusive economic zones or national waters of countries. This new instrument is being developedwithin the framework of the UNCLOS. About UNCLOS( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea): UNCLOS  is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. The Convention which concluded in the year 1982 replaced the quad-treaty of 1958. It came into effect in the year 1994. It divides marine areas into 5 zones : Internal-waters Territorial seas Contiguous Zone Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) Continental shelf or High seas India has been a party to the convention since 1995. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2)  Consider the following statements. (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 DUSTLIK Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context – The 4th  INDO-UZBEKISTAN  joint military exercise ‘DUSTLIK’ commenced in Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) recently. About DUSTLIK : It is a biennial training exercise held between the armies of India and Uzbekistan. The first edition of the joint military exercise took place in Tashkent, Uzbekistan in 2019. The exercise focuses on Counter Terrorism operations in semi-urban terrain under a United Nations Mandate. About Uzbekistan: Uzbekistan is a landlocked country in Central Asia. The capital of Uzbekistan is Tashkent. Uzbekistan lies mainly between two major rivers, the Syr Darya to the northeast and the Amu Darya to the southwest. Uzbekistan is bordered by  5 Asian nations namely: Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstanand Tajikistan, Afghanistan, and Turkmenistan. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, and 4 only 3, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs AUTISM SPECTRUM DISEASE Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science, and Technology Context: Recent studies probed the link between the  gut microbiome  and autism spectrum disorders. Key Findings: Investigations of the dynamic cross-talk between the gut microbiome and the host environment have revealed potential connections to ASD symptoms. Biological crosstalk :refers to instances in which one or more components of one signal transduction pathway affects another.  The gut microbiome is believed to have a big impact on immune modulation and metabolic activities in the human body. Immune modulation: refers to the efforts of the immune system to ensure its response is proportionate to a threat. About Autism Spectrum Disease: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is the term for a group of neurodevelopmental disorders. It is characterized by difficulties in social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication, and the presence of repetitive behavior and restricted interests. Signs of autism usually appear by age 2 or 3. Some associated development delays can appear as early as 18 months. There is no cure for autism. In 2008, the United Nations General Assembly unanimously declared 2ndApril as World Autism Awareness Day. About the Human microbiome: The collective genome of all micro-organisms contained within the human body, residing inside tissues and bio-fluids is called Human Microbiome. Most of them have either commensal (co-existing without harming humans) or mutualistic (each benefit from the other). These organisms play a key role in many aspects of host physiology such as : The metabolism of complex indigestible carbohydrates and fats to produce essential vitamins Maintaining immune systems and Acting as the first line of defense against pathogens. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?(2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. GST Council Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the approval of the GST Appellate Tribunal was announced by the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council. About GST Council: The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the states under Article 279-A of the constitution. Article 279-A. gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. About GST Appellate Tribunal: The GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) or simply the Appellate Tribunal is the second appeal forum under GST for any dissatisfactory order passed by the First Appellate Authorities, an application for revision of the same can be raised to the National Appellate Tribunal. The National Appellate Tribunal is also the first common forum to resolve disputes between the center and the states. Being a common forum, it is the duty of the GST Appellate Tribunal to ensure uniformity in the redressal of disputes arising under GST. Powers of the Appellate Tribunal under GST: As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the GST Appellate Tribunal holds the same powers as the court and is deemed Civil Court for trying a case. The Appellate Tribunal has been granted the powers to hear appeals and to pass orders and directions, including those for the recovery of amounts due, for the enforcement of its orders, and for the rectification of mistakes. The Tribunal also has the power to impose penalties, revoke or cancel registrations, and take such other measures as may be necessary to ensure compliance with the GST laws. Jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal under GST: The jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal extends to all cases where an appeal has been filed against an order, decision, or direction of a lower authority under the GST laws. The Tribunal has the power to hear and resolve disputes related to the assessment of taxes, determination of liability, imposition of penalties, and other matters related to the implementation and interpretation of the GST laws. Constitution of the GST Appellate Tribunal The GSTAT has the following structure: National Bench: The National Appellate Tribunal is situated in New Delhi, and constitutes a National President (Head) along with 2 Technical Members (1 from the Centre and one State each). Regional Benches: On the recommendations of the GST Council, the government can constitute (by notification) an ‘N’ number of Regional Benches, as required. As of now, there are 3 Regional Benches (situated in Mumbai, Kolkata, and Hyderabad) in India, wherein each bench constitutes a Judicial Member and 2 Technical Members(for Centre and State each). State Bench and Area Bench: The Government, on the recommendations of the GST council, has notified a number of State Benches. Source: News on Air Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India  Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SEBI Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Governance Context: The Supreme Court asked the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the government to produce the existing regulatory framework in place to protect investors from share market volatility. About SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) : The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992. Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra Ministry: Ministry of Finance Chairperson: Ms. Madhabi Puri Buch The chairman is nominated by the Union Government of India. Two members, i.e., Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One member from the Reserve Bank of India. The remaining five members are nominated by the Union Government of India, out of them at least three shall be whole-time members. About National Stock Exchange The National Stock Exchange is an Indian stock exchange headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The NSE was designated as a stock exchange in 1993. More than 2000 companies are listed on the NSE. The NSE’s Stock Index – NIFTY – represents the top 50 stocks on the stock exchange. About Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) The BSE is one of Asia’s oldest stock exchanges, with a long history of fast trading The BSE was registered as a stock exchange in 1957 . The Stock Index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) – SENSEX – provides the top 30 stock indexes. More than 5000 companies are listed on the BSE. Functions: Quasi-legislative – drafts regulations Quasi-judicial – passes rulings and orders Quasi-executive – conducts investigation and enforcement action SEBI is responsible for the needs of three groups: Issuers of securities Investors Market intermediaries Powers: To approve by−laws of Securities exchanges. To require the Securities exchange to amend their by−laws. Inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical returns from recognized Securities exchanges. Inspect the books of accounts of financial intermediaries. Compel certain companies to list their shares in one or more Securities exchanges. Registration of Brokers and sub-brokers Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Apple of Sodom Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: IIT-Madras recently uncovered a low-cost, eco-friendly emulsifier in the latex sap of a commonly found plant called the Apple of Sodom. About Apple of Sodom : Calotropis procera is commonly known as the Apple of Sodom. It is a species of flowering plant in the Milkweed family, Asclepiadaceae. It is native to West Africa as far south as Angola, North and East Africa, Madagascar, the Arabian Peninsula, Southern Asia, Indo-China region and Malaysia.  The green fruits contain a toxic milky sap that is extremely bitter and hardens into a soap-resistant gluey coating. Ayurvedic Health benefits of Apple of Sodom:- Ascites: Apply the latex of Sodom locally on the affected areas. Leprosy: Use the latex of Sodom plant on the affected skin. Ringworms: Apply the milky fluid of Sodom plant over infected skin. Stings: Locally apply the milk fluid of Sodom plant on the damaged skin. Deafness: Take a ripe yellow leaf of Sodom. Warm it. Squeeze the leaf juice drops in ears. Use it for 2 weeks. Caries: Apply the latex of Sodom on the affected teeth. Gastroenteritis: Roast the leaves of Sodom and apply locally. Health Benefits of Apple: Juice of the plant is poisonous it has been used as an infanticide in Africa. Both the bark and the latex are widely used as arrow and spear poisons. Latex is cardio toxic with the active ingredient being calotropin. All parts of plant are poisonous if ingested. Handling plant may cause skin irritation or allergic reaction Source:  THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: (2022) It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells? (2020) Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do A mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: At the 190th Meeting of ESI Corporation, the Ministry for Labour & Employment announced several decisions on strengthening social security for  Shram Jeevis. About ESIC: It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. It is responsible for overseeing the ESI plan. Ministry: The Ministry of Labour & Employment It provides socio-economic protectionto the worker population and immediate dependent or family covered under the ESI scheme. About ESI Scheme: The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI)is an integrated measure of social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, of 1948. It applies to factories and other establishments Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed. The benefits of the ESI system are described below. Physical Disability Benefits Medical Benefits Maternity Benefits Dependent Benefit Unemployment Allowance. Sickness Benefit About Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana(ABVKY): It is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) Corporation. It was introduced in This scheme aims to financially aid people who lost their jobs due to changing employment patterns and due to the Covid-19 pandemic. It offerscash compensation to insured persons when they are rendered unemployed. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2) With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: (2021) All casual workers are entitled to employees Provident Fund Coverage All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment The government can by notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Solar Energy in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) and Environment Context: The Union budget increased allocation for the Production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for high-efficiency solar modules. About Solar Panel and its working: A solar panel is a collection of photovoltaic (PV) cells that collect sunlight and convert it into electric current. When sunlight hits the semiconductor in the solar PV cell the energy from the light in the form of photons is absorbed. This energy absorption results in exciting a number of electrons, which then drift freely in the cell. The solar cell is specifically designed to create an electric field. This electric field forces the electrons to flow in a certain direction- towards the  electrical terminals that line the cell. This flow is known as an energy current, and the strength of the current is determined by how much electricity each cell can produce. Once the electrons reach terminals  the current is then directed into wires making the panel a source of electrical energy. Solar Energy potential in India: From less than 10 MW in 2010, India has added significant PV capacity over the past decade, achieving over 50 GW by 2022 . By 2030, India is targeting about 500 GW of renewable energy deployment, out of which ~280 GW is expected from solar PV. This calls for 30 GW of solar capacity every year until 2030. India’s current solar module manufacturing capacity is limited to around 15 GW per year rest is met through imports. An estimated 85 per cent of this import need is met by three countries China, alongside Vietnam and Malaysia. The value of solar imported since 2014 adds up to $12.93 billion, or Rs 90,000 crore. Advantages of Solar Energy in India: This is an inexhaustible source of energy and the best replacement to other non-renewable energies in India. Solar energy is environment friendly, hence it is very suitable for India as it is being one of the most polluted countries of the world. Solar energy can be used for variety of purposes like as heating, drying, cooking or electricity, which is suitable for the rural areas in India replacing other energy resources. It can also be used in cars, planes, large power boats, satellites, calculators and many more such items, just apt for the urban population. In an energy deficient country like India, where power generation is costly, solar energy is the best alternate means of power generation. Solar panels can be easily installed; hence it is quite inexpensive compared to other sources of energy. By 2012, a total of 4,600,000 solar lanterns and 861,654 solar-powered home lights were installed. Typically replacing kerosene lamps, they can be purchased for the cost of a few months’ worth of kerosene with a small loan. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is offering a 30- to 40-percent subsidy of the cost of lanterns, home lights and small systems. Solar photovoltaic water-pumping systems are used for irrigation and drinking water. Challenges of solar energy manufacturing in India: Solar cell manufacturing needs a huge amount of capital. The cost of debt in India (11%) is highest in the Asia-Pacific region, while in China it is about 5%. Solar cell manufacturing is a complicated process that is technology intensive. Establishing state-of-the-art manufacturing facilities needs access to technology. It is unlikely that companies that have spent millions of dollars on R&D would make it easy for India to access the latest technologies easily or at a lower cost. Lack of an integrated set-up and the economies of scale (despite 100 per cent FDI in the renewable energy sector) translates into higher cost of domestic production Solar panel Manufacturing suffers from a huge raw material supply crunch. Silicon wafer, the most expensive raw material in the panel, is not manufactured in India. Solar cell technology sees upgrades every 8-10 months making manufacturing inefficient for new entrants. Govt. of India Initiatives: The govt. of India established a 19,500-crore production linked incentive (PLI) scheme on ‘national programme on high efficiency solar PV modules’, seeking to attract Rs 94,000-crore investment in the sector. Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS) of Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology offers a 20-25 per cent subsidy for investments in capital expenditure for setting up a manufacturing facility. Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY): The AJAY scheme was launched in September 2016 for the installation of solar street lighting (SSL) systems in states with less than 50% of households covered with grid power (as per Census 2011). PM KUSUM: The scheme aims to add solar and other renewable capacity of 30,800 MW by 2022 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Crores. Solar Park Scheme: The Solar Park Scheme plans to build a number of solar parks, each with a capacity of nearly 500 MW, across several states. SRISTI Scheme: Sustainable rooftop implementation of Solar transfiguration of India (SRISTI) scheme to promote rooftop solar power projects in India. National Solar Mission: It is a major initiative of the Government of India and State Governments to promote ecologically sustainable growth while addressing India’s energy security challenge. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (2018) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi The Problems associated with the Data Protection Bill Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: A data protection law must safeguard and balance peoples’ right to privacy and their right to information, which are fundamental rights flowing from the Constitution. Key features of the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has drafted a Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Bill. Significance of the bill: The purpose of the bill is to provide for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognises both the right of individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process personal data for lawful purposes. It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection. The categories of Data created by the Bill are as follows: Personal data: Data from which an individual can be identified like name, address etc. No Data Mirroring is required. Individual consent will suffice. Sensitive personal data (SPD): Some types of personal data like as financial, health, sexual orientation, biometric, genetic, transgender status, caste, religious belief, and more. To be stored only in India. It can be processed abroad only under certain conditions including approval of a Data Protection Agency (DPA). Critical personal data: Anything that the government at any time can deem critical, such as military or national security data. Critical personal data must be stored and processed in India. Non-Personal Data: The Bill mandates fiduciaries to provide the government any non-personal data when demanded. The ‘data fiduciary’ may be a service provider who collects, stores and uses data in the course of providing such goods and services. Non-personal data refers to anonymised data, such as traffic patterns or demographic data. The previous draft did not apply to this type of data, which many companies use to fund their business model. Impact on Social Media Companies: Significant Data Fiduciaries (the fiduciaries with huge volume and processing sensitive data) have to develop their own user verification mechanism. It will reduce the anonymity of users and decrease trolling, fake news and cyberbullying. Exemptions for Data Processing without consent: They have been provided for reasonable purposes like Security of the state. Detection of any unlawful activity or fraud. Whistleblowing etc Creation of Independent Regulator: The Bill calls for the creation of an independent regulator Data Protection Authority, which will oversee assessments and audits and definition-making. Each company will have a Data Protection Officer (DPO) who will liaison with the DPA for auditing, grievance redressal, recording maintenance and more. The Bill proposes “Purpose limitation” and “Collection limitation” clause, which limit the collection of data to what is needed for “clear, specific, and lawful” purposes. Control Over Data: It also grants individuals the right to data portability and the ability to access and transfer one’s own data. The right to be forgotten is also given. With historical roots in European Union law, General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), this right allows an individual to remove consent for data collection and disclosure. Penalty – The Bill stated the penalties as: Rs 5 crore or 2 percent of worldwide turnover for minor violations and Rs 15 crore or 4 percent of total worldwide turnover for more serious violations. Also, the company’s executive-in-charge can also face jail terms of up to three years. Problems associated with the Bill: In conflict with RTI Act: The Bill is criticised for seeking to dilute the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which has empowered citizens to access information and hold governments accountable. The RTI Act includes a provision to protect privacy through Section 8(1)(j). In order to invoke this section to deny personal information, at least one of the following grounds has to be proven. The information sought has no relationship to any public activity or public interest or is such that it would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy and the Public Information Officer is satisfied that there is no larger public interest that justifies disclosure. The proposed bill seeks to amend this section to expand its purview and exempt all personal information from the ambit of the RTI Act. In conflict with the Right to privacy: By empowering the executive to draft rules on a range of issues, the proposed Bill creates wide discretionary powers for the Central government and thus fails to safeguard people’s right to privacy. No autonomy for the Data Protection Board: The bill does not ensure autonomy of the Data Protection Board, the institution responsible for enforcement of provisions of the law. Given that the government is the biggest data repository, it was imperative that the oversight body set up under the law be adequately independent to act on violations of the law by government entities. Digital by design: The Bill stipulates that the Data Protection Board shall be ‘digital by design’, including receipt and disposal of complaints. As per the latest National Family Health Survey, only 33% of women in India have ever used the Internet. The Bill, therefore, effectively fails millions of people who do not have meaningful access to the Internet. Way Forward: Therefore the challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy of data principles and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned.  The DPDP Bill needs to be suitably amended and harmonised with the provisions and objectives of the RTI Act. Given the rate at which technology evolves, an optimum data protection law design needs to be future proof — it should not be unduly detailed and centred on providing solutions to contemporary concerns while ignoring problems that may emerge going forward.  Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC): It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. It works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding stock market in India: The BSE is one of Asia’s oldest stock exchanges, with a long history of fast trading. Stock market in India is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The Chairman of SEBI is nominated by the Union Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following countries: Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Mongolia Tajikistan Which of the above countries borders with Uzbekistan? 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only All of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NAVDEX 23 and IDEX 23 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Indian Naval Ship Sumedha reached Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates to participate in Naval Defence Exhibition – NAVDEX 23 and International Defence Exhibition – IDEX 23 About INS SUMEDHA: INS Sumedha is the third ship of the indigenously built Saryu class Naval Offshore Patrol Vessels (NOPV)which was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2014. The ship has been designed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited. The first INS SUMEDHA was built in Goa and was commissioned in the Indian Navy in 2011. About NAVDEX 23 and IDEX 23: IDEX and NAVDEX, and the International Defense Conference are organized by the Abu Dhabi National Exhibitions Company (ADNEC), in cooperation with the Ministry of Defense and the General Command of the UAE Armed Forces. IDEX/NAVDEX takes place biennially. The exhibitions showcase the latest technologies and innovations in the global defense sector, support the growth of UAE’s defense industry, and forge new relationships between major international companies. IDEX is the only international defense exhibition and conference in the MENA (Middle East and North Africa region) region which includes countries like Algeria, Bahrain, Egypt, Iran, Iraq, Israel, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Tunisia, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen. About India and UAE Defense Relations: Desert Eagle II, a ten-day air combat exercise, was held between the air forces of India and UAE. The inaugural edition of the Indian & UAE Navy bilateral exercise GULF STAR-1 was conducted in March 2018. Source:  All India Radio Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea Q.2) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fueled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-ton nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2, and 3 Tamil-Brahmi script Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Artefacts with Tamil-Brahmi script unearthed at Keeladi to find a special place in the museum. About River Vaigai: Vaigai is a river in Tamil Nadu. The river is also referred to as Shiva Ganga in many places. The river originates in the Varusanadu Hills, the Periyar Plateau of the Western Ghats range. The river finally empties into the Palk Strait Its main tributaries are Suruliyaru, Mullaiyaru, Varaaga Nadhi, Manjalaru, Kottagudi, Kridhumaal and Upparu. The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river. About Tamil-Brahmi script: Tamil-Brahmi, was a variant of the Brahmi script in southern India. It was used to write inscriptions in the early form of old Tamil. The Tamil-Brahmi script has been paleographically and stratigraphically dated between the third century BCE and the first century CE. It constitutes the earliest known writing system evidenced in many parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Sri Lanka. It is also known as Tamizhi or Damili. About Brahmi script: Brahmi was the main script used in India since the 3rd century. The Ashokan inscriptions dating to the third century BCE used the Brahmi script, and are the earliest evidence of the use of Brahmi. It is the ancestor of the Brahmic family of scripts, which includes all Indian scripts, like Devanagari, Odia, Gujarati, Tamil, Telugu, etc from India, and some of the ancient scripts of Sri Lanka, Burma, and south-east Asian countries of Java, Sumatra, and Cambodia. James Prinsep was responsible for deciphering Brahmi in 1838. About Sangam Age: The period roughly between the 3rd century B.C. and 3rd century A.D. in South India (the area lying to the south of river Krishna and Tungabhadra) is known as Sangam Period. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. The first Sangam, held at then Madurai, was attended by gods and legendary sages but no literary work of this Sangam is available. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, but all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. The third Sangam at Madurai was founded by Mudathirumaran. It was attended by a large number of poets who produced voluminous literature, but only a few survived. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs:  (2022) Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                              Odisha Erragudi                                                          Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                           Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                 Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs  Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) Conference Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare organized NOTTO Scientific Dialogue 2023. About NOTTO: National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) is a National level organization set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. NOTTO would function as apex centre for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. It lays down policy guidelines and protocols for various functions. Network with similar regional and state level organizations. It handles the dissemination of information to all concerned organizations, hospitals and individuals. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Oder river Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A new report by the European Union (EU), has confirmed that the ecological disaster that killed hundreds of tonnes of fish in the Oder river in 2022  was caused by toxic algal bloom . About River Oder: Oder River, is a river in east-central Europe. It is one of the most significant rivers in the catchment basin of the Baltic Sea, second only to the Vistula in discharge and length.  It is Poland’s second-longest river. The Oder rises in the Czech Republic and flows through western Poland, later forming the border between Poland and Germany. About Algal Blooms: An algal bloom is a rapid increase in the population of algae in an aquatic system. These are also called  ‘red tides They may occur in freshwater as well as marine environments. Algal Blooms deprive aquatic organisms of Sunlight and oxygen and negatively impact a variety of species that live below the water surface. Harmful Algal Blooms( HABs)- colonies of algae that grow out of control and produce toxic or harmful effects on people, fish, shellfish, marine mammals, and birds. Algal blooms in freshwater lakes and reservoirs are most commonly caused by blue-green algae (also known as cyanobacteria) whose growth is supported by Eutrophication (nutrient enrichment).  Another type of bloom that occurs nearly every summer along Florida’s Gulf Coast is caused by a species of dinoflagellate known as Karenia brevis. Algal Bloom Information Service: ABIS provides timely information on harmful algal blooms, which are detrimental to coastal fisheries, and water quality and also tend to induce respiratory problems within the coastal population from time to time. ISRO’s Oceansat-2 satellite launched in 2009 can cover larger areas and provide global ocean color. SOURCE:         The Hindu Previous Year Questions  Q.1) Which one of the lakes  West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?(2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2)  Consider the following kinds of organisms: ( 2021) Copepod Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Rhododendrons Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Rhododendrons carpet Darjeeling, Sikkim Himalayas. About Rhododendrons: Rhododendron is a large genus of flowering plants that are found mainly in the Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, and Nilgiris. They are native to many regions of the world, including Asia, Europe, North America, and Australia. The species is found in varied habitats from subtropical forests to alpine shrubs, rhododendrons range from dwarf shrubs to large trees. Some plants of Rhododendron are evergreen while others are deciduous in nature. The species has been designated as the State tree of Uttarakhand. Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are home to one-third (34%) of all Rhododendron types and comprise only 0.3% of India’s geographical area. Rhododendrons are indicator species. They are facing a high threat due to anthropological pressures and climate change. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements. (2022) It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, 5, and 6 only 2, 4, 5, and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: India’s rank in the Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) improved a notch to 47 from 48 among 50 countries surveyed by the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). About STRI: The STRI provides a snapshot of services regulatory regimes to help policymakers to assess reform options. The index takes into consideration different sectors like road freight cover, air transport, government regulations, etc. It is a unique, evidence-based tool that provides information on regulations affecting trade in services in 22 sectors across all OECD member countries and Brazil, the People’s Republic of China, India, Indonesia, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Peru, Singapore, South Africa, Thailand, and Vietnam. India’s performance on STRI: lowest scoring sectors (least restricted):  computer services, engineering services, sound recording, and road freight transport. highest scoring sectors (most restrictive): architecture service, rail freight transport, accounting services, and legal services. Government dominance: The railway sector in India is highly restrictive due to the dominance of the Indian government in it. Market access for foreigners: Market access to certain key service sectors remains prohibited for foreigners or is subjected to stringent conditions. About OECD: It is an inter-governmental economic organization, founded to stimulate the economic progress of the world. It was founded in 1961. Its  Headquarters are in Paris. It has 36 members. India is not a member but a key economic partner. Reports and Indices by OECD: International migration outlook, OECD better life index. Source:  Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) ” Rapid Financing Instrument “and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G-20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Polio Virus Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The West Bengal government announced that it was introducing an additional dose of injectable polio vaccine as part of the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) for children. About Polio Virus: Polio is a crippling and potentially deadly viral infectious disease that affects the nervous system. Poliovirus can invade the central nervous system and as it multiplies, destroy the nerve cells that activate muscles, causing irreversible paralysis in hours There are three individual and immunologically distinct wild poliovirus strains: Wild Poliovirus type 1 (WPV1) Wild Poliovirus type 2 (WPV2) Wild Poliovirus type 3 (WPV3) All three strains can cause irreversible paralysis or even death. However, there are genetic and virological differences, which make these three strains separate viruses that must each be eradicated individually. The virus is transmitted by person-to-person mainly through the fecal-oral route or, less frequently, by a common vehicle (for example, through contaminated water or food). It largely affects children under 5 years of age. About Polio Vaccines: There is no cure, but it can be prevented through Immunization. There are two types of Vaccines for polio : Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV): given orally as a birth dose for institutional deliveries, then primary three doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks and one booster dose at 16-24 months of age. Injectable Polio Vaccine (IPV): It is introduced as an additional dose along with the 3rd dose of DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus) under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI): The goal of the GPEI is to complete the eradication and containment of all wild, vaccine-related, and Sabin polioviruses, so no child suffers from paralytic poliomyelitis ever again. GPEI has helped countries to make huge progress in protecting the global population from this debilitating disease. GPEI’s four pillars include Routine Immunization, Supplementary immunization, Surveillance, and Targeted mop-up campaigns. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:(2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following : Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Sealed Cover Jurisprudence Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud firmly refused the ‘suggestions’ offered by the government in a sealed cover on the formation of a proposed committee to enquire into the Hindenburg report on the Adani Group About Sealed Cover Jurisprudence: It is a practice used by the Supreme Court and sometimes lower courts, of asking for or accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be accessed by judges. While a specific law does not define the doctrine of sealed cover, the Supreme Court derives its power to use it from Rule 7 of Order XIII of the Supreme Court Rules and Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. It is normally used in only one of two situations: ongoing investigations that are part of the police journal, and disclosure of confidential or private information. Important cases where have been used: 2014 BCCI reforms case, Bhima Koregaon case, Rafale fighter jet deal, National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following statements. (2022) Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2, and 4 only 3 and 4 only 3 only Q.2)  With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Land Monetisation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: To expedite the monetisation plans for government-owned land assets across the country, the National Land Monetisation Corporation (NLMC) has decided to rope in international property consultancy firms to help strategize and implement transactions from start to finish. About Land Monetisation: Land Monetisation means transferring the revenue rights of the asset (could be idle land, infrastructure, PSU) to a private player for a specified period of time. In such a transaction, the government gets in return an upfront payment from the private entity, regular share of the revenue generated from the asset, a promise of steady investment into the asset, and the title rights to the monetised asset. In the case of land monetisation of certain spaces like offices, it can be done through a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT), a company that owns and operates a land asset and sometimes, funds income-producing real estate. Assets of the government can also be monetised through the Public Private Partnerships (PPP) model. Benefits of Land Monetisation: The monetisation of several lakh acres of the land pool with various central government agencies is expected to give a fillip to the Rs 111-trillion National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) in five years through FY25 and Gati Shakti connectivity projects, as well as the housing sector. The monetisation process aims to capture the real estate value of public land lying idle in monetary terms to improve or strengthen the finances of government bodies and local authorities. The 13th Finance Commission of India also underlined the importance of monetisation of land which has the potential for generating additional revenues from under-utilized prime lands of Public Sector Undertakings, Port Trusts, Airports, Railways, municipal corporations, etc. There is an estimate of the extent of land held by various government agencies in excess of 5 lakh hectares, of which, over 160,000 hectares are held across various airports, seaports, and railways. It allows certain State/ Centre funded projects to be created and financed from otherwise defunct assets or under-utilized land parcels. Challenges faced in Land Monetization Complex legal and regulatory framework: The legal and regulatory framework for land ownership, land use, and land development is often complex and varies by region, making it difficult for CPSEs to navigate the process of monetising their land. Lack of fast Dispute Resolution Mechanism: More than 60% of the litigation in India is land-related and these disputes need to be resolved in a time-bound manner for timely land monetisation. Meeting disinvestment targets: The success of NLMC will depend on the government’s ability to meet its disinvestment targets. The government has not been able to meet its targets in the past, which could affect the performance of the NLMC. Mapping the vacant lands: The estimation of surplus land may be a contentious issue in the absence of a clear land title, ongoing litigation, and encroachments. Ensuring adequate investment: Private players must invest adequately in the asset to ensure its growth and sustainability. The government needs to ensure that the private players are fulfilling their investment commitments. Market conditions: The value of land is dependent on market conditions, which can be volatile, and subject to fluctuations. Moreover, the vast difference between the state gazette valuation and market rate valuation can create problems. Use of PPPs: The use of PPPs as a monetisation model can pose challenges, as seen in the case of the Railways’ PPP initiative, which did not see much interest from private players. Suggestive Measures: Digitization of land records: It will bring transparency to the land records maintenance system, digitize maps and surveys, update all settlement records, and minimize the scope of land disputes. Ensure transparency and fairness: The selection of private players should be through a competitive bidding process to avoid the creation of a monopoly or duopoly in operating surplus government land. Improve the disinvestment process: The government needs to streamline its disinvestment process and meet its disinvestment targets to generate more revenue. This can be achieved by providing certainty to investors, and by setting realistic targets for disinvestment. Do it in phases: Multi-phased land monetization creates value for developers and investors and increases market appetite. This will make the land more attractive to potential buyers, resulting in higher value and better returns. Partner with the government: Partnering with the government in a PPP model to help cover the holding costs of the land and streamline project clearances. This will speed up the process and make it more efficient. While privatisation of PSBs and PSUs has faced challenges, monetisation of idle government land requires specialised skills and expertise. Thus, NLMC will have necessary technical expertise to professionally manage and monetize land assets on behalf of CPSEs and other government agencies. About National Land Monetisation Corporation: Introduced in the Union Budget 2021-22, NLMC is a wholly owned Government of India. The Board of Directors of NLMC will comprise senior Central Government officers and eminent experts to enable professional operations and management of the company. It falls under the Ministry of Finance and has been set up with an initial authorised share capital of Rs.5,000 crore and a paid-up capital of Rs.150 crore. NLMC is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) that owns, holds, manages, and monetizes surplus land and assets of CPSEs under closure and the surplus non-core land assets of Government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements : It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (2)It is headed by the Union Finance Minister. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2016) 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India’s fortified food programme Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, a report “Do India’s Food Safety Regulator (FSSAI) and Indian Citizens Need Saving from (Foreign & Indian) Private Players Behind Food Fortification Initiatives?” was released. About Food Fortification: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) defines fortification as “deliberately increasing the content of essential micronutrients in a food so as to improve the nutritional quality of food and to provide public health benefit with minimal risk to health”. For example, adding iodine and iron to edible salt. Recent developments food fortification: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution had launched a centrally sponsored pilot scheme on “Fortification of Rice and its Distribution under Public Distribution System (PDS)” for a period of three years beginning 2019-20 with a total budget outlay of Rs.174.64 crore. The pilot scheme focuses on 15 districts in 15 states. Under the scheme, the blending of rice is done at the milling stage. Maharashtra and Gujarat have started distribution of fortified rice under PDS in the Pilot Scheme. The Scheme is funded by the Government of India in the ratio of 90:10 in respect of North Eastern, hilly and island states and 75:25 in respect of the rest. Need of food fortification: According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4): 4% of children (6-59 months) are anaemic 1% women in the reproductive age group are anaemic 7% of children under 5 are underweight Also, It is estimated that 50-70% of these birth defects are preventable. One of the major causes is deficiency of Folic Acid. India has slipped to 101st position in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2021 of 116 countries, from its 2020 position of 94th. Thus, fortification is necessary to address deficiency of micronutrients or micronutrient malnutrition. Fortification of food in India: Currently government is promoting fortification in following 5 food items: Rice: Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) has been running a “Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on Fortification of Rice & its distribution through Public Distribution System”. The scheme was initiated in 2019-20 for a three-year pilot run. This scheme will run till 2023 and rice will be supplied to the beneficiaries at the rate of Re 1 per kilogram. Wheat: The decision on fortification of wheat was announced in 2018 and is being implemented in 12 states under India’s flagship Poshan Abhiyaan to improve nutrition among children, adolescents, pregnant mothers and lactating mothers. Edible oil: Fortification of edible oil, too, was made compulsory across the country by FSSAI in 2018. Milk: Fortification of milk was started in 2017 under which the National Dairy Development Board of India (NDDB) is pushing companies to add vitamin D. Benefits of food fortification: Prevent nutritional deficiency-induced ailments: A nutritional deficiency occurs when your body doesn’t get enough nutrients, such as rickets due to vitamin D deficiency, anaemia osteoporosis or reproductive and nervous system ailments due to zinc deficiency. The fortified food helps reduce rates of nutrient deficiency-related diseases. Beneficial in pregnancy: There is a link between zinc deficiency and high mortality and morbidity rates in mothers and new-borns. Folate deficiency can cause faulty neural development in babies in the womb. Consuming fortified food during pregnancy can lower the risks of numerous congenital deformities in babies and improves the mother and baby’s health. Fulfill dietary requirements: People who are strict vegetarians, vegans, lactose-intolerant, or other diet-related conditions have poor micronutrient levels, which causes various ailments. Adding fortified foods to your diet can fulfill your nutrients requirement and improves your overall health. Help in children’s growth and development: It is an evident-based fact that deficiency of iron, zinc, and vitamins A and D causes growth problems. Including fortified foods or micronutrient supplements in the growing phase have a positive physical and mental growth response among children. Helpful for elderlies: With aging, our digestive system absorbs fewer nutrients, causing a nutritional deficiency. Adding fortified food to the diet help maintain healthy nutrient levels for stronger bones, better digestion, and healthy organ functioning. Issues with food fortification: Loss of natural protective substances: Sometimes, fortification can have the opposite effect. Natural foods contain protective substances such as phytochemicals and polyunsaturated fat that are adversely affected by the process of blending micronutrients. Impact on foetal development: Consumption of excess iron by pregnant women can adversely affect foetal development and birth outcomes. These children have increased risk of contracting chronic diseases. High cost: The fortification expenditure of only the rice delivered through the social safety networks will cost the public exchequer about Rs 2,600 crores annually. Market-driven solution: The researchers are worried that the push towards fortification is more to help the industry than the people and is an international market driven solution and without any scientific logic. Impact on small industries: Fortification creates an assured market for multinationals. It could threaten the livelihoods of small units across India. Like, in case of rice and oil processing. No direct link between anaemia and iron deficiency: There is no direct link between anaemia and iron deficiency. Anaemia is high among poor children in the rural areas but iron deficiency is more among the urban and rich across the country. According to stalwarts of nutrition, food fortification is a cost-effective complementary strategy to address multiple micronutrient deficiencies. Thus, given its proven efficacy and cost-effectiveness, food fortification can help us in reducing micronutrient deficiencies and address overall health benefits. The intervention, carried out with precautions, is the key to the malnutrition issue which the nation continues to grapple with. Source:  Down To Earth Previous Year Question Q.1) In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020) Crop diversification Legume intensification Tensiometer use Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Polio Virus: It is a crippling and potentially deadly viral infectious disease that affects the nervous system. It is a communicable disease which can transmit from person to person. It largely affects children under 5 years of age. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) is often mentioned in the news is released by World Bank Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development World Trade Organization Asian Development Bank Q.3) A recent report by the European Union (EU), has confirmed that the ecological disaster that killed hundreds of tonnes of fish in the Oder river in 2022  was caused by toxic algal bloom. In this context, the Oder river borders with which of the following countries? Poland and Germany Ukraine and Russia Germany and France Syria and Turkey Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pangolins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: According to the analysis by TRAFFIC, a global wildlife conservation non-profit, and World-Wide Fund for Nature-India, over 1200 Pangolins were poached for illegal wildlife trade in India from 2018-2022. About Pangolins: Pangolins are nocturnal, toothless mammals that dig burrows and feed on ants and termites. Pangolins are scaly anteater mammals and they have large, protective keratin scales covering their skin. Pangolin is the only scaly mammal on the planet. It uses these scales as armor to defend itself against predators by rolling into a ball when threatened. Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) are found in India. About Ecosystem Services: They play a vital role in the ecosystem management, mostly in aerating and adding moisture to the soil as well as succession of plant communities through burrowing. They also keep in check the population of certain insects they prey on. The burrows made by pangolins also get utilized as shelters by other species within their ecosystem. Indian Pangolin Range – Bangladesh, India, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka IUCN – Endangered The Indian pangolin, which dons a thick scaly skin, is hunted for meat and used in traditional Chinese medicine. Both these species are listed under Schedule I Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Chinese Pangolin Range – Bangladesh; Bhutan; China; Hong Kong; India; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Myanmar; Nepal; Taiwan, Province of China; Thailand; Viet Nam IUCN – Critically Endangered Source: Down To Earth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2021) 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Allocation of Election Symbols by Election Commission of India (ECI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: ECI has recognised Eknath Shinde group as official “Shiv Sena”, allowing them to use the official “Bow & Arrow” symbol and “Shiv Sena” name. Sadiq Ali case The ECI has applied the tests mentioned in the 1971 Supreme Court judgment in Sadiq Ali v. Election Commission of India. In the Sadiq Ali case, it was held that in matters of disputes among groups of a political party, the test of majority support among the members of the ‘organizational and legislature wings’ of the party was the critical test to decide the dispute. It includes the Test of aims and objects of the Party Constitution, Test of Party Constitution and Test of Majority. The 1968 Order On the question of a split in a political party outside the legislature, Para 15 of the Symbols Order, 1968, states that the decision of the Commission shall be binding on all such rival sections or groups. This applies to disputes in recognised national and state parties (like the Shiv Sena). For splits in registered but unrecognized parties, the ECI usually advises the warring factions to resolve their differences internally or to approach the court. The first case to be decided under the 1968 Order was the first split in the Indian National Congress in 1969. Election Symbols: Political parties are allotted the symbols by the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968. A reserved symbol is one that is allocated to a registered political party while a free symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent candidates. Paragraph 4 of the order deals with the allotment of symbols. Paragraph 5 classifies the symbol into reserved and free symbols. Paragraph 8 of the Election Symbols Order deals with the choice and allotment of symbols to candidates of national and state parties. Registration of Political Parties: According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration has to apply to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission It is in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History, Art and Culture Context: Recently the Union Minister for Culture, Tourism and DoNER, presented the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar  (UBKYP) 2019, 2020 and 2021 to 102 artists in New Delhi. The award is presented by Sangeet Natak Akademi to artists in the field of dance, music, and drama. It is presented annually to artists below the age of 40. About Ustad Bismillah Khan: He was a famous Shehnai musician. He was one of the few musicians in the country to receive Bharat Ratna. It was Ustad ‘Bismillah” Khan who also played at the first Republic Day celebration in 1950. Bismillah Khan was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Centre Hall in the United States of America. About Sangeet Natak Akademi: Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama. It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with Dr P.V. Rajamannar as its first Chairman. It is an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture and is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Vibrant Villages Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Cabinet has approved Centrally Sponsored Scheme- “Vibrant Villages Programme” (VVP) for the Financial Years 2022-23 to 2025-26 with financial allocation of Rs. 4800 Crore. About the scheme: Under the scheme, holistic developmental works are to be undertaken in northern bordering villages. This will help in improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages. The scheme will provide funds for development of essential infrastructure and creation of livelihood opportunities in 19 Districts and 46 Border blocks 4 states and 1 UT along the northern land border of the country which will help in achieving inclusive growth and retaining the population in the border areas. The scheme aids to identify and develop economic drivers based on local, natural, human and other resources of the villages on the northern border and development of growth centres on “Hub and Spoke Model” through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill development and entrepreneurship. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats. 100 % saturation of Central and state schemes will be ensured. Key outcomes that have been attempted are, connectivity with all-weather road, drinking water, 24×7 electricity – Solar and wind energy to be given focused attention, mobile and internet connectivity. Tourist centers, multi-purpose centers and health and wellness Centers. Source:  The Hindu Marine Spatial Planning Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment News: Puducherry has launched the country’s first Marine Spatial Planning (MSP) framework as part of a pact under the Indo-Norway Integrated Ocean Initiative. Aim: to balance growth alongside sustainable management of ocean resources and coastal environment preservation. About Marine Spatial Planning: MSP is an ecosystem-based spatial planning process for analyzing current and anticipated ocean and coastal uses and identifying areas most suitable for various activities. It provides a public policy process for society to better determine how the ocean and coasts are sustainably used and protected – now and for future generations. The initiative, known as Marine Spatial Planning (MSP), will be implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) through the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR) for India. The IOC-UNESCO Marine Spatial Planning Programme: It helps countries implement ecosystem-based management by finding space for biodiversity, conservation and sustainable economic development in marine areas. IOC-UNESCO has developed several guides, including a 10-step guide on how to get a marine spatial plan started: “Step-by-step Approach for Marine Spatial Planning toward Ecosystem-based Management”. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Central Water Commission (CWC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: CWC entered into a Memorandum of Agreement for Development of International Centre of Excellence for Dams (ICED) under externally funded Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project Phase II and Phase III. About CWC: Central Water Commission is an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating and furthering in consultation of the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country, for purpose of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply and Water Power Development. It also undertakes the investigations, construction and execution of any such schemes as required. Central Water Commission CWC is headed by a chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely, Designs and Research (D&R) Wing, River Management (RM) Wing and Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing. A separate Human Resources Management Unit headed by a Chief Engineer, deals with Human Resources Management or Development, Financial Management, Training and Administrative matters of the CWC. National Water Academy located at Pune is responsible for training of Central and State in-service engineers and it functions directly under the guidance of Chairman. Headquarters: New Delhi. DRIP Project: The objectives of DRIP are to improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner, and to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States / Implementing Agencies. It is an externally-aided project. 80% of the total project is provided by the World Bank as loan/credit and remaining 20% is borne by the States / Central Government (for CWC). Repair and rehabilitation of dam projects in the seven states of Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand. Components Rehabilitation of selected dams and their appurtenances Institutional Strengthening Project Management Source: PIB Conformity Assessment Scheme on IS 19000:2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The scheme- Conformity Assessment Scheme on IS 19000:2022,  has been formulated with the objective of certifying the processes related to the collection, moderation and publication of online customer reviews to check the publication of fake or misleading reviews. About IS 19000:2022: Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the national standard body of India, has published an Indian Standard — IS 19000:2022, ‘Online Consumer Reviews – Principles and Requirements for their Collection, Moderation and Publication’. The Bureau of Indian Standards has come out with a new standard for organizations, like e-commerce players, travel portals and food delivery platforms, that publish consumer review online as part of the government’s efforts to curb fake reviews. This standard is applicable to any organization that publishes consumer reviews online, including suppliers/sellers of products and services that collect reviews from their own customers, a third-party contracted by the suppliers/sellers or an independent third party. Conformity Assessment Scheme: Under the conformity assessment scheme for Grant of Conformity for Process as per standard IS 19000:2022 on ‘Online Consumer Reviews — Principles and Requirements for their Collection, Moderation and Publication’, conformity is granted for demonstrating conformity to all the requirements of IS 19000:2022. The Scheme lays down the criteria and responsibilities of the organization and ancillary requirements for grant and operation of certification requirements for processes related to the collection, moderation, and publication of online customer reviews, and charges relating to certification of said process. This Conformity Assessment Scheme will ensure the authenticity and reliability of consumer reviews published online, and will help consumers make informed decisions. This is a major step towards ensuring consumer protection and promoting fair trade practices in the e-commerce industry. Source: PIB Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Prime Minister remarked that the world can learn a lot about sustainable development from Adivasi culture and it can be a solution to global problems like climate change and global warming. India comprises 6% tribal population, has access to an enormous indigenous knowledge which through recognition, adoption, and mainstreaming has the potential to provide sustainable solutions to concerns related to falling agricultural productivity and soil quality, biodiversity loss, water scarcity, pollution, and Climate Change challenges. Sustainable Development refers to a way of achieving economic growth and development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. About Constitutional Provisions: The Constitution of India does not endeavour to define the term ‘tribe’, however, the term Scheduled Tribe’ was inserted in the Constitution through Article 342 (i). It lays down that ‘the President may, by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within the tribes or tribal communities or parts which shall, for the purposes of this Constitution, be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the setting up a Tribes’ Advisory Council in each of the States having Scheduled Areas. About Tribal Cultures: Communal living: Many tribal communities in India have a strong emphasis on communal living and sharing resources. They live in close-knit communities and often make decisions collectively. Self-Sufficiency: Tribe is a synonym for a self-reliant community, a tribe is a relatively closed society and its openness is inversely related to the extent of its self-sufficient pursuits. Connection with nature: Tribals have a strong connection with nature, with traditional beliefs and practices that revolve around the forests and animals. Folk arts and crafts: Tribals are known for their unique art forms, including pottery, weaving, and jewellery making. These crafts often have spiritual or cultural significance and are passed down through generations. Spiritual beliefs: Tribals often have their own unique spiritual beliefs, which may involve the worship of ancestors, nature spirits, or deities. Tribal Lifestyle and Sustainable development: Respect for the natural environment: Tribal traditional practices, such as using natural materials for housing, food, and medicine, and living in harmony with the cycles of nature. Community-based decision-making: Collective decision-making considers the needs of the community as a whole and ensures that decisions are made in a sustainable and equitable manner. Promotion of biodiversity: Tribals have developed practices to protect and promote diversity which includes traditional methods of agriculture, such as intercropping and seed-saving, as well as the protection of sacred sites that are important for the preservation of biodiversity. Conservation of natural resources: Sustainable practices involve limiting the use of resources to ensure their long-term availability, such as rotational farming or allowing forests to regenerate before harvesting timber. Emphasis on intergenerational knowledge sharing: Passing down knowledge to the next generation includes traditional knowledge of the natural environment and sustainable practices for managing resources. Protection of water resources: Tribal communities rely on water resources and have developed practices that can help to ensure that water is available for future generations, and can reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Regenerative agriculture: tribal communities have been practicing regenerative agriculture for centuries, which involves practices like crop rotation, intercropping, and regenerating soils with organic matter. These practices help to sequester carbon in the soil, which can help to mitigate climate change. Use of renewable energy: They have traditionally used renewable energy sources like wind, solar, and hydropower which can be expanded and modernized to provide clean energy for more people. Challenges faced by tribals in performing their lifestyle Discrimination: Tribal communities often face discrimination and prejudice from the dominant society, including limited access to education, healthcare, and other basic services. Land rights: Tribal communities have been displaced from their traditional lands due to industrialization, and mining which has resulted in the loss of cultural identity, and social and economic marginalization. Climate change and environmental degradation: Climate Change, such as changes in rainfall patterns, increased frequency of natural disasters, loss of biodiversity, deforestation, pollution, and loss of habitat, has negatively impacted their traditional livelihoods and ways of life. Socioeconomic marginalization: Many tribal communities have limited access to education, healthcare, and economic opportunities, which can result in poverty and social exclusion. Lack of political representation: Tribal communities often lack political representation and may not have a voice in decision-making processes that affect their lives. Health challenges: Tribal communities often face challenges in accessing quality healthcare, which can result in higher rates of disease, malnutrition, and other health issues. Cultural assimilation: Many tribal communities face pressure to assimilate into the dominant culture, which can lead to the loss of traditional knowledge, language, and cultural practices. Government initiatives to conserve tribal culture: National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC), an apex Organization under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs in 2001 was brought into existence with the sole aim of economic upliftment of the Scheduled Tribes by way of extending concessional financial assistance to the target group under its various schemes. TRIFED’s Initiatives For Tribal Population: The Government plans to establish 50,000 Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, 3000 Haat Bazaars, etc. Central Sector Scheme: Institutional Support for Development & Marketing of Tribal Products / Produce. Tribes India Outlets: The outlets will showcase tribal products from all over the country and the outlets will have a specific geographical indication (GI) and Vandhan corners. Support to Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) and Tribal Festivals, Research Information, and Mass Education Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana: It is a market-linked tribal entrepreneurship development program for forming clusters of tribal Self Help Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies. Scholarships for pre-matric, post-matric, and overseas education Support to National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): The scheme covers activities like housing, land distribution, land development, agricultural development, animal husbandry, construction of link roads, etc. Vocational Training in Tribal Area: The aim of the Scheme is to develop the skills of the ST youth for a variety of jobs as well as self-employment and to improve their socio-economic condition by enhancing their income. Centrally Sponsored Scheme: The mechanism for Marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) through (MSP) and Development of a Value Chain for MFP’ as a measure of social safety for MFP gatherers. Way Ahead As India celebrates its 75th year of Independence with ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahostav’, Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas would be a thoughtful gift for our tribal community and a recall to Ram Rajya — where the likes of Guha are given due respect, their cultural diversity is respected, and their contributions celebrated. Tribal lifestyles can offer solutions to climate change and global warming through sustainable practices that protect and preserve the natural environment. Overall, tribal lifestyles can provide valuable lessons for sustainable development, particularly in areas with high levels of biodiversity or where development threatens the natural environment. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020) Crop diversification Legume intensification Tensiometer use Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.3) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Ways to boost the Tax Base in the Country Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Governance) Context: According to projections by the World Population Review, India has surpassed China as the world’s most populous nation. Key highlights of the world population review: India is a country of 1.4 billion people with a rising middle class. On the face of it, the country presents untapped growth potential. According to OECD, a quarter of our population is less than 15 years old which makes us a very youthful nation indeed. The steady upward trend in the working age population is particularly noteworthy as it gives us a definitive edge over our peers and can help drive growth in the coming years. There are many broader policy implications that arise – harnessing this workforce effectively to contribute to GDP, providing them the right skill training, providing jobs, social security etc. But a growing workforce should also result in an increase in income tax revenue. Tax evasion and avoidance have always been a headache for the government which has a negative effect on the growth of the Indian economy. About the Status of Income Tax Base in the country: Recently, the Finance Ministry had revealed that the number of people who filed income tax returns stood at 6.8 crore in 2020-21. This means that only 4.8 per cent of the total population filed IT returns in 2021. Of these, only 1.69 crore paid tax since 65 percent of the taxpayers earned less than ₹5 lakh. So effectively, only 1.2 per cent of the population pays income tax as of now. Major reasons for the narrow Income Tax base: Larger Workers in Informal Sector: In India, a large portion of the workforce is employed in the unorganized or informal sector. This is one of the reasons why fewer people are filing tax returns. High Income Threshold: As per the tax laws, the tax incidence arises only if the income is above a certain threshold. According to Statistics, 67 per cent of Indian households had annual income under ₹6 lakh in 2021. This reduces potential income taxpayers to 7.6 crore. Low Worker Population Ratio: According to the World Bank, 95 crore people were in the working age group of 18 to 64 years out of the total population in 2021. For example, Many women are home-makers or care-givers and may not be in the working cohort. The worker population ratio in India is 44.5 per cent, which means that only 42 crore people could be employed in some way or the other in India. False revelation by Non salaried Person: Although the share of personal income tax in the total tax collection by the Central Government is only about 15 per cent, it is extremely lopsided. It was mentioned in the 2018-19 Budget speech that the average salary earner pays three times more than a non-salaried taxpayer and this does not include those who submit income tax returns but pay nil tax. This anomaly is essentially due to non-revelation of true income by the non-salaried. No Tax on Agriculture Income: The agriculture and allied sector has contributed only to 18 percent of GDP, where about 45 per cent of the population is employed. However, as the income from agriculture is not taxed, irrespective of the level of income, unaccounted money is shown as agricultural income by vested interests. Suggestive measures to boost tax base: Tax on Agriculture Income: Those who show their annual income from farming of more than a specific amount can be taxed marginally. It is politically a very tough move, but definitely it will help to curb tax evasion. Formalization of Economy: According to a paper, ‘Measuring Informal Economy in India_ Indian experience’, by SV Ramana Murthy, 90.7 percent of the total workforce in 2017-18 was employed by the informal sector. The report says that besides agriculture, some sectors such as construction, trade, restaurants, communication and other services too have over three-fourth of the entities operating in the informal sector. Collecting Tax at source: Collecting tax at source for purchase of certain goods and services is another way to identify those who earn a tidy sum every year but are not paying any taxes. As of now, TCS is collected for high value goods such as expensive motor vehicles, gold jewellery or overseas remittances. This can help identify those operating in the informal sector and earning high income, yet evading tax. While this could hit honest taxpayers, they can reclaim the tax in their annual return based on the form 26AS. Role of GST regime: One of the objectives of the GST regime in its original form was to nudge those in the unorganized sector to shift to the formal sector and file GST returns in order to avail input tax credits or to continue supplying to larger buyers. But leeway provided in the initial phase, such as doing away with invoice matching, dropping reverse charge mechanism etc have diluted this objective. With the GST system now having settled down, implementation of these self-policing mechanisms rigorously could help increase the formal economy. GST Compliance: The more the GST compliance, the better the revelation of true income by professionals, businessmen and traders, and the increase in income tax from the non-salaried taxpayers. The direct and indirect tax departments should get their act together to generate more income tax from non-salaried taxpayers. Government should work to plug tax evasion due to illicit trade and smuggling. Note 1: About Tax Evasion: Tax evasion is the illegal non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities – such as by declaring less income, profits or gains than the amounts actually earned, or by overstating deductions. It entails criminal or civil legal penalties. Note 2: About Tax Avoidance: Tax avoidance is the legal practice of seeking to minimize a tax bill by taking advantage of a loophole or exception to the rules, or adopting an unintended interpretation of the tax code. It usually refers to the practice of seeking to avoid paying tax by adhering to the letter of the law but opposed to the spirit of the law. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, consider the following statements: Pangolin is the only scaly mammal on the planet. Indian Pangolin listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red list. Both Indian and Chinese Pangolins are listed under Schedule I Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding election symbols allocated by the Election Commission of India (ECI): Political parties are allotted the symbols by the ECI under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. A reserved symbol is one that is allocated to a registered political party while a free symbol is available to be allocated to non-recognized parties and independent candidates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding  Central Water Commission (CWC): CWC is an attached office of the Ministry of Rural Development CWC is headed by a chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. CWC headquarters at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Payment Aggregators Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The payments arm of big technology companies Amazon and Google have been given in-principle approval by the RBI to operate as online payment aggregators. About Payment Aggregators: A payment aggregator or merchant aggregator is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers by integrating it into their websites or apps. A payment aggregator bridges the gap between merchants and acquirers. A merchant need not have a merchant account directly with the bank. At its core, payment aggregators bear the heavy load of integration with various payment providers to provide an all-inclusive solution for payment acceptance. Types of payment aggregators in India Third-party payment aggregators: Third-party PAs offer innovative payment solutions to businesses. Their user-friendly features include a comprehensive dashboard, easy merchant onboarding, and quick customer support. Bank payment aggregators: They lack many of the popular payment options along with detailed reporting features. Bank payment aggregators are not suitable for small businesses and startups because of the high cost and difficult to integrate. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q.2) Consider the following: Foreign currency convertible bonds Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions Global depository receipts Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments? (2021) 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 and 4 1 and 4 Thwaites Glacier/ Doomsday Glacier Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Scientists studying Antarctica’s vast Thwaites Glacier say warm water is seeping into its weak spots, worsening melting caused by rising temperatures. About Thwaites Glacier/ Doomsday Glacier: Thwaites Glacier, nicknamed the Doomsday Glacier, is a broad and vast Antarctic glacier flowing into Pine Island Bay. It is part of the Amundsen Sea. It represents more than half a metre of global sea level rise potential, and could destabilise neighbouring glaciers that have the potential to cause a further three-meter rise. International Thwaites Collaboration: As part of the International Thwaites Glacier collaboration, a team of 13 U.S. and British scientists monitored the glacier using an underwater robot vehicle known as Ice fin. It was established in 2018. Thwaites Glacier is closely monitored for its potential to raise sea levels. Along with the Pine Island Glacier, it has been described as part of the “weak underbelly” of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Exercise Dharma Guardian Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current events of National and International Importance Context:  The joint military exercise, “EX DHARMA GUARDIAN”, between India and Japan recently held in Japan. About Exercise Dharma Guardian: It is an annual training event which is being conducted in India since 2018. The exercise covers platoon level joint training on operations in jungle and semi urban/urban terrain. The joint exercise schedule includes house interventions drills, raid on terrorist hideouts in semi urban terrain, combat first aid, unarmed combat & close quarter combat firing where both sides will jointly train, plan and execute a series of well-developed tactical drills for neutralisation of likely threats. Special emphasis is being laid on enhancing tactical skills to fight global terrorism and on enhancing inter-operability between the forces and to promote Army to Army relations. Troops of the Garhwal Rifles Regiment of the Indian Army and an Infantry Regiment from the Middle Army of the Japan Ground Self Defence Force are participating in the exercise this year to share experiences gained during various operations in order to enhance inter-operability in planning and execution. Other Military Exercises between India and Japan: Malabar: India and Japan with the United States and Australia participate in the naval wargaming exercise named Malabar. JIMEX (naval) SHINYUU Maitri (Air Force) Q.1) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2016) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Source:  NewsOnAIR Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in a report flagged the “inhuman and deplorable” condition of all 46 government-run mental healthcare institutions across the country. About Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: The act provides for the rights of persons with mental illness, including the right to access mental health care and treatment, the right to make decisions about their treatment, the right to confidentiality, and the right to legal aid. It establishes mental health services at the district level to provide access to mental healthcare and Mental Health Review Boards (MHRBs) to oversee the treatment of persons with mental illness and to protect their rights. It decriminalizes attempted suicide, recognizing that suicide is often a symptom of mental illness, and provides care and treatment for persons who attempt suicide. It establishes a Central Mental Health Authority and State Mental Health Authorities to regulate mental healthcare and services and to promote mental health. The act prohibits the use of Electro-Convulsive Therapy (ECT) without anaesthesia and the use of seclusion and restraint in mental health establishments, except in exceptional circumstances. The act provides for advance directives, which allow individuals to express their preferences for treatment and care in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves. The Act discourages using physical restraints (such as chaining), unmodified electro-convulsive therapy (ECT). This Act makes provision for the appointment of nominated representative by the mentally ill person. In case of absence of any recommendation by the mentally ill person, any relative, care giver, suitable persons may be appointed to act as the nominated representative. It provides for the setting up of Central Mental Authority Fund and State Mental Health Authority Fund to keep an account of all the grants, loans, fees, charges, sums etc., made by the authorities under this Act. Provision for Mental Health Review Boards – are quasi-judicial bodies shall be mainly responsible for: Registering, reviewing, altering, modifying or cancelling an advance directive appointing a nominated representative. Source  TH Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 TAPAS BH-201 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context:  The Prime Minister has shared aerial coverage of Ground and Air display captured from indigenously developed Medium Altitude Long Endurance TAPAS UAV during rehearsal from a height of 12000 feet. About TAPAS: Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance-Beyond Horizon-201 (TAPAS BH-201) is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV). It is being developed in the country by Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). It operates at altitudes between 10,000 and 30,000 feet and has a flight endurance of up to 48 hours. It has the capability to fly autonomously or via remote control, allowing for pre-programmed flight plans and operational use in daylight or darkness. However, the Tapas BH-201 drone, equipped with foreign engines and mission sensors Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: Financial express Man Made Fibre Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Textile Minister holds first meeting of the newly constituted Textile Advisory Group for Manmade Fibre (MMF). About Man-made fibres (MMF): Man-made fibres (MMF) are fibres made by man. MMF can be organic or inorganic. Organic MMF can be made from natural materials like wood, or are made from synthetic polymers. Classification of Man-made Fibres Synthetic Fibres: Synthetic fibres are synthesis from chemical processes. Examples of synthetic fibres are nylon, acrylic, polyester etc. Regenerated Fibres: These are semi-synthetic fibres that are made from the raw materials having long chain polymer structures. Modified and are partially degraded during the chemical processes. Made from cellulose polymers that are naturally occurring in cotton, wood, hemp, flax etc. Cellulose is first converted into a pure form of viscous mass and is then converted into fibres by extrusion through spinnerets. The first man-made regenerated fibres are rayon and acetate. Advantages of MMF: High strength, Retains their original shape, Elastic, Soft, Low cost, Colours can be easily incorporated into man-made fibres, They are lightweight materials and easy manufacturing. Disadvantages of MMF: Man-made fibres do not absorb moisture and traps heat in our body. Some man-made fibres cause skin allergies due to their dermatological actions. Man-made fibre fails to absorb the perspiration Source  –  PIB Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Corporate climate efforts fall short; 24 major companies will be able to reduce only 36% emissions. Only five of 24 companies hit the 90% emission reduction projection by their respective target years. About the Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023: Published by Germany-based think-tank New Climate Institute (NCI), Objective: To assess the climate strategies of these industry-leading companies, critically analyzing the extent to which they are meeting their climate goals. Findings: The combined Net Zero pledges of 24 major global companies will reduce their total greenhouse-gas emissions by 36 per cent by their respective target years, typically 2040 or 2050, compared with the reduction of at least 90 per cent that is needed. Climate pledges for 2030 fall well short of the economy-wide emission reductions required to stay below the 1.5°C temperature limit. Source:DTE Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (2021) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Parhaiyas Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The role of welfare schemes and policies for the Parhaiyas of Jharkhand. About the Parhaiyas Parhaiyas is one of the nine Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of Jharkhand state. Mainly concentrated in Latehar and Palamau districts of Jharkhand state Parhaiyas are still lagging behind on most of the important indicators of development such as health, education, and income. Parahiya literally means “the burners of the forest” or “hill dweller.” People rely on the forest for their sustenance. Collecting various types of forest produce such as roots, fruits and leaves and sell them at the local markets. Hunting is also one of the major sources of income. About PVTGs Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribe, who are most vulnerable in certain parameter then the other Scheduled Tribe community. During the fourth Five Year Plan a sub-category was created within Scheduled Tribes Created based on the Dhebar Commission report. The features of such a group include a pre-agricultural system of existence, that is practice of hunting and gathering, zero or negative population growth, extremely low level of literacy in comparison with other tribal groups. Groups that satisfied any one of the criterion were considered as PTG. There are total of 75 PVTGs in India. Source –   TH Lavani Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: The article is based on the controversy surrounding dance form,  “ Lavani “, which has come under criticism for being ‘vulgar’ and ‘obscene’. About Lavani: Maharashtra folk dance The word Lavani comes from ‘lavanya’ or beauty. Traditional folk art form in which women dancers wearing nine-yard-long sarees in bright colours, make-up, and ghunghroos perform on dholak beats on a stage before a live audience. Lavani has a history going back several centuries It attained particular popularity in the Peshwa era in the 18th century. Traditionally, performances were held in front of kings or lords, and for the entertainment of tired soldiers resting during breaks in fighting. There are several types of Lavani: Most popular is the Shringarik (erotic) kind. Source –  Indian Express Recent trend of Current Account Deficit (CAD) Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context:  The recent data indicated that the current account deficit (CAD) will moderate despite the global slowdown triggered by rising inflation and interest rates. According to the RBI, the CAD is expected to moderate in the second half of 2022-23 and remain eminently manageable and within the parameters of viability. About Current Account and Current Account Deficit: A nation’s Current Account maintains a record of the country’s transactions with other nations. It comprises the following components: trade of goods and services, net earnings on overseas investments and net transfer of payments over a period of time, such as remittances This account goes into a deficit when money sent outward exceeds that coming inward. Calculation: It is measured as a percentage of GDP. Trade gap = Exports – Imports. Current Account = Trade gap + Net current transfers + Net income abroad. Current Account Deficit: When the value of the goods and services that a country imports exceed the value of the products it exports, it is called the current account deficit. CAD and the fiscal deficit together make up the twin deficits – the enemies of the stock market and investors. Difference with the Balance of Trade: It is slightly different from the Balance of Trade, which measures only the gap in earnings and expenditure on exports and imports of goods and services. Whereas, the current account also factors in the payments from domestic capital deployed overseas. For example, rental income from an Indian owning a house in the UK would be computed in the Current Account, but not in the Balance of Trade. Significance of CA: If the current account – the country’s trade and transactions with other countries – shows surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country, boosting the foreign exchange reserves and the value of rupee against the dollar. These are factors that will have ramifications on the economy and the stock markets as well as on returns on investments by people. Indicator of Economy: CAD may be a positive or negative indicator for an economy depending upon why it is running a deficit. Foreign capital is seen to have been used to finance investments in many economies. It may help a debtor nation in the short-term, but it may worry in the long-term as investors begin raising concerns over adequate return on their investments. India’s current account position is largely on the deficit side because of the country’s dependence on oil imports. Ways of reducing CAD: The Current Account Deficit can be reduced by boosting exports and curbing non-essential imports such as gold, mobiles, and electronics. The moderation in CAD, expected to be aided by the following factors: The fall in commodity prices, Rising worker’s remittances and services exports, and Abatement of selling pressure by foreign investors, is set to boost sentiment on the investment front, as it will also bring the pressure off the currency. Reasons for narrowing trade deficit in recent times: The trade deficit (for Jan 2023) narrowed to $17.7 billion, led by a sharp fall in imports, while exports fell by a smaller amount. The sharp drop in imports was due to: Non-oil imports falling, mainly due to a price impact (softening in coal prices from mid-December), Likely softening in domestic demand post the festive season (such as lower imports of transport equipment), and Seasonal impact of the Chinese New Year holidays. WAY Forward: While rising CAD raises concerns among investors as it hurts the currency and thereby the inflow of funds into the markets, a notable decline in CAD has improved market sentiments. Experts believe that CAD is very important for the currency. The value of an economy hinges a lot on the value of its currency and thereby, it also supports the equity markets by keeping the fund flow intact. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Payment Aggregators” A payment aggregator or merchant aggregator is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payment from customers. A merchant must have a merchant account directly with the bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following: Exercise Dharma Guardian Exercise Malabar SHINYUU Maitri Which of the exercises mentioned above is/are coordinated by the members of India and Japan? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) The Corporate Climate Responsibility Monitor 2023 report was recently released by United Nations Environment Programme Germany-based think-tank New Climate Institute International non-profit organisation – the Climate Group NITI Aayog Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Doctrine of necessity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) Invoked the “doctrine of necessity” to clear six deals involving mergers & acquisitions (M&A) and investment proposals. About Doctrine of necessity: It allows the legal authorities to carry out certain activities which are not permitted in the normal course. This term is used to describe a principle of constitutional law, where in an emergency or an exigent circumstance, a state may legally act which in other circumstances is deemed to be illegal. The term was first used in 1954 in a controversial judgment in Pakistan. The Doctrine of Necessity was changed to the Doctrine of Absolute Necessity in the case of “Election Commission of India v. Dr. Subramaniam Swamy” Outcome: This doctrine shall be used only in case of absolute necessity. It acts as a defense against violating the law making the decision valid and not biased. Doctrine of necessity acts as an exception to ‘Nemo judex in causa sua’, where an authority is disqualified on the grounds of a biased decision. Source:  Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 InfoCrop Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has forecasted the impact of the hot weather on crop yield in Punjab and Haryana where InfoCrop is one such forecast tool. About InfoCrop: It is India’s only dynamic crop simulation model. It is developed and released by IARI in 2015. It aims to study the long-term impact of climate change and crop management practices on yield. It is a process based dynamic (real time) simulation model to calculate the growth of yield of 11 crops. 11 crops: paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, pigeon pea, chickpea, soybean, groundnut, potato and cotton. It also has the life cycle data for almost all the local varieties of those 11 crops. It provides data on the effects of weather, soil and crop management (sowing, seed rate, organic matter nitrogen and irrigation) and pests. It provides daily and summary outputs on growth and yield parameters, nitrogen uptake and balance, greenhouse gas emissions, soil water. It performs better for tropical regions. In 2004, InfoCrop version 1 was launched whereas version 2.1 was launched in 2015. Other forecasting models: The Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre provides pre-harvest forecasts for eight major crops at the national, state and district levels. It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Other key facts: Currently, India does not have a system to forecast crop loss due to heatwaves or other extreme weather conditions. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India announced the launching of a pilot project on QR code-based coin vending machine. About QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine: The machine is to be launched in 12 cities in the first phase. The QCVM is a cashless coin dispenser that dispenses coins in exchange for a debit to the customer’s bank account via the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). These machines will use UPI-based code systems to provide coins. Earlier the machines tendered the bank notes physically. Here the consumer need not use currency notes. Rather he shall use his bank account password or a pin to get coins. As he enters the pin or password, the vending machine verifies with his bank account and issues coins from his bank account directly. Earlier, the consumer had to drop in currency notes to get coins. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 River Cities Alliance Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: DHARA the annual meeting of the members of the River Cities Alliance (RCA), is being organised by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) in association with the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA). DHARA which stands for Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers, is a platform to co-learn and discuss solutions for managing local water resources. About River Cities Alliance: River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a dedicated platform for river cities across India to discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of urban rivers. It includes cities from both the Ganga basin and non-Ganga basin states. River Cities Alliance is a first-of-its-kind Alliance in the world, symbolising the successful partnership of the two Ministries i.e., the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The Alliance focuses on three broad themes- Networking, Capacity Building and Technical Support. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Andhra Pradesh Forest Department is initiating a series of measures to develop the place and document the flora and fauna of the region. About Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary: The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest located near Visakhapatnam, near Andhra Pradesh. The sanctuary is a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover of mixed composition along with scrubland and meadows. It is bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the West and Gambheeram reservoir on the North-east. Important species:  Fauna: The indicator species is the Indian leopard. Other species found here are Indian clouded gecko, bulbuls, barbets, cuckoos, flycatchers, hornbills and leafbirds, starlings Flora: Jamun tree, Red cutch tree, Teak,  Indigo tree, Rosewood, Neem. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Aerosols and their effect on Global Climate Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context:  Role of Industrial Aerosols in contributing to Global Cooling. A new study reveals that inactive volcanoes contributed 66 percent of sulphate emissions, known to cool the planet, in the preindustrial era. About Aerosols: Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid environment. In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface. However, certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high altitude layers. Source of aerosols  Natural sources – sea salt generated from breaking waves, mineral dust blown from the surface by wind, and volcanoes. Anthropogenic aerosols – sulphate, nitrate, and carbonaceous aerosols, and are mainly from fossil fuel combustion sources. Effects of aerosols: They affect the atmospheric chemical composition. They can reduce visibility. They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g. aerosols can cause damage to heart and lungs). They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds. Source: DownToEarth    Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) Consider the following: Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? (2022) 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Omorgus Khandesh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context:  A new beetle species has been discovered in India, according to a paper published in the New Zealand-based journal Zootaxa. About Omorgus Khandesh:  It is necrophagous, therefore, also called a keratin beetle It belongs to the Trogidae family.  Features:  The beetles of this group are sometimes called hide beetles as they tend to cover their body under the soil and hide. They are not photogenic; they are usually black or grey and encrusted in dirt. Their bumpy appearance is distinct, with short, dense setae all over the body. Significance: The beetle is important for forensic science as it helps detect the time of death of an animal or human. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Marburg Viral Disease Outbreak Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –  Science and Technology Context:  Equatorial Guinea has confirmed its first-ever outbreak of Marburg virus disease. About Marburg Viral Disease:  Marburg virus disease (MVD), formerly known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal illness in humans. Marburg virus is the member of the Filoviridae family (filovirus).  Transmission: Rousettus aegyptiacus, fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, are considered to be natural hosts of the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is transmitted to people from fruit bats and spreads among humans through human-to-human transmission  via direct contact with the blood, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and materials contaminated with these fluids. Treatment: There are no authorised vaccines or drugs to treat Marburg, but rehydration treatment to alleviate symptoms can improve the chances of survival. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Indian Economy Context: CBDT notifies Income-tax Return Forms for assessment year 2023-24 Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT): It is a statutory body established as per the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963. It is India’s official financial action task force unit. It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. At present, the CBDT has six members Ex-officio members of the Board also function as a division of the Ministry of Finance Functions of the CBDT: Oversight of the Internal Revenue Service as a whole. Suggestions for the tax rates to be changed. In accordance with government policies, planning changes to the taxes structure of India. It is proposed that direct tax legislation be amended. It is in charge of the collection and levying of direct taxes. Income Tax Return: Income Tax Returns, often known as ITRs, are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Individuals who make a specific amount of money are required to file IT returns. Income Tax Return Forms are notified by CBDT Source:    All India Radio Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deputy Speaker Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The present Lok Sabha and five state Assemblies have not elected Deputy Speakers. About Office of Deputy Speaker: Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state. Elected By: Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms). Term of Office and Removal: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha (5 years). Deputy Speaker may vacate his/her office earlier in any of the following three cases If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha. If he resigns by writing to the Speaker. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. Responsibilities and Powers (Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha): Article 95 of the constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. Special privilege, that is, whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman. Deputy Speaker and Tenth Schedule (Exception): Para 5 of the Tenth Schedule (commonly known as the anti-defection law) says that a person who has been elected Speaker/ Deputy Speaker shall not be disqualified: Voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only Global Sea-level Rise and Implications Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently, the report “Global Sea-level Rise and Implications” was released by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO). Key highlights of the report: Threats of Sea level rise: India, China, Bangladesh and the Netherlands face the highest threat of sea-level rise globally. The report stated that several big cities in all continents are threatened by the rise in sea level. These include Shanghai, Dhaka, Bangkok, Jakarta, Mumbai, Maputo, Lagos, Cairo, London, Copenhagen, New York, Los Angeles, Buenos Aires and Santiago. Stimulating factors: If trends in urbanisation in exposed areas continue, this will exacerbate the impacts, with more challenges where energy, water and other services are constrained,” it reported. The impacts of average sea-level rise are boosted by storm surges and tidal variations, as was the situation during the landfall of hurricane Sandy in New York and Cyclone Idai in Mozambique. Melting of ice mass in Antarctica: According to future estimates based on climate models and ocean-atmosphere physics, the WMO reported that the speed of melting of the largest global ice mass in Antarctica is uncertain. Impact of Sea level rise: Submergence: According to the report, while sea-level rise is not globally uniform and varies regionally, continued and accelerating sea-level rise will encroach on coastal settlements and infrastructure and commit low-lying coastal ecosystems to submergence and loss. All round impact: Sea level rise is a major economic, social and humanitarian challenge. It threatens coastal farmlands and water reserves and resilience of infrastructures as well as human lives and livelihoods, the report noted. Food insecurity: Climate change will increasingly put pressure on food production and access, especially in vulnerable regions, undermining food security and nutrition and increases in frequency, intensity and severity of droughts, floods and heatwaves, and continued sea level rise will increase risks to food security in vulnerable regions. Primary reasons for the Sea Level Rise: The change in sea levels is linked to three primary factors, all induced by ongoing global climate change: Melting glaciers: Large ice formations such as mountain glaciers naturally melt a bit each summer. In the winter, snows, primarily from evaporated sea water, are generally sufficient to balance out the melting. Recently, though, persistently higher temperatures caused by global warming have led to greater than average summer melting as well as diminished snowfall due to later winters and earlier springs. Thermal expansion: When water heats up, it expands. About half of the sea-level rise over the past 25 years is attributable to warmer oceans simply occupying more space. Loss of Greenland and Antarctica’s ice sheets: As with mountain glaciers, increased heat is causing the massive ice sheets that cover Greenland and Antarctica to melt more quickly. Scientists also believe that meltwater from above and seawater from below is seeping beneath Greenland’s ice sheets, effectively lubricating ice streams and causing them to move more quickly into the sea. While melting in West Antarctica has drawn considerable focus from scientists, especially with the 2017 break in the Larsen C ice shelf, glaciers in East Antarctica are also showing signs of destabilizing. Way Forward: Coastal cities and settlements play a key role in moving toward higher climate resilient development given firstly, almost 11% of the global population of 896 million people lived within the Low Elevation Coastal Zone in 2020, potentially increasing to beyond 1 billion people by 2050. These people, and associated development and coastal ecosystems, face escalating climate compounded risks, including sea level rise. The Coastal cities can implement the following measures to address sea level rise Using Beaches As Barriers Building Seawalls Raising Roads Building Stormwater Pumps Upgrading Sewage Systems Creating Natural Infrastructure Slowing Land Sinkage Global Plans to reduce the impacts of Sea Level rise: In Jakarta, a $40 billion project will aim to protect the city with an 80-foot-high seawall. Rotterdam, home to the global Centre on Adaptation, has offered a model to other cities seeking to combat flooding and land loss. The Dutch city has built barriers, drainage, and innovative architectural features such as Water Square with temporary ponds. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT): It is a statutory body It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following: Breaking waves Mineral dust Volcanoes fossil fuel combustion Which of the above are sources of aerosol pollution? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Telangana Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }