Jan 25, 2023 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer -Domestic Workers

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS -2: Issues relating to development and management of Human Resouces GS-3: Economy & Development Context: Despite offering necessary services, domestic workers lack access to rights and protection. They are also susceptible to harassment, assault, and restrictions on their freedom of movement. The informality in this sector is due to implementation issues and loopholes in national labour and social security laws. Who are domestic workers? According to the International Labour Organization (‘ILO’), “Domestic work refers to housework such as sweeping, cleaning utensils, washing clothes, cooking, caring for children and such other work which is carried out for an employer for remuneration.” In India, there are primarily two categories of domestic employees – part-time domestic workers live-in workers. Domestic work is a wide concept that incorporates all tasks performed at home. Despite the fact that it is a low-skilled profession, it necessitates a wide range of skills and administrative abilities. Some definitions of domestic work are wider and include jobs like gardeners, drivers, and watchmen. Domestic work also involves caring for the elderly, and providing childcare and housekeeping. Domestic workers play a crucial role in the economy and the labour market. Women across India, primarily impoverished women, undertake the majority of the household work. The sharp drop in agrarian yield and rural livelihood security has resulted in rural people migrating to cities and switching to domestic labour. What is the condition of domestic workers in India? Domestic employees are not even recognised as ‘workers’ in society; their contributions are not recognized as ‘productive labour’ that contributes to the nation’s economic calculations. Women employees are particularly harmed by this notion since it essentially makes their job an inherent responsibility toward society. They have been referred to as ‘domestic helpers’ for a long time instead of ‘workers’. Studies show that domestic work is the lowest-paid of all the informal trades in India. India’s official estimates put the number of domestic workers at 4.75 million. Additionally, vulnerable groups like women and minors in India make up 80 per cent of the domestic work industry. What are the issues faced by Domestic Workers? Domestic care providers work in closed spaces, which makes them prone to abuse. The lack of legal or regulatory frameworks to safeguard this unregulated sector of employment is the key factor contributing to the abuse and exploitation of domestic workers. Torture, beatings and sexual assault of domestic workers frequently make headlines, yet there are only a few laws safeguarding their rights. Many workers also face the humiliation of having no or limited access to proper sanitation facilities. The specifications for this job remain rooted in caste and class, and affect the relationship with their employers. A study found out that 75 per cent of respondent domestic workers in Bangalore belonged to Scheduled Castes, while only two per cent were from forward castes. With the lack of a detailed job description, the workers are forced to show obedience to an extent that renders them powerless to negotiate their work boundaries. The significant disparity in socioeconomic reality between domestic employees and their employers creates this lopsided power asymmetry. Even if the concept of domestic helpers is easy enough to grasp, there are a number of issues such as working conditions wage standards pay for overtime work retirement health care benefits leaves What are the laws safeguarding the rights of domestic workers in India? The National Platform for Domestic Workers, social activist Aruna Roy, and the non-government organisation Common Cause petitioned the Supreme Court to establish rules to protect the rights of domestic workers. The petition asked for domestic work to be recognised. It also demanded the workers’ working hours be limited to eight a day, and they should be obligated to take an off in a week, in line with the fundamental right guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. The petition led to the recognition of such work under the Minimum Wages Act of 1948. The Act addresses the need for workers to receive a minimum wage. The law is subject to change by the state governments, and as a result, some state governments revised the Act to expand the definition of “worker” to include domestic employees. The Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act of 2008 seeks to ensure the well-being and social security of informal workers. This Act requires the formation of a national and state social security board to suggest social security plans that provide workers with different health, service, and pension benefits. Domestic care workers come under the scope of this act. The Domestic Workers (Registration Social Security and Welfare) Act, 2008 provides that a domestic worker who resides at the employee’s home is entitled to yearly leave with pay for a minimum of 15 days per year. According to Section 23 of the Act, anybody found guilty of sexually harassing a domestic worker or child faces a sentence of up to seven years in jail, a fine of Rs. 50,000, or both. There was an attempt to create a law within the country in the form of the Domestic Workers Welfare and Social Security Bill, 2010, drafted by the National Commission for Women. The proposed law was intended for domestic workers above the age of 18 years and specified that no minor shall be engaged as a domestic worker. However, it was never enacted into law. Domestic workers are now covered by the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, the Sexual Harassment at Workplace Act, and the Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana on a countrywide basis. Additionally, six state governments have announced domestic workers’ minimum salaries, and Maharashtra has established a Welfare Board for such workers. Why domestic work still remains informal? Homes are typically seen as ‘private’ spaces beyond State regulation, making it challenging to enact legislation regarding domestic employees who operate in these settings. Additionally, private residences do not meet the legal criteria for a ‘workplace’, excluding domestic workers from the protection of all significant labour laws. Domestic workers as a result receive inadequate pay and are not viewed as professionals offering a particular service. Regardless of how skilfully they cook or how thoroughly they clean, domestic servants are still viewed as unskilled labour. Since many domestic workers are migrants who reside at their employers’ homes, they are outside the purview of trade unions and community-based organisations that help them in knowing their rights. Unions and collective action are the routes that are most advantageous for domestic workers for voicing their opinions. The Paschimbanga Griha Paricharika Samit (West Bengal Domestic Workers Society) only recently got a certificate from the state government, recognising domestic workers as a labour union. There have been several attempts to legislate for the domestic care sector, but most of them have failed. In the past, the Domestic Workers (Conditions of Employment) Bill, 1959 and the Housemaids and Domestic Employees (Conditions of Service and Welfare Bill), 2004 have been introduced in the Parliament. These mandated that state governments register all domestic care workers and offer them job possibilities. Once more, due to uncertainty over execution, neither was passed into law. In order to provide a legislative framework for domestic workers, the Lok Sabha presented the Domestic Workers Welfare Bill, 2016. The proposal’s goal was to lay parameters for the conditions of employment and the work environment for domestic workers. In order to qualify for benefits, such employees must also register. Regrettably, this has not been passed either. Why do we need a better legislative framework? The Minimum Wages Act is ambiguous in its intent to support domestic employees facing financial difficulties. As the nature of household work has not been clearly identified and defined, there is room for ambiguity. Furthermore, governments haven’t set the working hours for them, which makes figuring out the minimum pay a challenge. It is insufficient for state governments to simply include domestic care employees in the definition of a worker if they want to formally recognise domestic care workers. The Supreme Court monitored the execution of the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act and voiced dissatisfaction that all state governments had not constituted state boards under the Act. Furthermore, the Supreme Court stated that all state governments must register all domestic care workers under this Act in order to receive benefits. From the above arguments we see that domestic work is not governed by any legal framework in India. Despite many attempts by federal and state governments, it has not been possible to establish a legal framework exclusively for these workers. A focused legislation would provide them with consistent rights and lessen their reliance on the generosity of particular employers. The ILO’s Convention 189, which has been approved by more than 29 other nations, is the best model for such a regulation. An efficient enforcement mechanism and a legislative framework for domestic care workers are essential in India for laws meant for them to be successful. A dispute redress mechanism is also required for the regulation of the informal sector. The gaps in these existing laws should be examined thoroughly. Way Ahead Proactive initiatives to protect domestic workers from abuse is the need of the hour. Domestic workers have generally been disregarded when it comes to getting social security benefits, unlike in the organised sector. It is high time considerations like maternity benefits, health insurance, and compensation for work injuries be offered to domestic workers. Main Practice Question: What are the issues faced by Domestic Workers? Why is there a demand for dedicated legislation for safeguarding the rights of Domestic Workers given that their rights are covered under other legislations? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Jan 25, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 24, 2023 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Joshimath crisis

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Disaster Management GS-3: Indian Economy & Development Context: Wide cracks have appeared in many roads and hundreds of houses in Joshimath, Uttarakhand, and the authorities have declared it a landslide and subsidence-hit zone. Families were evacuated to temporary relief centres for their own safety. The signs of sinking first appeared in October 2021 and subsequently cracks continued to appear around town and residents resorted to repairs. It is also worth noting that the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) said in a report that the town in Uttarakhand sank 5.4 cm between December 27, 2022, and January 8, 2023. However, the report and the satellite images were later withdrawn from the ISRO website. What factors were responsible for Joshimath Land Subsidence? At a height of 6,107 feet, Joshimath is a busy town in Chamoli district. After the 1962 India-China war, Joshimath emerged as a place of strategic importance. It leads to villages along the India-China border and is also en route to Barahoti, a disputed territory along the border. The town is also a gateway to noted sites of pilgrimage – Badrinath for Hindus and Hemkund Sahib for Sikhs; the international skiing site of Auli; and the Valley of Flowers, a UNESCO World Heritage site. Despite a population of only about 23,000, it has been heavily built-on, with hotels, resorts, and a bustling market. Joshimath is built on the deposits of an old landslide, which means the slopes can be destabilised even by slight triggers. The town is also in Zone V, denoting highest risk, in India’s seismic zonation scheme. It lies between two thrusts, the Main Central Thrust (MCT) and the Vaikrita Thrust (VT), and thus occupies a seismically active terrain. Joshimath is also prone to extreme weather. Climatologically, Joshimath lies in a region that frequently receives high-intensity, focussed rainfall. Extreme rains, for example, could trigger landslides, since the slopes are precariously balanced. Vibrations produced by blasting and heavy traffic will also lead to disequilibrium in natural factors Locals have blamed the NTPC’s 520-MW Tapovan Vishnugad hydropower project, under construction in the area, for exacerbating the Joshimath land subsidence. The 6-km Helang-Marwari bypass, being built by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), is also under scrutiny for weakening slopes and further destabilising the local topography. The bypass is part of the 825-km Char Dham highway expansion project in Uttarakhand, which experts have already questioned for unscientific slope-cutting, which resulted in several landslides. Reports also point out the lack of drainage and wastewater disposal systems as being part of the subsidence problem. About 85% of buildings in the town – including those owned by the army – aren’t connected to a sewerage system and have soak pits instead. These pits could create “cavities between soil and boulders”, as well as that inadequate drainage could lead to landslides. Joshimath’s geological setting, together with the unplanned and rampant construction in and around the town, have resulted in land subsidence. What are seismic zones? A seismic zone is an area where there is a high probability of earthquakes due to the area’s geology. Seismic zonation, which involves dividing areas based on expected ground motion, assesses the hazards related to earthquakes in such areas to provide inputs for safer constructions and other practices. What are India’s seismic zone maps ? A published in the Journal of theInternational Society for the Prevention and Mitigation of Natural Hazards said that almost 65% of India falls in high to very high seismic zones. According to the 2002 version of India’s seismic zone map, earthquake-prone regions in the country are divided into four zones – zone II, III, IV, and V – based on intensity levels during past earthquakes. However, this is not the version of the map that has always been in use. The first national seismic zoning map of India was compiled by the Geological Survey of India in 1935, after the 1934 Nepal-India earthquake that measured over 8.0 on the Richter scale and destroyed Kathmandu, Bhaktapur and Patan in Nepal. It consisted of three zones – severe, light, and minor hazard, “based on the broad concept of space-time earthquake statistics and the prevailing understanding of geotectonic” movements In 1962, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) published a seismic zonation map of India. This map marked earthquake epicentres in the country and built on the isoseismic map published by the GSI in 1935. It divided India into seven zones – from 0 (no damage) to VI (extensive damage). It was reviewed in 1966, using geological and tectonic features to modify the zones. Until 1967, seismologists were under the impression that most of the Deccan plateau and peninsular India were free from seismic activity. However, in 1967, a 6.3-magnitude earthquake struck the Koyna hydroelectric project killing hundreds of people and injuring thousands. This led to major revisions in the 1970 seismic zone map of India. The 1970 map consisted of five zones – I, II, III, IV, and V – based on the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale with a Comprehensive Intensity Scale (CIS-64). The MMI scale takes into account the effect of earthquakes on people, objects, and buildings, and estimates the shaking intensity from an earthquake at a specific location. Zero was removed as a zone since it was deemed scientifically inappropriate to consider a region completely safe from earthquakes. Another major change in the 1970 version of the map was the merging of zones V and VI. A new update to India’s seismic zone map was released in 1984. This map identified the seismic potential of regions based on past earthquakes as well as its tectonic features. Seismic zone maps after 1984 Till 1984, IS 1893 was the main seismic code of India, and all seismic zone maps were based on it. This code was revised in 1966, 1970, 1975, and 1984. In 1991, it was decided that IS 1893 would be split into parts. Latur in Maharashtra was struck by an earthquake of intensity IX (on MMI-CIS-64 scales) in 1993. The 3-magnitude earthquake killed thousands of people and occurred in a region that was placed in zone I — an area at low risk. This led to further revisions in the seismic zonation map of India. What do India’s seismic zones signify? Seismic zones signify the intensity of earthquakes which are most likely in those classified areas. The latest seismic zone map of India was released in 2002 with only four zones – II, III, IV, and V. Color coded in different shades of the color red, this map shows the four distinct seismic zones of India. Following are the varied seismic zones of the nation, which are prominently shown in the map: Zone – II: This is said to be the least active seismic zone. Zone – III: It is included in the moderate seismic zone. Zone – IV: This is considered to be the high seismic zone. Zone IV includes areas prone to earthquakes of severe intensity, and include Patna, Pilibhit, Ludhiana, Roorkee, Gorakhpur, and Amritsar. Zone – V: It is the highest seismic zone. The entire northeast India, parts of northwestern Bihar, Kangra Valley in Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, eastern part of Uttarakhand, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, and Srinagar area in Jammu and Kashmir were all placed in zone V Approximately 11% area of the country falls in zone V, 18% in zone IV, 30% in zone III and the remaining in zone II. An Indian seismic zoning map assists one in identifying the lowest, moderate as well as highest hazardous or earthquake prone areas in India. Even such maps are looked into before constructing any high rise building so as to check the level of seismology in any particular area Main Practice Question: Why are we frequently witnessing disasters in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand? What measures can be adopted to mitigate it? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Jan 24, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) The India International Science Festival Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The 8th edition of the India International Science Festival (IISF) was recently inaugurated at the Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology (MANIT), Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The theme of the four-day festival is “Marching towards Amrit Kaal with Science, Technology, and Innovation”. About IISF: India International Science Festival (IISF) is an initiative of Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Earth Science of Government of India in association with Vijnana Bharati which is a science movement with Swadeshi spirit lead by eminent scientists of the country. The main purpose of IISF is the celebration of science by all. Through its creative programs and activities, IISF provides opportunities to people and scientific fraternity in the country and abroad to come together, work together and experience the joy of doing science for the well-being of India and humanity. The theme of this year mission is aligned with Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision to build a Self-reliant India and is also aligned with the G20 vision, which is Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam or “One Earth· One Family · One Future”. IISF will feature 14 thematic events: Students Science Village Face to face with New Frontiers of Science & Technology Science through Games & Toys Students Innovation Festival Vaigyanika (Literature) International Science Film Festival Guinness World Records attempts Artisan’s Technology Village-Vocal for Local Young Scientist Conclave New Age Technology Show National Social Organisations and Institutions Meet (NSOIM) STEM @ 2022-Mega Science and Technology Exhibition Start-up Meet Science and Technology Council Conclave. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes. Ahom Burial Mounds in Assam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Union Government has decided to nominate Assam’s Charaideo Maidams for the UNESCO World Heritage Centre. Charaideo Maidams: Assam’s Charaideo Maidams are the Ahom equivalent of the ancient Egyptian pyramids. The maidams represent the late medieval (13th-19th century CE) mound burial tradition of the Tai Ahom community in Assam. The Charaideo Maidams enshrine the mortal remains of the members of the Ahom royalty, who used to be buried with their paraphernalia. Out of 386 Maidams or Moidams explored so far, 90 royal burials at Charaideo are the best preserved, representative of and the most complete examples of mound burial tradition of the Ahom’s. After the 18th century, the Ahom rulers adopted the Hindu method of cremation and began entombing the cremated bones and ashes in a Maidam at Charaideo. Significance: There is currently no World Heritage Site in the category of cultural heritage in the northeast. The nomination of the Charaideo Maidams has attained significance at a time when the country is celebrating the 400th birth anniversary of Lachit Barphukan. Ahom Kingdom: The Ahom dynasty was founded by Chao Lung Siu-Ka-Pha in 1253. The Ahom rule lasted for about 600 years until the British annexed Assam in 1826. Charaideo, more than 400 km east of Guwahati, was the first capital of the Ahom dynasty. About Lachit Borphukan Born: on November 24, 1622 in Charaideo, the first capital of the Ahom kings. Death: 25th April 1672. Excelled in the art of Guerrilla Warfare. Led two battles against an alien Mughal army. Battle of Alaboi: Fought on August 5, 1669 in the Alaboi Hills near Dadara in North Guwahati. Aurangzeb had ordered the invasion in 1669 under his ally Rajput Raja Ram Singh I who led a combined Mughal and Rajput army. Borphukan engaged in guerrilla warfare, assaulting the invaders and then falling back until Ram Singh I unleashed his entire forces on the Ahom’s, defeating them in the Battle of Alaboi. Naval battle in Saraighat in 1671: Lachit Borphukon’s valorous leadership led to the decisive defeat of the Mughals. According to historical accounts, Lachit is said to have tricked the Mughals by feigning an attack in front. As the fleet advanced on the river Brahmaputra, the main Ahom fleet attacked from behind, sealing a victory for the locals. Source:   The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. The English East India. Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (2020) The Revolt of 1857 The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60 Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900 Puri Jagannath Temple Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Odisha Governor has backed the entry of foreign nationals inside the world-famous Jagannath Temple in Puri, wading into a debate that has lasted for decades and periodically triggered controversy. About Puro Jagannath Temple: The Shree Jagannath Temple of Puri is an important Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of Vishnu, in Puri in the state of Odisha on the eastern coast of India. The present temple was rebuilt from the 10th century onwards, on the site of an earlier temple, and begun by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, first of the Eastern Ganga dynasty. The Puri temple is famous for its Annual Ratha yatra, or chariot festival, in which the three principal deities are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars. These gave their name to the English term Juggernaut. Unlike the stone and metal icons found in most Hindu temples, the image of Jagannath is made of wood and is ceremoniously replaced every twelve or nineteen years by an exact replica. Architecture of Jagannath temple: The temple is built in the Kalinga style of architecture, with the Pancharatha (Five chariots) type consisting of two anurathas, two konakas and one ratha. Jagannath temple is a pancharatha with well-developed pagas. ‘Gajasimhas’ (elephant lions) carved in recesses of the pagas, the ‘Jhampasimhas’ (Jumping lions) are also placed properly. The perfect pancharatha temple developed into a Nagara-rekha temple. The temple is built on an elevated platform, as compared to Lingaraja temple and other temples belonging to this type. This is the first temple in the history of Kalingaan temple architecture where all the chambers like Jagamohana, Bhogamandapa and Natyamandapa were built along with the main temple. There are miniature shrines on the three outer sides of the main temple. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Amrabad Tiger Reserve Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: With the launch of newer attractions and ecotourism activities, the Amrabad Tiger Reserve in Nallamala forest, Telangana is ready to attract more tourists. About Amrabad Tiger Reserve: The Amrabad Tiger Reserve which is part of the Nallamala Forest track has rich Biological Diversity with several endemic species of flora and fauna. This forest tract is home to the largest number of Tigers in Telangana State. The hilly terrain of this Tiger Reserve with deep valleys and gorges forms the catchment of the Krishna River. This Tiger Reserve (ATR) is one of the largest tiger reserves in India that extends about 2611.4 Sq Km over Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts of Telangana State Amrabad Tiger Reserve a well-known and well-preserved nature reserve in Nallamala Hills, part of the Eastern Ghats chain. This is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area but the sixth-largest tiger reserve in terms of total area among 51 Tiger Reserves in India. The reserve was notified as a sanctuary in the year 1983 and after the bifurcation of Telugu States in 2014, it was declared as Amarabad Tiger Reserve. It lies in the three forest divisions of Amarabad, Achampet in Nagarkurnool district, and Nagarjunsagar division in Nalgonda district. Major reservoirs like the Srisailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the Tiger Reserve. It has a large presence of the Chenchu tribe. The Chenchus are Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Odisha. Many Chenchus live in the dense Nallamala forest of Andhra Pradesh. The Chenchus speak the Chenchu language, a member of the Dravidian language family. Chenchu’s relationship with non-tribal people has been largely symbiotic. Source:The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Q.2) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar-2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: It is an annual award conferred by the President of India It is instituted by the Ministry of Women and Child Development Awarded to children in the age group of 5 to 18 years In 6 categories namely; Art & Culture, Bravery, Innovation, Scholastic, Social Service and Sports which deserves national recognition. Each awardee receives a medal, cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000/-, a certificate and a citation. It is in line with the vision of giving children a safe and happy environment every year to honour children for their outstanding performance in different arenas. It reflects the  commitment to providing children with an atmosphere where they can imbibe good values and principles and become responsible citizens of our country. The fields primarily relate to character-building and overall development of society and culture. Miscellaneous: In the freedom struggle of 1857, Veer Surendra Sai fought against the oppression of the British and kept fighting against them till he breathed his last. Source: PIB Transfat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Five billion people globally are exposed to harmful trans fat, increasing their heart disease and death risk, according to a new report by the World Health Organization (WHO). The global health body, in 2018, had advocated some best-practice policies for the global eradication of industrially generated trans fat by 2023. Transfats: Trans fats, also called partially hydrogenated oils, are created when hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to make it more solid. The sources of trans fat can be (1) Natural or (2) Artificial. Natural trans fats are also called ruminant trans fats, as they are present in small quantities in meat and dairy products obtained form ruminant animals such as cows, sheep and cattle. Natural/ruminant trans fat are not generally considered harmful. Industrially produced trans fat is usually found in packaged foods, baked items, cooking oils and spreads. They are considered even less healthy than saturated fats They are generally found in Bakery products: Biscuit, fan, rusk, cake etc. Fried foods: Bhatura, poori, pakora, bhujiya, fried savoury mixtures (namkeens) etc Re-heated oils: Small amounts of trans fats are also formed when the same cooking oil is used for repeated frying; not only at commercial outlets but even at household levels. Effect Trans fat has no known benefit but is associated with huge health risks that can burden health systems Trans fat intake is accountable for up to 500,000 early deaths from coronary heart disease annually. Consumption of trans fats raises the level of bad LDL-cholesterol, an accepted biomarker of cardiovascular diseases. It has been seen that diets high in trans fat can increase the risk of heart disease by 21 per cent and deaths by 28 per cent. Eliminating transfat: The following are the two best-practice policy options mandatory national limit of two grams of industrially produced trans fat per 100 grams of total fat in all foods mandatory national ban on the production or use of partially hydrogenated oils (a major source of trans fat) as an ingredient in all foods Countdown to 2023 is a WHO report on global trans fat elimination FSSAI has employed strategies to achieve its goal of “Freedom from Trans Fat @75.” Suggestions Avoid using “Vanaspati” ghee for any kind of cooking. When deep frying the foods (Poori/pakora etc.), do not heat the oil for a very long time.  Prefer to not leave the food in the oil for a very long time. Do not reheat the oil or re-use the same oil for frying. The oil which has once been used for frying can be used for the preparation of vegetables, curries, dals etc. Use smaller vessel (kadhai, etc.) at home for deep frying. This will allow you to do frying using a lesser amount of oil/fat. Limit the consumption of baked/processed foods like biscuit/fan, cake, chips, fried savoury mixtures (namkeens, etc.). Sources: DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants .How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity? (2011) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency. They prevent excessive oxidation of Carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and avoid unnecessary wastage of energy. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process Non communicable and communicable diseases Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: The COVID-19 pandemic and the June 2022 floods have compounded Pakistan’s health indicators, a recent study by medical journal The Lancet has found. However, infectious and non-communicable diseases (NCD) were already increasing in the country, as were region-wide disparities. Pakistan’s life expectancy has improved from 61.1 years in 1990 to 65.9 years in 2019, with women recording an increase of 8.2 per cent, as compared to 7.6 per cent for men. Balochistan and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa provinces recorded the least improvement in life expectancy. Non communicable diseases: Non-communicable diseases are diseases that are not spread through infection or through other people, but are typically caused by unhealthy behaviours. They are the leading cause of death worldwide and present a huge threat to health and development, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Four types of non-communicable diseases account for over two thirds of deaths globally: Cardiovascular disease Cancers Diabetes Chronic respiratory diseases NCDs share four major risk factors: tobacco use, physical inactivity, the harmful use of alcohol and unhealthy diets. More than three-quarters of all NCD deaths, and 86% of the 17 million people who died prematurely, or before reaching 70 years of age, occur in low- and middle-income countries. Premature mortality in 2019 was primarily caused by neonatal disorders, followed by ischaemic heart disease, stroke, diarrhoeal diseases and lower respiratory infections Iron deficiency has remained the leading cause of years lived with disability for both men and women since 1990. Low birthweight, alongside short gestation and particulate matter pollution, has remained the leading contributor to the overall disease burden since 1990. NCDs like ischaemic heart disease, stroke, congenital disabilities, cirrhosis and chronic kidney disease were among the 10 leading causes of years of life lost in 2019 Communicable diseases Communicable diseases are illnesses that spread from one person to another or from an animal to a person, or from a surface or a food. Causes – Pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, and fungi Transmission direct contact with a sick person respiratory droplet spread from a sick person sneezing or coughing contact with blood or other body fluids breathing in viruses or bacteria in the air contact with a contaminated surface or object bites from insects or animals that can transmit the disease ingestion of contaminated food or water Symptoms will vary depending on the disease and on a person’s overall health and immune function. Some people will not experience any symptoms. However, they can still transmit the pathogen. Some symptoms are a direct result of the pathogen damaging the body’s cells. Others are due to the body’s immune response to the infection. Some communicable diseases may be mild, and symptoms pass after a few days. However, some can be serious and potentially life threatening. Symptom severity may vary Examples Rhinoviruses, Coronaviruses, HIV, Influenza, Salmonella, Tuberculosis, Athlete’s foot, Lyme disease, Plasmodium Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ni-kshay Mitra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Health and Family Welfare Minister said that more than 47 thousand Nikshay Mitra and 8.8 lakh TB patients have been connected through Ni-Kshaya 2.0 portal. The Government is making all-out efforts to make the country TB-free by 2025 Ni-kshay Mitra The initiative was launched by The President in 2022. The initiative aims to ensure additional diagnostic, nutritional, and vocational support to those on TB treatment and encouraged elected representatives, corporates and NGOs to come forward as donors to help the patients towards recovery More than 47,000 Nikshay Mitra & 8.8 lakh TB patients have been connected through Ni-Kshaya 2.0 portal The initiative ensures three-pronged support includes: Nutritional, Additional diagnostic, and Vocational support. Ni-kshay Mitra (Donor) for this programme includes co-operative societies, corporates, elected representatives, individuals, institutions, non-governmental organisations, political parties and partners who can support by adopting the health facilities (for individual donor), blocks/urban wards/districts/States for accelerating the response against TB to complement the government efforts. NI-KSHAY NI-KSHAY-(Ni=End, Kshay=TB) is the web enabled patient management system for TB control under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP). It is developed and maintained by the Central TB Division (CTD), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC), and the World Health Organization Country office for India. Ni-kshay is used by health functionaries at various levels across the country both in the public and private sector, to register cases under their care, order various types of tests from Labs across the country, record treatment details, monitor treatment adherence and to transfer cases between care providers. It also functions as the National TB Surveillance System and enables reporting of various surveillance data to the Government of India. The NIKSHA 2.0 portal provides additional patient support to TB patients to take advantage of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) opportunities to improve treatment outcomes, enhance community participation and fulfill India’s commitment to TB eradication. MUST READ Tuberculosis Source:  newsonair India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: As the new year dawned, so did a crucial target for India. India had set a target to eliminate measles and rubella (MR) by 2023, having missed the earlier deadline of 2015 as well as the extended deadline of 2020, due to a variety of reasons, exacerbated by disruptions due to the COVID-19 pandemic. MR elimination is defined as zero transmission of measles and rubella viruses, evidenced by zero clinical disease, sustained over three years. About Measles and Rubella: Measles: It is a highly contagious viral disease. Despite the availability of a safe and effective vaccine, measles remains an important cause of death among young children globally. It can also lead to serious adverse outcomes such as blindness, pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella: It is an acute, contagious viral infection. While rubella virus infection usually causes a mild fever and rash in children and adults, infection during pregnancy, especially during the first trimester, can result in miscarriage, Fetal death, stillbirth, or infants with congenital malformations, known as congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). Need for the elimination of Measles and Rubella: Measles: In the pre-vaccination era, while polio paralysed about 1% of all children before the age of five, measles actually killed 1% of all under-five children. During measles outbreaks, the case-fatality rate was about 10%-15%. Children who recovered would have lost weight as well as the steady momentum of cognitive development and scholastic performance. Measles affects the immune system rendering the child vulnerable to other infectious diseases, leading to high mortality over the next two to three years. Rubella: The rubella virus is a slower transmitter and the risk of rubella is extended from childhood through adolescence into the reproductive age range. Unfortunately, if a pregnant woman gets infected, the virus tends to cross the placenta and damage the developing foetus’s eyes, brain, heart and other tissues. Therefore ,Measles-Rubella elimination is of very high priority. The MR vaccine is a combined product, targeting two diseases in one shot. Challenges associated with the elimination: School managements, teachers, children themselves and parents were not informed of the basis of school-based campaigns of Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination. The set targets were not achieved due to gaps in immunisation. The COVID-19 pandemic stole two years from the programme. Government of India Initiatives to eliminate Measles and Rubella: National Strategic Plan: Measles and rubella (MR) elimination is a national health priority and the government has adopted the National Strategic Plan for Achieving and Sustaining Measles and Rubella Elimination in India . Target: The Government decided to eliminate measles and rubella from India by the year 2020 having missed the earlier set target of 2015 and the MR elimination target was reset to 2023. Campaigns: The school-based campaigns of Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccination of children from 5 to 15 years, conducted in all States, in 2017. Success was good in a few States, but not in others. The country is moving towards the MR elimination goal of achieving and sustaining vaccination coverage of 95% with two doses of a measles- and rubella-containing vaccine at the national and subnational levels. Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP): India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) provides free vaccines against 12 life threatening diseases. It provides life-saving vaccines to all children across the country free of cost to protect them against Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. (Rubella, JE and Rotavirus vaccine in select states and districts) Other steps: The country is also prioritising continued implementation of key strategies for strengthening surveillance, including the sensitisation of front-line workers, increasing active case searches, expansion of the reporting network, rapid response to outbreaks, and establishing synergistic linkages between MR elimination and other public health priorities, such as health systems strengthening and emergency preparedness and response. WHO Country Office for India is supporting the Government of India and state governments towards reaching key elimination targets. Way Forward: It is the high time to further strengthen routine immunisation through intensified efforts to close immunity gaps through Intensified Mission Indradhanush, with a special focus on the first and second dose of measles- and rubella-containing vaccines. We can reach MR elimination goals in India if we strengthen surveillance by finding, investigating, and collecting and testing a sample for every suspected case, in each district in every state and UT. It is important to provide full support to the ground level staff who implement the programme — the village health nurses, ASHA (accredited social health activists) workers, Anganwadis and ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) workers. While targets will be easier to achieve in States such as Tamil Nadu and Kerala, thanks to the robust immunisation infrastructure, in the other States, additional efforts should be taken to work towards achieving the target. Source: Indian Express India-Egypt relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: India and Egypt, two of the world’s oldest civilizations, have enjoyed a history of close contact from ancient times. Ashoka’s edicts refer to his relations with Egypt under Ptolemy-II. President of Egypt, Abdel Fattah El-Sisi, will arrive in New Delhi on a three-day visit to India and will be the Chief Guest on India’s 74th Republic Day. India and Egypt are celebrating 75 years of establishment of diplomatic relations this year and Egypt has also been invited as a ‘Guest Country’ during India’s Presidency of G-20 in 2022-23. Bilateral Relations India and Egypt enjoy warm and friendly relations marked by civilizational, cultural, and economic linkages and deep-rooted people-to-people ties. The two countries work closely at multilateral and international platforms. The Egyptian President visited India in October 2015 to participate in the third India Africa Forum Summit and in September 2016 on a State Visit. Political relations The joint announcement of establishment of diplomatic relations at Ambassadorial level was made in 1947. With regard to covid pandemic, Egypt dispatched three planes with medical supplies to India in 2021. In addition, Embassy of India also signed an agreement to procure 300,000 doses of REMDESEVIR from M/s EVA Pharma, Egypt India-LAS Engagement: The 3rd Meeting of the Arab-India Cooperation Forum took place virtually in 2021. The discussions focused on issues of mutual concern on both regional and international levels, collaboration in the field of diagnostics and treatment to fight the Covid-19 pandemic and increasing cooperation in the fields of economy, trade and investment, energy and environment, agriculture and food security, science and technology, media, human resource development etc Operation Sankalp, which saw the Indian Navy escort oil tankers through the Strait of Hormuz as tensions between Saudi Arabia and Iran escalated, was a good example of India’s mandate in the region moving up from anti-piracy operations to overt protection of national assets and interests. Trade Bilateral trade between India and Egypt achieved a record high of 7.26 billion dollars in 2021-22. The trade was fairly balanced, with 3.74 billion Indian exports to Egypt and 3.52 billion imports from Egypt to India. The India-Egypt Bilateral Trade Agreement has been in operation since March 1978 and is based on the Most Favoured Nation clause Investment More than 50 Indian companies have invested around 3.15 billion dollars in diverse sectors of the Egyptian economy, including chemicals, energy, textile, garment, agri-business, and retail. Egyptian investments in India are to the tune of US$ 37 million which include smart electrometers, car paints, I.T Services, etc. The grants-in-aid projects include: Pan Africa Tele-medicine and Tele-education project in Alexandria University, Solar electrification project in Agaween village and Vocational Training Centre for textile technology in Shoubra, Cairo, which have been completed. Science and Technology ‘Science & Technology’ cooperation is implemented through biennial Executive Programmes and Scientific Cooperation Programme between CSIR (India) and NRC (Egypt). The first Joint Working Group on Cyber Issues was held in New Delhi in 2016. The 4th Joint Committee Meeting on S&T was held in New Delhi in 2017. The 2nd ISRO-NARSS JWG was held in Cairo in 2017. The India-Egypt Workshops on Agriculture-Biotechnology and Nanotechnology were held in Shillong in 2018 and in Mumbai in 2019 respectively. An IT Centre in Al Azhar University, CEIT, is also operational since February 2019. Defence Most of the current defence cooperation is determined by Joint Defence Committee (JDC) activities The 8th Joint Defence Committee (JDC) was held in New Delhi in 2018 The 9th JDC was held in Cairo from in 2019 IAF pilots had trained Egyptian pilots from 1960s until 1984. In the recent past, since 2015, there have been several high-level exchange of visits by defense delegations including the visit of the Minister of Defense of Egypt, General Sedki Sobhi, in 2017 and the visit of Minister of Defense of Indian, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, in 2018 The first ever joint exercise between the special forces of the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army named “Exercise Cyclone-I” is in progress at Jaisalmer in Rajasthan since January 2023. Suggestions for future: Economic partnership – Egypt is in economic flux and requires an urgent infusion of capital to avoid any long-term economic distress. Eg Arab Spring, which was backed by people’s anger against economic destitution, cronyism and corruption. Russia’s war on Ukraine – led to a commodity crunch, specifically in the agriculture sector like critical wheat imports – India may come out as a viable alternative Security perspective – An outreach to Egypt is part of its larger construct of a security architecture in West Asia, particularly the Gulf including UAE, arguably the most powerful leader in the region today Energy security is set to become even more precarious over the next few years, India’s naval and aerial military engagements through the mechanism of joint exercises should also see an uptick. Trade cooperation – such as the Suez Canal is critical for India as part of international trade systems. Way forward India-Egypt ties in their current stage will require time and honing to lead to more concrete strategic posture. The opening with defence exercises is also a good platform to further develop access to fulfil Egypt’s defence requirements. While the entire saga of India wanting to sell its HAL Tejas jets to Egypt was an over-ambitious and unrealistic endeavour, promoting defence along with agriculture, Information Technology, amongst others as areas of cooperation can benefit Cairo as it looks to diversify its economic footprint. Source: Newsonair Baba’s Explainer – LNG & its climate impact LNG & its climate impact Syllabus GS -3: Science & technology  GS-3: Economy & Development GS-2: International Events Context: The EU is moving itself off piped Russian gas by rapidly expanding imports of liquified natural gas, much of it fracked in the US. As liquified natural gas tankers carrying fracked US gas start to land in northern Germany, climate activists are calling it a major setback in the effort to limit global heating. LNG is to compensate for lost Russian gas supplies, with four new terminals set to come online in Germany alone. But though touted as a short-term fix, many fear the gas is here for the long haul as the EU becomes the biggest LNG importer in the world. Read Complete Details on LNG & its climate impact Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar’, consider the following statements It is given to children between 0-18 years of age It is given for bravery achievements only. Which of the statements given above are incorrect? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following are non-communicable diseases Plasmodium Diabetes Cancer Salmonella Lyme disease Arthritis Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2, 3, 4 only 2, 3, 6 only 2, 3, 5 only 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 only Q.3) With reference to the Shree Jagannath Temple of Puri, consider the following statements: It is the first temple in the history of Kalingaan temple architecture where all the chambers like Jagamohana, Bhogamandapa and Natyamandapa were built along with the main temple The temple is built in the Dravidian style of architecture Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Jan 24, 2023 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - LNG & its climate impact

 ARCHIVES Syllabus  GS -3: Science & technology  GS-3: Economy & Development GS-2: International Events Context: The EU is moving itself off piped Russian gas by rapidly expanding imports of liquified natural gas, much of it fracked in the US. As liquified natural gas tankers carrying fracked US gas start to land in northern Germany, climate activists are calling it a major setback in the effort to limit global heating. LNG is to compensate for lost Russian gas supplies, with four new terminals set to come online in Germany alone. But though touted as a short-term fix, many fear the gas is here for the long haul as the EU becomes the biggest LNG importer in the world. What is Liquified Natural Gas or LNG? LNG is natural gas reduced to a liquid state (liquefaction) through intense cooling to around -161 degrees Celsius (-259 Fahrenheit). This liquid gas is 600 times smaller than the original volume and is half the weight of water. The compressed fossil fuel, which is constituted almost wholly of methane — a potent greenhouse gas —, can be transported around the world by ship. After arriving at its destination, the cargo is regasified in a floating terminal and redistributed through pipelines. But despite LNG’s export potential, the high cost of liquefaction and producing LNG has limited its market. In Germany, the estimated cost of building floating LNG terminals for imports to substitute Russian gas has doubled, due in part to higher operating and infrastructure costs. The cooling, liquefying and transport processes, as well as the post-transport regasification procedures, also require a lot of energy. Between 10-25% of the energy of the gas is being lost during the liquefaction process. What’s the climate impact of LNG? A lot of energy is required to extract natural gas from a reservoir, to transport from the gas field to the LNG facility for processing, to chill gas to such low temperatures, and to hold it at that temperature before it is warmed and regasified following a long sea or train journey. Methane loss across the supply chain risks also contributes to LNG’s high emissions. Because of LNG’s much more complex production and transport process, the risks of methane leakages along the production, transport and regasification chain are simply much higher and therefore much more emissions-intensive. In the end, LNG emits “about twice as much greenhouse gas as ordinary natural gas,” notes the US-based nonprofit Natural Resources Defence Council (NDRC). Experts also opine LNG is so energy- and carbon-intensive that it can create almost 10 times more carbon emissions than piped gas. The numerous stages required to take LNG from the wellhead to the market lead to a “very high imported emissions intensity” in comparison to piped gas, whose emissions are limited to upstream and transport and processing. The emissions intensity of piped gas from Norway in particular is almost 10 times less than average LNG emissions Meanwhile, LNG emits 14 times as much carbon as solar power when producing the equivalent amount of energy, and 50 times as much carbon as wind power. Can new LNG terminals be used for green hydrogen down the track? The floating LNG terminals now going online in Germany and already established in the Netherlands, France and Belgium are not able to be adapted into infrastructure for green hydrogen, say climate researchers. The narrative of H2 [hydrogen] readiness is simply false. They are classically fossil-fuel plants that are no good for climate protection Any LNG terminals that are built need to be easily retrofitted for green hydrogen to fast-track the clean energy transition Will LNG keep gas prices lower and assure supply? By the end of the decade, additional costs for Germany’s gas imports could reach up to €200bn ($212bn), doubling gas bills for consumers. Cheaper sustainable energy sources could instead make up the current gas deficit. Comprehensive energy efficiency upgrades in buildings and electric heat pump instalments will also “turbocharge” the energy transition There is a corresponding fear that LNG infrastructure overcapacity and long-term regasification contracts at German LNG ports will lead to stranded assets — while simultaneously delaying the phase-out of fossil fuels. The new planned terminals could expand capacity by two-thirds above what the nation consumes. This would not only be in conflict with Germany’s national climate targets but would “constitute a breach of national legislation and international commitments under the Paris Agreement Promoting energy efficiency and renewable power is the sustainable solution to the shortfall in Russian gas, insist experts. “By investing in building efficiency alone, Germany can save more gas than new LNG terminals offer. Main Practice Question: What is Liquified Natural Gas (LNG), and how it impacts the climate? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Jan 24, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 23, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chargesheet is not a “Public Document”: Supreme Court Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Supreme Court bench recently declared chargesheets to be private documents. It said that the state is not obliged to provide the public free access to chargesheets by uploading them on police or government websites. About Chargesheet: A charge sheet refers to a formal police record showing the names of each person brought into custody, the nature of the accusations, and the identity of the accusers. The charge sheet contains majorly 4 parts: Information about the accused and the witnesses The charges and specifications The preferring of charges and their referral to a summary For the trial record The charge sheet is to be filed within 60 days from the date of arrest of the accused in cases triable by lower courts and 90 days in cases triable by the Court of Sessions. No case for grant of bail will be made under section 167(2) of the CrPC if the charge sheet is filed before the expiry of 90 days or 60 days, as the case may be, from the date of first remand. The right of default bail is lost, once the charge sheet is filed. A charge sheet is distinct from the First Information Report (FIR), which is the core document that describes a crime that has been committed. Chargesheet usually refers to one or more FIRs and charges on an individual or organization for the crimes specified in those FIR. Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin in the judicial system. About FIR: First Information Report (FIR) is a written document prepared by the police when they receive information about the commission of a cognizable offence. It is a report of information that reaches the police first in point of time and that is why it is called the First Information Report. Based on the information provided, I.R. can be registered by the Judicial Magistrate by giving direction to the concerned jurisdictional area of the Police Station. Zero F.I.R.: With the help of zero F.I.R., a complaint can be lodged at any police station irrespective of the jurisdiction of the Police Station. It is an amendment that came after Nirbhaya Rape Case. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Akshaya Big Campaign for Document Digitisation (ABCD) campaign Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Wayanad from Kerala became the first district in the country to provide basic documents and facilities to all tribes people under the (Akshaya Big Campaign for Document Digitisation) ABCD campaign. About ABCD Campaign: The ABCD campaign is an initiative by the Wayanad district administration in India to provide basic documents and facilities such as Aadhaar cards, ration cards, birth/death certificates, election ID cards, bank accounts and health insurance to all tribespeople. Since all the relevant departments were brought under one roof in a camp, each beneficiary gets all the needed services at the camp itself, saving them the time and effort of visiting several offices. Apart from these, other services such as income certificates, ownership certificates, age certificates and applications for new pensions were also provided. Source: The Hindu Advance Authorization Scheme (AAS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) said it has simplified the process of Levying Composition fees in case of extension of the Export Obligation Period under the Advance Authorisation Scheme (AAS). About Advance Authorization Scheme: It allows duty free import of inputs, which are physically incorporated in an export product. In addition to any inputs, packaging material, fuel, oil, catalyst which is consumed / utilized in the process of production of export product, is also be allowed. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the wastage generated in the manufacturing process. DGFT provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Alternatively, exporters may apply for their own ad-hoc norms in cases where the SION does not suit the exporter. Advance Authorisation covers manufacturer exporters or merchant exporters tied to supporting manufacturer(s). Prerequisites for Applying: To apply for an Advance Authorisation scheme, an Import-Export Code (IEC) is required. Other prerequisites are mentioned in the Chapter 4 of Foreign Trade Policy and Handbook of Procedures. About Directorate General of Foreign Trade: Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) Organization is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade. Right from its inception till 1991, when liberalization in the economic policies of the Government took place, this organization has been essentially involved in the regulation and promotion of foreign trade through regulation. Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing of exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”. This Directorate, with headquarters at New Delhi, is headed by the Director General of Foreign Trade. It is responsible for implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India’s exports. The DGFT also issues licenses to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 25 Regional Offices. All regional offices provide facilitation to exporters in regard to developments in International Trade i.e. WTO agreements, Rules of Origin and anti-dumping issues, etc to help exporters in their import and export decisions in an internationally dynamic environment. Additional Information: About Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR): The DGTR (earlier known as Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties) is an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The DGAD which was formed in 1997 has been restructured as DGTR in May 2018 by restructuring and re-designing DGAD into DGTR by incorporating all the trade remedial functions i.e. Anti-Dumping Duty (ADD), Countervailing Duty (CVD), Safeguards Duty (SGD), Safeguards Measures (QRs) under a single window framework. Thus, the DGTR has been formed by merging of functions of DGAD, Department of Commerce, Directorate General of Safeguards, Department of Revenue and Safeguards (QR) functions of DGFT into its fold. The DGTR is a quasi-judicial body that independently undertakes investigations before making its recommendations to the Central Government. It is the single national authority for administering all trade remedial measures including anti-dumping, countervailing duties and safeguard measures. The DGTR provides a level playing field to the domestic industry against the adverse impact of the unfair trade practices like dumping and actionable subsidies from any exporting country, by using trade remedial methods under the relevant framework of the WTO arrangements, the Customs Tariff Act and Rules and other relevant laws and international agreements, in a transparent and time bound manner. It also provides trade defence support to our domestic industry and exporters in dealing with instances of trade remedy investigations instituted against them by other countries. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Leopard 2 Tank Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: Germany has not decided whether to allow its Leopard 2 tanks to be sent to Ukraine which can be used against Russia during the ongoing war between the two countries. About Leopard 2 Tank: It is a German made main battle tank. Developed by German weapons manufacturer Krauss-Maffei Wegmann (KMW). Leopard was first produced in the late 1990s for the West German army in response to Soviet threats during the Cold War. The Leopard 2 is one of the world’s leading battle tanks, used by the German Army for decades and by the militaries of more than a dozen other European nations, as well as by the armies of countries as far apart as Canada and Indonesia. It has seen service in conflicts in Afghanistan, Kosovo and Syria. Other Features: These tanks are armed with a 120mm smoothbore cannon. It is also armed with two coaxial light machine guns. They also provide “all-round protection” for troops from threats such as mines, anti-tank fire, and improvised explosive devices Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea Hybrid Immunity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: A recent study in the journal the Lancet Infectious Diseases held that “hybrid immunity” provides better protection against severe Covid-19. Immunity and types of Immunities: Immunity refers to the body’s ability to prevent the invasion of pathogens. Pathogens are foreign disease-causing substances, such as bacteria and viruses. Active Immunity: It develops from the exposure to a disease thereby triggers the Immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced immunity. Infection-induced immunity is defined as the immune protection in an unvaccinated individual after one or more infections. Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination. For example COVID-19 vaccines, Covid shield and Covaxin. Passive Immunity: It is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. For example, a new born baby acquired passive immunity from its mother through the placenta. About Hybrid Immunity: Hybrid immunity is defined as the Immune protection in individuals who have had one or more doses of a COVID-19 vaccine and experienced at least one SARS-CoV-2 infection before or after the Initiation of vaccination. Exposure to SARS-CoV-2 through infection or vaccination triggers the production of antibodies that can be readily measured in the blood (referred to as ‘seroconversion’). If the level of antibodies in the blood exceeds a pre-specified threshold, the individual is said to be ‘seropositive’. The percentage of seropositive individuals in a population at a given time point is referred to as the seroprevalence of SARS-CoV-2 in that population. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hog plum Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: According to one theory by US researchers in a review paper published in 2022 in Proceedings of the Royal Society B: Biological Sciences, the receptors for sour taste developed in fish which then evolved into terrestrial organisms. These ancient fish would most likely have had the receptors all over their bodies to judge the pH of the water (sourness would indicate acidity) in which they were venturing Hog Plum The hog plum is scientifically classified as a member of the Anacardiaceae family, sharing space with the cashewnut and mango. Its genus, Spondias, has a history of use going back at least as far as 6500 BC in the Tehuacán Valley of Mexico. The Spondias pinnata tree is deciduous and can reach a height of around 25 m. It is usually found in home gardens in tropical regions — it is not restricted to India and is common in countries like Malaysia, Indonesia and Bali, where it is part of traditional food and medicine The hog plum, called ambara or amra in Hindi, is used as an important souring agent in several cuisines all across the country. For instance, in the Western Ghats, especially the Konkan area and Goa, the hog plum (called ambade or ambado in Konkani) provides a tangy taste to both vegetarian and non-vegetarian dishes like khatkhate, a mixed vegetable stew. It is also used to make a sweet and sour chutney in Goa and in West Bengal. In Kerala, the fruit is used to make a pickle. At first glance, the hog plum looks like a green unripe mango but small fruit has very little pulp and is more sour in taste than an unripe mango. Benefits The fruit is an important source of nutrients and even has medicinal properties. It is rich in phenolic compounds, natural antioxidants and minerals and has ascorbic acid, malic acid, calcium and phosphorus The fruit not only aids digestion, but is also said to possess antidiabetic properties. It could help in cancer treatment – used to extract to prepare hematite (iron ore) nanoparticles which were found to be quite successful in controlling mammalian cancer cells. Nanaoparticles are used to deliver medication to cancerous sites and lower the amount of drugs needed. Production of nanoparticles can be expensive, and the widely available hog plum could help lower the costs Mucositis (inflammation of the mucous membranes in the digestive tract) is common in people receiving chemotherapy. Hog plum extract can be used to decrease the burden of this condition in people undergoing the treatment The bark extract of the hog plum tree can also protect against oxidative and inflammatory changes that occur in the body during mucositis. Hog plum seeds contain compounds which help suppress parasites such as Plasmodium berghei, which causes malaria in certain rodents. As effective in treatment as metformin, a commonly used diabetes medicine, Source DTE Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), visited IREDA’s corporate office in and reviewed the performance and the future roadmap of IREDA, followed by an interactive session with all employees of the company. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited(IREDA) Aim To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating electricity and / or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency. To maintain its position as a leading organisation to provide efficient and effective financing in renewable energy and energy efficiency / conservation projects. To increase IREDA`s share in the renewable energy sector by way of innovative financing. Improvement in the efficiency of services provided to customers through continual improvement of systems, processes and resources. About: It is a Public Limited Government Company established in 1987 It is a Mini Ratna (Category – I) Government of India Enterprise It is under the administrative control of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956 and registered as Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with Reserve Bank of India (RBI). IREDA’s mission is “Be a pioneering, participant friendly and competitive institution for financing and promoting self-sustaining investment in energy generation from Renewable Sources, Energy Efficiency and Environmental Technologies for sustainable development.” Motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER” Sources: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) It is a Public Limited Government Company. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mission Olympic Cell Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs About the scheme: It is organised by Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport (MYAS) First Mission Olympic Cell (MOC) meeting was held in 2023 on the sidelines of the ongoing Hockey World Cup in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. India’s Olympic Program and proposals of Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) athletes, was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. The Indian men’s and women’s hockey teams are the only teams that are funded under MYAS’s TOPS Scheme They get an annual expenditure of Rs. 24 cr under Sports Authority of India’s (SAI) Annual Calendar for Training and Competitions (ACTC) scheme. Source: PIB Cohort on Election Integrity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity ‘Summit for Democracy’ It was an initiative of USA and was hosted in 2021. The Prime Minister of India spoke at the Leaders Plenary Session in 2021. A “Year of Action” was proposed with events and dialogues on themes related to Democracy. The Summit also developed two platforms – ‘Focal Groups’ and ‘Democracy Cohorts’ to facilitate participation in the Year of Action. The 2nd Summit for Democracy is scheduled to be held IN 2023 and co-hosted by governments of Costa Rica, Rep. of Korea, Netherlands, Zambia and the US.  As part of the ‘Summit for Democracy’ Year of Action, India through the ECI, is leading the ‘Democracy Cohort on Election Integrity’ to share its knowledge, technical expertise and experiences with other democracies of the world. ECI, as its lead, has proposed to also provide training and capacity building programmes to Election Management Bodies (EMBs) across the world and provide technical consultancy as per needs of other EMBs. Cohort on Elections Integrity: It was established as a follow up to the ‘Summit for Democracy’ held virtually in 2021. India through ECI, is leading the Cohort on Elections Integrity The first international conference of the Cohort was organized in 2022 on the topic ‘Role, Framework and Capacity of Election Management Bodies’ where nearly 50 representatives from the Election Management Bodies (EMBs) of 11 countries participated. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is hosting the 2nd International Conference on the theme ‘Use of Technology and Elections Integrity’ The two-day international conference will be inaugurated by Chief Election Commissioner of India Invited Greece, Mauritius and IFES to be co-leads for the Cohort. ECI has invited Isnternational Foundation for Electoral Systems and International IDEA, apart from EMBs and Government counterparts dealing with the conduct of elections worldwide. Around 43 Participants from 17 Countries/EMBs including Angola, Argentina, Armenia, Australia, Chile, Croatia, Dominica, Fiji, Georgia, Indonesia, Kiribati, Mauritius, Nepal, Paraguay, Peru, Philippines and Suriname and 06 participants from international organisations namely, IFES, International IDEA are expected to join. Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2023 and Polycrisis Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The World Economic Forum in its ‘Global Risks Report 2023’ warned that the world could see a poly crisis emerging from the Russia-Ukraine war. About Polycrisis: The term poly crisis was first used in the 1990s by French theorist of complexity Edgar Morin. When multiple crises in multiple global systems become causally entangled in ways that significantly degrade humanity’s prospects. These interacting crises produce harms greater than the sum of those the crises would produce in isolation, were their host systems not so deeply interconnected. The ‘Polycrisis’ was first used by former European Commission president Jean-Claude Juncker to describe Europe’s combustible situation in 2016 which combined indebtedness with Brexit, climate change and a refugee crisis. World Economic Forum on Polycrisis and its Impacts: The report has mentioned that the world is facing a set of risks that feel both wholly new and eerily familiar. There are older and familiar risks which are getting entangled with the new and emerging risks which collectively can lead to a Polycrisis. Older risks: These include inflation, cost-of-living crisis, trade wars, capital outflows from emerging markets, widespread social unrest, geopolitical confrontation and the spectre of nuclear warfare. New developments: These include unsustainable levels of debt, a new era of low growth, low global investment and de-globalisation, a decline in human development, and the growing pressure of climate change. According to the report, these global risks classified into short term and the long term risks: Short term risks: These include the rising cost of living, slow economic growth, and tight global food and energy supplies. Long term risks: These are failure to mitigate climate change, failure to adapt to climate change, extreme weather events, and the threat of biodiversity collapse. The report further goes on to state that these risks may converge into a Polycrisis by the end of the decade. Reasons for the risks as mentioned in the report: Recent Events: The war in Ukraine sent energy and food prices soaring. The resulting inflationary pressures ignited a global cost-of-living crisis which has led to social unrest. Persistent events: Demand for food, water and energy are rising as a result of population growth and socioeconomic advancement. The expansion of renewable energy systems is creating an unprecedented demand for rare minerals and metals. Reverberating impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic to global wars and conflict, from high inflation and sluggish economic growth to increasingly extreme climate events, the world is facing a remarkably diverse range of crises all at the same time. On top of all that, carbon emissions continued to rise as economies reopened after the pandemic. The gap between demand and supply of these resources could have catastrophic consequences, including biodiversity loss, ecosystem collapse, trade wars and armed conflict between nations. The report describes four potential futures centred around food, water and metals and mineral shortages, all of which could spark a humanitarian as well as an ecological crisis – from water wars and famines to continued overexploitation of ecological resources and a slowdown in climate mitigation and adaptation. Recommendations made by the Report against Polycrisis:  A Way Forward Given uncertain relationships between global risks, similar foresight exercises can help anticipate potential connections, directing preparedness measures towards minimizing the scale and scope of Polycrisis before they arise. In such a situation, many governments have refocused their priorities towards short-term risks such as countering food shortages or energy shortfalls at the cost of ignoring climate change and global development when they are most needed. It asks world leaders to address the issue of erosion of trust. “Addressing the erosion of trust in multilateral processes will enhance our collective ability to prevent and respond to emerging cross-border crises and strengthen the guardrails we have in place to address well-established risks,”. It further calls on leaders to act collectively, decisively and with a long-term lens to shape a pathway to a more positive, inclusive and stable world. Source:  World Economic Forum Rural Healthcare system Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Development Industry Context: Rural Health is a state subject. Every state is responsible for raising the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. Rural India is home to 68 per cent of India’s total population, and half of them live below the poverty line- struggling for better and easy access to health care and services. Health issues confronted by rural people are many and diverse ranging from severe malaria to uncontrolled diabetes from a badly infected wound to cancer. A huge improvement has been recorded when the government launched the National Rural Health Mission. Rural healthcare system in India: The health care infrastructure in rural areas has been developed as a three tier system. As on March 2011, there are 148124 sub centres, 23887 Primary Health Centres and 4809 Community Health centres functioning in the country In the Indian healthcare system, sub-centres (SC) are the first point of contact for a patient, catering to a population of 3,000-5,000. This is succeeded by a PHC, which is required to look after the daily needs of 20,000-30,000 people. CHCs provide referrals and access to specialists, catering to 80,000-120,000 people. Urban PHCs — part of the National Health Mission’s efforts to set up multi-tier health centres caters to a population of 50,000-75,000 Components of an effective healthcare system Availability of manpower Adequate infrastructure Robust policy framework Challenges in India India’s rural healthcare system continues to be plagued by shortfall on two critical fronts — doctors and infrastructure. Shortage of qualified doctors– There is a shortage of 83.2 per cent of surgeons, 74.2 per cent of obstetricians and gynaecologists, 79.1 per cent of physicians and 81.6 per cent of paediatricians, according to the Rural Health Statistics 2021-2022 released last week. The number of doctors at PHCs has shrunk to 30,640 in 2022 from 31,716 in 2021. Lab technicians, nursing staff and radiographers at PHCs and CHCs have all recorded a marginal increase between 2021 and 2022. Up from 22,723 to 22,772, from 79,044 to 79,933 and from 2,418 to 2,448, respectively. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Odisha face the highest shortage in surgeons, obstetricians / gynaecologists, paediatricians and radiographers at CHCs across the country. Poor infrastructure – Less than half the Primary Health Centres (PHC), 45.1 per cent, function on a 24×7 basis. Of the 5,480 functioning Community Health Centres (CHC), only 541 have all four specialists Overburdened facilities – PHCs are overburdened across the board, with SCs currently looking after more than 5,000 people, PHCs catering to 36,049 people and CHCs to 164,027 people. This, coupled with a human resource shortage, plagues access to adequate and quality healthcare. Low number of support staff – The number of auxiliary nurse midwives at SCs has decreased to 207,587 in 2021 from 214,820 in 2022. The shortage was most pronounced in Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Uttarakhand. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) The National Rural Health Mission (2005-12) seeks to provide effective healthcare to rural population throughout the country with special focus on 18 states, which have weak public health indicators and/or weak infrastructure such as Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Jammu & Kashmir, Manipur, Mizoram, etc. The Mission is an articulation of the commitment of the Government to raise public spending on Health from 0.9% of GDP to 2-3% of GDP. Objectives of NRHM Architectural correction of the health system to enable it to effectively handle increased allocations as promised under the National Common Minimum Programme and promote policies that strengthen public health management and service delivery in the country. Provision of a female health activist in each village; a village health plan prepared through a local team headed by the Health & Sanitation Committee of the Panchayat Train and enhance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to own, control and manage public health services Promote access to improved healthcare at household level through the female health activist (ASHA) Integration of vertical Health & Family Welfare Programmes, optimal utilization of funds & infrastructure, and strengthening delivery of primary healthcare. It seeks to revitalize local health traditions and mainstream AYUSH into the Community Health Centre (CHC) It seeks decentralization of programmes for district management of health and to address the inter-State and inter-district disparities It also seeks to improve access of rural people, especially poor women and children, to equitable, affordable, accountable and effective primary healthcare. Achievements: The allopathic doctors at PHCs have increased from 20,308 in 2005 to 30,640 in 2022, which is about 50.9% increase. The specialist doctors at Community Health Centers (CHCs) have increased from 3,550 in 2005 to 4,485 in 2022 Other healthcare schemes: Reproductive, Maternal, Neonatal, Child and Adolescent health Universal Immunisation Programme Mission Indradhanush (MI) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) National Nutritional Programmes National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme MAA (Mothers’ Absolute Affection) Programme for Infant and Young Child Feeding Communicable diseases National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) Pulse Polio Programme Non-communicable diseases National Tobacco Control Programme(NTCP) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases & Stroke (NPCDCS) National Mental Health Programme Way forward Recently, the government has scrapped custom duties on drugs and test kits used to treat AIDS in an effort to cut prices across the country. With a policy to double spending on health and devise innovative methods of health management there is renewed hope that the people of the country will have greater access to facilities and be healthier. The promise of Health Assurance  is an important catalyst for the framing of a New Health Policy in a developing India. Source: DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘hog plum’, consider the following statements It belongs to the category of mango and cashews It is endemic to India It can be used to treat cancer. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? IREDA is a Maharatna Company. IREDA was established in 2012. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR): It is an attached office of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The DGTR is a quasi-judicial body that independently undertakes investigations before making its recommendations to the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st January- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Jan 23, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jan 22, 2023 Important Articles

[Result of SUPER 100] SCHOLARSHIP TEST – Prelims Exclusive Programme (PEP) 2023 Declared!

Dear Students, We had received 5384 Registrations for the Super 100 Scholarship Test! It was way beyond our expectations. Thank you for overwhelmingly responding to the Super 100 Scholarship Test – Prelims Exclusive Programme (PEP) 2023. Based on the performance in the Super-100 Scholarship Test, we have selected the top 100 students wherein, the discounts will be as follows. Rank 1 to 20 – 100% Discount Rank 20 to 60 – 50% Discount Rank 61 to 100 – 25% Discount Download The Complete List of Ranks -> Click Here PS: The results consist of the marks of the students who scored 50 and above. Students who received scholarships might have already received an email from IASbaba. Note: To appreciate the students' effort, those who are outside the top 100 but scored 100 and above are also given a 25% Scholarship. Make the best use of it. Congratulations to BABA’S SUPER 100!! For those who have not been selected, direct admissions are open! If you are interested, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on  91691 91888 (Please call between 10 am – 6 pm ONLY) To Know More about PEP, Special Discounts & Payment Details  -> CLICK HERE Office Address: BANGALORE CENTRE: IASbaba – Admission Centre, No.38, 3rd Cross, 1st Phase, 2nd Stage, 60 Feet Mains Road, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru – 560040. Landmark: Opposite to BBMP Office/ CULT Fitness DELHI CENTRE: IASbaba, 5B, Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi – 110005. Landmark: Just 50m from Karol Bagh Metro Station, GATE No. 8 (Next to Croma Store) LUCKNOW CENTRE: IASbaba, B-1/66, Sector J, Aligunj, Lucknow – 226024  Landmark: Near Mr Brown / Opp to Sahu Studio BHOPAL CENTRE: IASbaba, 284, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh All the Best IASbaba Team

Jan 21, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Banjaras and Hakku Patra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Economy Context: Recently Prime Minister of India symbolically distributed Hakku Patra (land title deeds) to five families of the Banjara (Lambani) community, a nomadic Scheduled Caste group in Karnataka. About Banjaras: The Banjaras are a key scheduled caste sub-group in Karnataka, although they are considered to be a tribal group in terms of the lives they lead. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes together make up nearly 24 per cent of the state population. The Banjara are a historically nomadic trading caste who may have origins in the Mewar region of what is now Rajasthan. Fire dance, ‘Ghumar’ dance and Chari dance are the traditional dance forms of the Banjaras. Banjaras have a sister community of singers known as Dadhis or Gajugonia. They are traditionally travelled from village to village singing songs to the accompaniment of sarangi. The Banjara community has been listed as a Scheduled Tribe in the states of: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Odisha. They were designated as an Other Backward Class in: Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan. They were designated as a Scheduled Caste in: Karnataka, Delhi and Punjab. About Hakku Patras or title deeds: A title deed is a property ownership document, and the bearer of the document owns the land. The title deeds enable owners to avail of bank loans with the said document. They will also be eligible to buy or sell land to which the title deed is granted by the government. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period? (2020) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates A diary to be maintained for daily accounts A bill of exchange An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Indian government has announced a one-time relaxation from maintaining average export obligation and an option to extend the export obligation period for certain sectors under the Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme. About Capital Goods: Capital goods are physical assets that a company uses in the production process to manufacture products and services that consumers will later use. Capital goods include buildings, machinery, equipment, vehicles, and tools. Capital goods are not finished goods, instead, they are used to make finished goods. The Capital Goods sector has a multiplier effect and has bearing on the growth of the user industries as it provides critical input, i.e., machinery and equipment to the remaining sectors covered under the manufacturing activity. About Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme: EPCG Scheme was launched in the 1990s to facilitate import of capital goods with the aim to enhance the production quality of goods and services, thereby, increasing India’s international manufacturing competitiveness. Under the scheme, manufacturers can import capital goods for pre-production, production and post-production goods without attracting any customs duty on them. Second-hand capital goods may also be imported without any restriction on age under the EPCG Scheme. The EPCG scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and is governed by the Foreign Trade Policy of India. It can be explained as “Duty-Free (Zero Customs Duty) Import of Capital Goods/Machinery for the manufacture of products meant for Export.” Eligible Sectors: The sectors that are eligible for this relief are the Hotel, Healthcare, and Educational sectors. These sectors will also have the option to extend the export obligation period for a longer duration, without having to pay any additional fees. Eligibility Criteria for applying under EPCG Scheme: Benefits under EPCG Scheme can be applied by any Exporter irrespective of his turnover. EPCG License can be issued to the following category of Exporters: Manufacturer Exporter. Merchant Exporter with a supporting manufacturer. Service Provider (who is exporting services) For Example. Hotel Industry. New Norms: Imports of capital goods are allowed duty free, subject to an export obligation. The authorisation holder (or exporter) under the scheme has to export finished goods worth six times of the actual duty saved in value terms in six years. Requests for export obligation extension should be made within six months of expiry instead of the earlier prescribed period of 90 days. However, applications made after six months and up to six years are subject to a late fee of Rs 10,000 per authorisation. According to the changes, requests for block-wise export obligation extension should be made within six months of expiry. However, applications made after six months and up to six years will entail a late fee of Rs 10,000 per authorisation. The facility to pay customs duty through scrips MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme) /Remission of Duties or Taxes On Export Product (RoDTEP) / RoSCTL (Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies) for default under EPCG has been withdrawn. Source: The Economic Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Shadow Banning Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Elon Musk used the term ‘Shadow banning’  in the context of the so-called Twitter Files, internal company documents that were released with Musk’s authorization. About ‘Shadow banning’: The term often refers to stealth actions by social media platforms to limit a post’s visibility. The term shadow ban traces back to 2012 when Reddit users accused the platform’s administrators of banning a link to a Gawker article while publicly championing transparency. Shadow bans refer to a web moderation technique in online forums and social platforms where a user (or a user’s content) is blocked without it being apparent to them that they’ve been blocked. It can be described users’ general discontent about not getting the attention they believe they deserve on social media, even if they don’t necessarily think a platform has engaged in any clandestine moderation. Concerns of Shadow Banning: Private companies are allowed to make their own rules about content moderation, but for advertisers, users, and free speech champions, true shadow bans are problematic because they enforce unarticulated rules secretly. They allow a company to avoid taking responsibility for moderating content while quietly manipulating its flow and those who are silenced have no process for emerging from the shadows. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: ASER, a nationwide citizen-led household survey that provides a snapshot of children’s schooling and learning in rural India has been released. About ASER: The report is prepared by Pratham Education Foundation. The 2022 edition of the survey was done at a national level after 4 years due to the COVID-19 pandemic. This is an annual survey that aims to provide reliable annual estimates of children’s schooling status and basic learning levels for each state and rural district in India. ASER has been conducted every year since 2005 in almost all rural districts of India. ASER is the largest citizen-led survey in India. It is also the only annual source of information on children’s learning outcomes available in India today. Unlike most other large-scale learning assessments, ASER is a household-based rather than school-based survey. This design enables all children to be included – those who have never been to school or have dropped out, as well as those who are in government schools, private schools, religious schools or anywhere else. Major highlights of the Information collected: Information on schooling status is collected for all children in the age group 3-16. Children in the age group 5-16 are tested in basic reading and basic arithmetic. Basic information is collected on school infrastructure, enrollment, attendance, teachers and fund flows. Since 2010, ASER has tracked selected Right to Education (RTE) indicators as well. Key Highlights of the Report: Enrollment: Enrollment in government schools have increased significantly since 2018. In 2018, the number stood at 65.6 per cent. The period 2006 to 2014 saw a steady decrease in the proportion of children (aged 6 to 14) enrolled in government school. The proportion of children (age 6 to 14) enrolled in government school increased sharply from 65.6% in 2018 to 72.9% in 2022. Overall, in the age group of 6-14 years, the enrollment rate now stands at 98.4%, an increase from 97.2% in 2018. Enrolment of girls The number of girls in the age group 11-14 years who do not go to schools has also decreased – 2% in 2022 compared to 4 % in 2018. This figure is around 4% only in Uttar Pradesh and is lower in all other states. The decrease in the proportion of girls not enrolled in school is even sharper among older girls in the 15-16 age group. In 2018, this figure stood at 13.5%. The proportion of 15-16-year-old girls not enrolled has continued to drop, standing at 7.9% in 2022. In only three states, the number of girls not going to school is above 10% – Madhya Pradesh (17%), Uttar Pradesh (15%), and Chhattisgarh (11.2%). Decrease in reading and arithmetic skills Nationally, children’s basic reading ability has dropped to pre-2012 levels, reversing the slow improvement achieved in the intervening years. Drops are visible in both government and private schools in most states, and for both boys and girls. In both government and private schools, only 20.5% students of Class 3 can read, compared to 27.3% in 2018. Similarly, the proportion of Class 5 students who can read has dropped to 42.8% in 2022, compared to 50.5% in 2018. This decrease is smaller in the case of Class 8 students – 6% in 2022 compared to 73% in 2018. Children’s basic arithmetic levels have also declined compared to 2018. The proportion at the national level now stands at 25.9% compared to 28.2% in 2018 in the case of Class 3 students; 25.6% compared to 27.9% in the case of Class 5 students. Private tuition: The number of students taking private tuition classes has increased. As per the ASER 2022 report, the percentage of Class 1-8 students taking tuition classes is at 30.5% in 2022, compared to 26.4% in 2018. School facilities: The fraction of schools with useable girls’ toilets increased from 66.4% in 2018 to 68.4% in 2022. The proportion of schools with drinking water available increased from 74.8% to 76%, and the proportion of schools with books other than textbooks being used by students increased from 36.9% to 44% over the same period. Most sports-related indicators also remain close to the levels observed in 2018. In 2022, 68.9% of schools have a playground, up slightly from 66.5% in 2018. Source: The Hindu National Museum of Natural History Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Regional Museum of Natural History (RMNH), Mysore, a regional branch of National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change organised awareness programmes on #SaveEnergy #LifestyleforEnvironment– Mission LiFE, Green talk and Green pledge. About National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) was a museum focusing on nature, located in New Delhi, India. Established in 1972 and opened in 1978, the museum functions under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Exhibits at the NMNH were focused on India’s plants, animals and mineral wealth, and were divided into four main exhibit galleries: “Cell: The Basic Unit of Life”, “Conservation”, “Introduction to Natural History”, and “Nature’s Network: Ecology”. MUST READ:  Mission LiFE Source: PIB All-India Consumer Price Index Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The All-India Consumer Price Index Number for Agricultural Labourers (Base: 1986-87=100) for the month of December, 2022 remained stationary at 1167 (One thousand one hundred and sixty seven) points and for Rural Labourers increased by 1 point to stand at 1179 (One thousand one hundred and seventy nine) points. Max increase for Agricultural Labourers: Rajasthan Max increase for Rural Labourers: Kerala About CPI: It is a comprehensive measure Consumer Price Index or CPI as it is commonly called is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. Called market basket, CPI is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel, transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc. Remember, CPI is different from WPI, or Wholesale Price Index, which measures inflation at the wholesale level. In India, there are four CPI numbers: CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL) CPI for Rural Labourers (RL) and CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME). While the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation collects CPI (UNME) data and compiles it, the remaining three are collected by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour. Uses: To calculate the inflation levels CPI’s annual percentage change is also used to assess inflation. To compute the cost of living the purchasing power of a country’s currency Understanding the real value of wages, salaries and pensions, Price regulation Provides insights to consumer spending capacity The calculation The CPI is calculated with reference to a base year, which is used as a benchmark. The price change pertains to that year. CPI = (Cost of basket divided by Cost of basket in the base year) multiplied by 100 Base years CPI(IW) = 1982 CPI(AL) = 1986-87 CPI(RL) = 1984-85 News Source: PIB Saansad Khel Mahakumbh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The second phase of Sansad Khel Mahakumbh 2022-23 was inaugurated in Basti district of Uttar Pradesh via video conferencing. The first phase of the Khel Mahakumbh was held from December 10 to 16, 2022 and the second phase of the Khel Mahakumbh is scheduled from January 18 to 28, 2023. About Khel Mahakumbh is a unique initiative that provides an opportunity and platform to the youth of the district and surrounding areas to showcase their sporting talent and motivate them to take up sports as a career option. It also seeks to instill discipline, teamwork, healthy competition, confidence and a sense of nationalism in the youth of the region. Various competitions are organized in both indoor and outdoor games like Wrestling, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Basketball, Football, Hockey, Volleyball, Handball, Chess, Carrom, Badminton, Table Tennis etc. Apart from these, competitions like Essay Writing, Painting, Rangoli making are also organized. Athletes who perform through these games are being selected for further training under the Sports Authority of India. Around 40,000 athletes are participating in the Khel Mahakumbh as compared to last year. Financial assistance of Rs 50,000 per month is also being provided to 2500 athletes through Khelo India. About 500 Olympic potential athletes are being prepared under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS). Keeping in mind the need for international training, some players have received assistance ranging from Rs 2.5 crore to Rs 7 crore. More than one thousand Khelo India District Centers are being set up across the country, out of which more than 750 centers have been completed. Geo-tagging of all sports grounds across the country is also being done so that players do not have any problem in taking training. A sports university in Manipur has been developed for the youth of the Northeast and another sports university is also being constructed in Meerut, (Uttar Pradesh). Significance There was a time when sports was considered an ‘extracurricular’ activity and was relegated to a hobby or activity without much value, a mentality that greatly harmed the country. This led to many talented sportspersons not achieving their potential. Through such events, India’s traditional expertise in sports will get a new dimension. The daughters of Basti, Purvanchal, Uttar Pradesh and all over India will showcase their talent and skills on a global stage. Sports is getting due prestige in society. This has resulted in unprecedented performance in the Olympics, Paralympics and other competitions. Sports competitions at different levels and regions make the players aware of their potential thereby helping them develop their own techniques while also helping the coaches in identifying shortcomings and providing room for improvement. News Source: PIB Alien species in Tiger Reserves Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: Several alien invasive plants growing together can have a detrimental effect to the biodiversities in tiger habitats, a new study has found. The research paper has deciphered many negative impacts of multiple co-occurring alien plants on biodiversity and what it means for conservation in the era of global changes. The study is the first of its kind in India and was published in journal Forest Ecology and Management by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Invasive species: Invasive alien species are plants, animals, pathogens and other organisms that are non-native to an ecosystem, and which may cause economic or environmental harm or adversely affect human health. Regenerate at an alarming speed and threaten to edge out the indigenous flora Some of the invasive plants have a toxic impact on the landscape after remaining underwater, which is often for two months every monsoon. Some weeds have herbal properties, but their toxicity outweighs their utility. For instance, wild boars love to gorge on the succulent rootlets of the Leea macrophylla or ‘kukura thengia’ that is fast clogging the patrolling paths and grasslands. Why is it an issue? Impact of Alien Plants unknown: India’s biodiverse ecosystems are threatened by a variety of alien plants like Lantana camara, Parthenium hysterophorous, Prosopis juliflora, etc, introduced during British colonisation. Lantana alone has pervasively invaded 44 per cent of India’s forests. Apart from its spread in different ecosystems and occasional reports on its association with birds, little is known about how invasive plants affect an ecosystem in the long term. There is even greater confusion when one asks about how alien plants impact native ecosystems. Due to the absence of reliable scientific data and mixed opinions on the impact of alien species, there exists a dilemma regarding the need to manage them. In the face of rapid, pervasive invasions, this inaction could threaten ecosystems’ sustenance. The plants can put pressure on native forage plants and drive away wild herbivores — the food source for the big cats. Native wild herbivores like chital and sambhar did not prefer the commonly found plants in invaded areas. They preferred rare forage plants, which were already depleted in infested areas. Although wild herbivores consumed a limited portion of alien plants. With monotonous invasion stands, their dependence on native forage increases. Invasions might slowly deplete the native plant populations and might lead to diseases in the herbivores Reduced forage availability for herbivores like sambar and chital, which are major prey for tiger, leopard, and dhole in this landscape, threaten the sustenance of these carnivores in invaded regions. The future of these tiger ecosystems can thus be grim. It is indicative of an ‘invasion-centric forest ecosystem’ historically unmatched, defaunated and functionally downgraded with homogenised biodiversity Conclusion: It is necessary to prioritise restoration investments in the least invaded regions to retain native biodiversity and slowly upscale such restored habitats. The study highlighted the importance of investments in scientific restoration in India to mitigate the impacts of biological invasions. Kanha Tiger Reserve Also known as Kanha–Kisli National Park, is one of the tiger reserves of India and the largest national park of the state of Madhya Pradesh. Hosts populations of Bengal tiger, Indian leopard, dhole, sloth bear, Bengal fox and Indian jackal. The barasingha is adapted to swampy areas. The gaur inhabits meadows and waterholes in the park. Blackbuck has become very rare. The first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha. The area is the ancestral home of the Gond and Baiga tribes. News Source: Down to Earth NGT probe into cruise operating in Bhopal Ramsar wetland Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Madhya Pradesh Pollution Control Board (MPPCB) to periodically monitor the activities of a cruise vessel polluting the Bhoj wetland in Bhopal, MP. The critical issue: The cruise began operating in 2011. Small cruise vessels with passengers act as floating colonies that pollute water bodies with sewage, wastewater and other contaminants. A mid-sized cruise vessel can consume 150 tonnes of fuel each day and dump toxic waste in water. The state government has permitted the operation of the cruise with a capacity of 50 passengers, but even broad estimates suggest that human sewage of 19,000 litres will be generated in a week alone. Major: The state government plans to introduce cruise vessels of bigger capacity in summer 2023 – Launching cruise vessels will be a direct violation of the state government’s own laws. Violations: Operating on diesel + Provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which states prevention of water pollution and other air pollution Acts and Biological Diversity Act of 1974 and 2002, respectively Why is it even more dangerous? The wetland is also a Ramsar site with international importance and has two lakes, Upper lake, also called Bhojtal and Lower Lake or Chhota Talaab. It provides drinking water to 1.2 million people. Upper lake hosts 15 varieties of fish and turtles About 2,500 migratory birds across the world visit the wetland that serves as a breeding and nesting habitat for them. The launching of the cruise vessel and increasing human activity due to tourists will directly impact biodiversity. The Way Forward Should be made mandatory to submit a factual and action-taken report with regard to the compliance of the rules and government orders. CPCB and MPPCB should monitor the activities of the cruise on the Bhoj wetland for pollution caused by its operations. Increasing tourist footprint should also have a plan for how to balance or compensate for the damage caused. Motor boats do ply in inland waters such as Kerala backwaters, but guidelines are needed for operating a cruise vessel. About Wetlands Wetlands are an area of marsh, fen, peatland or water; whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres, but does not include river channels, paddy fields, human-made water bodies/ tanks specifically constructed for drinking water purposes and structures specifically constructed for aquaculture, salt production, recreation and irrigation purposes. To be Ramsar site, however, it must meet at least one of nine criteria as defined by the Ramsar Convention of 1961. Wetlands in India India’s Ramsar wetlands are spread over 11,000 sq km — around 10% of the total wetland area in the country — across 18 States. No other South Asian country has as many sites though this has much to do with India’s geographical breadth and tropical diversity. The United Kingdom (175) and Mexico (142) have the maximum Ramsar sites whereas Bolivia spans the largest area with 148,000 sq km under the Convention protection. Wetlands are also known to have among the highest soil-carbon densities and therefore play a major role in buffering carbon dioxide emissions. The National Wetland Inventory and Assessment compiled by the Indian Space Research Organisation, estimates India’s wetlands to span around 1,52,600 square kilometres which is 4.63% of the total geographical area of the country. India has 19 types of wetlands whereas Gujarat has the maximum area followed by Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Wetlands in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat serve as important spaces for migratory birds. Significance Being designated a Ramsar site ensure States and the Centre take steps to keep these tracts of land are conserved and spared from man-made encroachment. Acquiring this label also helps with a locale’s tourism potential and its international visibility. About Ramsar Convention: The Convention on Wetlands is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”. Aim: International mangrove cooperation mechanism aims for technical exchanges, collaborative research, education and training, and pilot projects on conservation and restoration, to protect mangrove biodiversity and coastal blue carbon ecosystems, enhance mangrove ecosystem services and resilience to climate change. The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans. A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention Criteria: One of the nine criteria must be fulfilled to be the Ramsar Site. Criterion 1: If it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region. Criterion 2: If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities Criterion 3: If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region. Criterion 4: If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions. Criterion 5: If it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. Criterion 6: If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird. Criterion 7: If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity. Criterion 8: If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend. Criterion 9: If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non avian animal species. Must Read: Wetland Conservation News Source: Down to Earth Digitalization of Judiciary In India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: India takes an average of 2,184 days to dispose of a case in its subordinate courts, 1,128 days in its High Courts, and 1,095 days in the Supreme Court, bringing the total life cycle of a case in India to 12+ years. Indian Judicial System has been suffering from pendency of cases. Over 4.3 Crore cases have been pending at various stages of the judicial process. Digitization of the Judicial process holds promise in reaffirming the trust of the citizen in the Judiciary. About Digitization of the Judicial Process: Digitization refers to the increased usage of digital technology to perform conventional tasks, thereby reducing time and enhancing public service delivery. In the context of the Judicial Process, it stands for documentation of the case in digital format. Richard Eric Susskind in his book, The Future of Law, has written that in the coming years, lawyers and their litigants will communicate through email. Evolution of digitization in Administration and Judiciary In India, e-governance in the field of administration of justice began in the late 1990s, but it accelerated after the enactment of the Information and Technology Act, 2000. 2006: e-courts were launched as a part of the National e-Governance Plan (NEGP). Guiding star: Chief Justice of Allahabad HC, Justice D Y Chandrachud Conceptualized and initiated the project to digitize approximately one crore case files in one year. Necessary: A large space required to store so many files + becoming difficult to manually preserve the decades-old documents + To ensure that these files are traceable electronically as and when required. The consequences of missing court records are grave. In-State of Uttar Pradesh v. Abhay Raj Singh: Held by the Supreme Court that if court records go missing and re-construction is not possible, the courts are bound to set aside the conviction. Thus, convicts can go free for want of court records. Benefits of usage of technology and digitisation: Reduction in the need for storage infrastructure for case files: This space could be utilised for increasing courtrooms and recruiting more judges for enhanced access to justice and speedy Justice delivery. Judges – Population ratio: 20 per Million for India (whereas for other countries it is approximately double). Increased traceability of Case files: This will reduce adjournments due to the traceability of affidavits which were stored electronically. Reduced time for Court proceedings: The time consumed in summoning records from the lower courts to the appellate courts is one of the major factors causing delays in cases. Due to the digitisation of the records, this time would reduce significantly. For ensuring real justice: In ‘State of Uttar Pradesh v. Abhay Raj Singh’, it was held by the Supreme Court that if court records go missing and reconstruction is not possible, the courts are bound to set aside the conviction. This would allow the accused to not be held accountable for the crimes committed. This would lead to a miscarriage of Justice and hence digitisation provides a panacea against this. For increased ease of procedure in the judicial ecosystem: Lawyers can check the status of the filing, the status of applications and affidavits, the date of the next hearing, orders passed by the courts etc. just by clicking on an app. It would no more be required to physically visit the courts to know the status of the case. Increased openness and transparency: A litigant can be more informed about the status of his/ her court case. This will lead to enhanced trust in Judiciary. Challenges associated with digitization of judicial records: Digitisation and usage of digital infra require increased funding. Digital Literacy amongst the stakeholders is abysmal Lawyers and Judges struggled to shift to virtual hearings during the pandemic. The status of it is poor in the case of the rural population. Privacy Concerns- With increasing digitisation, especially of court records, privacy concerns are likely to be at the forefront of judicial and public deliberations in the coming years. Hacking and Cyber security- On the top of technology, cyber-security will be a huge concern too. The government has initiated remedial steps to address this problem and formulated the Cyber Security Strategy. Not every case can be disposed of virtually nor can these be live-streamed. Deployed with adequate planning and safeguards, technological tools can be a game changer. However, technology is not per se value-neutral — that is, it is not immune to biases. Power imbalances need to be checked upon. Lack of a well-equipped space where lawyers can conduct their cases. Steps taken for the usage of technology in Judicial Process Digitisation of judicial records and establishment of e-courts e-Courts Project: This was conceptualized under the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary-2005”. The e-Committee is the governing body charged with overseeing the e-Courts Project. Its vision is to transform the judicial system of the country through the ICT enablement of courts. e-filing of cases/petitions by state governments in all matters has been made mandatory from January 1, 2022. National Judicial Data Grid: National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) is a database of orders, judgments and case details of 18,735 computerised District and Subordinate Courts created as an online platform under the e -Courts Project. Data is updated on a near real-time basis by the connected District and Taluka Courts and High Courts. SUPACE: It is short form of Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court’s Efficiency. It is a composite AI-assisted tool. It makes all relevant cases available to a judge/ legal researcher for making an informed decision. SUVAS: It is short form of Supreme Court Vidhik Anuvaad Software. It is used to translate SC judgments into regional languages. Virtual hearings in Courts: The Supreme Court in Anjali Brahmawar Chauhan v Navin Chauhan allowed the family court, Gautam Buddha Nagar, to conduct the trial of a matrimonial case through video-conferencing. Live Streaming of Courts’ proceedings: On the basis of the judgment in Swapnil Tripathi, in 2018 the Supreme Court allowed the live-streaming of cases of constitutional and national importance. Gujarat High Court became the 1st court in the country to live stream its proceedings. Way Forward: As the technology grows, concerns about data protection, privacy, human rights and ethics will pose fresh challenges and hence, will require great self-regulation by developers of these technologies. It will also require external regulation by the legislature through statute, rules, regulation and by the judiciary through judicial review and constitutional standards. The cases related to matrimonial issues and domestic violence, bounced cheques, motor accident compensation referred to mediation centres and Lokadalats could be included in the list of cases fit for disposal through the virtual hearing. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme: The EPCG scheme is administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). Benefits under EPCG Scheme can be applied by any Exporter irrespective of his turnover. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q,2) Kanha Tiger Reserve is often mentioned in news located in Meghalaya Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan Odisha Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) was a museum focusing on nature, located in New Delhi, India. The museum functions under the Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b  Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }