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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [28th January, 2023] – Day 64

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Analyze the impact of e-governance initiatives such as e-filing of taxes and online tracking of public services on reducing corruption and promoting transparency. भ्रष्टाचार को कम करने और पारदर्शिता को बढ़ावा देने पर करों की ई-फाइलिंग और सार्वजनिक सेवाओं की ऑनलाइन ट्रैकिंग जैसी ई-गवर्नेंस पहलों के प्रभाव का विश्लेषण करें। 2. Examine the role of technology in promoting transparency and accountability in election processes and suggest measures to improve it. चुनाव प्रक्रियाओं में पारदर्शिता और उत्तरदायित्व को बढ़ावा देने में प्रौद्योगिकी की भूमिका की जांच करें और इसे सुधारने के उपाय सुझाएं। 3. Evaluate the success of e-governance initiatives in increasing public participation in policy-making and decision-making processes and suggest ways to further improve it. नीति-निर्माण और निर्णय लेने की प्रक्रियाओं में सार्वजनिक भागीदारी बढ़ाने में ई-गवर्नेंस पहल की सफलता का मूल्यांकन करें और इसे और बेहतर बनाने के उपाय सुझाएं। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: In the recently concluded 12th Session of the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group (ITWG) on Animal Genetic Resources (AnGR) at Rome during 18 -20 January 2023, India was elected as Vice-Chair and represented Asia and Pacific region. About WG AnGR: The Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)’s Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) established the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture at its Seventh Regular Session, in 1997. Its purpose is to: review the situation and issues related to agrobiodiversity in the area of animal genetic resources for food and agriculture and advise and make recommendations to the Commission on these matters; consider the progress made in implementing the Commission’s programme of work on animal genetic resources for food and agriculture as well as any other matters referred to it by the Commission; report to the Commission on its activities. About Food and Agricultural Organization: FAO is a United Nations specialized agency that leads international efforts to end hunger. Every year on October 16th, the world celebrates World Food Day. The day commemorates the anniversary of the FAO’s founding in 1945. It is one of the United Nations food aid organizations based in Rome (Italy). The World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) are its sister organizations. Flagship Publications of FAO: The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA). The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO). The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI). The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA). The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO). About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA): The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture. It aims to reach international consensus on policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their use. The Commission initiates, oversees and guides the preparation of global sectoral and cross-sectoral assessments of genetic resources for food and agriculture. As of July 2014, 178 countries and The European Union are Members of the Commission. Membership of the Commission, which is open to all Members of FAO, shall be composed of those Members which notify the Director-General in writing of their desire to become members. Membership of the Commission does not place any financial burden on the Government. The Commission, so far, has established the following intergovernmental technical working groups: Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Aquatic Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AqGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Forest Genetic Resources (WG FGR) Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG PGR) Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Aditya-L1 Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is planning to launch the Aditya-L1 mission by June or July 2023. About Aditya-L1 Mission: Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India. A satellite around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without occultation/eclipses. This position provides a greater advantage of observing solar activities continuously. Aditya-L1 carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layers of the Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle detectors. Four payloads directly view the Sun from the unique vantage point of L1, and the remaining three payloads carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at the Lagrange point L1. The Aditya-L1 mission will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1 point, which is about 1.5 million km from Earth. Aditya L1 Payloads: The 1,500 kg satellite carries seven science payloads with diverse objectives. Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC): To study the diagnostic parameters of solar corona and dynamics and origin of Coronal Mass Ejections, magnetic field measurement of solar corona. Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT): To image the spatially resolved Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (200-400 nm) and measure solar irradiance variations. Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX): To study the variation of solar wind properties as well as its distribution and spectral characteristics. Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA): To understand the composition of solar wind and its energy distribution Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS): To monitor the X-ray flares for studying the heating mechanism of the solar corona . High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS): To observe the dynamic events in the solar corona and provide an estimate of the energy used to accelerate the particles during the eruptive events. Magnetometer: To measure the magnitude and nature of the Interplanetary Magnetic Field. Source:   The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same M1 Abrams Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the US President announced that he would send M1 Abrams tanks to Ukraine. About M1 Abrams: The M1 Abrams main battle tank was developed by Chrysler Defence. Production of the M1 started in 1980 and ceased in 1992. This MBT was named in honour to the General Abrams, commander of US forces during Vietnam War. The M1 Abrams MBT replaced the M60 Patton in service with US Army. The M1 is informally known as “The Beast,” “Dracula” and “Whispering Death,” referring to its impressive firepower and quiet operation. The M1 Abrams has a modern fire control system with a high first hit probability. It can destroy tank-size targets at a range of 2 km while firing on the move. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea Jeevan Raksha Padak 2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: The President of India Approved the conferment of 43 persons for Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2022 out of which four are posthumous. About Jeevan Raksha Padak 2022: It’s a series of awards given to a person for a meritorious act of human nature in saving the life of a person. It is given in three categories, namely, Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for conspicuous courage in saving life under circumstances of very great danger to the life of the rescuer. Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of great danger to the life of the rescuer. Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of grave bodily injury to the rescuer. The Awards Committee makes its recommendations to the Prime Minister and the President. Conditions of Eligibility: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life from drowning, fire, rescue operations in mines, rescuer displayed in an act or a series of acts of human nature in saving life from drowning, fire rescue operations in mines. The medal may be awarded posthumously. Eligible Categories: Persons of either sex in all walks of life, other than the members of the Armed Forces, Police Forces and of recognized Fire Services, if the act is performed by them in the course of duty. Source: PIB  Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Etikoppaka Wooden Toy Craft Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: The Union government choosing to confer Padma Shri on him in the art category is an honour to the Etikoppaka wooden toy craft, and it will go a long way in promoting the art. About Etikoppaka Wooden Toy Craft: The toys are made with lacquer colour and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating. The toys are made out of wood and are coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves. The wood used to make the toys is soft in nature and the art of toy making is also known as Turned wood Lacquer craft. While making the Etikoppaka toys, lac, a colourless resinous secretion of numerous insects, is used. The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating. Etikoppaka is a picturesque village on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. The success for the Etikoppaka toys is thought to have come from the Rajas of Vizianagaram, who migrated to this region around the same time and acted as catalysts as landlords. GI tag: Etikoppaka Toys have obtained their GI tag under Handicrafts category in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Agricultural, natural or manufactured goods are registered as Geographical Indications (GI) by the Geographical Indications Registry as per the provisions of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. Source:                    The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of (2019) Chalukya Chandela Rashtrakuta Vijayanagara Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation has launched a massive district outreach program in all the districts of the country through a revamped Nidhi Aapke Nikat program. About the Programme: A District Outreach Program for expanding its presence in more than 685 districts of the country – to strengthen the relationship between the organization and its stakeholders Aim: To reach all the districts of the country on the same day i.e. 27th of every month. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) It is a government organisation that manages the provident fund and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India. It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Administered by: Ministry of Labour and Employment. News Source: PIB International Customs Day, 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and all its field formations observed the International Customs Day, 2023 on 27th January. Theme: “Nurturing the Next Generation: Promoting a Culture of Knowledge-sharing and Professional Pride in Customs” Theme is given by: World Customs Organisation (WCO) The World Customs Organization (WCO) is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. The WCO is noted for its work in areas covering the development of international conventions, instruments, and tools on topics such as commodity classification, valuation, rules of origin, collection of customs revenue, supply chain security, international trade facilitation, customs enforcement activities, combating counterfeiting in support of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), drugs enforcement, illegal weapons trading, integrity promotion, and delivering sustainable capacity building to assist with customs reforms and modernization. The WCO maintains the international Harmonized System (HS) goods nomenclature, and administers the technical aspects of the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreements on Customs Valuation and Rules of Origin. The Harmonized System Committee of the WCO undertakes a periodic review of the HS to take account of changes in technology and patterns in international trade, and recommends amendments to the HS. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) A part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2018 after the roll out of Goods and Services Tax (GST). It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). GST Law comprising Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017. News Source: PIB Rare low-basalt plateau with 76 plant species in Western Ghats Discovered Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: Researchers from Pune have discovered a low-level basalt plateau, an isolated flat-topped steep hill, in the Western Ghats in Maharashtra. Recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families Registered a floristic inventory which they claim to be important from the conservation point of view, considering the rampant urbanisation. Location: Manjare village The Details: Three types of rock outcrops are known in the biodiversity hotspot of Western Ghats — lateritic outcrops at high (HLF) and low altitude (LLF), and basalt outcrops at high altitudes (BM). Now a low-altitude basalt outcrop has been found in Murbad district, about 100 kilometres from Mumbai. Rock outcrops are landscape habitats with more areas of rock surface exposure than surrounding areas. It emerges when the surface soil and other materials wear off, exposing the parent rock surface. The outcrop is identified if the area has more than 50 per cent of such rocks. Besides the outcrops, the team also recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families, mainly from Poaceae, Leguminosae and Cyperaceae ranges. What stands out is: It is the first time that such plants were found during research on floral biodiversity. The discovery holds significance as flora growing on these rocks experience multiple environmental stresses. As they grow among rocks, the flora faces a harsher environment compared to other species growing elsewhere What are the Challenges? Limited soil, restricting their nutrient availability The lack of soil also reduces water retention capacity, which puts additional water stress on the plants Face challenges during peak summers: In summer, the rock surfaces have higher temperatures than soil or other surfaces, making it difficult for these species to survive. But despite multiple stresses, these plants are found thriving which shows that these plants have adapted to their surroundings and indicates that a certain level of endemism also exists. Kas Plateau Locally called as ‘Kas Pathar’ or ‘Plateau of Flowers’. A UNESCO world natural heritage site in Maharashtra, is a lateritic plateau (composed of mainly laterite rock, rich in iron and aluminium content) that hosts many endemic wild flowering plants. Location: 25 Km away from Satara District H.Q. & 20 Km away from Northern part of Koyana Sanctuary. The major portion of the plateau is Reserve Forest. Kas plateau is listed under the Protection Working Circle. Kas lake (built 100 years ago) is a perennial source of Water supply for western part of Satara city by gravity. News Source: Down to Earth Managing Water Quality of Lake Victoria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Biodiversity In News: One of the largest lakes in the world, Lake Victoria, has been suffering from a variety of unsustainable human activities over the last five decades. Delhi-based non-profit Centre for Science and Environment and National Environment Management Council (NEMC), Tanzania have jointly released a report on managing its water quality. About Lake Victoria: Lake Victoria and its flora and fauna support the livelihoods of about 45 million people. The ecologically unique water body is shared by three countries — Tanzania (51 per cent), Uganda (44 per cent) and Kenya (5 per cent). Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America. Occupies a shallow depression in Africa. The lake was renamed after Queen Victoria by the explorer John Hanning Speke, the first Briton to document it in 1858, while on an expedition with Richard Francis Burton Findings & Suggestions of the Report Identified Mwanza city as a hotspot, contributing a substantial pollution load in the form of industrial effluents, domestic sewage and dumping of solid waste. It also recognised two rivers — the Mirongo and the Nyashishi — as the major water bodies carrying domestic and industrial pollution loads, respectively. Results of the sampling exercise showed substantial pollutant load in the rivers, which may be getting discharged in the lake. The water from the Nyashishi is extensively used for agricultural purposes before it meets the lake. The focus on the Nyashishi should now be doubled as any pollutant in the river, along with affecting the water quality of Lake Victoria, may also adversely impact crops and human health. News Source: Down to Earth The urgent need for CBFC reforms Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Benegal Committee and the Justice Mukul Mudgal Committee of 2013 had both suggested moving away from censorship towards age-based rating/classification norms for films. About Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC): Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952. It ensures the good and healthy entertainment in accordance with the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 and the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules 1983. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by CBFC. The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairperson (all of whom are appointed by the Union Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional Offices at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The Union Government nominates the Members of the panels by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of two years. The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B). About Censorship: Censorship is the suppression of speech, public communication, or other information. This may be done on the basis that such material is considered objectionable, harmful, sensitive, or “inconvenient”. Censorship can be conducted by governments, private institutions and other controlling bodies. Legal backing to Censorship in India: The Cinematograph Act, of 1952: The legislation exclusively deals with the censorship of movies in India with respect to certain rules and regulations established by law. The certification, Censor Board establishment, and scope of such Board is provided in this legislation. The practice of censoring movies to remove any objectionable material by the Censor Board has been followed in India. It is to make the movie suitable for the target audience. The viewership is based on the certificate issued to every movie prescribing the audience that can watch the movie. Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021: Digital media is brought under the ambit of Section 69(A) of the Information Technology Act, of 2000 which gives takedown powers to the government. The section allows the Centre to block public access to an intermediary “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above”. Digital Media: It covers digitised content that can be transmitted over the internet or computer networks. It includes intermediaries such as Twitter, Facebook, YouTube. It includes publishers of news and current affairs content and also curators of such content. Publishers of news and current affairs content cover online papers, news portals, news agencies and news aggregators. Significance of Censorship: Films: Films have always been considered the most powerful medium of expression. It is stationarily accepted that cinema is a form of speech & expression. They may affect public attitudes and behavior in numerous ways i.e., in negative or positive ways. Removal of materials that are obscene or otherwise considered morally questionable. Pornography, for example, is often censored under this rationale. Online platforms: Increasing level of poor, offensive and abusive content is sometimes spread in the name of freedom of expression. With the deeper reach of smartphones, children and youth are being misled by such content. Increasing digital crimes like radicalisation, terrorist recruitment, digital hacking, child pornography, etc. Religion Censorship: Religious censorship is the means by which any material considered objectionable by a certain religion is removed. Political Censorship : Political censorship occurs when governments hold back information from their citizens. This is often done to exert control over the populace and prevent free expression that might foment rebellion. Military Censorship: Military censorship is the process of keeping military intelligence and tactics confidential and away from the enemy. This is used to counter espionage. Challenges associated with the Censorship: Against the Natural justice and freedom of speech: Natural justice is a fundamental principle in public law when decisions affect fundamental rights such as the freedom of speech. The Supreme Court of India on various occasions has recognised that the right to receive and impart information is implicit in free speech. Selective targeting: Most arguments like abusive language, against the cultural ethos, are either vague or irrelevant as they often depict day-to-day life. Curb Freedom of Artistic Expressions: The present norms put a curb on the Freedom to Artistic Expressions under Article 19. Exploitation of emergency powers: The recent blocking has been made under Rule 16(3) of the IT Rules and Section 69(A) of the IT Act, 2000 which allows for “emergency blocking”. However, the term “emergency” itself is not legislatively defined, but following the dictionary, the meaning would mean “a dangerous situation requiring immediate action”. It permits an expedited process that weakens the already minimal checks by bypassing a committee and eliminating the opportunity to be heard. We have also been witnessing increased use of this emergency power, Rising Intolerance and Populist measure: It has also been alleged that the rules will be more misused than for real regulation. There are instances when the government tried to curb certain Anti- Government Agendas while ignoring populist fake news. Way Forward: There are numerous landmark judgements in this regard which have mostly arisen out of a conflict between the fundamental right to speech and expression and the restrictions imposed in consonance with the restrictions enshrined in the Constitution for the right. It is the obligation of the state to protect the fundamental rights of its citizens and every action while sanctioning the censorship shall be equivalent to reasonable restrictions. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021) A committed judiciary Centralization of powers Elected government Separation of powers Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA): It is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is “M1 Abrams”, sometimes seen in the news ? An Israeli satellite system UAE’s indigenous ballistic missile programme An American main battle tank None of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is/are correct? It works under the Department of Economic Affairs of the Ministry of Finance. It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Monument Mitra Project Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Monument Mitra scheme, which entails adopting a heritage site and maintaining it, will soon be revamped to enable private firms, to partner for the upkeep of 1,000 ASI monuments. About Monument Mitra Project: It aims at ensuring quality and inclusive provision of amenities and facilities across heritage, natural, and tourist sites through active participation of private and public sector organizations and individuals. These organizations would be known as “Monument Mitras” for their collaboration initiative. This project is envisioned to fulfill the objective of the Government of India to provide an enhanced tourism experience to all travelers. The project plans to entrust development, upgradation and maintenance of amenities and facilities at the heritage, natural and tourist sites to the Monument Mitras, coupled with innovation and technology interventions to increase awareness of these incredible treasures. The project began with 93 ASI monuments and has extended to heritage, natural and tourist sites across India. This revised scheme will be led by the culture ministry. The previous scheme was led by the tourism ministry. The monuments are separated into three categories depending on tourist footfall and visibility: Green: Iconic sites like the Taj Mahal, Qutub Minar, and Red Fort, among others, are categorized as ‘Green’. Blue: while Purana Quila and Jantar Mantar fall in the ‘Blue’ category. Orange: The Sanchi Stupa is one popular site in the ‘Orange’ category. Entities are encouraged to adopt from the Blue and Orange category, or a mix of the three. Adoption of only ‘Green’ category monuments is not allowed. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli Odisha Erragudi  Andhra Pradesh Jaugada Madhya Pradesh Kalsi Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Historical place           Well-known for Burzahom Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh Terracotta art Ganeshwar Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 The T+1 Settlement Cycle Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: After China, India will become the second country in the world to start the ‘trade-plus-one’ (T+1) settlement cycle in top listed securities today (January 27), bringing operational efficiency, faster fund remittances, share delivery, and ease for stock market participants. About the T+1 Settlement Cycle: The T+1 settlement cycle means that trade-related settlements must be done within a day, or 24 hours, of the completion of a transaction. Until 2001, stock markets had a weekly settlement system. The markets then moved to a rolling settlement system of T+3, and then to T+2 in 2003. The United States, United Kingdom and Eurozone markets are yet to move to the T+1 system. Significance of T+1 plan: In the T+1 format, if an investor sells a share, he/she will get the money within a day, and the buyer will get the shares in his/her Demat account also within a day. This will also help investors in reducing the overall capital requirements with the margins getting released on T+1 day, and in getting the funds in the bank account within 24 hours of the sale of shares. The shift will boost operational efficiency as the rolling of funds and stocks will be faster. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Benchmark Price’ for Minor millets Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Economy Context: Considering the increase in the cultivation of millets, the Centre may soon announce a benchmark price for minor millets produced in various States. The Centre said it would help States to procure and distribute millets through the public distribution system. At present, millets such as jowar, bajra and ragi are procured by nine States with the minimum support price announced by the Centre. Minor millets are not procured at the moment. About Minor Millets: The minor millets comprise of proso millet (Panicum miliaceum), foxtail millet or (Setariaitalica), little millet (Panicum sumatrense), barnyard millet (Echinochloa colona) and Kodo millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum). Minor millets are high energy, nutritious foods comparable to other cereals and some of them are even better with regard to protein and mineral content. They are particularly low in phytic acid and rich in dietary fibre, iron, calcium and B vitamins. With proper preparation, 30 per cent of minor millets can be gainfully substituted in value added foods belonging to the categories of traditional foods, bakery products, extruded foods and allied mixes for the convenient preparation by rural and town folk at low cost. Poroso millet flour is used as a substitute for rice flour in various snack foods. Traditionally, finger, Kodo and Poroso millets are brewed by tribal in certain parts of India. Popping of finger millet is done on cottage industry level and the popped meal is marketed in polyethylene pouches. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (2021) Sugarcane Sunflower Pearl millet Red gram Co-location Scam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) will challenge the order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), which set aside Rs 624 crore disgorgement order against the National Stock Exchange (NSE) by the market regulator in the co-location scam. Meaning of Co-location: Co-location is a data centre facility where third parties can lease space for servers and other computer hardware. They provide infrastructure like power supply, bandwidth and cooling for setting up servers and storage of data. Customers usually rent out space by rack, cabinet, cage or room. About the NSE co-location case: The NSE introduced co-location facilities in 2009 and offered traders/brokers the ability to place their servers within NSE’s data centre for a fee. By being in close proximity to the stock exchange servers, traders/brokers would have faster access to the price feed and the execution of trades, due to the low latency connectivity. In January 2015, a whistle-blower wrote a complaint to SEBI, alleging that some brokers who leased space at the NSE co-location facility, were able to log into the NSE systems with better hardware specifications while engaging in algorithmic trading. This allowed them unfair access from the period 2012-2014, as the hardware specifications gave them a split-second advantage in accessing the price feed. A minuscule difference in time can lead to huge gains for a trader. At that time NSE used to disseminate information through unicast, which is a single, direct request sent from one host to another, with only those hosts interacting over the route. At least 15 brokers were identified by SEBI for having preferential access. MUST READ: About SEBI MUST READ: National Stock Exchange Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following? (2021) Expansionary policies Fiscal stimulus Inflation-indexing wages Higher purchasing power Rising interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Eklavya Model Residential School (EMRS) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: In line with the vision of celebrating our glorious tribal heritage, a tableau by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs showcasing tribal welfare through quality education in Eklavya Model Residential Schools established for ST children across the country featured at the national Republic Day Parade. Eklavya Model Residential School (EMRS) scheme EMRS started in the year 1997-98 It is one of the flagship interventions of the Ministry of Tribal Affair The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students. Each school has a capacity of 480 students, catering to students from Class VI to XII. Hitherto, grants were given for construction of schools and recurring expenses to the State Governments under Grants under Article 275 (1) of the Constitution. In order to give further impetus to EMRS, it has been decided that by the year 2022, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an EMRS. Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalaya and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development. Across the country, as per census 2011 figures, there are 564 such sub-districts out of which there is an EMRS in 102 sub-districts. Thus, 462 new schools have to be opened by the year 2022. Eklavya Model Day Boarding Schools (EMDBS) Wherever density of ST population is higher in identified Sub-Districts (90% or more), it is proposed to set up Eklavya Model Day Boarding School (EMDBS) on an experimental basis for providing additional scope for ST Students seeking to avail school education without residential facility. Centre of Excellence for Sports (CoE for Sports) Dedicated infrastructure for setting up Centre of Excellence for sports with all related infrastructure (buildings, equipment’s etc.) is supported. This Centre of Excellence will have specialized state-of-the-art facilities for one identified individual sport and one group sport in each State. Source PIB Lakshwadeep Islands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: In Lakshadweep, pomp and gaiety marked the Republic Day celebrations in the ten inhabited islands in the archipelago, where people participated in large numbers. Lakshadweep Islands India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of 32 sq km It is known for its exotic and sun-kissed beaches and lush green landscape. The name Lakshadweep in Malayalam and Sanskrit means ‘a hundred thousand islands’. It is a uni-district Union Territory and the islands were constituted a union territory in 1956. It comprises of 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks and ten inhabited islands. The principal islands in the territory are Minicoy and those in the Amindivi group. The easternmost island lies about 185 miles (300 km) from the coast of the state of Kerala. Ten of the islands are inhabited. Capital – Kavaratti Aside from an abundance of coconut palms, common trees include banyans, casuarinas, pandani (screw pines), breadfruits, tamarinds, and tropical almonds (genus Terminalia). Betel nut and betel leaf also grow in the islands. Among the most notable marine fauna are sharks, bonitos, tunas, snappers, and flying fish. Manta rays, octopuses, crabs, turtles, and assorted gastropods are plentiful. The islands also are home to an array of water birds, such as herons, teals, and gulls. Climate Lakshadweep has a tropical climate and it has an average temperature of 27° C – 32° C. April and May are the hottest. Generally the climate is humid warm and pleasant. October to March is the ideal time to be on the islands. From June to October the South West Monsoon is active with an average rainfall of 10-40 mm. Winds are light to moderate from October to March. Fauna & Flora Includes Banana, Vazha,(Musaparadisiaca), Colocassia, Chambu (Colocassia antiquarum) Drumstic moringakkai, wild almond Shrubs – Kanni, Punna, Chavok, Cheerani Coconut, Thenga – only crop of economic importance in Lakshadweep. Sea grass – Thalassia hemprichin and Cymodocea isoetifolia. They prevent sea erosion and movement of the beach sediments. The commonly seen vertebrates are cattle and poultry. Oceanic birds – Tharathasi and Karifetu (Anous solidus). Molluscan forms are also important from the economic point of the islands. Culture & Heritage Kolkali and Parichakali are the two popular folk art forms in the Territory. They are an integral part of the cultural milieu except in Minicoy where “LAVA” is the most popular dance form. Some of the folk dances have a resemblance with those in North Eastern India. For marriages “OPPANA” is a common feature, a song sung by a lead singer and followed by a group of women. Demography As per details from Census 2011, Lakshadweep has population of 64 Thousands of which male and female are 33,123 and 31,350 respectively The total population growth in this decade was 6.30 percent while in previous decade it was 17.19 percent. Sources: Newsonair Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Similipal National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: Similipal National Park has turned out to be the hunting ground for animal poachers over the last few years. Most recently, the carcass of a male elephant was found in the Talabandha wildlife range Simplipal National Park Located in northern part of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district Similipal derives its name from ‘Simul’ (Silk Cotton) tree It is a national park and a Tiger Reserve The tiger reserve is spread over 2750 sq km and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani. The park is surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515m above mean sea level). At least twelve rivers cut across the plain area, all of which drain into the Bay of Bengal –  Burhabalanga, Palpala Bandan, Salandi, Kahairi and Deo. Prominent tribes – Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia and Sahara. The vegetation is a mix of deciduous with some semi-evergreen forests Sal is the dominant tree species Biodiversity in the park: An astounding 1078 species of plants including 94 species of orchids find their home in the park. These forests boast of many plants that have medicinal and aromatic properties. The park is known for the tiger, elephant and hill mynah. It holds the highest tiger population in the state of Odisha. Apart from the tiger, the major mammals are leopard, sambar, barking deer, gaur, jungle cat, wild boar, four-horned antelope, giant squirrel and common langur. Grey hornbill, Indian pied hornbill and Malabar pied hornbill are also found here. The park also has a sizeable population of reptiles, which includes the longest venomous snake, the King cobra and the Tricarinate hill turtle. The Mugger Management Programme at Ramatirtha has helped the mugger crocodile to flourish on the banks of the Khairi and Deo Rivers Similipal has turned out to be the haven for hunters and poachers as the region has witnessed several killings of elephants, tigers and leopards Threats: About 20 adult breeding male elephants die each year, mostly to unnatural causes like poaching and electrocution. The dwindling breeding male population and the isolated populations due to fragmented forests is weakening the gene pool due to mating among immature individuals and inbreeding. There  is a link between poaching and trading of elephant tusks, tiger skins and leopard skins since these fetch a huge price in the international market despite the global ban Even though Elephants are protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, there is a rise in poaching cases While tiger population has gone up in most Indian states, in Odisha it has come down or remained static Source: DTE Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kelp forests Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: Kelp forests are declining because of climate change as per the study published in the journal Nature 2023 Kelp populations at equatorward-range edges are particularly vulnerable to climate change as these locations are undergoing warming at or beyond thermal tolerance thresholds Kelp forests Kelp are large brown algae These are underwater ecosystems found in cool, nutrient rich, shallow waters that are close to the shore Many organisms use the thick blades as a safe shelter for their young from predators or even rough storms. Some kelp species can measure up to 150 feet (45 m) long. If living in ideal physical conditions, kelp can grow 18 inches (45 cm) a day. Sea urchins can destroy entire kelp forests at a rate of 30 feet (9 m) per month by moving in herds. Sea otters play a key role in stabilizing sea urchin populations so that kelp forests may thrive. Ecklonia radiata is the dominant and most widely distributed Laminarian kelp in the southern hemisphere New populations were found in shallower and cooler winter months with temperatures around 20°C Kelp can sometimes persist at lower latitudes, aided by cool water upwelling or in deep-water refugia where they are protected by thermocline (the transition layer between the warmer mixed water at the surface and the cooler deep water below) Significance: Kelp forests provide food and shelter for thousands of species such as seals, sea lions, whales, sea otters, gulls, terns, snowy egrets, great blue herons, cormorants, and shore birds. Kelp forests provide underwater habitats to hundreds of species of invertebrates, fishes, and other algae and have great ecological and economic value. Loss of kelp forests will also lead to a decline of the unique biodiversity that they support There is high evolutionary diversity in the low-latitudes as many marine organisms were only able to persist within ice-free refuge areas at lower latitudes during the Ice Age Giant kelp is harvested from kelp forests and used as a binding agent in products like ice cream, cereal, ranch dressing, yogurt, toothpaste, lotion and more. Threats The unique adaptive or evolutionary genetic diversity that the rear-edge populations (populations in warm, low-latitudes) may contain is also under threat due to rapid warming Source DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2018) Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 MSMEs for a Resilient Global Supply Chain Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Textiles held the fourth Plenary Session of B20 India Inception Meeting on Building Resilient Global Value Chains in Gandhinagar, Gujrat. About MSMEs: MSMEs or Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are businesses that are defined by their investment and turnover levels. They are considered an important sector of the economy as they create jobs, generate income, and promote entrepreneurship. Classification of MSMEs: Based on their Investment and turnover levels: Based on the nature of activities and sectors Manufacturing Enterprise: Manufacturing of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the first schedule of the industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 Service Enterprise: Providing or rendering of services and covered under ‘Services’ sector as defined in the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006. Advantages of MSMEs: MSMEs play a crucial role in the global value chain and their support and integration is vital for a resilient global supply chain. MSMEs flourish around a larger unit or anchor, an example given is that when a large company such as Apple sets up a manufacturing plant, thousands of MSME units flourish in the ecosystem as mini value chain suppliers to Apple. Diversification: MSMEs can help diversify an economy by creating new industries and markets. Regional development: These are often based in specific regions, which can promote development in those areas. Flexibility: MSMEs have more flexibility than larger companies in terms of decision-making and the ability to pivot their business models. Economic development: They play a crucial role in the economic development of a country by providing goods and services, generating income, and creating opportunities for people to improve their standard of living. Innovation: These are often more adaptable and innovative than larger companies, which can lead to new products, processes, and business models. Reduced risk: MSMEs typically have lower startup costs and are less risky investments than larger companies. Lower regulatory burden: MSMEs typically have to navigate fewer regulations than larger companies, making it easier for them to start and operate their business. Easier access to credit: They have easier access to credit than larger companies. Issues associated with the MSMEs: Lack of skilled labour: MSMEs often struggle to find skilled workers, which can make it difficult for them to grow and expand their businesses. Bureaucratic red tape: MSMEs have to navigate a complex web of regulations and bureaucratic procedures, which can be time-consuming and costly. Competition from larger companies: MSMEs in India often have to compete with larger, more established companies, which can make it difficult for them to succeed in the market. Access to finance: MSMEs often struggles to access capital due to a lack of collateral or credit history or access to formal financial institutions. Lack of infrastructure: MSMEs often lack access to basic infrastructure, such as electricity and transportation, which can make it difficult for them to operate their businesses. Lack of technological know-how: MSMEs often lack the technical knowledge and expertise to modernize their operations and stay competitive in the market. Issues with supply chain and logistics: MSMEs face issues with supply chain and logistics, which can make it difficult for them to get their products to market in a timely and cost-effective manner. Lack of formalization: Many MSMEs in India are unregistered or operate informally, which can make it difficult for them to access government support and benefits. Lack of marketing and networking opportunities: MSMEs in India often lack the resources and networks to effectively market their products and services, which can make it difficult for them to reach new customers and grow their businesses. Government of India Initiatives for strengthening MSMEs: Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA): It will help MSMEs of both India and UAE to leverage benefits of the District as export hub initiative of the government. Harmonizing value chain: Government to focus on integrating India’s value chains with the rest of the world and creating logistics that are easier and faster is crucial to make it easier for international companies to include India in their value chains. Quality assurance: Government to focus on creating Quality as the most important factor in the success story of India through steps including- setting global benchmarks, harmonizing Indian standards with global standards, and consumers becoming more demanding of quality. Under this initiative, every district for their unique products and identify the specialty of districts by knowing which district exports which products. This initiative is expected to help in promoting local products and in turn, boost the local economy. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) Stand Up India: The scheme provides financial assistance to scheduled caste (SC), scheduled tribe (ST) and women entrepreneurs for setting up new enterprises. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE): This scheme provides collateral-free credit to micro and small enterprises through a credit guarantee mechanism. Way Forward: Infrastructure development: Improving infrastructure in areas where MSMEs are concentrated, such as by building roads, providing electricity and water supply, and improving transportation. Access to finance: The government can work to improve access to finance for MSMEs by providing credit guarantees, offering tax incentives for lending to MSMEs, and encouraging banks and other financial institutions to lend to MSMEs. Simplifying regulations: The government can simplify regulations and procedures for MSMEs, such as by streamlining registration and compliance processes and reducing the bureaucratic burden on MSMEs. Skilled labor: Taking steps to improve the availability of skilled labor by investing in vocational education and training programs, and encouraging workers to acquire new skills. Support for innovation: The government can help MSMEs to innovate by providing funding, mentorship, and other forms of support to help them develop new products and services. The government can support the adoption of new technologies by MSMEs by providing subsidies, tax incentives, and other forms of financial assistance to help them modernize their operations. To become a trusted and resilient partner in global value chains, the government is focusing on creating an ecosystem that is simpler, faster, and promotes ease of doing business for MSMEs. Source: NewsOnAir Renewable Energy Transition Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Environment Context: Livelihoods powered by clean energy are major outliers in the country that’s the third-largest emitter of planet-warming gases in the world India missed its target to install 175 gigawatts of renewable energy to its overall power production by 2022. To meet its 2030 renewable energy target of installing a total of 450 gigawatts, India needs to build out clean energy at a far greater rate than it is doing now. Role of coal in India’s Energy mix Coal is by far the largest share of dirty fuels. Nationwide fossil fuels generate more than 70% of India’s electricity and have been doing so for decades. The Indian government has repeatedly defended its use of coal and its energy transition strategy, stating that the fuel is necessary for the nation’s energy security. In 2021, India announced its biggest-ever auction for coal mines inviting bids for 141 mines spread across 12 states in the country It will contribute to its target of producing 1 billion tons of coal by April 2024. From 2001 to 2021, India installed 168 gigawatts of coal-fired generation, nearly double what it added in solar and wind power combined, as per Ember data. Coal India limited, a government-owned company, is the largest state-owned coal producer in the world. It is responsible for about 82% of the total coal produced in India. The country’s coal-fired power plants have an average age of 13 years and India has 91,000 MW of new proposed coal capacity in the works, second only to China According to the Draft National Electricity Plan 2022, coal’s share in the electricity generation mix will decrease to 50% by 2030, compared to the current contribution of 70% Status of Renewable energy Contribution It currently contributes about 10% of India’s electricity needs. Price of renewable energy has plummeted. The cost of solar power has dropped roughly sixfold from 12 rupees (14 cents) per kilowatt-hour in 2011 to 2.5 rupees (0.03 cents) per kilowatt-hour. Economic savings The planned buildout of 76 GW of solar and wind power by 2025 will avoid the use of almost 78 million tons of coal annually and could lead to savings of up to 1.6 trillion rupees ($19.5 billion) per year. Gujarat Coal’s share in producing electricity for Gujarat fell from 85% to 56% in the last six years, according to analysis by London-based energy think tank Ember The share of renewable energy for Gujarat grew from 9% to 28% in the same period. Gujarat is one of four of India’s 28 states that met their renewable energy targets for 2022. Other states Most states have installed less than 50% of their targets and some states such as West Bengal have installed only 10% of their target. Challenges in transition Reducing the share of coal in the electricity generation mix is particularly acute because the sector is growing rapidly Development goals India’s quickly developing economy and growing electricity consumption per capita is causing rising demand Historically, countries that have achieved substantial and rapid transitions away from coal-fired power tend to have had either slowly growing or stagnant or even slightly declining electricity demand Growing demand India’s federal power ministry estimates that its electricity demand will grow up to 6% every year for the next decade. Acquiring land for clean energy projects in tough due to resistance from local communities. While longstanding contracts with coal plants also make it easier for state-run electricity companies to buy coal power instead of clean power. Inefficiency of DISCOMS As of December 2022, Indian state-owned electricity distribution companies owed power generators $3.32 billion in overdue payments. Their poor financial health has dampened their ability to invest in clean energy projects Skewed Lending scenario 60% of lending to the mining sector was for oil and gas extraction, while one-fifth of manufacturing sector debt is for petroleum refining and related industries. High-carbon industries — power generation, chemicals, iron and steel, and aviation — account for 10% of outstanding debt to Indian financial institutions. However, these industries are also heavily indebted, and therefore have less financial capacity to respond to shocks and stresses. Suggestions for future: Planning It is great that India has a 2070 net zero target, but changes need to happen now for us to achieve this. Building renewables capacity and energy storage– electricity distribution companies need to allow for more rooftop solar installations even if it results in short-term economic losses for them. Investing in modernizing and building new wind energy projects will also speed up the transition. India needs $223 billion to meet 2030 renewable capacity goals Enacting more progressive policies — such as the $2.6 billion government scheme that encourages making components required to produce solar energy — and ensuring these policies are being implemented is essential to speed up a move toward renewables New laws such as the energy conservation bill as well as updated mandates issued by the federal government that make it necessary for electricity companies to purchase renewables provide hope Investment in new technology such as clean fuels like green hydrogen may improve battery storage for renewables to provide uninterrupted electricity Sovereign green bonds India is expected to launch its first-ever sovereign green bonds auction, with the Reserve Bank of India Way forward A report by the Global Energy Monitor ranks India among the top seven countries globally for prospective renewable power. At the end of the day what is needed is speeding up the installation of renewables and associated infrastructure Ultimately in India, renewable energy is a highly cost-effective technology. The perception that coal is cheap is changing Source: Indian express Baba’s Explainer – India’s UPI Push India’s UPI Push Syllabus GS-3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. GS-3: Science & Technology Context: On January 10, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) paved the way for international (phone) numbers to be able to transact using UPI. A day later, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved an incentive scheme for promotion of RuPay debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions (person-to-merchant) in FY 2022-23. The scheme has an outlay of Rs 2,600 crore. These measures could prove significant for the UPI-based payment ecosystem which has largely witnessed a sequential rise in the previous calendar year. Read Complete Details on India’s UPI Push Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Kelp forests’, consider the following statements Kelp forests are large brown plants that regulate the underwater ecosystem. Kelp can be used as binding agents in cosmetic products. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) An ‘Eklavya Model Residential School’ is responsibility of which of the following? Ministry of Tribal Affairs Ministry of Education NITI Aayog PM-STIAC Q.3) Consider the following: Proso Foxtail Ragi Kodo millet Which of the above are examples of Minor Millets? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only All of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - India’s UPI Push

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. GS-3: Science & Technology Context: On January 10, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) paved the way for international (phone) numbers to be able to transact using UPI. A day later, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved an incentive scheme for promotion of RuPay debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions (person-to-merchant) in FY 2022-23. The scheme has an outlay of Rs 2,600 crore. These measures could prove significant for the UPI-based payment ecosystem which has largely witnessed a sequential rise in the previous calendar year. What is UPI? Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a common platform through which a person can transfer money from his bank account to any other bank account in the country instantly using nothing but his/her UPI ID. It was launched in 2016 as Mobile First digital payments platform It enables immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365 days based on the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) platform so as to make cashless payments faster, easier and smoother. UPI is completely interoperable and as such, it is unique in the world, where you have an interoperable system on the ‘send’ and ‘receive’ side It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience. Developed by: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) under the guidance from RBI. NPCI, an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It is a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. According to the Reserve Bank of India’s Payment Vision 2025, UPI is expected to register an average annualised growth of 50 per cent How is it unique? Immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365 days. Single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts. Single Click 2 Factor Authentication – Aligned with the Regulatory guidelines, yet provides for a very strong feature of seamless single click payment. Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the customer not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc. QR Code Best answer to Cash on Delivery hassle, running to an ATM or rendering exact amount. Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments, QR Code (Scan and Pay) based payments. Donations, Collections, Disbursements Scalable. Raising Complaint from Mobile App directly. The popularity of UPI is evident — from tiny roadside shops to large brands, many merchants accept UPI-based payments. The primary reasons for this penetration are: UPI accepts transactions as small as one rupee and for merchants, the absence of Merchant Discount Rate that they have to pay to their banks that acts as a significant incentive to accept UPI payments. The presence of high-speed internet in many parts of the country, technologies that power a smartphone, cloud computing and modern software engineering technologies that fulfil a transaction in a few seconds. What are the benefits of UPI to the Ecosystem participants? For Banks Single click Two Factor authentication Universal Application for transaction Leveraging existing infrastructure Safer, Secured and Innovative Payment basis Single/ Unique Identifier Enable seamless merchant transactions For Merchants Seamless fund collection from customers – single identifiers No risk of storing customer’s virtual address like in Cards Tap customers not having credit/debit cards Suitable for e-Com & m-Com transaction Resolves the Cash On Delivery collection problem For Customers Round the clock availability Single Application for accessing different bank accounts Use of Virtual ID is more secure, no credential sharing Single click authentication Raise Complaint from Mobile App directly How is UPI placed in our overall payment ecosystem? As of January 17, 3,192.70 million transactions approximately worth Rs 5.52 lakh crore have been facilitated using UPI in the ongoing month, as per NPCI data. As per the DigiDhan dashboard maintained by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), BHIM-UPI accounted for 52% of all digital payments in FY 2021-22. At present, it stands at 61.38%. The Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets the user make digital transactions using the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). What is the significance of UPI? Convenience to All stakeholders: It created interoperability between all sources and recipients of funds (consumers, businesses, fintechs, wallets, 140 member banks). It allows for instant settlement in fiat money – Convenience to consumers and merchants. Promotes Formalisation and Digital Banking: UPI has now become the most dominant way to pay in the offline and online place especially for retail payments, and has thus helped in driving the digital banking. Move towards less-cash Economy: UPI manages to materially reduce the need for the public to deal in cash. If the demand for paper currency diminishes, banks would save on the logistics costs involved in safely storing and transporting paper currency and regularly refilling their ATMs. Increasing tax revenue: With digitalization, the market’s black money can be diminished, increasing compliance and increasing tax revenue. Strengthen Banking Health: UPI’s use prompts bank account holders to hold larger balances in their savings accounts, providing banks with a low-cost source of funds. Blunted data monopolies – Big tech payment firms have strong autonomy but weak fiduciary responsibilities over customer data. UPI which is based on open framework thus enables any new startup to easily launch their payment solution. Soft Power: It enables India to emerge as frontrunner in fintech & payment solutions across world. In 2020, Google requested the U.S. Federal Reserve to develop a solution similar to India’s UPI citing the thoughtful planning, design and implementation behind it. What about international on-boarding? In a nutshell, non-resident accounts such as non-resident external accounts (NRE) and non-resident ordinary accounts (NRO), having international numbers, will now be allowed into the UPI payment system. NPCI had allowed UPI transactions to and from NRO/NRE accounts linked to Indian numbers back in October 2018. NRE accounts are those used by non-residents to transfer earnings from foreign soil to India while NRO accounts are used to manage income earned in India by non-residents. At present, users from ten countries will be able to avail the facility— Singapore, Australia, Canada, Hong Kong, Oman, Qatar, the United States of America, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom and Hong Kong. More inclusions are likely in the future. All members of the interface, such as banks and payments platforms, have till April 30 to comply with the guidelines. The development would allow NRIs to use the payment method for making utility bill payments for their families (or themselves) in India, make purchases from e-commerce or online platforms and make payments to physical merchants who accept UPI QR based payments when they travel to India. Currently, all the internal systems as well as ecosystem players such as banks, NPCI, etc only understand India-based mobile numbers for UPI transactions. With this enablement, a significant number of systems will need to start understanding the same. This might also require changes in integration with SMS service providers and international telecom networks. What incentives are being offered? Under the scheme, acquiring banks will be given financial incentives for promoting point-of-sale and e-commerce transactions using RuPay debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions (person-to-merchant) for the ongoing financial year. Acquiring banks are those which install and manage apoint-of-sale terminal (or the hardware system required to process payments) at retail outlets. The issuing bank is responsible for issuing the card to the customer. This scheme has been formulated in compliance with Finance Minister’s FY 2022-23 budgetary endeavour to continue financial support for digital payments, focusing on promoting the use of payment platforms that are economical and user-friendly. The incentive scheme would reduce cash-carrying and storage risk. It would also eliminate the costs associated with small denomination notes and coins, among other things. What is the discussion on Merchant Discount Rate (MDR)? Merchant Discount Rate (MDR or Merchant Service Fee) is the charge recovered by the acquirer from the final recipient of the payment, that is, the merchant. It is collected by the acquirer to compensate the varied service providers and intermediaries in the payment system. Presently, there is no MDR levied for RuPay-based debit card and UPI transactions. Stakeholders are hence concerned over cost recovery for the services they provide. In August 2022, the Finance Ministry tweeted that it was not planning to levy any charges for UPI services, adding, “The concerns of the service providers for cost recovery have to be met through other means.” The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) expressed concerns about the potential adverse impact of the zero MDR regime on the growth of the digital payments’ ecosystem. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)requested the incentivisation of BHIM-UPI and RuPay debit card transactions to create “cost-effective value proposition for ecosystem stakeholders, increase merchant acceptance footprints and faster migration from cash payments to digital payments.” Ideally innovation needs to be sustained. There could be a staggered approach to pricing (slab wise/ depending on transaction size) and it could be significantly lower than MDR. Main Practice Question: Do you think international on-boarding for UPI is going to create more challenges than opportunities? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Open Market Sale Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently the Government of India has approved a proposal for the sale of 30 Lakh Metric Tonnes of wheat under the Open Market Sale Scheme. About the Open Market Scheme: It refers to selling of foodgrains by Government / Government agencies at predetermined prices in the open market from time to time. It aims to enhance the supply of grains especially during the lean season and thereby to moderate the general open market prices especially in the deficit regions. In addition to maintaining buffer stocks and making a provision for meeting the requirement of the Targeted Public Distribution Scheme and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS), Food Corporation of India (FCI) on the instructions from the Government, sells wheat and rice in the open market from time to time. For transparency in operations, the FCI has switched over to e- auction for sale under Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic). The FCI conducts a weekly auction to conduct this scheme in the open market using the platform of commodity exchange NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited). The State Governments/ Union Territory Administrations are also allowed to participate in the e-auction, if they require wheat and rice outside TPDS and OWS. The present form of OMSS comprises 3 schemes as under: Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction by dedicated movement. Sale of Raw Rice Grade ‘A’ to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. About Food Corporation of India: Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a Public Sector Undertaking, under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. FCI is a statutory body set up in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act 1964. It was established against the backdrop of major shortage of grains, especially wheat. Simultaneously, Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) was created in 1965 to recommend remunerative prices to farmers. It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs. FCI coordinates its functions through a country-wide network of offices with Headquarters at New Delhi with five Zonal Offices, twenty-five Regional Offices and 170 District Offices under its control. Source: NewsOnAir SC on Passive Euthanasia Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Supreme Court has relaxed the guidelines for ‘advance medical directive’ that it issued in its 2018 judgment by which it had legalised passive euthanasia under certain circumstances. There is a long legal history to the matter. About Euthanasia: Greek words: The term Euthanasia comes from two Ancient Greek words: ‘Eu’ means ‘Good’, and ‘thantos’ means ‘death’, so Euthanasia means good death. Euthanasia can be also divided into two types according to means of death. Active Euthanasia: It is also known as ‘Positive Euthanasia’ or ‘Aggressive Euthanasia’. It refers to causing intentional death of a human being by direct intervention. For example, by giving lethal doses of a drug or by giving a lethal injection. Active euthanasia is usually a quicker means of causing death and all forms of active euthanasia are illegal. Passive Euthanasia: It is also known as ‘Negative Euthanasia’ or ‘Non-Aggressive Euthanasia’. It is intentionally causing death by not providing essential, necessary and ordinary care or food and water. It implies discontinuing, withdrawing or removing artificial life support systems. Passive euthanasia is usually slower and more uncomfortable than active. Most forms of voluntary, passive and some instances of non-voluntary, passive euthanasia are legal. New guidelines:   Living will: 2018 guideline: It will be in the custody of the district court concerned. New guideline: It will be a part of the national health digital record which can be accessed by hospitals and doctors from any part of the country. Primary board: 2018 guideline: The primary board should comprise at least four experts from the fields of general medicine, cardiology, neurology, nephrology, psychiatry or oncology — with overall standing in the profession for at least 20 years. New guideline: Team of three doctors, including the treating physician and two other doctors with five years of experience in the concerned specialty will comprise the primary board. Time limit for Primary board: 2018 guideline: No time limit specified. New guideline: Board will preferably decide within 48 hours on the withdrawal of further treatment. Secondary medical board: 2018 guideline: The district collector concerned had to constitute the second board of medical experts. New guideline: If the primary medical board certifies that the treatment should be withdrawn in terms of the instructions contained in the living will, the hospital shall immediately constitute a secondary medical board. It comprising of a doctor nominated by the chief medical officer of the district concerned and two subject experts of the relevant specialty with minimum five years’ standing who were not part of the primary board. Time limit for Secondary medical board: 2018 guideline: There was no timeline specified secondary medical board in the 2018 judgment New guideline: Board will also decide preferably within 48 hours. They may also need to reflect on the conditions or consult others. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 BharOS mobile operating system Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Developed by an IIT Madras-incubated startup, BharOS is being pitched as India’s answer to the Google-owned Android and Apple’s iOS, the two most dominant mobile operating systems in the world. About BharOS: BharOS is an Android Open Source Project and was developed by JandK Operations Private Limited (JandKops), a non-profit organisation incubated at IIT Madras. The project aims to reduce the dependence on foreign OS in smartphones and promote the use of locally developed technology. Funded by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), the indigenous mobile operating system wants to cater to the approximately 100 crore mobile phone users in India. Union Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Minister along with Minister for Railways, Communications, Electronics and Information Technology successfully tested the ‘BharOS’, a Made In India mobile operating system developed by IIT Madras. What sets BharOS apart from Android, is that it is free from Google Services and Apps. Google has used its preinstalled apps and services to collect data, sometimes without explicitly asking a user. Similarly, other apps from Google’s Play Store share data with third-party services. BharOS does not come with any such preinstalled services or apps, and hence, is deemed to be more secure. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements: SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Prime Minister Employment Generation Program (PMEGP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Chairman, Khadi and Village Industries Commission recently released  margin money grant of Rs 100.29 crore to 3223 beneficiaries of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand under the Prime Minister Employment Generation Program (PMEGP) implemented by KVIC in Varanasi. About Prime Minister Employment Generation Program (PMEGP): The Government of India approved the introduction of a credit linked subsidy programme called Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) in 2008 for generation of employment opportunities through establishment of micro enterprises in rural as well as urban areas. It allows entrepreneurs to set up factories or units. It is a central sector scheme being administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME). Implementing Agency at the National Level: Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) – a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME. Eligibility Criteria: Any individual, above 18 years of age. Only new projects/units are considered for sanction of loans. Self-help groups that have not availed benefits under any other public scheme, societies, production co-operative societies, and charitable trusts. Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible: Manufacturing Sector: 50 lakh Service Sector: 20 lakh Government Subsidy: Rural Areas: 25% for general category and 35% for special category, which includes SC/ST/OBC/Minorities, NER, Hill and Border Areas, transgender, physically disabled, north eastern region, aspirational and border district applicants. Urban Areas: 15% for general category and 25% for special category. Loans are provided by Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks and Private Scheduled Commercial Banks approved by respective State Task Force Committee. About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC): The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body formed in April 1957 (During 2nd Five Year plan) by the Government of India, under the ‘Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956’. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, about khadi and village industries within India. The commission has three main objectives: The Social Objective – Employing in rural areas The Economic Objective – Providing saleable articles The Wider Objective – Creating self-reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit. KVIC implements the following schemes: Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP). Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC) Scheme. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Immune Imprinting Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Over the years, scientists have realised that imprinting acts as a database for the immune system, helping it put up a better response to repeat infections. About Immune Imprinting: Immune imprinting is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant it encountered through infection or vaccination — when it comes across a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen. The phenomenon was first observed in 1947, when scientists noted that “People who had previously had flu, and were then vaccinated against the current circulating strain, produced antibodies against the first strain they had encountered”, according to a report published in the journal Nature. At the time, it was termed the ‘original antigenic sin’ but today, it’s commonly known as imprinting. Working : After our body is exposed to a virus for the first time, it produces memory B cells that circulate in the bloodstream and quickly produce antibodies whenever the same strain of the virus infects again. Issue associated with Imprinting: The problem occurs when a similar, not identical, variant of the virus is encountered by the body. In such cases, the immune system, rather than generating new B cells, activates memory B cells, which in turn produce antibodies that bind to features found in both the old and new strains, known as cross-reactive antibodies. Although these cross-reactive antibodies do offer some protection against the new strain, they aren’t as effective as the ones produced by the B cells when the body first came across the original virus. Ways to deal with Immune Imprinting: Nasal vaccines: Some scientists have said nasal vaccines might be better at preventing infections than injected ones. They believe the mucous membranes would create stronger protection, despite carrying some imprint of past exposure. Spacing vaccine shots: Researchers are also trying to find if spacing out coronavirus vaccine shots on an annual basis, could help with the problem of imprinting. Pan-sarbecovirus vaccines: There’s also considerable effort directed toward developing what’s called pan-sarbecovirus vaccines that will protect against all COVID-causing variants and maybe even protect against other SARS and related viruses. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ? (2022) They protect the body from environmental allergens. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Ken-Betwa river link project Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Environment Context: Recently, Steering Committee of the Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) held its third meeting in New Delhi. About the project: The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Ken, to be built within the Panna Tiger Reserve. The dam will generate 103MW of hydroelectric power. In phase-I, the Daudhan Dam complex and its subsidiary units such as the Low-Level Tunnel, High-Level Tunnel, Ken-Betwa Link Canal, and powerhouses will be completed. Construction of the Lower Orr Dam, Bina Complex Project, and Kotha Barrage will be progressed in phase II of the project. Significance of the Project: With this project, the government aims to benefit the water-starved Bundelkhand region, spread to several other districts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. The project is expected to boost socio-economic prosperity in the backward region of Bundelkhand, on account of increased agricultural activities and employment. Concern about the project: May incur an estimated loss of 58.03 square kilometres (10.07 per cent) of critical tiger habitat (CTH) in the reserve. An indirect loss of 105.23 sq km of CTH because of habitat fragmentation and loss of connectivity due to submergence. High reservoir-dam on the Ken River in the Panna National Park will impact ecology of important tiger reserve and its habitat. It has high chances of getting drowned if project gets completed. On the downstream of Panna national park lies the Ken Gharial Sanctuary which will severely impact critically endangered Gangetic gharial (Gavialis gangeticus). Standing Committee of the NBWL has not considered the impact of the project on the gharial sanctuary. Project has not received full forest clearance and its environment approval is pending before the National Green Tribunal (NGT). Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs        :                States Ghataprabha :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon :             Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair only Only two pairs only Only three pairs All four pairs Buddhist monastery complex at Bharatpur of Bengal Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: In the recent excavations, the Structural Complex of the Buddhist Monastery was found in the continuation of large Stupa, Black and Red ware pottery, and Sculptures discovered from excavation done 50 years ago at the same site in West Bengal. About Buddhist Monastery: A monastery is a community of men or women (monks or nuns), who have chosen to withdraw from society, forming a new community devoted to religious practice. The word monk comes from the Greek word monos, which means alone. Buddhism, the first Indian religion to require large communal and monastic spaces, inspired three types of architecture. Stupa, vihara and chaitya are part of Buddhist and Jaina monastic complexes but the largest number belongs to the Buddhist religion. Significance of the excavations: The site was initially excavated fifty years ago between 1972 and 1975 when archaeologists from ASI found a Buddhist Stupa at the site. Excavations can help in finding the spread of Buddhism in the South West Bengal region. The discovery is also significant since black and red ware pottery from the chalcolithic age makes the village settlement on river Damodar possible. The complex makes the site religious while the settlement makes the site secular in nature. The stupa found is large compared to stupas found from other Buddhist sites in the state like Karnasubarna in Murshidabad, Moghalamari in Paschim Medinipur, and Jagjivanpur in Malda where smaller votive stupas were found. Viharas: It was the ancient Indian term for a Buddhist monastery. Originally, viharas were dwelling places used by wandering monks during the rainy season but eventually they evolved into centers of learning and Buddhist architecture through the donations of wealthy lay Buddhists. Life in “Viharas” was codified early on. It is the object of a part of the Pali canon, the Vinaya Pitaka or “basket of monastic discipline.” Typical large sites such as the Ajanta Caves, Aurangabad Caves, Karli Caves, and Kanheri Caves contain several viharas. A rock-cut viharas at Ellora is an example of vihara. Chaityas: It refers to a shrine, sanctuary, temple or prayer hall in Indian religions. Most early examples of chaitya that survive are Indian rock-cut architecture Chaityas have a gigantic hall with high vaulted roof, with a lot of sculpture work on the pillars and the entrance The largest Chaitya-Griha among all Buddhist monuments in India is the Karle caves. Many Chaityas show a stupa at the back. Chaityas were carved either as rectangular halls or apsidal vault-roof or apsidal vault pillarless halls. Stupa Architecture : The central structure consists of a hemispherical dome on a base, with a relic chamber deep within. The dome symbolizes, among other things, the dome of heaven enclosing the earth. It is surmounted by a squared railing (harmika) that can be said to represent the world mountain. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person                           Known as Aryadeva                            Jaina scholar Dignaga                             Buddhist scholar Nathamuni                       Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? None of the pairs Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs Q.2) Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelising water into connected reservoirs? (2021) Dholavira Kalibangan Rakhigarhi Ropar Aspirational Blocks Programme Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently during the Second National Conference of Chief Secretaries, the Prime Minister launched the Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP). This transformational programme focuses on improving governance to enhance the quality of life of citizens in the most difficult and underdeveloped blocks of India by converging existing schemes, defining outcomes, and monitoring them on a constant basis. About Aspirational Blocks Programme: An inter-ministerial committee in consultation with states had identified 500 blocks from across 28 states and four Union territories. In each of them, the ABP will focus on monitoring 15 key socio-economic indicators (KSIs) categorised under major sectors namely:- Health and nutrition Education Agriculture and water resources, Financial inclusion and skill development Basic infrastructure Social development. These themes were selected for facilitating holistic development of every block with states having the flexibility to include additional state-specific KSIs to address local challenges. The KSIs will be tracked on a real-time basis and periodic rankings will be released across key thematic areas to foster a healthy and dynamic competition among the blocks to encourage data-driven governance. Objectives of Programme: The ABP aims to address the inequalities by improving governance and last mile service delivery at the block level. As key drivers of this initiative, states are expected to guide, support, review and build capacity of relevant officers to drive progress under this programme. Under the leadership of the district administration, the officers at the block level will improve critical last mile service delivery. They will focus on improving the infrastructure at the block level to aid social welfare development. Several departments of the block administration will converge and work in union to bridge critical administrative gaps and sustain these developments and improvements for a long period of time. It also provides a common platform for all block administrations to showcase their best practices and learnings. The ABP is built on the success of the government’s flagship Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) launched in 2018 across 112 under-developed districts of India. Significance of Blocks or Development Blocks: The focus on blocks echoes the historic importance of blocks or development blocks introduced in 1952 to provide for a substantial increase in the country’s agricultural programme, and for improvements in systems of communication, in rural health and hygiene, and in rural education. Development blocks ensure that a larger than proportionate share of development reaches the marginalised and vulnerable sections of the population by building social and economic infrastructure. As an administrative and monitoring unit, the block ensures that a “one-size-fits-all” approach is not applied to every part of the country. Instead, the block administration can adopt customised approaches towards improving socioeconomic indicators based on the context of the region and the most emergent needs. Case study: For example, Paschimi Singbhum, a district in Jharkhand and a left-wing extremism-affected area, has raised registration of pregnant women within the first trimester from just 39 per cent in 2018 to 91 per cent in 2022. Districts such as Gumla in Jharkhand, Karauli in Rajasthan, Namsai in Arunachal Pradesh, and Dhalai in Tripura have increased the percentage of institutional deliveries from around 40 per cent to more than 90 per cent. Kupwara in Jammu and Kashmir has increased the percentage of secondary schools with functional electricity from less than 50 percent in 2018 to more than 95 per cent in 2022. Districts like Dhenkanal in Odisha, where less than 50 per cent children were immunised up until 2018, have now gone beyond the 90 per cent immunisation rate. The Finance Minister in her Union Budget speech of 2022 mentioned that 95 per cent of 112 aspirational districts have made significant progress in major indicators such as health, nutrition, financial inclusion, and skill development. However, she also highlighted that some blocks continue to under-perform. The reasons for this can be multi-layered i.e. difficult terrain, lack of resources, historical injustice, social marginalisation and community vulnerability, among others. Way Forward: ABP will aid the achievement of critical targets identified under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and enable the blocks to contribute to India’s GDP. The programme strives to protect the rights and uphold the dignity of every single citizen by increasing their awareness and enhancing access to government schemes. A “viksit” block is the foundation for a “viksit” Bharat. This forward-looking programme will leverage the three Cs of convergence, collaboration, and competition to achieve this vision. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Open Market Sale Scheme: It refers to selling of foodgrains by Government / Government agencies at predetermined prices in the open market from time to time. For transparency in operations, the FCI has switched over to e- auction for sale under Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Food Corporation of India: FCI is a statutory body set up in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act 1964. It is a Public Sector Undertaking, under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. FCI coordinates its functions through a country-wide network of offices with Headquarters at Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) The Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme is being administered under Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Ministry of Finance Prime Minister’s Office Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Aravalli Safari Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: Aravalli safari park project proposed by Haryana Chief Minister which will affect the ecosystem of Aravallis region. In April 2022, Chief Minister of Haryana proposed 10,000-acre Aravalli safari park project As per Aravalli Bachao Citizens, this will affect the natural habitats, increase waste generation and destroy the region’s fragile ecosystem. About Aravalli Mountain range: It is located in the north-western part of India. It is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. It is divided into two sections: The Sambhar-Sirohi ranges: It is taller and includes Guru Peak on Mount Abu (the highest peak in the Aravalli Range). The Sambhar-Khetri ranges: It consisting of three ridges that are discontinuous. Several rivers are originated from Aravalli range such as the Banas, Luni, Sakhi, and Sabarma It’s passes through states such as Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi. Its average height is from 600 to 900 m. Significance of Aravalli Mountain range: They act as a barrier to cloud to shift eastwards to the lower Himalayas thus contributing to the climate of north India as well. Protects the plains from the effect of westerly flowing from the Central Asia region. Its responsible for adequate monsoon rainfall and therefore sustaining a plethora of diverse flora fauna, rich biodiversity, livelihood and agriculture in the constituent states. A greener Aravalli acts as a groundwater recharge for the region facing acute water scarcity. It plays a major role in affecting the local climate and directing economic activities, leveraging geographical and environmental resources and biodiversity profiles of the region. The key concerns regarding the proposed project: Increase in human footfall and vehicular traffic will affect fauna of the area; It will disturb the aquifers under the Aravalli hills that are critical reserves for the water-starved districts; The location of safari park is in water-scarce region and Location of Aravalli safari park project falls under the category of ‘forest’ according to orders by the Supreme Court and protected under the Forest Conservation Act. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Peak                                          Mountains Namcha Barwa                   Garhwal Himalaya Nanda Devi                         Kumaon Himalaya Nokrek                                 Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. Norovirus Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Kerala Health Department confirmed two cases of the gastrointestinal infection norovirus. About Norovirus: Norovirus is a very contagious virus that causes vomiting and diarrhea. Norovirus, also called the “winter vomiting bug”, is a stomach bug that causes vomiting and diarrhoea. However, norovirus illness is not related to the flu which is caused by influenza virus. It is an RNA virus of the family Caliciviridae. It is a human enteric pathogen that causes substantial morbidity across both health care and community settings. People of all ages can get infected and sick with norovirus. A 2022 study says that norovirus infections are more frequently detected in high income countries, with almost 40% cases being seen in long-term care facilities. In contrast, the cases in India have mostly been detected in settings like schools and hostels, where people share food. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? They protect the body from environmental allergens They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2) Consider the following: Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Param Vir Chakra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, Prime Minister named 21 islands in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands after recipients of Param Vir Chakra. About Param Vir Chakra: It is the highest wartime gallantry award in India. It is granted for “most conspicuous bravery in the presence of the enemy”. The first recipient was Major Somnath Sharma for his actions in the 1947-48 India-Pakistan War. The last recipient was Captain Vikram Batra for actions in the Kargil War in 1999. Till now it has been granted to 21 armed forces personnel. Most of the Param Vir Chakras were granted posthumously as they made the supreme sacrifice in the line of duty. It was designed by Savitri Khanolkar, a Swiss national whose real name was Eve Yvonne Maday de Maros. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 British Broadcasting Corporation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) has recently been facing soe heat after the release of its documentary ‘India: The Modi Question’, with the Indian government calling the film a “propaganda piece” and accusing the broadcaster of having a “colonial mindset”. About British Broadcasting Corporation: Founded on October 18, 1922, the BBC was earlier a private corporation, known as the British Broadcasting Company, in which only British manufacturers were allowed to hold shares. In 1926, a parliament committee recommended that the private company should be replaced by a public, Crown-chartered organisation, the British Broadcasting Corporation. This made the company ultimately answerable to Parliament but it continued to enjoy independence regarding its activities. Till now, the BBC operates under the Royal Charter. The charter has to be renewed every 10 years and the current one will run until December 31, 2027. Till 2017, the company was regulated by the BBC Trust, its executive board, and a government-approved regulatory authority, called Ofcam. The trust was abolished and a BBC Board was set up to govern the company. Ofcam was given the sole responsibility of regulating it. Source: Indian Express Agriculture Insurance Company of India (AIC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Agriculture Insurance Company of India (AIC) has recently released compensation for damage of kharif crops of 2021 after paying claims under the Prime Minister’s Fasal Bima Yojana. About Agriculture Insurance Company of India (AIC): It is central public sector undertaking under the ownership of Ministry of Finance. It was incorporated under Indian Companies Act 1956, in 2002. AIC has taken over the implementation of National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) which, until FY 2002-03 was implemented by General Insurance Corporation of India. In addition, AIC also transacts other insurance businesses directly or indirectly concerning agriculture and its allied activities. Promoters (Share Holding): General Insurance Corporation of India – 35 % National Bank for Agriculture And Rural Development (NABARD) – 30 % National Insurance Company Limited – 8.75 % The New India Assurance Company Limited – 8.75 % The Oriental Insurance Company Limited – 8.75 % United India Insurance Company Limited – 8.75 % Headquarters: New Delhi National Agricultural Insurance Scheme National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) was introduced by the Government of India to provide insurance coverage and financial subsidy to the farmers in the event of crop losses suffered on account of natural calamities, pests and diseases. This scheme aims to help stabilise farm incomes, particularly in disaster years. About Prime Minister’s Fasal Bima Yojana: Launched in 2016, the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a large-scale crop subsidy insurance scheme that was aimed to safeguard farmers. This flagship scheme was designed in line with the ‘One Nation, One Crop, One Premium and replaces three older initiatives—Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS), Weather-based Crop Insurance Scheme and the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS)—by incorporating their best features and removing inherent shortcomings to improve insurance services available to farmers. This scheme is being administered by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture, along with empanelled general insurance companies. Source: The Hindu Water Hyacinth Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: An artificial lake in Madhya Pradesh’s Shivpuri district has virtually disappeared under a thick layer of an invasive aquatic plant, threatening the biodiversity of the water body. Water hyacinth Water hyacinth (Pontederia crassipes) is an invasive species native to South Africa. The plant has naturalised itself in many other parts of the world. While the plant has some uses too, when it covers the entire surface of a water body, it becomes a threat to aquatic biodiversity. Macrophytes like water hyacinth can’t be outrightly placed in a harmful or useful category Water hyacinth acts as a water purifier by removing heavy metals from water when present in small quantities. However, the plant is a prolific spreader and when it covers the entire surface of a water body, it does not allow sunlight to penetrate the water and also starts depleting oxygen. This leads to death of aquatic animals and plants, which in turn decompose and further reduce oxygen levels The presence of water hyacinth indicates that there are high nitrogen levels in the water It is a symptom of an underlying problem and how the water nutrients behave. It also indicates a lack of effective competing factors to prevent its growth. The Sankhya Sagar It was declared a Ramsar site in July 2022. The lake spreads across 248 hectares (612.82 acres) with a catchment of 37,522 ha and helps maintain the ecological balance of the Madhav National Park. As a Ramsar site, it is a wetland site designated internationally important by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization. Sankhya Sagar supports significant populations of 19 indigenous fish species, which spawn and breed in its habitat The water body has a mix of riverine and palustrine (marsh) habitat fish populations, making them critical to maintaining the overall biodiversity of the region. The fish species, in turn, support the population of piscivorous (fish-eating) birds. Waterfowls are also present here in large numbers. The lake is home to 73 species of birds and welcomes migratory birds during winter. The lake is also home to marsh crocodiles aka ‘Mugger’ (Crocodylus palustris) is a Schedule I reptilian species protected under the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The reptiles were introduced in Jadhav Sagar in 1987 by the Madras Crocodile Bank. The northern side of the water body is a hilly area and several minor drains join it. The Maniyar river connects the Sankhya Sagar to another lake, Jadhav Sagar, which passes through the national park. The lake’s western side is downstream and has a dam line — a barrier to control water levels. The water flows through the spillway towards another waterbody, the Madhav Sagar lake. Both Jadhav Sagar and Madhav Sagar are also covered in water hyacinths. Sankhya Sagar falls under the forest department and can only be cleaned with the efforts of the director of Madhav National Park. Source DTE Previous Year Questions Q1) Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area? (2012) Global warming Fragmentation of habitat Invasion of alien species Promotion of vegetarianism Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ajmer Sharif Dargah Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture In News: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has handed over Chadar which would be offered on the Urs of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti at the Ajmer Sharif Dargah. Ajmer sharif dargah It is a Sufi tomb (dargah) of the revered Sufi saint, Moinuddin Chishti, located at Ajmer, Rajasthan, India. The shrine has Chishti’s grave (Maqbara). All the member of committee of Dargah alknown as “Khadims” Moinuddin Chishti was a 13th-century Sufi saint and philosopher. during the reign of the Sultan Iltutmish The white marble dome of Chishti’s shrine, as seen today, was built in 1532. It is an example of Indo-Islamic architecture and the dome features a lotus and a crown of gold, donated by Rampur’s Nawab Haider Ali Khan. The dargah has a royal darbar, Mehfil Khana, that was constructed in 1888. The complex also has a Langar Khana and a Mahfil Khana The Jhalara is a natural tank of water that is used by pilgrims The Jannati Darwaza is a door made of silver that is used only on rare occasions. It is also referred to as the Bihisti Darwaza. The death anniversary of Moinuddin Chishti is called the Urs Sharif festival Sources: Newsonair The Directorate General of Civil Aviation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has imposed a penalty of 10 lakh rupees on Air India for not reporting unruly behaviour of two passengers during the Paris to New Delhi flight on 6th December,  2022. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) About: It is the statutory and regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues and to regulate civil aviation in India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation The headquarters are located in New Delhi with regional offices in the various parts of India. Functions It is responsible for formulation of national policies and programmes for the development and regulation of the Civil Aviation sector in the country. It is responsible for regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. It also co-ordinates all regulatory functions with International Civil Aviation Organisation. The DGCA investigates aviation accidents and incidents, maintains all regulations related to aviation and is responsible for issuance of licenses. Keeping a check on aircraft noise and engine emissions in accordance with ICAO Annex 16 and collaborating with the environmental authorities in this matter, if required. Approving training programmes of operators for carriage of dangerous goods, issuing authorizations for carriage of dangerous goods, etc. Source: Newsonair Bhoj Wetland Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Madhya Pradesh Pollution Control Board (MPPCB) to periodically monitor the activities of a cruise vessel polluting the Bhoj wetland in Bhopal, MP. A mid-sized cruise vessel can consume 150 tonnes of fuel each day and dump toxic waste in water Bhoj Wetland It is located around Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh The wetland is also a Ramsar site with international importance. It has two lakes, Upper lake, also called Bhojtal and Lower Lake or Chhota Talaab. It provides drinking water to 1.2 million people, Pandey highlighted during the January 10 hearing. Upper lake hosts 15 varieties of fish and turtles About 2,500 migratory birds across the world visit the wetland that serves as a breeding and nesting habitat for them. Bhoj wetland has become a near-natural ecosystem in the 900 years since it was first conceived by a visionary king. Paramara Raja Bhoj (1005-1055 CE), the benefactor-ruler of Malwa, after whom the state capital Bhopal is also named, had the lake built by raising an earthen dam across the Kolans. The Bhoj wetland is among the most accessible Ramsar site, with a road going all around the twin lakes. Wetlands Wetlands are areas where water covers the soil, or is present either at or near the surface of the soil all year or for varying periods of time during the year, including during the growing season. Water saturation (hydrology) largely determines how the soil develops and the types of plant and animal communities living in and on the soil. Wetlands provide a wide range of important resources and ecosystem services such as food, water, fibre, groundwater recharge, water purification, flood moderation, erosion control and climate regulation. They are, in fact, are a major source of water and our main supply of freshwater comes from an array of wetlands which help soak rainfall and recharge groundwater. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                                    Location Hokera Wetland                        Punjab Renuka Wetland                   Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                       Tripura Sasthamkotta Lake                 Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Development of Sustainable Urban Infrastructure Open in new window Syllabus Mains – G S 2 (Governance) Context: A report by the World Bank, released last year, on financing India’s urban infrastructure needs, focuses on private investments ameliorating urban problems. About Urbanization: Urbanisation is the increase in the proportion of people living in towns and cities. Urbanisation occurs because people move from rural areas to urban areas (towns and cities). This usually occurs when a country is still developing. Employment Factor: In India, people have been attracted to move from rural to urban areas on account of improved employment opportunities. India is home to 11% of the total global urban population. From a population of 377 million in 2011, Indian cities are projected to house 870 million people by 2050, according to the UN’s projections which is by far the highest among all nations. Delhi is likely to become the world’s most populous urban agglomeration by 2030, surpassing Tokyo. Funding patterns for Urban Development: Urban finance predominantly comes from the government in India. Of the finances needed to fund urban capital expenditures, 48%, 24% and 15% are derived from the central, State, and city governments, respectively. Public–private partnership projects contribute 3% and commercial debt 2%. The flagship programmes of the government, the Smart City mission, the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY),, are not more than Rs. 2 lakh crore (that too for a period of five years). Highlights of the report: The World Bank estimates that nearly $840 billion (Rs. 70 lakh crore) would be needed for investment in urban India to meet the growing demands of the population, and $55 billion would be required annually. Revenue by Cities: This report already points out that nearly 85% of government revenue is from the cities. This means that urban citizens are contributing large revenues even as the World Bank report emphasises the levying of more burdens in the form of user charges on utilities, etc. Other reports: Isher Judge Ahluwalia’s report says that by 2030, nearly Rs. 39.2 lakh crore would be required. Likewise, the 11th Plan puts forth estimates of Rs. 1,29,337 crore for four basic services, Rs. 1,32,590 crore for urban transport and Rs. 1,32,590 crore for housing. Challenges faced by Urban Cities in India: Poor Water Supply and Waste Management: Water supply is unreliable and irregular among major cities. Mountains of solid waste sit on the fringes of our cities. Poor drainage, congested roads and deteriorating air quality are other challenges. Affordable Housing: Inadequate affordable housing has meant that almost one-sixth of the urban population lives in slums. Issues of Urban Slums: Urban Slums are subject to insecure land tenure, lack of access to basic minimum civic services such as safe drinking water, sanitation, storm drainage, solid waste management, internal and approach roads, street lighting, education and health care, and poor quality of shelter. Poor Urban Planning: The existing urban planning and governance framework is complex, which often leads to ambiguity and a lack of accountability. City planning has become a highly technocratic exercise with long delays and there is a need for the demystification of the master plans. Funding: More sources for funding are required like resources other than the public budget need to be tapped. High prices will make services unaffordable. Migrant Crisis: Urban dwellers are ignored and unable to live, work and play safely and happily. An urbanisation policy needs to take cognisance of future mobility patterns. Lack of Coordination: Lack of synergy between urban and rural planning and development. The ‘State Town and country planning acts need to be revisited to harmonise the two. Connectivity and Congestion: Congestion and delays in both passenger and commercial traffic are widespread in Indian cities. Government of India Initiatives: Smart Cities Mission: The Smart Cities Mission is a major urban renewal program launched by the Government to develop and upgrade living conditions and infrastructure in selected 100 cities all over the country. Objective of the programme is to modernize cities by providing core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of ‘Smart’ Solutions. Ministry of Urban Development is the anchoring agency for the implementation of the project. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) Project: Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) along with smart cities were jointly planned and launched by the government to transform urban living conditions through infrastructure up gradation. AMRUT is aimed at transforming 500 cities and towns into efficient urban living spaces over a period of five years. Ministry of Urban Development has selected the five hundred cities with the help of state governments. Suggestive Measures: Bottom-up planning: For the urban context, plans must be made from below by engaging with the people and identifying their needs. Empowering the city governments: National task force chaired by K.C. Sivaramakrishnan suggested the following: Empowering the people and Transferring subjects to the city governments, suggesting that 10% of the income-tax collected from cities be given back to them and Ensuring that this corpus fund was utilised only for infrastructure building. This would ensure that city governments had an advantage in ensuring rapid transformation. Urban governance with regular elections: Another important aspect of urban infrastructure is linked to urban governance, which is in shambles in most parts of the country. Regular elections should be held in cities and there must be empowerment through the transferring of the three Fs: finances, functions, and functionaries. Steps for Enhancing the Role of the Private Sector: These include the adoption of fair processes for procuring technical consultancy services, strengthening project structuring and management skills in the public sector, and empanelment of private sector consultancies. Clarity and expertise are need of the hour: There is a need to bring in more institutional clarity and also multi-disciplinary expertise to solve urban challenges. The key aspects that would need to be addressed in this effort are: Clear division of the roles and responsibilities of various authorities, appropriate revision of rules and regulations, etc. Creation of a more dynamic organizational structure, Standardisation of the job descriptions of town planners and other experts, Extensive adoption of technology for enabling public participation and inter-agency coordination. World Banks’s Suggestions: The solutions suggested include improving the fiscal base and creditworthiness of the Indian cities. Cities must institute a buoyant revenue base and be able to recover the cost of providing its services. In simpler terms, it means increasing property taxes, user fees and service charges to name a few. Source: The Hindu Sexual Harassment at Workplace Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Women Empowerment Context: Several top Haryana-based World and Olympic medallist wrestlers, including Vinesh Phogat, Bajrang Punia and Sakshi Malik, began a protest in Delhi, alleging sexual harassment of young wrestlers by Mr. Singh and financial misappropriation by the WFI. Union Sports Minister announced that six-time World champion and Olympic medallist boxer M.C. Mary Kom will head a government-appointed five-member Oversight Committee (IOA panel) to investigate the charges levelled by some prominent wrestlers against Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) president Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh. Definition of Sexual harassment As per Sexual Harassment of Women in the Workplace Act 2013, “sexual harassment” includes any one or more of the following unwelcome acts or behaviour physical contact and advances; or a demand or request for sexual favours; or making sexually coloured remarks; or showing pornography; or any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature; Additionally, the Act mentions five circumstances that amount to sexual harassment —promise of preferential treatment in her employment, threat of detrimental treatment, threat about her present or future employment status, interference with her work or creating an offensive or hostile work environment and humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety. Vishaka guidelines These were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment in 1997. This was on a case filed by women’s rights groups, one of which was Vishaka. They had filed a public interest litigation over the alleged gang-rape of Bhanwari Devi, a social worker from Rajasthan. In 1992, she had prevented the marriage of a one-year-old girl, leading to the alleged gang-rape in an act of revenge. Legally binding, these defined sexual harassment and imposed three key obligations on institutions — prohibition, prevention, redress. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act It was passed in 2013. It defines sexual harassment, lays down the procedures for a complaint and inquiry, and the action to be taken. It broadens the Vishaka guidelines as follows: It mandates that every employer constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. It lays down procedures and defines various aspects of sexual harassment, including aggrieved victim — a woman “of any age whether employed or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”, which means the rights of all women working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity, are protected under the Act. Procedure for complaint The Act says the aggrieved victim “may” make, in writing, a complaint of sexual harassment. If she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her for making the complaint in writing. The complaint of sexual harassment has to be made “within three months from the date of the incident Section 10 of the Act deals with conciliation – The ICC “may”, before inquiry, and “at the request of the aggrieved woman, take steps to settle the matter between her and the respondent though conciliation” — provided that “no monetary settlement shall be made as a basis of conciliation”. After the recommendations, the aggrieved woman or the respondent can appeal in court within 90 days Section 14 of the Act deals with punishment for false or malicious complaint and false evidence. The Act, however, makes it clear, that action cannot be taken for “mere inability” to “substantiate the complaint or provide adequate proof”. Priya Ramani case In February 2021, a trial court acquitted Priya Ramani in the criminal defamation case filed by her former boss and editor-turned-politician, MJ Akbar for accusing him of sexual harassment during the #MeToo movement in 2018. Judge Ravindra Kumar Pandey made significant observations in the judgment – the woman cannot be punished for raising voice” as the “right of reputation cannot be protected at the cost of the right of life and dignity of a woman Suggestions for future: IOA panel formed to probe the allegations of sexual misconduct, harassment and intimidation, financial irregularities and administrative lapses – Mary Kom heads the IOA panel as well. Attitudinal shift – Organisations must take institutional responsibility for an attitudinal shift. Institutional accountability requires employers to institute a Complaint Mechanism and a Complaints Committee as per Vishakha guidelines, reiterating the importance of its independence by having an external member, conversant with the issue of sexual harassment. Role of judiciary – the Supreme Court of India in Medha Kotwal Lele and ors. Vs. Union of India recognised that “women still struggle to have their most basic rights protected at workplaces” The Medha Kotwal judgment accepted that a woman has reasonable grounds to believe that her objection would disadvantage her at work or create a hostile work environment. Regulatory framework –  Sexual harassment has been brought under the ambit of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which is an important step in understanding the gravity of its impact on women. A significant amendment to the Indian Evidence Act of 1872, stated that where the question of consent is an issue, “evidence of the character of the victim or previous sexual experience shall not be relevant”. This amendment would necessitate a transformational change in how survivors are treated in court, emphasising the need to stop re-victimisation. Way forward Despite these watershed moments in our legal history that demand a cultural shift in the treatment of survivors, they continue to fear for their physical safety, their job security and their mental health for rejecting an unwelcome sexual advance or reporting it. Evidence shows that due processes meant to protect survivors and help them access justice, leave survivors feeling betrayed. Shifting blame on the survivor or making veiled accusations during the inquiry process coerces them into silence and unjustifiably puts the burden of proof back on the victim. As Ramani expressed upon her acquittal in the defamation suit against her, that despite being a victim of sexual harassment, she had to stand in Court as the accused. Source The Hindu Baba’s Explainer – Domestic Workers Domestic Workers Syllabus GS -2: Issues relating to development and management of Human Resouces GS-3: Economy & Development Context: Despite offering necessary services, domestic workers lack access to rights and protection. They are also susceptible to harassment, assault, and restrictions on their freedom of movement. The informality in this sector is due to implementation issues and loopholes in national labour and social security laws. Read Complete Details on Domestic Workers Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Water hyacinth’, consider the following statements It acts as a water purifier by removing heavy metals from the water. It indicates presence of high levels of oxygen in the water Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, The Ajmer Sharif Dargah has a tomb of which of the following Sufi saints? Khwaja Pir Mohammad Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti Nizam-ud-din Auliya Baba Farid. Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Aravali mountain ranges: It is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. It spreads across three states only Rives such as the Banas, Luni, Sakhi, and Sabarma originates in the region Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }