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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Southern white rhino Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: In a major setback to rhino conservation in Africa, the proposal to downgrade the status of southern white rhino from Appendix I to Appendix II was accepted at the 19th Conference of Parties (COP19). The COP19, organised by Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) in Panama City, accepted the proposal by Botswana and Namibia to degrade the status. Wild animal species listed in Appendix I include those threatened with extinction. About Southern white rhino: The southern white rhino and northern white rhino are subspecies of the white rhino. Aside from living in different parts of Africa, they differ slightly in the shape of their teeth and heads, appearance of skin folds, and amount of hair. In general, southern whites are a little larger and hairier. Contrary to the species name, both subspecies are Gray in colour. “White” may be taken from the Afrikaans word for “wide,” in reference to their mouths, which are wide and square to help them graze on grass. COMMON NAME: Southern white rhinoceroses SCIENTIFIC NAME: Ceratotherium simum simum DIET: Herbivore AVERAGE LIFE SPAN IN THE WILD: 39 to 43 years AVERAGE LIFE SPAN IN CAPTIVITY: 27 to 30 years SIZE: Up to 12 feet WEIGHT: Up to 7,900 pounds Habitat and behavior: Nearly 99 percent of southern white rhinos live in the savannas of Kenya, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, though the vast majority are found in South Africa. White rhinos are semi-social and territorial. They stay together in herds on the grassy plains and mark their territory with strategically placed deposits of dung. The males defend their territory vigorously with their horns and massive sizes. Males tend to be more solitary than females, and live on about one square mile of land, whereas females can range over an area almost seven times as large. White rhinos love mud. They will roll around in it, cover themselves with it, and cover their young with it. The wet mud cools them and protects their skin from sun and insects. Threats: It is mostly threatened by habitat loss, continuous poaching in, and the high illegal demand for rhino horn for commercial purposes and use in traditional Chinese medicine. From 2012 to 2017, white rhinos’ population dropped 15 percent, largely because of poaching. Poaching and illegal trade in rhino horn is usually part of sophisticated, organized criminal networks. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: India wins the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) Vice Presidency and Strategic Management Board (SMB) Chair for the 2023-25 term. By securing over 90% of the votes cast by full members of IEC during its General Meeting held recently in San Francisco, USA, India’s representative, a member of the Indian National Committee of the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and various technical committees of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS-India), was elected. About IEC: The IEC is a global, not-for-profit membership organization that brings together more than 170 countries including India and coordinates the work of 20 000 experts globally. The IEC was founded on 26-27 June 1906 in London, UK. Ever since it has made electrical and electronic technologies safer, more efficient and reliable. Standardization Management Board (SMB) is an apex governance body of IEC responsible for technical policy matters. The General Assembly is the supreme governing body of the Commission. The General Assembly delegates the management of and oversight over all the Commission’s work to the IEC Board. The IEC Board is the core executive body of the Commission and reports to the General Assembly. The IEC Board consists of Officers (without vote) and 15 individual members. It is chaired by the IEC President. Individuals on the IEC Board have a fiduciary responsibility to the Commission and its Members. The General Assembly consists of the Full Member National Committees of the Commission. All electrotechnologies are covered by IEC Standards, including: energy production and distribution, electronics, magnetics and electromagnetics, electroacoustics, multimedia, telecommunication and medical technology, terminology and symbols, electromagnetic compatibility, measurement and performance, dependability, design and development, safety and the environment. Vimal Mahendru will be the IEC Vice President representing India. Source: PIB PSLV-C54 launch Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In news: ISRO successfully placed nine satellites, including an Earth Observation Satellite (EOS-06) in multiple orbits with the help of the space agency’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C54). The mission was accomplished from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR. This is the 56th flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the 24th flight of the PSLV-XL version with 6 PSOM-Xls. The nano satellites include ISRO Nano Satellite-2 for Bhutan (INS-2B), Anand, Astrocast (four satellites), and two Thybolt satellites. About the satellites: EOS-6: It is the Oceansat series’ third-generation satellite, which provides continued services of Oceansat-2 with enhanced payload capability. The satellite onboard carries four payloads. It is envisaged to observe ocean colour data, sea surface temperature and wind vector data to use in oceanography, climatic and meteorological applications. The satellite also supports value added products such as potential fishing zone using chlorophyll, SST and wind speed, and land based geophysical parameter. Astrocast, a 3U spacecraft with 4 Satellites is from Spaceflight Inc, U.S. Thybolt is a 0.5U spacecraft bus that includes a communication payload to enable rapid technology demonstration and constellation development for multiple users from Dhruva Space using their own Orbital Deployer with a minimum lifetime of one year. The Anand is a three-axis stabilised nano satellite and a technology demonstrator for miniaturised electro-optical payload. INS-2B satellite or India-Bhutan satellite has two payloads namely NanoMx, a multispectral optical imaging payload developed by Space Applications Centre (SAC) and APRS-Digipeater, which is jointly developed by DITT-Bhutan and URSC. Sub-systems like TTC, power, onboard computer and ADCS from Pixxel, India was also placed in the orbit. Future launches: Aditya-L1, a coronagraphy spacecraft to study the solar atmosphere, with a PSLV rocket. About Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle(PSLV): PSLV is known as the ‘workhorse’ of ISRO. It is the third generation launch vehicle of India. It is a four-staged launch vehicle with first and third stages using solid rocket motors and second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only CITES COP19 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In news: A reptile endemic to India, the Jeypore Ground Gecko (Cyrtodactylus jeyporensis), has been included in Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). The proposal to include the gecko was made by India at the COP19 to CITES in Panama City. Jeypore Ground Gecko: Cyrtodactylus jeyporensis, is a reptile endemic to India. IUCN status: Endangered The species is rare and was first described by British officer and amateur naturalist Colonel Richard Henry Beddome in 1878 and rediscovered by a team of researchers led by Ishan Agarwal in 2010 and 2011, after a gap of over 130 years. The wild reptile species is found in the Eastern Ghats and is known to be present in four locations including southern Odisha and northern Andhra Pradesh. Its occurrence is estimated in less than 5,000 square kilometres of fragmented geographical area. The species resides below rock boulders in high forested hills at an altitude of 1,100-1,400 metres. Threat: pet trade(both in and outside India), degradation, forest fires, tourism, quarrying and mining activity. The species does not occur in the protected areas described under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, thereby making it highly vulnerable to habitat loss and poaching for domestic and international trade. About CITES: CITES or Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora or Washington Convention, is a multilateral body to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade. Established in IUCN convention in 1963 Appendix I: which lists species threatened with extinction Appendix II: The animals listed under here may not necessarily be threatened with extinction, but trade in such species should be controlled to ensure it does not threaten their existence. Appendix III: species are those that are protected in at least one country, and that country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade and require a CITES export permit for trade. Source: Down To Earth Previous Year Question Q.1) In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? (2016) Sand deserts of northwest India Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir Salt marshes of western Gujarat Western Ghats Open Offer Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Gautam Adani-led Adani Group, a conglomerate with diverse business interests, acquired 29.18 per cent stake in television channel NDTV Ltd, and said it would launch an open offer as required by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to buy another 26 per cent in the company. The single-largest shareholder of NDTV, besides promoters Prannoy Roy and Radhika Roy (32.26%) and the Adani Group (29.18%), is Mauritius-registered foreign portfolio investor (FPI) LTS Investment Fund Ltd with a 9.75% stake. About open offer: According to SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Rules, an open offer is an offer made by the acquirer to the shareholders of the target company inviting them to tender their shares in the target company at a particular price. The primary purpose of an open offer is to provide an exit option to the shareholders of the target company on account of the change in control or substantial acquisition of shares, occurring in the target company. An open offer is triggered if an acquirer holds more than 25 per cent of the public shareholding in the company. The open offer price can be lower than the market price as per SEBI Rules. Open offer price for acquisition of shares under the minimum open offer shall be 1) the highest negotiated price under the share purchase agreement triggering the offer; 2) the volume-weighted average price of shares acquired by the acquirer during 52-weeks preceding the public announcement; 3) the highest price paid for any acquisition by the acquirer during 26 weeks immediately preceding the PA; and 4) the volume weighted average market price for sixty trading days preceding the PA. Significance: After the open offer, If the Adanis manage to get the required 26 per cent stake, the group’s total stake will go up to 55.18 per cent, enabling it to take management control of the target company (NDTV). The acquirer will be able to bring in their own key management persons. If the Adanis fail to get a 50 per cent stake, they have the option to buy shares from other institutional investors. The Adanis may have to raise the offer price to get the required majority. The Roys have the option to launch a counter offer to the open offer made by the Adanis at a higher price. Source: Indian Express Leprosy Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Scientists from the University of Edinburgh and the US Department of Health and Human Services have found that armadillo livers grew substantially when infected with Mycobacterium leprae. The pathogen was able to maintain liver function and keep its exquisite architecture intact, giving rise to something that looked like stem cells. About Leprosy: Caused by an acid-fast, rod-shaped bacteria Mycobacterium leprae It is a chronic infectious disease that mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the eyes. Leprosy is curable and treatment in the early stages can prevent disability. Treatment includes MDT regimen consists of medicines: dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine. About the discovery: The leprosy bacteria need functional cells to function within it because of its dependency on the host to survive and replicate. It can reprogramme adult Schwann cells, the bacteria’s preferred host niche in the peripheral nervous system to a stage of progenitor/stem-like cells. The bacteria’s functions do not involve tumour formation or any adverse effects like fibrosis, it appears safe for now. Significance: This discovery may be lifesaving for the two million annual deaths due to liver disease for which there is no licensed therapy. Many predicted several new avenues and implications in infection and regenerative medicine If we could harness the bacterial ingenuity, the way they hijack the high regenerative capacity of the adult liver, not the use of bacteria as a whole and apply that knowledge to develop strategies to promote organ level growth, keeping architecture of the organ intact for proper function, then certainly such strategies would revolutionise the field of regenerative medicine The bacteria were performing something akin to ‘biological alchemy’ — a bacterial pathogen was changing the biology of infected cells to become more ‘valuable’ such that it can promote the growth of a vital organ like the liver in living animals. About Armadillos: They are New World placental mammals in the order Cingulata. The Chlamyphoridae and Dasypodidae are the only surviving families in the order, which is part of the superorder Xenarthra, along with the anteaters and sloths. All species are native to the Americas, where they inhabit a variety of different environments. Armadillos are characterized by a leathery armour shell and long, sharp claws for digging. They have short legs, but can move quite quickly. The average length of an armadillo is about 75 cm (30 in), including its tail. When threatened by a predator, Tolypeutes species frequently roll up into a ball; they are the only species of armadillo capable of this. Source Down To Earth Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Central government has constituted a committee to review the implementation of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme, especially to assess the programme’s efficacy as a poverty alleviation tool. The committee, headed by former Rural Development secretary Amarjeet Sinha. About MGNREGA: It is a poverty alleviation programme of the Government of India, which provides the legal Right to Work in exchange for money to the citizens of the country. On average, every day approximately 1.5 crore people work under it at almost 14 lakh sites. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Funding: It is shared between the Centre and the States. The Central Government bears 100 per cent of the cost of unskilled labour, 75 percent of the cost of semi-skilled and skilled labour, 75 percent of the cost of materials and 6 percent of the administrative costs. Current employment: There are currently 15.51 crore active workers enrolled under the scheme. Features of MGNREGA scheme: Legal Right to Work: The Act provides a legal right to employment for adult members of rural households. Women labour force: At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women. Wages must be paid according to the wages specified for agricultural labourers in the state under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948. Time-Bound Guarantee of Work: Employment must be provided within 15 days of being demanded to fail which an ‘unemployment allowance’ must be given. Decentralised Planning: Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) are primarily responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of the works that are undertaken. Gram Sabha’s must recommend the works that are to be undertaken and at least 50 per cent of the works must be executed by them. Transparency and Accountability: There are provisions for proactive disclosure through wall writings, Citizen Information Boards, Management Information Systems and social audits (conducted by Gram Sabha’s). Significance of the scheme: It is a social security scheme to generate employment for the rural poor and ensure livelihood for people in rural areas. The scheme sees large-scale participation of women, Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) and other traditionally marginalised sections of society. It increases the wage rate in rural areas and strengthens the rural economy through the creation of infrastructure assets. It facilitates sustainable development which is very clear by its contribution in the direction of water conservation. The program provided a sigh of relief to millions of migrants and other people who lost their livelihood in the pandemic times. The scheme ensured that the vulnerable get access to basic income thereby decreasing suicide rates in the country. The scheme has led to the creation of common community assets. These assets are built by communities on common lands thereby creating a sense of responsibility towards the structure which results in better care. For instance, many Johads (percolation ponds) and check dams had remained abandoned for several years in many villages of Karnataka. However, villagers revived them under the MGNREGA. Performance of MGNREGA during Covid-19 Pandemic: According to the government data, over 11 crore people worked under MGNREGS during the financial year 2020-21 alone. Few other achievements of the Scheme last year are, This is the first time since the launch of the scheme in 2006-07 that the MGNREGS numbers crossed the 11-crore mark in a year. Further, the 11 crore mark is also higher by about 41.75% if we compare 2019-20 data (about 7.88 crores worked). In 2020-21, the total expenditure was 62.31% higher than in 2019-20. As part of the economic package during the Covid-19 pandemic, the government announced additional funding of Rs 40,000 crore for the MGNREGS over and above the budgetary allocation of 2020-21. Issues with MGNREGA: Poor maintenance: Many structures created under MGNREGA become defunct due to poor maintenance. This simply implies the wastage of time, energy, and resources. Data on the impact of productive assets: The government does not monitor whether a structure has actually helped water conservation. Further, there is no government data on the impact on groundwater levels, improvements in livelihoods etc. post the creation of assets. Inadequate Funds: A huge surge in demand for MGNREGA works has been witnessed in pandemic times. But the government hasn’t duly allocated funding in a similar proportion. Insufficient support: With the unemployment rate reaching a 45-year high at 6%, giving merely 100 days of employment is not sufficient. Payment Delays: Despite Supreme Court orders, various other initiatives and various government orders, no provisions have yet been worked out for calculation of full wage delays and payment of compensation for the same. Corruption and Irregularities: Funds that reach the beneficiaries are very little compared to the actual funds allocated for the welfare schemes. Discrimination: Frequent cases of discrimination against women and people from the backwards groups are reported from several regions of the country and a vast number goes unreported. Non-payment of Unemployment Allowance: There is a huge pendency in the number of unemployment allowances being shown in the Management Information System (MIS). Suggestion measures: There is a need to carry out social audits as per rules and effective implementation of the delay compensation system. The participation of women and backwards classes must be increased by raising awareness and making it more inclusive. The people should be sensitised to do away with the discrimination against them. Reasons for poor utilisation of funds should be analysed and steps must be taken to improve them. In addition, actions should be initiated against officers found guilty of misappropriating funds. Villages must also be allowed to take control of their own water security, noting that catchment areas for many villages are on land controlled and owned by the Forest Department. The government should provide greater funds for the proper implementation of the scheme. It currently provides 0.47% of GDP while the World Bank recommends 1.7 % for the optimal functioning of the program. The frequency of monitoring by National Level Monitors (NLMs) should be increased and appropriate measures should be taken by States based on their recommendations. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) 2005 is a milestone in India’s history of post-independence social security laws. Made after a successful legal struggle to secure employment, it is a partial victory for the full right of employment in any developing country. An important aspect of this law that distinguishes it from any other public service delivery system is its defeat by the Indian parliament. Thus, the MNREGA programme has definitely brought about development in rural households, allowing them to access many facilities and improve the quality of their lives. Source: The Hindu Australian’s Trade Pact with India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, the Australian parliament ratified the India-Australia free trade agreement, the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA). About Free Trade Agreement (FTA): A free trade agreement is an agreement in which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession etc. to the partner country. India has negotiated FTA with many countries and trade blocs e.g., Sri Lanka, Singapore, ASEAN etc. About India- Australia ECTA: The Agreement encompasses cooperation across the entire gamut of bilateral economic and commercial relations between the two countries and covers areas such as: Trade in Goods and services, Rules of Origin Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures. Dispute Settlement, Movement of Natural Persons. Telecom, Customs Procedures, Pharmaceutical products, and Cooperation in other Areas. ECTA provides for an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve trade between the two countries and covers almost all the tariff lines. Zero duty benefits on 98.3% of Australian tariff lines, from the day the agreement comes into force, will be extended to all Indian products within five years. Australia, in turn, will get zero duty benefits for 90% of its exports (in value terms) to India. Under the agreement, Indian graduates from STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics) will be granted extended post-study work visas. Australia will also set up a programme to grant visas to young Indians looking to pursue working holidays in Australia. Annual Visa quota of 1800 is to be instituted for India Yoga teachers and Chefs. Evolution of  India- Australia relations over time: India-Australia bilateral trade at a glance: Australia is the 17th largest trading partner to India and India is Australia’s 9th largest trading partner. In 2021-22, India’s goods exports to Australia valued US$8.3 billion and imports were about US$16.7 billion. Two-way trade in goods and services in 2020 was valued at US$24.3 billion. India’s merchandise exports to Australia grew 135 percent between 2019 and 2021. India’s exports consist primarily of a broad-based basket largely of finished products. Around 96 percent of Australia’s exports are raw materials and intermediate products. Bipartisan support in the backdrop China factor: India-Australia partnership enjoys wide, bipartisan support in Australia because Australia has been particularly upset with what it called the ‘weaponization of trade’ by China. It has surely helped galvanize sentiment about India being a more trustworthy partner. Shared interests and new partnerships: The two countries are already part of recently formed global cliques such as the four-nation Quad, the trilateral Supply Chain Resilience Initiative and the Indo-Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF). Both the countries are facing an assertive China challenge which brings the two countries together for converged interests. Strong ties and democracy: Both the countries have been part of the Commonwealths and are among the prominent democracies which make them likable partners. New opportunities: The bilateral trade deal is a strong positive signal about India’s credentials to a world shuffling its feet away from dodgy supply chains towards a ‘China plus one’ strategy. Impact of the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA): India expects bilateral trade to rise to about $50 billion from the current level of $31 billion in five years, with Indian exports driving half this surge. India hopes to increase its merchandise exports by US$10 billion by 2026-27. The ECTA will create a million new jobs in labour-intensive sectors Gems and Jewellery, Textiles, leather, footwear, furniture etc. Raw materials such as coal, metals and wool dominate Australia’s export shipments meaning cheaper inputs for Indian firms. The approval of a double taxation avoidance agreement by Australia, which is expected to save millions of dollars a year for Indian IT firms. Way Forward: The new age free trade agreements are based on reciprocal economic benefits and enhanced trade facilitation ,India can resort to ways which will facilitate smoother trade India needs to improve the efficiency of ports, shipping, Customs, etc., via automation which would be a big boost for participation by MSMEs. Developing alternative sources of supply in which all the components are available in vicinity and locally. India must look at a hybrid model to source from the most efficient suppliers, including domestic players. The new-age FTAs demand more holistic and diversified trade opportunities with trade in services, e-commerce, labour, climate/environment, digital trade, public procurement, supply chains etc. Although, the India-Australia ECTA will further cement the already deep, close and strategic relations between the two countries and will significantly enhance bilateral trade. It is critical to remember that trade deals open new doors, but do not automatically mean higher exports or better trade balances, as India’s past pacts with ASEAN and Japan have shown. There is no shortcut or alternative to fixing India’s overall global competitiveness and the policy makers and other stakeholders need to take a leap forward to improve India’s competitiveness to secure India’s interests. MUST READ:  India – Australia Relations Source: The Hindu Ethics of AI Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Ethics Context: Artificial Intelligence (AI) is being deployed in ways that touch people’s lives, including in areas of healthcare, financial transactions, and delivery of justice. Advances in AI can have profound impacts across varied societal domains, and in recent years, this realisation has sparked ample debate about the values that should guide its development and use. Hence, there is a need to resolve differences in interpretation or attribution and document a better articulated AI landscape. Five ethical principles of AI: Transparency: transparent processes in the development and design of AI algorithms, to increase interpretability, explain ability, or other acts of disclosure. Justice and fairness: AI may increase inequality and reinforce societal biases if they are not addressed adequately. Responsibility and accountability: This include clarifying legal liability, focusing on underlying processes that may cause potential harm, or whistleblowing in case of potential harm. Privacy: Both as a value to uphold and as a right to be protected in ethical AI, in relation to data protection and data security Non-maleficence: It indicates the precedence of moral obligation to preventing harm over the promotion of good. This could be due to a negativity bias in characterisation of ethical values concentrating more on negative issues and events rather than positive ones. It means encompassing calls for safety and security and includes beneficence. Challenges in principles: Interpretation and conflict: How the same principles are interpreted across various guideline documents. For instance, the need for more datasets to “unbias” AI  conflicts with individuals’ data security and privacy. Attribution: interpreting which domain, actor, or issue these ethical principles pertain to. Such divergences could undermine attempts to develop a global ethical AI agenda because varied perspectives, for example risk-benefit evaluations, will lead to different results based on whose well-being they are developed for or the actors involved in developing them. For instance, does the European guideline on privacy also apply to China where privacy guidelines target only private companies, and citizens are accustomed to living in a protected society with high trust in their government? Implementation: Whether through government organisations, inter-governmental organisations, industry leaders, individual users or developers, or by harmonising AI agendas across the board. If harmonisation is a goal, then how does one account for moral pluralism and cultural diversity across countries. Environmental Ethics and Sustainability: AI deployment requires massive computational resources, and thus high energy consumption and calls into question the possibility of harnessing the benefits of AI for the entire biosphere. Integrity: means being explicit about best practices and disclosure of errors. Solidarity and Equity:  in solving socio-economic challenges like job losses, inequality, and unfair sharing of burdens. For instance, compensating humans whose actions provide data for training AI models. Suggestions for future: Defining Principles: Admittedly, principles are difficult to translate into practice. However, they still play a crucial role in building awareness and acting as catalysts for building beneficence and a culture of responsibility among AI developers. Internalised norms and values and an effective AI governance strategy will require both—principles encouraging cultural change in the AI community, and explicit rules and regulations buttressing them. A unified regulatory and policy framework on the ethical, economic, and social implications of advances in AI that established clear fiduciary duties towards users. A homogeneous professional standards and moral obligations of what it means to be a “good” AI developer. Strong institutions that ensure ethical conduct on a daily basis. Ad-hoc committees like United States National Artificial Intelligence Advisory Committee (NAIAC) that dispenses advice to the president and various federal officials; the expert group on AI at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD); the High-Level Expert Group on AI formed by the European Commission; and the Select Committee on AI appointed by the UK Parliament’s House of Lords. Professional and legal accountability mechanisms to redress misbehaviour and ensure that standards are upheld. Private sector involvement like Google, IBM, Intel, Microsoft, and Sony, have released guidelines for developing ethical AI. Civil society including Non-profit organisations and professional associations, such as the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE), Internet Society, Open AI, and the World Economic Forum have also issued declarations and recommendations on AI principles and policies. Way forward: It is time to move towards a principles-led approach to AI and define clear long-term pathways, set explicit professional standards, and build accountability structures that are not only country-specific but also sector- and organisation-specific. Mechanisms should also be set up to license developers of applications with elevated risks, such as facial recognition tools or other systems trained on biometric data. Privacy-preserving techniques, like homomorphic encryption or federated learning, have been developed for the use of data and learning algorithms. Source: Orf Online Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India’s satellites, consider the following statements: EOS-6 is an Ocean sat series’ satellite that carries two payloads. The Anand is a nano satellite for miniaturised electro-optical payload. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Jeypore Ground Gecko’ in its natural habitat? Himalayan Mountains Salt marshes of West Bengal Western Ghats Eastern Ghats Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC): The IEC is a global, not-for-profit membership organization that brings together more than 170 countries. India is not a member of IEC. Recently Vimal Mahendru elected as the IEC Vice President representing India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’28th November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th November 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 1 Questions [28 November, 2022] – Day 1

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. A fascinating treatise on medicine and science exists in India's ancient literature. Illustrate with the help of suitable examples. भारत के प्राचीन साहित्य में चिकित्सा और विज्ञान पर एक आकर्षक प्रकरण मौजूद है। उपयुक्त उदाहरणों की सहायता से स्पष्ट कीजिए। 2. Storytelling through visual means has been a dominant art form in India. Elucidate. दृश्य माध्यमों से कथावाचन भारत में एक प्रमुख कला रूप रहा है। स्पष्ट करें। 3. If you were to take a cultural tour from Madurai to Kashi, what changes would you observe in temple architecture? Explain.  यदि आप मदुरै से काशी की सांस्कृतिक यात्रा करें, तो आप मंदिर की वास्तुकला में क्या बदलाव देखेंगे? समझाएं। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The government of India has approved a Rs 124 crore proposal for setting up incubation centres in the Delhi and Bengaluru campuses of the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) under the Digital Communication Innovation Square (DCIS) under Champion Services Sector Scheme. About The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT): Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) was established in August 1984 as an autonomous Telecom R&D centre of Dept o Telecommunication, Govt. of India. It is a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It is a registered ‘public funded research institution’ with the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science & Technology, Government of India. C-DOT as a torch bearer of indigenous telecom R&D continues to develop latest technology products in areas like Optical, Switching, Wireless, Security and Network Management while also working on futuristic technologies like M2M/IOT, 5G, AI, etc. C-DOT reiterates its unequivocal commitment to the betterment of country’s telecom sector by working towards realizing the objectives of various flagship programs of the Government of India that include Digital India, Make in India, BharatNet, Skill India, Startup India and Smart Cities. Chairman: Union Minister of Communication & IT Vice Chairman: Union Minister of State for Communication & IT Members: 10 other members from various ministries and telecom sectors Customer Segments: Defence organizations & Strategic agencies, public sector / Govt. , Educational institutions, Manufacturing sector / Toll Operate Transfer partners, TSPs and ISPs etc Success stories of C-DOT: Launch of Gyan Setu and MAXNG Technologies: ‘GyanSetu’ is an internet based real-me ICT system designed by C-DOT, primarily to provide various eservices to the under privileged rural population of India. MAX-NG, C-DOT’s Next Generation Network (NGN) solution addresses the needs of the changing telecom scenario and enables a smooth transition from Plain Old Telephone System (POTS) to NGN based Voiceover-IP (VoIP). Launch of Broadband Products: During Digital India Week, C-DOT launched four products and inaugurated IMS compliant NGN Services in MTNL network. High Speed, long distance Wi-Fi solution is Ideal for increasing the penetration of broadband services in difficult and inaccessible terrains e.g., hilly areas, dense vegetation, islands, unconnected villages. disaster sites, border areas, tunnels, Battlefield Surveillance. Inauguration of Terabit Router & FTTD Solution: C-DOT has designed and developed India’s first indigenous Terabit Router. Hon’ble Minister of Communications & IT inaugurated C-DOT Terabit Router along with GPON based Fibber-to-the-Desk solution (FTTD) during a TSDSI function held at C-DOT Campus in October 2014. Awards & Accolades: KSCST IP Award and Rewards 2021: C-DOT has been awarded the KSCST IP Award and Rewards 2021 in appreciation and recognition for the contribution in the field of IPRs under the R&D Institute category. AEGIS Graham Bell Award 2019: 10th edition of Aegis Graham Bell Awards for Innovative Telecom Product WBA Industry Award 2018 C-DOT Wi-Fi Solution won the most prestigious International Award at Wireless Broadband Alliance (WBA), London in the category “Best Wireless Deployment in Rural or Remote Areas Award”. Source: EconomicTimes Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth VLC has no electromagnetic interference Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only Kutia Kondh Tribe and Burlang Yatra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture and Environment Context: Odisha’s Kutia Kondh tribe worship and exchange millet seeds in a celebration during Burlang Yatra festival. About Kutia Kondh Tribe/ Tribes of Kalahandi: Kutia Kondha is one of the primitive sections of Kondha tribe. The Kondha’s who live in hill top and valleys are known as Kutia Kondha. Whereas those who live in high land and near the streams are called Dongria Kondha and kondhas who are residing in plain area are known as Desia kondh. Kutia kondh are mostly dependent on shifting cultivation, cultivation of minor agriculture products and collection of NTFP. The Kutia kondhs are residing mostly in Langigarh,Th.rampur,M.Rampur and Bhawanipatna block of Kalahandi. They practice shifting cultivation, cultivating varieties of crop and during lean period collecting food stuffs from the forest. Minor forest products also fetch them cash income. The social organization is very strong and unified. The family is mostly nuclear and patriarchal in character. Social unity and co-operation is remarkable. Women play a bigger role in the family economy. They are mostly nature worshipper. Jani is the fulltime magic religious specialist of the village. In the pre-independence era, they were practicing human sacrifice but now a day as substitute buffalo and sheep sacrifice. The practice of youth dormitory are though gradually losing its importance but still prevalent among Kutia kondh villages. Dhap, Salap Baja are the important musical instruments of Kutia Kondhs. About Burlang Yatra Movement: A movement built around the Burlang Yatra, a traditional festival of the ‘Kutia Kondh tribe’ of Odisha, has involved traditional millet crops in reviving their ancient food palate. In collaboration with Millet Network of India (MINI), a forum founded for the promotion of millet, NIRMAN started celebrating the Burlang Yatra on a large scale to increase awareness about millet. In the past, millet used to be the staple food for tribals in Odisha. When paddy and other foods reached their doorstep through the public distribution system and the expanding consumer market, tribals started treating millets as subsistence crops that they grew to use or eat for themselves rather than to sell. Some millet started to disappear from the tribal food basket. In 2017, the Odisha government realized the importance of highly nutritious and climate-resilient millets in tribal society. The Odisha government has also started celebrating ‘Mandia Dibas’ (Millet Day) on November 10 to popularise the crop. MUST READ: Odisha’s Millets Mission Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Traditions                           Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival            Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra             Gonds Wari-Warkari                           Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2017) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above The red-crowned roofed turtle and Leith’s soft-shell turtle Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: In a step forward towards conservation, two Indian turtle species — the red-crowned roofed turtles (Batagur kachuga) and Leith’s soft-shell turtle (Nilssonia leithii) — have made it to the Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). The decision was made at the ongoing 19th Conference of Parties (COP19) of CITES in Panama City. The species were moved from Appendix II to Appendix I which means the species is threatened with extinction. Appendix II lists species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, according to CITES. Earlier in 2019 during the 18th CITES plenary meeting in Geneva, Indian star tortoises were added to the Appendix I. About the Red crowned roofed turtle: Red-crowned roofed turtle is native to India, Nepal and Bangladesh. It is known to be widely found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra River basins. At present in India, the National Chambal River Gharial Sanctuary is the only geographic area where the species is found in substantial numbers. About Leith’s soft shell turtle: Leith’s soft-shell turtle inhabits rivers and reservoirs mainly in southern peninsular India, in states like Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Its presence is substantial in the Cauvery, Tungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Bhavani, Godavari and Moyar drainages. Major Threats: Major threats for these turtles and other species are increasing loss of habitat due to pollution and unchecked urbanisation. Other reasons for habitat loss include water extraction and irrigation, leading to irregular flow of upstream dams and reservoirs. Sand mining and agriculture activities along the Ganga are significantly affecting the sandbars, which are safe nesting areas for the species. Drowning due to illegal fishing nets, poaching and illegal trade further threaten their existence. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are   (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Sangeet Natak Akademi Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: The Sangeet Natak Akademi has bestowed special one-time awards commemorating 75 years of India’s independence on 86 artistes, apart from selecting 128 performing artistes from various fields for its regular annual awards for the years 2019-21. About Sangeet Natak Akademi: Sangeet Natak Akademi, the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country, was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama. The management of the Akademi vests in its General Council. The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years. The functions of the Akademi are set down in the Akademi’s Memorandum of Association, adopted at its registration as a society on 11 September 1961. The registered office of the Akademi is at Rabindra Bhavan, New Delhi. Sangeet Natak Akademi is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Sangeet Natak Akademi now has three constituent units, two of these being dance-teaching institutions: the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy (JNMDA) at Imphal, and Kathak Kendra in Delhi. JNMDA has its origin in the Manipur Dance College established by the Government of India in April 1954. Funded by the Akademi since its inception, it became a constituent unit of the Akademi in 1957. Similarly, Kathak Kendra is one of the leading teaching institutions in Kathak dance. Located in Delhi, it offers courses at various levels in Kathak dance and in vocal music and Pakhawaj. Besides the constituent units, the Akademi presently has five centres: Kutiyattam Kendra, Thiruvananthapuram for preserving and promoting the age-old Sanskrit theatre of Kerala, Kutiyattam. Sattriya Kendra, Guwahati for promoting the Sattriya traditions of Assam. North-East Centre, Guwahati for preserving the traditional and folk performing art traditions of north-eastern India. North-East Documentation Centre, Agartala for festival and field documentation in the North-east. Chhau Kendra, Chandankiyari for promoting the Chhau Dances of eastern India, The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred on practising artists. The Akademi also confers Fellowships on eminent artists and scholars of music, dance and drama; and has in 2006 instituted annual awards to young artists – the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar. The Akademi’s archive, comprising audio and video tapes, photographs, and films is one of the largest in the country and is extensively drawn upon for research in the performing arts. Tagore Ratna and Tagore Puraskar: On the occasion of the commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore Ratna and Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore Puraskar were conferred. The Sangeet Natak Akademi confers classical status on nine Indian dance forms: Bharatanatyam: Tamil Nadu Kathak: Northern India Kathakali: Kerala Kuchipudi: Andhra Pradesh Manipuri: Manipur Mohiniaattam: Kerala Odissi: Odisha Sattriya: Assam Chhau: Odisha Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? (2015) Odia Konkani Bhojpuri Assamese India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: According to sources, the work on India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh will be completed in a month. About the Sanctuary: It is being set up by Council of Scientific and Industrial Research under Union Ministry of Science & Technology. The proposed Dark Sky Reserve will be located at Hanle in Ladakh as a part of Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary. The Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is a high altitude wildlife sanctuary located in the Ladakh adjunct of the Changthang plateau. It will boost Astro tourism in India and will be one of the world’s highest-located sites for optical, infra-red, and gamma-ray telescopes. Hanle is located in Ladakh’s cold desert region, away from any form of human disturbance with clear sky conditions and dry weather conditions that exist throughout the year. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following phenomena Light is affected by gravity. The Universe is constantly expanding. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Young Water Professional Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Department of Water Resources organised the concluding event of the Young Water Professional Programme in collaboration with Western Sydney University, Australia and the Indian Institute of Technology. About India Young Water Professional Programme: The National Hydrology Project, Department of Water Resources initiated this innovative 11-month-long programme with the objective to build the capacity of Young Water Professionals and provide them with the required knowledge, skills, attitude, and aptitude to offer their best in the country’s water sector by accepting leadership roles and responsibilities. This programme focuses on gender equality and diversity. The first phase of this Programme selected 20 young officers from the National Hydrology Project’s central and state implementing agencies. Progress and Relevance: the Australia India Water Centre brought together eight universities and one state government department from Australia and 16 IITs and key universities of India. India and Australia are natural partners and this collaboration to train young water professionals is an important step in the right direction. Source: NewsOnAir Jallikattu: The Law vs the Culture Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Tamil Nadu government has defended Jallikattu in the Supreme Court stating that the Jallikattu has both religious and cultural significance for the people of Tamil Nadu and its influence is beyond the confines of caste and creed. The State protested that the ban on Jallikattu was perceived as an onslaught against the cultural identity of the people of Tamil Nadu. About Jallikattu: Jallikattu is a bull taming competitive sport and a tradition over 2,000 years old in part of Tamil Nādu. The word ‘Jallikattu’ has evolved from the words ‘Calli’ (coins) and ‘Kattu’ (tie), which denote a bundle of coins tied to the bull’s horns. There are references of Jallikattu in Silappatikaram, the great epics of Tamil classical period. It is celebrated in the second week of January, during the Tamil harvest festival, Pongal. It is popular in Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, Theni, Pudukkottai and Dindigul districts of Tamil Nadu known as the Jallikattu belt. The most popular Jallikattu is the one celebrated at Alanganallur near Madurai. History of the event: Jallikattu has been known to be practiced during the Tamil classical period (400-100 BC). It was common among the Ayyar people who lived in the ‘Mullai’ geographical division of the ancient Tamil country. Later, it became a platform for display of bravery and prize money was introduced for participation encouragemen A seal from the Indus Valley Civilization depicting the practice is preserved in the National Museum, New Delhi. A cave painting in white kaolin discovered near Madurai depicting a lone man trying to control a bull is estimated to be about 1,500 years old. Timeline of Legal issues of Jallikattu: Jallikattu first came under legal scrutiny in early 2000s when the Animal Welfare Board of India and the animal rights group People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) moved petitions in the Supreme Court against Jallikattu as well as bullock cart races. In 2011, the Environment Ministry at the Centre issued a notification specifically mentioning ‘bulls’. The Jallikattu practice continued to be held because of the Tamil Nadu Regulation Act No. 27 of 2009 even after the 2011 notice. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) and PETA filed a petition in the Supreme Court again and contested that – The regulations were not being followed and that bulls were indeed being subjected to cruelty as defined under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. The Supreme Court in its 2014 verdict banned Jallikattu and struck down the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Jallikattu Act, 2009. In January 2016, in what could be seen as a clearly political move, the union environment ministry revoked the ban by issuing a notification months before the elections in Tamil Nadu were due to be held. The Supreme Court stayed this 2016 Union Government notification, as it was challenged by the AWBI and PETA. In January 2017, several hundreds of protesters conducted a rally at Chennai Marina opposing the ban on Jallikattu. Tamil Nadu passed the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017. The statutes had re-opened the gates for the conduct of the popular bull-taming sport in the name of culture and tradition despite the 2014 ban by the Supreme Court. In the aftermath of Jallikattu comeback due to Tamil Nādu legislation the Supreme Court had referred a bunch of petitions to the Constitution Bench in February 2018. Arguments against the Jallikattu: Ethical issues: An investigation by the Animal Welfare Board of India concluded that “Jallikattu is inherently cruel to animals”. Human deaths: The event has caused several human deaths and injuries and there are several instances of fatalities to the bulls. Cruelty to animal: A report submitted by the AWBI before the Supreme Court in this case highlighted unimaginable torture inflicted- tails twisted and fractured, chemicals poured into eyes, ears mutilated, sharp edged weapons used to poke the animal. Manhandling of animals: Animal welfare concerns are related to the handling of the bulls before they are released and also during the competitor’s attempts to subdue the bull. Arguments in favour of Jallikattu: Cultural Representation: There exists tangible evidence to show that this battle between man and beast is a cultural representation. Agrarian Economy: The political economy of such games is about showcasing the quality of cattle, the breeding skills of cattle rearers, the centrality of cattle in an agrarian economy, and the power and pride they bring to farmers. Agrarian Culture: Such games are a cultural manifestation of this political economy. As a tradition, it links an agrarian people to the elemental aspect of their vocation. Symbol of Tamil Culture: Jallikattu’s linkages with Pongal has lifted it above its regional and community origins and transformed it into a symbol of Tamil culture and pride. Shapes Political Discourse: Pride in Tamil culture is central to Dravidian nationalism, which continues to shape the political discourse in Tamil Nadu. Way Forward: Although there are systems in place to check treatment of the bulls and ensure safety of participants and spectators, animal cruelty still continues and people continue to lose their lives. There needs to be a comprehensive regulatory framework in place with zero implementation gaps to check treatment of animals and ensure safety of participants and spectators. Source: The Hindu Additional Information: About Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) It is a statutory body established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. It is headquartered at Ballabgarh in Faridabad District of Haryana. The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Food and Agriculture. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides. Composition: The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years. Functions: It is an advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws, and promotes animal welfare in the country of India. It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed and provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations. It frames a range of rules on how animals ought to be humanely treated everywhere. It has also frequently litigated to have stricter laws to ensure animals were not unduly harassed or tortured. Constitution Day: A rare, enduring document Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: After more than 200 years of colonial rule, India became free at the stroke of midnight on August 15, 1947. The hard-earned independence was an outcome of a long-drawn freedom struggle which was uniting force among the India. Further the Adoption of Constitution of 26 Nov 1949, laid down the vision of founding father of nation for upcoming India and the day of 26 November is celebrated as ‘constitution day.’ About Constitution Day: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949 for ‘We the people of India’. After being unnoticed for long, only since 2015, the day has begun to be celebrated as Constitution Day. This day is indeed a historic day for the nation, with the framing of a constitution for the governance of independent India. The historical events that shaped the constitutional framing: Inspiration from Tilak Swaraj Bill of 1895: Constitution had its inspiration in sources like Tilak’s Swaraj Bill of 1895 (which included rights to free speech, free press, equality before law) and The Declaration of Rights of 1918 (where the Indian National Congress demanded that civil and political rights to include the right to life and liberty, freedom of press and association and for all this to be included in the Government of India Act 1919). Karachi Session of the Congress in 1931: It is also a significant constitutional development that drew from the Resolution of Fundamental Rights and Economic Changes This resolution argues that “in order to end exploitation of the masses, political freedom must include economic freedom”. Along with fundamental rights, it provided for: ending of bonded and child labour, free primary education, expansion of labour welfare, regime protection labour unions, women workers, providing for redistribution of resources through state control over key industries and national resources, recognising the communal problem and laying out protection of minority rights.” All these demands would find their way into Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principals of State Policy) of the Constitution. The vision which conjoins the diverse people of India: Richard Kay writes that a people would submit to a constitution, when the constituent assembly crafts a narrative about the creation of the body that is both politically acceptable and historically plausible. It’s not only the text, but also the story crafted of the birth of a constitution that is critical in the internalisation of a constitutional order by a people. The drafters deployed the considerable political goodwill enjoyed by key national leaders who were members of the assembly to give legitimacy to the Constitution. These told a story of how the Constitution reflected the will of the people, and how its egalitarian foundation would create a better, more decent nation. Freedom struggle movements and resistance to colonial power was the uniting force that clubbed the people of India from diverse background and it was also good training for constitution-crafting. Consensus-orientated method while adopting the significant provisions in the constitution: Framers of Constitution appreciated the link between consensus in adoption and the legitimacy of the Constitution. For instance, when debating the adoption of Hindi as a national language, Rajendra Prasad, president of the Constituent Assembly, said that the choice of national language would have to be “carried out by the whole country”. And that even if a majority of the Assembly made a choice that was not approved by a section of the people, then, implementation of the Constitution would be rendered perilous. Hence, Hindi was made “the official language of the Union”, while English was retained to be used for all “official purposes”. Yet, while the drafters opted for compromise and consensus in some areas, they made bold choices on others. For instance, breaking down traditional privileges like the abolition of princely states and royal titles, and crafting the country as a democracy based on universal adult franchise, and ending discrimination on grounds of caste, or sex or religion. Way Forward: India’s drafters and the methodologies they adopted to craft their glorious product, hold lessons for contemporary politicians and law makers. Consensus, craft and vision are invaluable while making an instrument to endure. As, the Constitution empowers the people as much as the people empower the Constitution. It was the foresight, intellect and ingenuity of the great men in the Constituent Assembly that helped succeed in framing a constitution whose acceptability has only grown with each passing generation. It is also a time to salute the common citizen of the country who has established an unbreakable bond with the letter and spirit of the Constitution and has at every difficult juncture of our journey renewed her faith and commitment to the lofty ideals of our Constitution. Therefore, With the completion of 75 years of our independence, we can justifiably take pride in our journey as a nation and our achievements in diverse fields. It is also a time to reaffirm our faith in our people and our Constitution as we enter Amrit Kaal and renew and rededicate our commitment to remain steadfast in achieving our dream of a new self-reliant, strong, united and humane nation in the next 25 years. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Sangeet Natak Academy: It is the apex body which was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India. The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the Vice President of India for a term of three years. It is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT): It is a registered ‘public funded research institution’ with the Ministry of Communication and IT, Government of India. The Union Minister of Communication and IT acts as its President. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) The Kutia Kondh Tribes often mentioned in news belong to Andhra Pradesh West Bengal Madhya Pradesh Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’26th November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 7] 2022 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) - > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2022, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one on one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) - Day 7 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. What frustrates you as an Indian? Why? Do you have a plan to change that? How will you do it? Aren’t you a part of the problems that frustrate you? Think about it. Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  What is your understanding of the concept of ‘responsible media’? Do you think the corporate takeover of media houses is a worrying trend? Also, how do you perceive the increase in the trend of media trials? How does it hurt our society? Analyse the issue and frame a balanced response. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th November 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - New Data Protection Bill – Part 2

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments. This article deals with various themes within the Bill including data localisation requirements, whether children are considered as data principals, the regulatory framework of the Bill and the penalties it imposes. What are some of the data protection rights that the Bill is missing? The DPDP Bill, 2022 misses out on two main rights for data principals. The first is the right of data portability. The right to data portability allowed the data principal to receive in a structured format all the personal data they had provided to the data fiduciary. This empowered data principals by allowing them to choose between different platforms and enhanced competition between data fiduciaries to increase consumer welfare. For example, if the data principal was not satisfied with the social media platform they were currently using, they could request for porting of their data to another social media platform and avail of its services without having to provide all their personal data again. The DPDP Bill, 2022 does not provide for this right. The second right foregone is the right to be forgotten. While not a right per se, the right to be forgotten allows the data principal to ask the data fiduciary to stop the continuing disclosure of their personal data. This has to be balanced with the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to information for all other individuals. The DPDP Bill, 2022 subsumes this right under the right to erasure. This conflation between the general right to erasure with the right to be forgotten which is specific to disclosure of personal data compromises on the right to freedom of speech and expression of other individuals. How does the draft Bill treat the personal data processing of children? With regard to the personal data processing of children, the DPDP Bill, 2022 carries forward the approach of its previous iterations. A major issue that remains is that the age of digital consent, which is the age at which an individual can consent to their personal data being processed, continues to be 18. This means that parental/guardian consent would be required to process the personal data of children and adolescents below the age of 18 years. In effect, this would mean parental consent would be required every time they want to access the internet. Such high threshold of 18 years becomes an issue for two reasons. First, it does not recognise that the consent of a toddler is different from that of a teenager. Second, requiring consent from parents would hamper autonomous development of children since parents may not want them to be exposed to viewpoints contradictory to their own. Such restrictions are in violation of India’s obligations under the Convention on Rights of the Child. What changes have been made to data localisation requirements? One of the most emphatic departures of the DPDP Bill, 2022 from the Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill 2019, has been in the context of cross border data flows. The PDP Bill, 2019 had provided for a three-tiered categorisation based on which personal data could be moved across borders. The government was interested in restricting cross border data flows of sensitive personal data and critical personal data to allow for ease of lawful access and to maintain “digital sovereignty”. However, these data localisation requirements were severely contested by the industry as they would lead to significant increase in compliance and operational costs in terms of higher data storage charges and security risks. The DPDP Bill, 2022 aims to strike a balance between these concerns by allowing for cross border data flow to “countries and territories” notified by the Central government. However, the draft legislation fails to provide any guidance or criteria for the consideration of the Union government while making this notification. The criteria is left to the Central government itself to be specified under its rule making power. What is the design of the regulatory framework proposed under the Bill? The previous bill proposed regulator, the Data Protection Authority, with significant powers of regulation making, enforcement and adjudication. However, the current draft considerably reduces the scope of the proposed Data Protection Board of India (DPB). Out of the 22 clauses in the DPDP Bill, the Central government has been provided with rule making power in around 14 clauses. Such kind of diluting the powers of data authority becomes problematic for several reasons. It is necessary that the data regulatory authority making the rules should be at an arm’s length from the government so as to ensure impartial protection of the interests of data principals. Vesting these powers with the Union government creates conflict of interest. For example, the government has the power to specify “fair and reasonable” purposes for which it can process personal data without consent. Moreover, the DPDP Bill, 2022 fails to provide adequate legislative guidance for framing these rules. This leads to the concern of excessive delegation of legislation. Lastly, the Central government exercises greater control over the proposed DPB because it will appoint members of the DPB, set out the terms and conditions of appointment and lay out the functions that the DPB will perform. What is the framework for state based processing of personal data? Carrying forward the approach from the PDP Bill, 2019, the current Bill also provides considerable exemptions to the state’s processing of personal data. First, as stated above, the Union government has the power to specify “fair and reasonable” purposes for which it can process personal data without consent. Second, an exemption from most data protection obligations is provided if the processing is undertaken “in the interests of prevention, detection, investigation of any offence or any other violation of any law”. A complete exemption can be provided for when personal data is being processed “in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, maintenance of public order or preventing incitement to any cognizable offence relating to any of these”. Such kind of exemptions may be in violation of the “necessity and proportionality” test laid down by the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy vs Union of India. Moreover, storage limitation does not apply to government agencies which means they can continue to retain personal data for an unlimited period of time even when the purpose of processing ceases to exist and there is no legal requirement to store the data. What is the nature of penalties provided for in the Bill? The DPDP Bill, 2022 marks a number of departures from the PDP Bill, 2019 in the way it conceptualises penalties. First, the quantum of penalties that can be imposed, with the cap being placed at ₹500 crore, are of a much higher magnitude than provided for under the PDP Bill, 2019. Second, unlike the PDP Bill, 2019 the DPDP Bill, 2022 creates no offences. Third, in a move that can be seen as disempowering the data principals, the DPDP Bill, 2022 does not allow them to seek compensation from data fiduciaries for harms they have suffered due to unlawful processing. Fourth, in a very unusual move and perhaps the only one of its kind among data protection legislations, the DPDP Bill, 2022 places duties on data principals. If they are non-compliant, it could lead to penalties upto ₹10,000. Some of these duties include being in compliance with the “provision of all applicable laws” when exercising rights and not registering “false or frivolous” complaints with the data fiduciary or the DPB. Such provisions may hinder data principles from exercising their rights for fear of penalties. Main Practice Question: How does the new design framework and data localisation requirements of new data protection bill impacts data economy? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Buddhist Nyingma sect Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently in a significant development in the Tibetan Buddhist circles, the Nyingma sect has identified a boy from Spiti in Himachal Pradesh as the “reincarnation” of the late Taklung Setrung Rinpoche, a scholar known for his knowledge of Tibetan Tantric school. About Nyingma Sect: The Nyingmapa order has the longest history establishment history of transmitting all the four major traditions of Tibetan Buddhism. This is reflected in the name Nyingma, which literary means “Old Order”. The Other three main Tibetan Buddhism schools, Sakya, Kagyu, and Gelug, collectively refer to New Order (Sarma). They rely on the translation of Buddhist script from India during the second dissemination of Buddhism to Tibet. Nyingmapa’s trace their translation lineage back to the Samye Monastery, the first Tibetan Buddhist monastery in Tibet. During the time, hundreds of scholars and translators translated Sutras and Tantras to the Tibetan Language. The Same Monastery where the first seven locals are ordained as monk marks the bugging of Monkshood in Tibet. The Rinpoche used to live in the Takthok monastery of Ladakh, one of the oldest monasteries related to the sect. Its followers are spread across Tibet, Bhutan, Ladakh, Sikkim and other Himalayan pockets. Nyingma in Tibetan means “ancient” and has roots going back to the 8th century. The Nyingma sect is also known as the Red Hat sect because its Lamas wear red robes and hats. Some Unique Aspects Nyingmapa Tradition: The practice of Dzogchen (Great Perfection). It the highest perfection in deity visualization. It seeks to directly examine the fundamental mind without the aid of Visualization like statue and Thangkha. The tradition of Terma. Padmasambhava has hidden lots of scriptures in a different location for the future master to find and preach. Teachings of the Nyingma Sect: Its teachings are mainly based on those of Padmasambhava, called Guru Rinpoche and Shantarakshita who were brought to Tibet through the rule of the Emperor Trisong Detsen from 742 to 797 CE. Buddhist teachings are classified into nine yanas with ‘Dzogchen’ being most important. Dzogchen (Great Perfection) philosophy revolves around pure awareness which can be achieved through meditation. This Vajrayana tradition involves use of ritual, symbols and tantric practices to achieve nirvana. Therefore, Nyingma stresses on teachings attributed to Padmasambhava, the Dzogchen doctrines as well as Tantric practices. The Nyingma School is also associated with Termas (hidden treasures). Some major Monasteries of Nyingmapa Sect in Tibet There is the monastery of Nyingmapa in every corner of Tibet. The most important monastery in Tibet is Mindrolling monastery near Lhasa airport, Dorjee dark monastery, Rongbuk Monastery at Everest Basecamp and Samye Monastery. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person                                Known as Aryadeva                                  Jaina scholar Dignaga                                    Buddhist scholar Nathamuni                              Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? (2022) None of the pairs Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs Q.2) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? (2018) Avalokiteshvara Lokesvara Maitreya Padmapani Pangolins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: During recently concluded the 19th Conference of Parties (COP19) to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) urged countries, to remove references to parts and derivatives of pangolins “from the official pharmacopoeia” to help save the species. About Pangolins: Scientific Name: Manis crassicaudata The Indian pangolin is the largest among eight pangolin species. Of the eight species of pangolin worldwide, two are found in India. They are Chinese pangolin (manis pentadactyla), mostly found in northeast India and Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata). Animal Description: It has large, overlapping scales on its body that act as armour. It can also curl itself into a ball (volvation) as self-defence against predators such as the tiger. The nocturnal animal lives in burrows and feed on ants and termites. Habitat and  Distribution: The species is understood to occur in various types of tropical forests as well as open land, grasslands and degraded habitats, including close to villages. The species can adapt well to modified habitats, provided its ant and termite prey remains abundant It is widely distributed in India, except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. It can be found at elevations up to 2500 m. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Threats: Poaching for its meat and scales, which are used and consumed by local people, but are also increasingly traded internationally. The scales serves as base component for indigenous (traditional) psychotropic substances. China is main illicit hub (market) for smuggled scales of Pangolins, where they have huge demand for medicinal and magical purposes. Protection status : Indian Pangolins Schedule I under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Appendix I of the International Convention of Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). Endangered in IUCN Red List. Chinese pangolin has been listed as “critically endangered” by UN affiliated International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List. About CITES: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, also known as the Washington Convention) is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade. It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). AIM: Its aim is to ensure that international trade (import/export) in specimens of animals and plants included under CITES, does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are  (2021) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?  (2015) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Agni-3 missile Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In news: India carried out a successful training launch of the Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) Agni-3 developed by DRDO, from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha, as part of routine user training launches conducted by the Strategic Forces Command. About Agni-3 missile: Two-stage solid propellent powered, nuclear capable, Intermediate range ballistic missile (IRBM) It is 16-meter-long, weighing more than 48 tonnes, has a range of over 3000 kilometres and can carry a payload of over 1.5 tonnes. It was subsequently successfully flight tested in 2007. It is under operational purview of the Strategic Forces Command, which is part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority. The Agni-3 test comes over a month after India’s Strategic Strike Nuclear Submarine, INS Arihant, carried out a successful launch of a Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM). The strategic postures of “credible minimum deterrence” and “no first use” are pivotal to India’s nuclear doctrine.   Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Champions of the Earth award 2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In news: Indian wildlife biologist Dr Purnima Devi Barman has been honoured with the U.N. Environment Programme’s (UNEP) 2022 Champions of the Earth award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category. About the award: Established in 2005, it is U.N.’s highest environmental honour. It is an annual award accorded for transformative action to prevent, halt and reverse ecosystem degradation. In 2017, the program was expanded to include Young Champions of the Earth. The initiative is run in partnership with the Covestro, a plastics company. awarded every year to seven young environmentalists between ages 18 and 30 Dr. Purnima Devi Barman: She leads the “Hargila Army“, an all-female grassroots conservation movement dedicated to protecting the Greater Adjutant Stork from extinction. The bird Greater Adjutant Stork is the second-rarest stork species in the world, known locally as “hargila” in Assamese (meaning “bone swallower”). Today the “Hargila Army” consists of over 10,000 women. They protect nesting sites, rehabilitate injured storks which have fallen from their nests and arrange “baby showers” to celebrate the arrival of new-born chicks. The women create and sell textiles with motifs of the bird, helping to raise awareness about the species while building their own financial independence. Significance of her work: Conflict between humans and wildlife can be resolved to the benefit of all. Highlighting the damaging impact that the loss of wetlands has had on the species who feed and breed on them Importance of protecting and restoring ecosystems mobilised a group of village women to help her. Source: The Hindu 1st Biodiversity Heritage site in TN Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The Tamil Nadu Government, issued a notification declaring Arittapatti and Meenakshipuram villages in Madurai district the first biodiversity heritage site in the State. Biodiversity Heritage sites (BHS): “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine  having rich biodiversity comprising components such as species richness, high endemism, presence of threatened species, keystone species or land races, or biological components having cultural or aesthetic values. As per Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, State Governments are empowered to notify such sites, in consultation with ‘local bodies’. State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and conservation. Significance: protecting its rich and exclusive ecosystem conservation ethics in the community About Arittapatti: Arittapatti BHS is 139.63 hectares in Arittapatti village (Melur block) and 53.8 hectares in Meenakshipuram village (Madurai East taluk). Arittapatti village, known for its ecological and historical significance, houses around 250 species of birds including three important raptors – birds of prey, namely the Laggar Falcon, the Shaheen Falcon and Bonelli’s Eagle. It is also home to wildlife such as the Indian Pangolin, Slender Loris and pythons The area is surrounded by a chain of seven hillocks or inselbergs that serve as a watershed, charging “72 lakes, 200 natural springs and three check dams The Anaikondan tank, built during the reign of Pandiyan kings in the 16th century is one among them. Several megalithic structures, rock-cut temples, Tamil Brahmi inscriptions and Jain beds add to the historical significance of the region. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1.) The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of (2014) biosphere reserves botanical gardens national parks wildlife sanctuaries Jallikattu Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In News: the Supreme Court observed while hearing the Jallikattu case that, prevention of cruelty is not an “absolute idea”. The Constitution commands us to be compassionate to all living creatures, but it should have a balance. The Bench also referred to the killing of stray dogs, saying it extinguished the life of an animal. About Jallikattu: It is an ancient ‘sport’ or bull taming event typically practiced in Tamil Nadu as a part of Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal day, third day of the four-day Pongal festival. Jalli refers to gold or silver coins and Kattu means ‘tied’. Therefore, combined it refers to coins being tied to the bulls’ horns, which is considered the prize for whoever tames the bull. The bull that wins is used to service numerous cows preserving the native breed. It is believed to have been practised some 2500 years ago. It is controversial because the sport often results in major injuries and even deaths. About the case: In 2018, the apex court had referred to a Constitution Bench the question whether the people of Tamil Nadu could preserve jallikattu as their cultural heritage under Article 29 (1) of the Constitution and demand for its protection. The People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) filed a petition to strike down the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017. In 2021, the Environment Ministry declared that the sport could carry on irrespective of the imposed ban. A research conducted by PETA’s investigators found that the bulls were being disoriented, deliberately. The bulls’ tails were allegedly bitten and twisted; stabbed, punched, and dragged on the ground. Source The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is `Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Global Hunger Index (GHI) and India’s malnutrition problems Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022 has brought more unwelcome news for India, as far as its global ranking on a vital indicator of human development is concerned. India ranked 107 out of 121 countries. The Government of India attempted to discredit the index immediately in its attempt to deny the findings of the report, even going so far as to term it a conspiracy against India. About Malnutrition: It refers to deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. It is a chronic problem and a longstanding challenge for the public administration of India. The term malnutrition addresses 3 broad groups of conditions: Undernutrition: It includes wasting (low weight-for-height), stunting (low height-for-age) and underweight (low weight-for-age) Together, the stunted and wasted children are considered to be underweight, indicating a lack of proper nutritional intake and inadequate care post-childbirth. Micronutrient-related malnutrition: It includes micronutrient deficiencies (a lack of important vitamins and minerals) or micronutrient excess; and Overweight: It includes obesity and diet-related noncommunicable diseases (such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes and some cancers). About Global Hunger Index: The GHI is an important indicator of nutrition, particularly among children, as it looks at 4 factors: Child stunting Child wasting Child mortality Undernutrition (calorific deficiency) across the population. GHI is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. It is an annual by European NGOs of Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. India’s performance in GHI 2022: India has a score of 29.1 which places it under ‘serious’ category. Among the South Asian countries, India (107) is ranked below Sri Lanka (64), Nepal (81), Bangladesh (84), and Pakistan (99). Afghanistan (109) is the only country in South Asia that performs worse than India on the index. Issues with addressing the problem of malnutrition: Manpower constraints: Over 50% Child Development Project Officer (CDPO) posts were vacant in Jharkhand, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, pointing to severe manpower constraints in successfully implementing the scheme of such importance. No routine in social audits: Social audits that are meant to allow for community oversight of the quality of services provided in schools are not carried out routinely. Inadequate funding & implementation: Gaps remain in how the already existing centrally-sponsored schemes are funded and implemented. The budgets being allocated are nowhere near the scale of the funds that are required to improve nutrition in the country. For example, the Saksham Anganwadi and Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN) 2.0 scheme (which now includes the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme), which seeks to work with adolescent girls, pregnant women, nursing mothers and children below three. However, the budget for this scheme for FY2022-23 was less than 1% more than the actual spend in FY2020-21. Issues with cash transfers: Cash transfers seem to be a favoured solution for several social sector interventions in India today, and this includes the health and nutrition sectors. But evidence of the impact of cash transfer on child nutrition in India is limited so far. The effect of cash transfers is also limited in a context where food prices are volatile and inflation depletes the value of cash. Social Factors: Equally, there are social factors such as ‘son preference’, which sadly continues to be prevalent in India and can influence household-level decisions when responding to the nutrition needs of sons and daughters. Other factors: Malnutrition persists due to depressed economic conditions in large parts of the country, the poor state of agriculture in India, persistent levels of unsafe sanitation practices, etc. Measures Taken to Tackle Malnutrition: Poshan Abhiyan: It is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure the attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022. The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan. Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN) 2.0 scheme: It now includes the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, which seeks to work with adolescent girls, pregnant women, nursing mothers and children below three. Integrated Child Development Services: It represents one of the world’s largest and unique programmes for early childhood care and development. The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the implementing agency. Mid-Day Meal Scheme: The Mid-day Meal Scheme is a school meal programme in India designed to better the nutritional standing of school-age children It covers all school students studying in Classes 1 to 8 of government schools, government-aided schools, special training centres, including madrasas supported under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan. National Food Security Mission: It was launched in 2007-08 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It focuses on the sustainable increase in the production of targeted crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement. National Nutrition Mission: It is the government’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce stunting and wasting by 2 percent per year (total 6 per cent until 2022) among children and anaemia by 3 percent per year (total 9 per cent until 2022) among children, adolescent girls and pregnant women and lactating mothers. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal ministry for implementation. Suggestions Measures to Improve Malnutrition in India: Need of a comprehensive programme: A comprehensive programme targeting adolescent girls is required if the intergenerational nature of malnutrition is to be tackled. Cash transfers: Cash transfers can also be used to incentivise behavioural change in terms of seeking greater institutional support. Food rations through PDS and special supplements for the target group of pregnant and lactating mothers, and infants and young children, are essential. Fixing the pre-existing schemes: Fixing the pre-existing schemes is the obvious answer to addressing India’s multi-dimensional nutrition challenge. Getting the already existing schemes right requires greater involvement of local government and local community groups in the design and delivery of tailored nutrition interventions. Keeping it a top priority: The need of the hour is to make addressing child malnutrition the top priority of the government machinery, and all year around. Source: The Hindu Tenant Farmers in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Since tenant farmers do not have land ownership documents, the Central Government has excluded them from receiving PM Kisan. However, the Odisha government has included tenant farmers under the KALIA scheme. About KALIA Scheme: KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. It was launched by the Odisha government in January 2018. Eligibility: Small and marginal farmers, landless Agricultural households, vulnerable Agricultural households, landless Agricultural laborers, and sharecroppers (Actual cultivators) all growth is eligible under different components of the scheme. Benefits: Financial assistance of Rs.25,000/- per farm family over five seasons will be provided to small and marginal farmers so that farmers can purchase inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides and use assistance towards labour and other investments. Financial Assistance of Rs.12500/-will be provided to each landless Agricultural Household for Agricultural allied activities like small goat rearing units, mini-layer units, duckery units, fishery kits for fishermen, mushroom cultivation and bee-keeping, etc. This will particularly benefit to SC & ST population of our State. The vulnerable cultivators/landless agricultural laborers will get financial assistance of Rs. 10,000/- per family per year to enable them to take care of their sustenance. The vulnerable cultivator/landless Agricultural Laborers who are in old age, have a disability/disease, and are vulnerable for any other reason. About the Odisha model: The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme facilitates the transfer of subsidies to beneficiaries’ bank accounts, but identifying the appropriate beneficiaries is complex. The Odisha Government’s move stands out and should prompt every other State to adopt it. The Odisha Government restricts land leasing; however, it includes tenant farmers as one of the beneficiaries to receive KALIA under the three-stage process of the unification-verification-exclusion framework. Unification: Unification begins with unifying State databases with green forms. Verification: Verification is done through multiple databases like the Agricultural Census, Socio-Economic Caste Census, National Food Security Act, National Population Registry, HRMS database of State government employees, bank account validation through bank databases, and de-duplication through Aadhaar. Exclusion: The last phase excludes ineligible recipients, such as government employees, taxpayers, large farmers, and anybody who voluntarily opted out. Algorithms for data integration were created by employing the concept of unification, verification, and exclusion. This is a technology-led transformation to receive direct income support for tenant farmers even without having land documents. So, hereafter, no State can say that tenant farmers are not eligible to receive such payments. Restricted Agricultural Land Leasing Rights: Kerala is the only State to completely prohibit leasing. Most of the other States have some exceptions. For instance, Karnataka enables soldiers and seamen to lease their property, whereas Madhya Pradesh allows leasing to handicapped individuals and widows. And in Gujarat, the leasing regulations differ by area. Some States allow leasing with few terms and conditions. In Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana, the landlord does not get all of the lands back. The landowners, therefore, have no clue what they will get when they lease out their property. This puts the profitability of leasing fully contingent on external circumstances. This has caused the official land leasing market to be severely depressed. What do the surveys indicate? Based on household surveys, the Sample Survey Office estimates that 13 percent of land in India is leased. However, according to the Agri Census statistics based on land records, just 0.36 percent of the land is shown as officially leased. Plight of tenant farmers: 36 percent of India’s tenant farmers were completely landless and 56 percent owned less than one hectare. Across the country, over 20 percent of land holdings are farmed by tenant farmers who cannot access facilities like credit and other support services. Impending investment: Restrictive land leasing legislation has ultimately resulted in impeding investments in the agriculture sector and, thus, impacted Agri-productivity. Adoption of model land leasing act: To mitigate this disparity, States have to come forward to adopt the Model (Agricultural) Land Leasing Act proposed by NITI Aayog in 2016. This Act would allow for the profitable use of fallow land and provide tenant farmers with access to credit and insurance services. Way Forward: With the PM-Kisan comprising the largest component in the agriculture budget, there is a need to address its deficiencies drawing from the experiences of Odisha’s KALIA scheme and Telangana’s Rythu Bandhu Scheme. A land reforms agenda, particularly the land leasing legislations and updated land records, should receive the highest priority to increase the incomes of smallholders, tenant farmers, and sharecroppers. So, the time is right for States to amend the existing laws related to land leasing for securing the rights of tenant farmers. Source: The Hindu India’s transparency regime Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Governance Context: India’s transparency regime is in trouble as the very institution mandated to guard it (Central Information Commission or CIC) has become responsible for its downfall. It had passed orders seeking transparency in many cases of public importance. However, the present set of Information Commissioners have together adopted a new jurisprudence that has created additional hurdles in a citizen’s quest for accountability. Central Information Commission: Established under the Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005, it is the apex body under India’s transparency regime. Its most vital mandate is to decide the disclosure or the non-disclosure of information. Citizens can file applications under the Right to Information Act with any public body and are guaranteed a reply from the public information officer of that public body within 30 days. Under the RTI Act, when an applicant is denied information by a government department, the first appeal is made to the appellate authority in the department. If unresolved, the RTI applicant can move the office of the Central Information Commission (CIC)—for queries related to central government—or State Information Commission. Information Commissioners (ICs) appointed to the CIC are equal in status to the Chief Election Commissioner, and that of a Supreme Court judge; having a a five-year fixed term and terms of service. In its current form, Section 8 of the RTI Act lists ten exemptions, ranging from any information that may hurt national security, impede the process of ongoing investigations to cabinet papers and deliberations of the council of ministers. Challenges to RTI: Centre’s dominance: After the amendments of 2019, the Centre gave itself powers to change and decide these terms whenever it wished, thereby striking at the independence of the commission and those who man it. Lack of public welfare orientation: The CIC has become more like a walking dead institution, where records will show that not a single order for disclosure has been forthcoming in matters of public importance. Delay in hearings: Cases at the CIC come up for a hearing roughly after a two year wait. If the matter is not already infructuous or lost its significance, one can look forward to the commission deciding one’s case. In a case seeking disclosure of documents relating to the making of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019, the commission has resorted to keeping the matter pending for final order for more than three months now, something which is unheard of. Lack of transparency: In matters of public importance, such as cases seeking disclosure of files related to the national lockdown during COVID-19, or the case seeking disclosure of data pertaining to phone tapping orders passed by the Home Ministry, the Commission has adopted a new way of delegating its mandate — to decide cases — to the Ministry before it. Vagueness: In most cases, the Ministries reiterate their stand of non-disclosure, most often under vague grounds of national interest. Lack of procedure: The CIC refuses to accept any further challenge to such orders, therefore, refusing to do its duty of deciding the cases. One of the cardinal rules of natural justice is that no one should be a judge in their own cause. However, the commission now allows, or rather wants, the very Ministry that stands accused of violating the RTI Act to act as the judge in their own cause and decide whether a disclosure is necessary. Such as, CIC refused to hear the Internet Freedom Foundation’s challenge to the fresh non-disclosure order passed by the Home Ministry in the phone tapping case. Ultra-virus actions: In another case related to disclosure of non-performing assets and top defaulters of a co-operative bank, the matter was listed out-of-turn to issue a “stay” order against the Bank’s First Appellate Authority’s order for disclosure. A stay order is unheard of and there is no provision in the RTI Act for the same. High number of vacancies: information commissions are purposely deprived of commissioners to scuttle the effective functioning of the RTI Act. Suggestions for future: Simplicity: Unlike court cases, RTI matters do not involve complex legal arguments and are simple to adjudicate. Reduce pendency: In May 2014, close to 35,000 appeals were pending before the CIC. In June 2019, about 31,000 appeals were pending, over 9,000 of those pending for over a year. Fill vacancy: Currently, four out of the ten positions of information commissioners are vacant. Several information commissions in the states were either non-functional or working at a reduced capacity. Prune the exemption list: In an RTI ratings report by the Canada-based Centre for Law and Democracy, India’s rank slipped from second position in 2011 to eighth in 2018. It flagged blanket exemptions from the RTI to “security, intelligence, research and economic institutes” and “information held by private entities which perform a public function”. Protect whistle-blowers: In March 2018, Nanji Sondarva was allegedly clubbed to death in Gujarat’s Rajkot district after filing an RTI application seeking details of a newly constructed road in his village. 84 RTI activists have been murdered since 2005 for seeking information on illegal construction, alleged scams in social welfare scheme. CIC as a constitutional body: the RTI is safeguarding a fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression to citizens, but without the RTI, one cannot express oneself, including while making an electoral choice. the Supreme Court has also interpreted RTI as a fundamental right—in 1975 and 1982. Political parties under RTI: Political parties are reluctant to share information with citizens. The CIC classified political parties as a public authority since they benefit from land allotted by the government at cheap rates, free air time with state broadcasters during elections, and are allowed to claim income tax exemptions. Way forward: Citizens must mount intense pressure on authorities to act and appoint commissioners of integrity. Lawyers must help willing citizens take matters to court and seek justice. If there is a failure to do so, India will lose its cherished right to know. Source: LiveMint Baba’s Explainer – New Data Protection Bill New Data Protection Bill Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments and the government is expected to introduce the Bill in Parliament in the budget session of 2023. Read Complete Details on New Data Protection Bill Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Biodiversity Heritage sites, consider the following statements: They are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems that need protection. As per Biodiversity Act 2000, Central Governments may notify such sites. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) ‘Champions of the Earth’ is an award launched by The World Meteorological Organisation The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change The UNEP The UNFCCC Secretariat Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Nyingma Sect of Buddhism: Nyingmapa’s trace their translation lineage back to the Samye Monastery, the first Tibetan Buddhist monastery in Tibet. The Nyingma sect is also known as the orange Hat sect because its Lamas wear red robes and hats. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’25th November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - New Data Protection Bill

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments and the government is expected to introduce the Bill in Parliament in the budget session of 2023. Is this the first draft? This is the fourth iteration of a data protection law in India. The first draft of the law — the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018, was proposed by the Justice Srikrishna Committee set up by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) with the mandate of setting out a data protection law for India. The government made revisions to this draft and introduced it as the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 (PDP Bill, 2019) in the Lok Sabha in 2019. On the same day, the Lok Sabha referred it to a joint committee of both the Houses of Parliament. Due to delays caused by the pandemic, the Joint Committee on the PDP Bill, 2019 (JPC) submitted its report on the Bill after two years in December, 2021. The report was accompanied by a new draft bill, namely, the Data Protection Bill, 2021 that incorporated the recommendations of the JPC. However, in August 2022, citing the report of the JPC and the “extensive changes” that the JPC had made to the 2019 Bill, the government withdrew the PDP Bill. Why have there been so many revisions and changes? Constant interactions with digital devices have led to unprecedented amounts of personal data being generated round the clock by users (data principals). When coupled with the computational power available today with companies (data fiduciaries), this data can be processed in ways that increasingly impair the autonomy, self-determination, freedom of choice and privacy of the data principal. The current legal framework for privacy enshrined in the Information Technology Rules, 2011 (IT Rules, 2011) is wholly inadequate to combat such harms to data principals, especially since the right to informational privacy has been upheld as a fundamental right by the Supreme Court ( S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India [2017]). It is inadequate on four levels; First, the extant framework is premised on privacy being a statutory right rather than a fundamental right and does not apply to processing of personal data by the government; Second, it has a limited understanding of the kinds of data to be protected; Third, it places few obligations on the data fiduciaries which, moreover, can be overridden by contract Fourth, there are only minimal consequences for the data fiduciaries for the breach of these obligations. While the need to have an effective personal data protection regime is undisputed, India like other jurisdictions has struggled to come up with an optimum formulation for several reasons. First, while protecting the rights of the citizens, data protection laws need to ensure that the compliances for firms (data fiduciaries) are not so burdensome as to make even legitimate processing impractical. Second, the challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned. Third, given the rate at which technology evolves, an optimum data protection law design needs to be future proof — it should not be unduly focused on contemporary concerns while ignoring problems that may emerge going forward. Fourth, the law must also address the unequal bargaining power of data principals with respect to data fiduciaries. What is the scope of the present formulation of the Bill? The DPDP Bill, 2022 applies to all processing of personal data that is carried out digitally. This would include both personal data collected online and personal data collected offline but is digitised for processing. In effect, by being completely inapplicable to data processed manually, this provides for a somewhat lower degree of protection as the earlier drafts only excluded data processed manually specifically by “small entities” and not generally. Furthermore, as far as the territorial application of the law is concerned, the Bill covers processing of personal data which is collected by data fiduciaries within the territory of India and which is processed to offer goods and services within India. The current provision seems to exclude data processing by Indian data fiduciaries that collect and process personal data outside India, of data principals who are not located in India. This would impact statutory protections available for clients of Indian start-ups operating overseas, thereby impacting their competitiveness. This position further seems to be emphasised with the DPDP Bill, 2022 exempting application of most of its protections to personal data processing of non-residents of India by data fiduciaries in India. How well does the DPDP Bill, 2022 protect data principals? The bulwark of most data protection legislations consists of allowing maximum control to the data principal over their personal data. This happens by mandating a comprehensive notice to the data principal (users) on different aspects of data processing based on which the users can provide explicit consent to such processing. Also, the data fiduciary is placed with the obligation of data minimisation, which is to collect only such personal data as is required to fulfil the purpose of processing (collection limitation); process it only for the purposes stated and no more (purpose limitation) and to retain it in its servers only for so long as is required to fulfil the stated purpose (storage limitation). The current draft removes collection limitation. This would allow a data fiduciary to collect any personal data consented to by the data principal. Making collection solely contingent on consent, ignores the fact that data principals often do not have the requisite know-how of what kind of personal data is relevant for a particular purpose. It also does away with the concept of “sensitive personal data”. Depending on the increased potential of harm that can result from unlawful processing of certain categories of personal data, most data protection legislations classify these categories as “sensitive personal data”. Illustratively, this includes biometric data, health data, genetic data etc. This personal data is afforded a higher degree of protection in terms of requiring explicit consent before processing and mandatory data protection impact assessments. By doing away with this distinction, the DPDP Bill, 2022 does away with these additional protections. Additionally, the Bill also reduces the information that a data fiduciary is required to provide to the data principal. While the previous iterations required considerable information in terms of the rights of the data principals, grievance redressal mechanism, retention period of information, source of information collected etc to be provided for the data principal, the current draft reduces the scope of this information to the personal data sought to be collected and the purpose of processing the data. Moreover, the DPDP Bill, 2022 seems to have a limited understanding of the purpose of notice. It says that notice is only to be provided to take consent of the data principal. This A notice is also important for the data principal to exercise data protection rights such as the right to know what personal data is being processed by whom, whether that data needs correction or updation or not. The DPDP Bill, 2022 also introduces the concept of “deemed consent”. In effect, it provides for “reasonable purposes” for which personal data processing could be undertaken under the ground of “deemed consent”. However, there exist some concerns around this due to the vaguely worded grounds for processing such as “public interest” and the removal of additional safeguards for protection of data principals’ interests. An important addition to the right of data principals is that it recognises the right to post mortem privacy which was missing from the PDP Bill, 2019 but had been recommended by the JPC. The right to post mortem privacy would allow the data principal (user) to nominate another individual in case of death or incapacity. Main Practice Question: Previous data protection bill was inadequate that necessitated new draft legislation. Elucidate. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 6] 2022 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) - > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2022, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one on one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) - Day 6 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Which incident has inspired you the most in your life? (It can be personal or professional both) Why? Have you ever inspired someone? What was the event? Who inspires you more, common people or famous personalities? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Why can't freedom of speech and expression be an absolute right? Do you think celebrities and public figures should be careful in what they post and share on social media platforms? Why or why not? Substantiate your response with the help of relevant examples. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba