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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   HARAPPAN CIVILISATION AND SARASVATI RIVER Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ART & CULTURE, GEOGRAPHY Context: The new NCERT Class 6 Social Science textbook includes several new elements, such as referring to the Harappan civilisation as the ‘Sindhu-Sarasvati’ and ‘Indus-Sarasvati’ civilisation and multiple mentions of the ‘Sarasvati’ river, including noting its desiccation as a reason for the decline of Harappan society. Background:- ‘Exploring Society: India and Beyond’ is the first Social Science textbook released by the NDA government in alignment with the National Curriculum Framework for School Education 2023. Focus on Sarasvati river The new textbook makes multiple references to the ‘Sarasvati’ river in the chapter on the beginnings of Indian civilisation. The Harappan civilisation is referred to as the ‘Indus-Sarasvati’ or ‘Sindhu-Sarasvati’ civilisation, and the river is given a prominent place. According to new text, ‘Sarasvati’ basin included major cities of the harappan civilisation — Rakhigarhi and Ganweriwala — along with smaller cities and towns. The river today goes by the name of ‘Ghaggar’ in India and ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan (hence the name ‘Ghaggar-Hakra River’), and is now seasonal. The river also plays a key role in a section on how the Harappan civilisation declined. It states that two factors are agreed upon: one is “climate change,” which led to reduced rainfall, and the other is that the “Sarasvati river dried up in its central basin; as a result, cities like Kalibangan and Banawali were suddenly abandoned.” Content in the Old textbook The old History textbook, ‘Our Past I’, mentioned the river only once in a section on the Rig Veda, where it is included among the rivers named in the hymns in the Vedas. The old one does not cite the drying up of the river as a reason for the decline of Harappan cities. Instead, it mentions that some scholars suggest river desiccation, while others point to deforestation and floods in certain areas. “But none of these reasons can explain the end of all the cities. Flooding, or a river drying up, would have had an effect in only some areas. It appears as if the rulers lost control,” the old book stated. Source: The Indian Express CYPRUS Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Turkey’s president recently dampened hopes for quick talks to resolve Cyprus’s ethnic division, reaffirming his support for a two-state deal that Greek Cypriots reject. Background: President Recep Tayyip Erdogan ruled out a peace deal based on a United Nations-endorsed plan for federation, speaking ahead of a military parade to mark the 50th anniversary of a Turkish invasion that split the island along ethnic lines. About Cyprus Cyprus, officially the Republic of Cyprus, is an island country in the eastern Mediterranean Sea, north of the Sinai Peninsula, south of the Anatolian Peninsula, and west of the Levant. It is geographically a part of West Asia, but its cultural ties and geopolitics are overwhelmingly Southeast European. Cyprus is the third largest and third-most populous island in the Mediterranean. It is east of Greece, north of Egypt, south of Turkey, and west of Lebanon and Syria. Its capital and largest city is Nicosia. The northeast portion of the island is de facto governed by the self-declared Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus.   Cyprus was formally annexed by the UK in 1914. The future of the island became a matter of disagreement between the two prominent ethnic communities, GreekCypriots, who made up 77% of the population and Turkish Cypriots, who made up 18% of the population. From the 19th century onwards, the Greek Cypriot population pursued enosis, union with Greece, which became a Greek national policy in the 1950s. The Turkish Cypriot population initially advocated the continuation of the British rule, then demanded the annexation of the island to Turkey, and in the 1950s, together with Turkey, established a policy of taksim, the partition of Cyprus and the creation of a Turkish polity in the north. Following nationalist violence in the 1950s, Cyprus was granted independence from UK in 1960 . On 15 July 1974, a coup was staged by Greek Cypriot nationalists and elements of the Greek military junta in an attempt at enosis. This action precipitated the Turkish invasion of Cyprus on 20 July, which led to the capture of the present-day territory of Northern Cyprus. A separate Turkish Cypriot state in the north was established by unilateral declaration in 1983; the move was widely condemned by the international community, with Turkey alone recognising the new state. These events and the resulting political situation are matters of a continuing dispute. Cyprus is a major tourist destination in the Mediterranean. Source: The Hindu ARTICLE 361 OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION Syllabus Mains & Mains – POLITY Context: The Supreme Court recently agreed to examine the question of immunity to Governors from any kind of criminal prosecution, granted under Article 361 of the Constitution. Background: The Bench, headed by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, was hearing a plea filed by a contractual woman employee of West Bengal Raj Bhavan, who has alleged sexual harassment by Governor C V Ananda Bose. A 361: Protection to President and Governors 361(1) The President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties : Provided that the conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under article 61 : Provided further that nothing in this clause shall be construed as restricting the right of any person to bring appropriate proceedings against the Government of India or the Government of a State. 361 (2) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor, in any court during his term of office. 361 (3) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during hi s term of office. 361 (4) No civil proceedings seeking relief against the President or a State Governor can be initiated during their term for acts done in their personal capacity, either before or after assuming office, until two months after written notice detailing the nature of the proceedings, cause of action, and the claimant’s details has been delivered to them or left at their office. Note: Articles presented above are concise form of constitutional language. Present Case In a complaint to the Kolkata Police, a woman had alleged that she was sexually harassed by West Bengal Governor when he called her to Raj Bhavan under the pretext of offering her a job on April 24 and May 2. She stated that she was left “remediless” due to the Governor’s immunity under Article 361(2) and urged the court to set guidelines and qualifications for exercising this immunity. Source: Indian Express   URANIUM CONTAMINATION Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A new study by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has concluded that concentration of uranium up to 60 micrograms per litre (millionth of a gram per litre or µg/l) in drinking water was entirely safe, suggesting that the recently formulated “more stringent” national standard of 30 µg/l could be counterproductive. Background: For years, the acceptable level of uranium concentration in drinking water in India was 60 µg/l. In 2021, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the custodian of standards and quality in India announced a new limit of 30 µg/l, in line with recommendations of the World Health Organization (WHO). About Uranium : Uranium is a silvery-white metallic chemical element, with atomic number 92. It is assigned the chemical symbol U. A uranium atom has 92 protons and 92 electrons, of which 6 are valence electrons. Uranium has the highest atomic weight of all naturally occurring elements. Uranium occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water, and is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals such as uraninite. Uranium ore can be mined from open pits or underground excavations. The ore can then be crushed and treated at a mill to separate the valuable uranium from the ore. Uranium may also be dissolved directly from the ore deposits in the ground (in-situ leaching) and pumped to the surface. Uranium mined from the earth is stored, handled, and sold as uranium oxide concentrate (U3O8). Uranium was discovered in 1789 by Martin Klaproth, a German chemist. He named his discovery “uran” after the planet Uranus. For many years, uranium was used primarily as a colorant for ceramic glazes and for tinting in early photography. Its radioactive properties were not recognized until 1866, and its potential for use as an energy source was not manifested until the mid-20th century. About the new standards The BARC study cited several medical researches to argue that small concentrations of uranium in drinking water pose no threat. According to the researchers, the WHO’s standards of uranium concentration in drinking water — 30 µg/l — were mere guidelines, and not a recommended safety limit. Finland and Slovakia — two nations with considerable amounts of uranium consumption — have prescribed safety limits of 100 and 350 µg/l respectively; another uranium-rich country, South Africa, has a limit of 70 µg/l. The limits in countries like Canada and Australia that have the largest deposits of uranium among others, however, are 20 and 15 µg/l, respectively. Germany, which does not have uranium, has even lower limits. According to the BARC study, in the absence of any evidence of adverse health impacts at such small concentrations, considerations like geological (prevalence of uranium) and socio-economic conditions, and population dynamics must also be taken into account while deciding on national standards on uranium contamination. Source: Indian Express   RATAPANI WILDLIFE SANCTUARY Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Madhya Pradesh State Wildlife Board has accorded approval to declare Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, on the outskirts of Bhopal, as the eighth tiger reserve of MP. Background: Ratapani’s diverse ecosystem make it a valuable addition to India’s tiger conservation efforts. About Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary : Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh. Ratapani was first notified in 1976 and later extended in 1983. The proposal to declare Ratapani wildlife sanctuary as tiger reserve has been in discussion since 2008. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has accorded in principle approval to notify Ratapani wildlife sanctuary as the tiger reserve in 2011. It is situated in the Vindhya ranges and spans an area of 824 square kilometers. Ratapani tiger reserve, when notified, will be the first tiger reserve in the country to have proximity to a state capital. The proposed tiger reserve will be the eighth one in Madhya Pradesh. The seven other existing tiger reserves are Bandhavgarh, Kanha, Panna, Pench, Sanjay-Dubri, Satpura and Veerangana Durgavati. Flora: The sanctuary features a diverse landscape with teak forests, hills, plateaus, valleys, and plains. Two major reservoirs, Barna Reservoir and Ratapani Dam (Barrusot lake), enhance its ecological significance. Fauna: Ratapani hosts over 150 species of birds, including the paradise flycatcher, which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh. The wildlife includes tigers, leopards, wild dogs, hyenas, jackals, foxes, spotted deer, blue bulls, sambhar, barking deer, chinkara, black bucks, and monkeys. Historical and Cultural Significance: The Bhimbetka rock shelters, adorned with ancient rock paintings, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site within the sanctuary. The Chinkara, an endangered species, also finds refuge here. Other inhabitants include the Panther, Hyena, Jackal, Indian Fox, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, Small Indian Civet, Blue Bull, Chinkara, Black Buck, Chausingha, Spotted Deer, and Barking Deer. Historical Connection: Ratapani is home to the Bhimbetka rock shelters, adorned with ancient rock paintings dating back over 30,000 years. UNESCO has recognized Bhimbetka as a World Heritage Site. Source: Deccan Chronicle   THE INTERNATIONAL CENTRE FOR AUDIT OF LOCAL GOVERNANCE (iCAL) Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL) was inaugurated by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. Background: By establishing iCAL, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) aims to create a cooperative ecosystem, elevate auditing standards, and enhance financial accountability at the grassroots level in India. About The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL): The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL), a pioneering initiative by supreme audit institutions (SAIs) India, was officially inaugurated in Rajkot, Gujarat on 18th July 2024. iCAL’s primary objectives are to develop and enhance standards for Local Government Audits, strengthen data collection and reporting, and empower auditors, executives, and elected representatives through comprehensive training programs and leadership development initiatives. It aims to improve financial performance assessment and service delivery by providing Technical Guidance and Support to Local Government auditors. iCAL would assist Local Governments in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals, fostering community engagement, and addressing global challenges, like climate change and the blue economy, as they play a crucial role in effective policy implementation and economic growth at the grassroots level. Need for iCAL: Increased Funding: With significant funds flowing to local bodies, proper auditing is essential to ensure efficient utilization. Global Practices: The CAG highlighted the need to adopt global best practices in local government auditing, noting that 40 countries have supreme audit institutions (SAIs) for this purpose. Capacity Building: Building the capacity of auditors and local government employees is essential to improve financial management practices and internal controls. Source: PIB   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Cyprus It is an island country in the eastern Mediterranean Sea, north of the Sinai Peninsula, south of the Anatolian Peninsula, and west of the Levant. The northeast portion of the island is de facto governed by the self-declared Greek Republic of Northern Cyprus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? One only Two only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements: The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL), a pioneering initiative by supreme audit institutions (SAIs) India. iCAL’s main objectives are to improve Local Government Audit standards, strengthen data collection and reporting, and empower auditors, executives, and elected representatives with training programs and leadership development initiatives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news is located in Karnataka Mizoram Madhya Pradesh Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  20th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  d Q.2) – d Q.3) – b For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   ROLE OF THE FINANCE COMMISSION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The sixteenth Finance Commission headed by former Niti Aayog Vice-Chairman Arvind Panagariya has begun its work by inviting suggestions from the public on the mandate set for it by the Centre. Background:- The most recent Finance Commission, composed of five members including the chairman, was established in December last year. It is anticipated to present its recommendations by October 2025, which will be applicable for five years starting April 1, 2026. About Finance Commission The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends how tax revenues collected by the Central government should be distributed among the Centre and various States in the country. Article 280 states that : The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier, time as the President considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. The Commission is reconstituted typically every five years and usually takes a couple of years to make its recommendations to the Centre. The Centre is not legally bound to implement the suggestions made by the Finance Commission. How does the Commission decide? The Finance Commission decides what proportion of the Centre’s net tax revenue goes to the States overall (vertical devolution) and how this share for the States is distributed among various States (horizontal devolution). The horizontal devolution of funds between States is usually decided based on a formula created by the Commission that takes into account a State’s population, fertility level, income level, geography, etc. The vertical devolution of funds, however, is not based on any such objective formula. The last few Finance Commissions have recommended greater vertical devolution of tax revenues to States. The 13th, 14th and 15th Finance Commissions recommended that the Centre share 32%, 42% and 41% of funds, respectively, from the divisible pool with States. The 16th Financial Commission is also expected to recommend ways to augment the revenues of local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities. It should be noted that, as of 2015, only about 3% of public spending in India happened at the local body level, as compared to other countries such as China where over half of public spending happened at the level of the local bodies. What are the disagreements between centre and states? States argue that the Centre does not allocate even the recommended funds from the Finance Commissions, which they believe are already insufficient. Analysts point out that, under the Fifteenth Finance Commission, the Centre has devolved an average of only 38% of the funds from the divisible pool to the States, compared to the Commission’s recommendation of 41%. States have complaints about what portion of the Centre’s overall tax revenues should be considered as part of the divisible pool out of which the States are funded. Cesses and surcharges, which do not come under the divisible pool and hence not shared with the States, can constitute as much as 28% of the Centre’s overall tax revenue. The increased devolution of funds from the divisible pool, as recommended by successive Finance Commissions, may be offset by rising cess and surcharge collections. In fact, it is estimated that if cesses and surcharges that go to the Centre are also taken into account, the share of States in the Centre’s overall tax revenues may fall to as low as 32% under the 15th Finance Commission. More developed States such as Karnataka and Tamil Nadu have also complained that they receive less money from the Centre than what they contribute as taxes. Tamil Nadu, for example, received only 29 paise for each rupee that the State contributed to the Centre’s exchequer while Bihar gets more than ₹7 for each rupee it contributes. In other words, it is argued that more developed States with better governance are being penalised by the Centre to help States with poor governance. Critics also believe that the Finance Commission, whose members are appointed by the Centre, may not be fully independent and immune from political influence. Source: Hindu RWANDA Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Rwanda’s President Paul Kagame has been re-elected with 99.18% of the vote, the National Electoral Commission said, extending his near quarter-century in office. Background: Rights groups says that election was marred by crack-down on journalists, the opposition and civil society groups , a criticism which government has rejected. About Rwanda Rwanda, officially the Republic of Rwanda, is a landlocked country in the Great Rift Valley of Central Africa, where the African Great Lakes region and Southeast Africa converge. Located a few degrees south of the Equator, Rwanda is bordered by Uganda, Tanzania, Burundi, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. It is highly elevated, giving it the soubriquet “land of a thousand hills”), with its geography dominated by mountains in the west and savanna to the southeast, with numerous lakes throughout the country. The climate is temperate to subtropical, with two rainy seasons and two dry seasons each year. It is the most densely populated mainland African country; among countries larger than 10,000 km2, it is the fifth-most densely populated country in the world. Its capital and largest city is Kigali. Coffee and tea are the major cash crops that it exports. Tourism is a fast-growing sector and is now the country’s leading foreign exchange earner. The country is a member of the African Union, the United Nations, the Commonwealth of Nations, COMESA, OIF and the East African Community. Although Rwanda has low levels of corruption compared with neighbouring countries, it ranks among the lowest in international measurements of government transparency, civil liberties and quality of life. The population is young and predominantly rural; Rwanda has one of the youngest populations in the world. Source: Reuters SIGNIFICANCE OF THE GULF REGION IN INDIA’S ENERGY SECURITY Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Today, India is the world’s third-largest energy consumer after China and the United States. Given the enormous import dependence for energy needs, relations with Gulf states are crucial. Background: A seamless energy supply is crucial to ensure energy security, which means meeting domestic demands and protecting energy infrastructure from threats. Energy consumption According to Energy Statistics India, 2024, prepared by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, India’s total primary energy production in 2022-23 was 19.55 exajoules and total consumption during the same period was 35.16 exajoule. This means that about 68 per cent of the demands were met through domestic production, underlining significant external dependence. Coal is India’s largest source of primary energy supply, comprising 58.12 per cent of the total in 2023. Despite significant domestic coal production, India has to source part of its coal demands externally, given the huge consumption. Oil and gas External dependence becomes starker when it comes to oil and gas, which is the second largest source of primary energy supply in India. India’s total oil consumption was 5.44 million barrels per day in 2023, while total oil production was 0.73 million barrels per day. Similarly, natural gas consumption was 62.6 billion cubic metres, while natural gas production was only 31.6 billion cubic metres. This meant that most oil and gas are sourced externally, underlining India’s dependence on imports for its energy security, especially in meeting the oil and gas demands. Gulf countries, the most dependable suppliers Historically, the Persian Gulf states, namely the six Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries—Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates (UAE)—and Iran and Iraq have been the primary oil and gas suppliers to India contributing nearly 55-60 per cent of total oil and gas imports. According to the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics of the Ministry of Commerce, in 2023-24, five of the Gulf countries, namely Iraq (second), Saudi Arabia (third), UAE (fourth), Qatar (seventh) and Kuwait (ninth), were among top ten petroleum suppliers to India while Russia (first), United States (fifth), Australia (sixth), Indonesia (eight) and Nigeria (tenth) were other five. Notably, the Gulf countries have been among India’s top petroleum suppliers since the 1980s and have remained the most dependable suppliers despite the fluctuations in the international oil and gas market and supply chains. Continued significance of the Gulf  In recent years, India has made deliberate efforts to diversify its sources of energy consumption and petroleum imports. This has meant that the focus on clean and renewable sources has increased, and simultaneously, countries such as Russia, the United States, Australia and Nigeria have emerged as important sources. Nonetheless, several factors contribute to the continued significance of the Gulf region, remaining critical to India’s energy security. The most important factors are: its geographical proximity to India established buyer-seller networks. the capacity and commitment of the Gulf states to supply oil and gas at special prices. Trade and investment The attraction of the Indian market as one of the biggest global consumers has worked in India’s favour, given it provides Gulf suppliers with a stable and large market for crude oil and natural gas. This has made India an attractive destination for Gulf investments in the energy sector, with mega Gulf energy corporations such as Saudi Aramco and Emirati ADNOC committing big long-term investments. In 2023-24, of the total US$1.11 trillion foreign trade, US$208.48 billion came from the Gulf and West Asia region, comprising 18.17 percent of India’s foreign trade. Notably, 14.28 percent of this came from the six GCC countries. The region’s economic importance has accorded the Gulf region a special place in India’s Look West policy. Besides commodity and petroleum trade, the flow of Indian expatriates to the GCC countries, the remittances they send and the two-way flow of investments are important components of economic relations. According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, the total FDI from the GCC countries into India between April 2000 and March 2024 was US$24.09 billion. Bilateral ties Indian investments and participation in the GCC market have witnessed a sharp rise, with companies such as Larsen & Toubro, Shapoorji-Pallonji and Tata increasing their presence while Indian businesses, such as Lulu hypermarket chain, making their mark in the GCC market. Besides the strong economic relations, the strengthening of bilateral political and strategic ties, especially since the early 2000s, has played a crucial role in making the Gulf a dependable partner. The bilateral ties, especially with the UAE, Saudi Arabia and Qatar, have further flourished under Modi, and this has helped India overcome challenges due to sanctions on major global oil and gas suppliers such as Iran and Venezuela, impact of regional conflicts during and after the Arab Spring (2010-12), as well as during the global COVID-19 pandemic (2020-22). Source: Indian Express ENEMY PROPERTIES Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian government has recently taken a significant step to auction properties classified as “enemy properties.” Background: Over 9,400 ‘enemy’ properties, worth more than Rs 1 lakh crore, are set to be auctioned with the home ministry starting the process of identifying all such estates. About Enemy properties : Enemy properties are those that were once owned by individuals who took Chinese or Pakistani citizenship after India fought wars with these countries. Enemy properties include both immovable (real estate) and movable (such as bank accounts, shares, and gold) properties left behind by those who migrated to Pakistan and China. These properties are vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority created under the Enemy Property Act, 1968. The Enemy Property Act, 1968 governs the allocation and management of these properties. It was enacted in the aftermath of the 1965 Indo-Pakistani war. The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act 2017: In 2017, the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act clarified that Successors of those who migrated to Pakistan or China no longer have a claim over these properties. The law of succession does not apply to enemy properties. Transfers of such properties by enemies, enemy subjects, or enemy firms are prohibited. The custodian preserves these properties until they are disposed of according to the Act’s provisions. CEPI currently manages 13,252 enemy properties across India. Their total value exceeds Rs 1 lakh crore. Most of these properties belong to individuals who migrated to Pakistan, while a smaller number are associated with those who migrated to China. State-wise Distribution: Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of enemy properties (5,982). West Bengal follows closely with 4,354 properties. Source: Hindu INDIA AI MISSION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Artificial intelligence is all over news as companies try to come up with AI loaded products and services. Governments across the globe are trying to enter the race for an AI powered future. Background: It was Vladimir Putin who famously put AI on every country’s priority list when he declared back in 2017 that the nation that leads in AI “will be the ruler of the world”. Every world leader has echoed this in some way. About India AI mission : The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission with an allocation of Rs 10,300 crore in march, 2024. The Mission will be implemented by ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC) and has the following components: IndiaAI Compute Capacity: The IndiaAI compute pillar will build a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s AI start-ups and research ecosystem. The ecosystem will comprise AI compute infrastructure of 10,000 or more Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), built through public-private partnership. IndiaAI Innovation Centre: It will undertake the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors. IndiaAI Datasets Platform – The IndiaAI Datasets Platform will streamline access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation. IndiaAI Application Development Initiative – It will promote the AI applications in critical sectors for the problem statements sourced from Central Ministries, State Departments, and other institutions. IndiaAI FutureSkills – It is conceptualized to mitigate barriers to entry into AI programs and will increase AI courses in undergraduate, masters-level, and Ph.D. programs. Further, Data and AI Labs will be set-up in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities across India to impart foundational level courses. IndiaAI Startup Financing: It is conceptualized to support and accelerate deep-tech AI startups and provide them streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects. Safe & Trusted AI – Recognizing the need for adequate safeguards to advance the responsible development, deployment, and adoption of AI, the Safe & Trusted AI pillar will enable the implementation of Responsible AI projects including the development of indigenous tools and frameworks, self-assessment checklists for innovators, and other guidelines and governance frameworks. Source: Indian Express SQUALUS HIMA Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species named Squalus Hima.. Background: The discovery of this new species is crucial for conservation efforts, as dogfish sharks are exploited for their fins, liver oil, and meat. About SQUALUS HIMA : Squalus belongs to the genus of dogfish sharks (commonly known as spurdogs) in the family Squalidae. These sharks are characterized by their smooth dorsal fin spines. Squalus hima was discovered off the coast of Kerala, specifically at the Sakthikulangara fishing harbor along the Arabian Sea. In the Indian coast, two species of Squalus are found from the southwest coast of India and the new species, Squalus hima n.sp. very similar to Squalus lalannei, but differs in many characteristics. Squalus hima sp.nov differs from other species by the number of precaudal vertebrae, total vertebrae, teeth count, trunk & head heights, fin structure and fin colour. Importance and Conservation: The shark species belonging to the genus Squalus and Centrophorus are exploited for their liver oil, which contains high levels of squalene (or squalane when processed for products). This oil is in demand for pharmaceutical industries, especially for high-end cosmetic and anti-cancer products. The discovery of the new species is important to conserve such varieties of shark Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries Rwanda Botswana Chad Zambia How many of the countries given above are landlocked? One only Two only Three only All four Q2.) Squalus Hima, recently found in news is a green pit viper wolf snake burrowing frog dogfish shark Q3.)With reference to the Enemy properties in India, consider the following statements: Enemy properties are those that were once owned by individuals who took Chinese or Pakistani citizenship after India fought wars with these countries. Enemy properties include immovable properties only. The law of succession does not apply to enemy properties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here  

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   CAUSES OF WIDESPREAD RAINFALL ACROSS INDIA Syllabus Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: Last week, widespread rainfall was reported in at least 80% of the country, with heavy to very heavy spells hitting Assam, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Gujarat, coastal Maharashtra and Karnataka, Kerala, and Lakshadweep. Background:- Since the start of this month, multiple favourable weather systems have kept the monsoon either active or vigorous (with respect to rainfall events) over southern peninsular, east, northeast, and central India regions. What factors are causing widespread rains? There have been two main contributors to the enhanced rainfall: continuous incoming of moisture-laden strong westerly winds from the Arabian Sea. position of the monsoon trough (trough is a belt of low pressure extending to large area) Monsoon trough is a semi-permanent, low-pressure area extending between Pakistan and the Bay of Bengal during the monsoon season — which usually oscillates between north and south within the season. When monsoon trough moves towards the south, as it has done in the present case, more rainfall can take place in central, eastern and peninsular India. When the trough shifts towards the north, the Himalayan foothills are likely to receive more rainfall but the rest of India sees a drop in rainfall. Apart from these two factors, other weather systems have also contributed to the widespread rainfall over all regions, except the extreme north India. They are: The persistence of an off-shore trough (a shallow trough of low pressure, which develops along India’s coast during the monsoon) between south Gujarat and north Kerala. The intermittent development of a wind shear zone — where winds move with different velocities and directions — along latitudes 20 ° N between central and peninsular India. The development of a low pressure system over the west-central Bay of Bengal, off the Odisha coast. The system moved over Chhattisgarh and adjoining Vidarbha and over to southeast Madhya Pradesh. Source: Indian Express INTERNATIONAL COVENANT ON CIVIL AND POLITICAL RIGHTS (ICCPR) Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India successfully concluded its 4th periodic review by the Human Rights Committee under the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR). Background: The Human Rights Committee, comprising 18 independent experts serving in their individual capacity, monitors implementation of ICCPR and reviews reports of all States Parties (countries) by conducting periodic reviews, and then making observations and recommendations. About International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty that commits nations to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial. It was adopted by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 2200A (XXI) on 16 December 1966 and entered into force on 23 March 1976 after its thirty-fifth ratification or accession. As of June 2024, the Covenant has 174 parties and six more signatories without ratification, most notably the People’s Republic of China and Cuba;North Korea is the only state that has tried to withdraw. The ICCPR, together with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights, are considered the International Bill of Human Rights. The ICCPR obligates countries that have ratified the treaty to protect and preserve basic human rights, such as: the right to life and human dignity; equality before the law; freedom of speech, assembly, and association; religious freedom and privacy; freedom from torture, ill-treatment, and arbitrary detention; gender equality; the right to a fair trial; right to family life and minority rights. The Covenant compels governments to take administrative, judicial, and legislative measures in order to protect the rights enshrined in the treaty and to provide an effective remedy. Compliance with the ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee, which reviews regular reports of states parties on how the rights are being implemented. States must report one year after acceding to the Covenant and then whenever the Committee requests (usually every four years). Source: Ministry of External Affairs CHAGOS ARCHIPELAGO Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: India recently reaffirmed its support to Mauritius on the issue of the Chagos Archipelago. Background: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar, during his two-day visit to Mauritius, affirmed that India will maintain its steadfast support for Mauritius, aligning with its core principles on decolonization and the sovereignty and territorial integrity of nations. About Chagos Archipelago The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands is a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60 islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres south of the Maldives archipelago. This chain of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos–Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian Ocean. In its north are the Salomon Islands, Nelsons Island and Peros Banhos; towards its south-west are the Three Brothers, Eagle Islands, Egmont Islands and Danger Island; southeast of these is Diego Garcia, by far the largest island. All are low-lying atolls, save for a few extremely small instances, set around lagoons. When Mauritius was a French colony, the islands were a dependency of the French administration in Mauritius. By the Treaty of Paris of 1814, France ceded Mauritius and its dependencies to the United Kingdom. In 1965, while planning for Mauritian independence, the UK constituted the Chagos as the British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT). Mauritius gained independence from the United Kingdom in 1968, and has since claimed the Chagos Archipelago as Mauritian territory. In 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) issued a non-binding advisory opinion stating that the UK has an obligation to bring to an end its administration of the Chagos Archipelago as rapidly as possible, and that all Member States must co-operate with the United Nations to complete the decolonization of Mauritius. In 2021, the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea confirmed for its jurisdiction that the UK has no sovereignty over the Chagos Islands and thus the islands should be handed back to Mauritius. Source: The Wire DAVIS STRAIT Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Davis Strait has long intrigued scientists due to its complex geological features. Recent research has uncovered a fascinating aspect of this region – a microcontinent that was formed through intricate plate tectonic processes. Background: A team of geologists identified an isolated block of thick continental crust in the Davis Strait. This formation, measuring 19-24 kilometres thick, was likely separated from Greenland due to east-west extension along its margin. It has been named the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent. About Davis Strait : TheDavis Strait is a southern arm of the Arctic Ocean that lies north of the Labrador Sea. Davis Strait lies between thesoutheastern Baffin Island (Canada) and southwestern Greenland. The strait separates the depths of Baffin Bay (north) from those of the Labrador Sea (south) and forms part of the Northwest Passage, a route through the Canadian Arctic Archipelago linking the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. It is approximately 400 miles (650 km) north to south and 200 to 400 miles wide. Source: NDTV CHANDIPURA VIRUS INFECTION (CHPV) Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Fifteen children have died of a suspected viral infection, known as Chandipura virus, in Gujarat since July 10. Background: The World Health Organization (WHO) had recognised the Chandipura virus as a potential priority disease in 2017. About CHANDIPURA VIRUS INFECTION (CHPV) : The Chandipura virus (CHPV) belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. It was first identified in 1965 in Chandipura, a village in Maharashtra. Transmission: Sandflies, particularly species of the genus Phlebotomus, are the primary vectors for CHPV transmission. These tiny blood-sucking insects are prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions. Symptoms: Initial symptoms include sudden onset of high fever, severe headache, and muscle pain. As the infection progresses, it can lead to altered consciousness, seizures, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Early detection and treatment are crucial for patient survival. Treatment: As of now, there is no antiretroviral treatment or vaccine accessible for treatment. Affected Regions: Most cases are reported from north Gujarat, where the dry temperature favours sandfly breeding. Children under 15 years are particularly vulnerable due to their lower immunity against viral infections. Source: Business Standard NATIONAL BANK FOR FINANCING INFRASTRUCTURE AND DEVELOPMENT (NABFID) Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The government wants to increase the capital base of the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) to 1 trillion through support from banks. Background: NaBFID plays a critical role in financing India’s infrastructure projects, and its capital expansion plans are aligned with the country’s development needs. About National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) : National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) is a specialized Development Finance Institution (DFI) in India. It is a statutory body established by the Government of India. Its creation was formalized through the enactment of the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2021. The primary objective of the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) is to address the long-term financing needs of critical infrastructure projects in India. It aims to strengthen the development of bonds and derivatives markets in India and sustainably boost the country’s economy. NaBFID is recognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI). As a Development Finance Institution (DFI) and All-India Financial Institution, NaBFID channels investments into critical infrastructure sectors such as energy, roads, railways, and urban infrastructure. Source: Livemint Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Chagos Archipelago, recently seen in news is located in Indian Ocean Atlantic Ocean Pacific Ocean Arctic Ocean Q2.)With reference to the Chandipura virus (CHPV) infection, consider the following statements: The Chandipura virus was first identified in Gujarat. The sandflies are the primary vectors for CHPV transmission. As of now, there is no antiretroviral treatment or vaccine accessible for treatment. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.)With reference to the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID), consider the following statements: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development is a statutory body. NaBFID is recognized as an All-India Financial Institution by the Reserve Bank of India. NaBFID’s primary objective is to address the long-term financing needs of critical infrastructure projects in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1,2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  18th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा – 16th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   स्कूल्स फॉर राइजिंग इंडिया (पीएम-श्री/ PM-SHRI) पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा – वर्तमान घटनाक्रम संदर्भ: शिक्षा मंत्रालय ने प्रधानमंत्री स्कूल्स फॉर राइजिंग इंडिया (पीएम-श्री) योजना में भाग लेने में अनिच्छा के कारण दिल्ली, पंजाब और पश्चिम बंगाल को प्रमुख स्कूल शिक्षा कार्यक्रम, समग्र शिक्षा अभियान (एसएसए) के तहत धनराशि देना बंद कर दिया है। पृष्ठभूमि:- दिल्ली और पंजाब ने इसमें भाग लेने से इनकार कर दिया क्योंकि आम आदमी पार्टी द्वारा शासित इन दोनों राज्यों में पहले से ही आदर्श स्कूलों के लिए “स्कूल ऑफ एमिनेंस” नामक एक ऐसी ही योजना चल रही है। पश्चिम बंगाल ने अपने स्कूलों के नाम के आगे “पीएम-श्री” लगाने का विरोध किया। प्रधानमंत्री स्कूल्स फॉर राइजिंग इंडिया (पीएम-श्री) के बारे में पीएम श्री योजना भारत सरकार द्वारा शुरू की गई एक केन्द्र प्रायोजित योजना है। इसका उद्देश्य 14,500 से अधिक पीएम श्री स्कूल स्थापित करना है, जिनकी देखरेख केंद्र सरकार, राज्य/संघ राज्य क्षेत्र सरकारें, स्थानीय निकाय, साथ ही केंद्रीय विद्यालय संगठन (केवीएस) और नवोदय विद्यालय समिति (एनवीएस) द्वारा की जाएगी। इन स्कूलों का उद्देश्य प्रत्येक छात्र के लिए समावेशी और स्वागतपूर्ण माहौल बनाना, उनकी भलाई सुनिश्चित करना तथा सुरक्षित और समृद्ध शिक्षण वातावरण प्रदान करना है। इसका लक्ष्य विविध प्रकार के शिक्षण अनुभव प्रदान करना तथा सभी छात्रों के लिए अच्छे भौतिक बुनियादी ढांचे और उपयुक्त संसाधनों तक पहुंच सुनिश्चित करना है। ये स्कूल न केवल संज्ञानात्मक विकास को बढ़ाने पर ध्यान केंद्रित करेंगे, बल्कि 21वीं सदी के प्रमुख कौशल से सुसज्जित समग्र और सर्वांगीण व्यक्ति तैयार करने पर भी ध्यान केंद्रित करेंगे। इन विद्यालयों में अपनाई जाने वाली शिक्षा पद्धति अधिक अनुभवात्मक, समग्र, एकीकृत, खेल/खिलौना-आधारित (विशेष रूप से प्रारंभिक वर्षों में), जांच-संचालित, खोज-उन्मुख, शिक्षार्थी-केंद्रित, चर्चा-आधारित, लचीली और आनंददायक होगी। हर कक्षा में हर बच्चे के सीखने के परिणामों पर ध्यान केंद्रित किया जाएगा। सभी स्तरों पर मूल्यांकन वैचारिक समझ और वास्तविक जीवन की स्थितियों में ज्ञान के अनुप्रयोग पर आधारित होगा और योग्यता-आधारित होगा। पीएम श्री स्कूल राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीति 2020 के कार्यान्वयन को प्रदर्शित करने में मदद करेंगे और समय के साथ अनुकरणीय स्कूल के रूप में उभरेंगे। स्रोत: Business Standard टिर्जेपाटाइड (TIRZEPATIDE) पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक परीक्षा – वर्तमान घटनाक्रम संदर्भ: वजन घटाने वाली विभिन्न दवाओं के विकास ने मोटापे के उपचार में, खासकर पश्चिम में क्रांति ला दी है। हालाँकि, लंबित विनियामक मंजूरी और विदेशों में उच्च मांग के कारण ये दवाएँ अभी तक भारत में उपलब्ध नहीं हो पाई हैं। यह जल्द ही बदल सकता है, क्योंकि पिछले सप्ताह, पहली बार, भारत के दवा नियामक की एक विशेषज्ञ समिति ने दवा टिरज़ेपेटाइड को मंजूरी दी है। पृष्ठभूमि: विशेषज्ञ समिति की सिफारिश की समीक्षा के बाद, नियामक द्वारा अंतिम मंजूरी दिए जाने की उम्मीद है, जिससे दवा निर्माता एली लिली को भारतीय बाजार में उत्पाद लॉन्च करने की अनुमति मिल जाएगी। वजन घटाने के लिए मधुमेह (Diabetes) की दवा 2017 में, अमेरिकी खाद्य एवं औषधि प्रशासन (एफडीए) ने टाइप 2 मधुमेह के प्रबंधन के लिए डेनिश फार्मा दिग्गज नोवो नॉर्डिस्क के ओज़ेम्पिक को सक्रिय घटक सेमाग्लूटाइड के साथ मंजूरी दी। उसके बाद, अमेरिका में डॉक्टरों ने एक दिलचस्प दुष्प्रभाव- वजन कम होना देखा। उन्होंने मोटापे के इलाज के लिए ओज़ेम्पिक को ऑफ-लेबल (अनुमोदित उद्देश्य के अलावा किसी अन्य उद्देश्य के लिए दवा लिखने की प्रथा) लिखना शुरू कर दिया। इसने नोवो नॉर्डिस्क को मधुमेह रहित लोगों के लिए वजन घटाने वाली दवा के रूप में सेमाग्लूटाइड की खोज करने के लिए प्रेरित किया। 2021 में, कंपनी ने FDA-स्वीकृत मोटापे के उपचार के रूप में वेगोवी, एक सेमाग्लूटाइड इंजेक्शन जारी किया। ओज़ेम्पिक और वेगोवी के बीच मुख्य अंतर: सेमाग्लूटाइड की अधिकतम स्वीकृत खुराक ओज़ेम्पिक की तुलना में वेगोवी के साथ थोड़ी अधिक है। नवंबर 2023 में, एक अन्य अमेरिकी फार्मा प्रमुख एली लिली को मोटापे के इलाज के लिए दवा ज़ेपबाउंड के लिए FDA की मंज़ूरी मिल गई। यह उसकी टाइप 2 डायबिटीज़ की दवा, मौनजारो के लॉन्च होने के ठीक एक साल बाद हुआ। ओज़ेम्पिक की तरह, मौंजारो ने भी उपयोगकर्ताओं के बीच वजन घटाने में मदद की, और इसका बड़े पैमाने पर ऑफ-लेबल उपयोग देखा जाने लगा। ज़ेपबाउंड और मौंजारो में सक्रिय घटक के रूप में टिरज़ेपेटाइड होता है। दोनों को वैश्विक बाजार में कमी का सामना करना पड़ रहा है। सेमाग्लूटाइड बनाम टिर्जेपेटाइड एफडीए ने वयस्कों में दीर्घकालिक वजन प्रबंधन के लिए वेगोवी (सेमाग्लूटाइड) और जेपबाउंड (टिर्जेपेटाइड) को मंजूरी दे दी है। ये दवाएं उन लोगों को दी जा सकती हैं जो मोटापे से ग्रस्त हैं (जिनका बॉडी मास इंडेक्स 30 से अधिक है), या अधिक वजन वाले हैं (जिनका बीएमआई 27 से 30 के बीच है), और जिनके वजन से संबंधित कम से कम एक अन्य स्वास्थ्य समस्या है (जैसे उच्च रक्तचाप, उच्च कोलेस्ट्रॉल, या टाइप 2 मधुमेह)। दोनों को त्वचा के नीचे इंजेक्शन के रूप में दिया जाता है, और इनका उपयोग कम कैलोरी वाले आहार और बढ़ी हुई शारीरिक गतिविधि के साथ किया जाता है। सेमाग्लूटाइड और टिर्जेपेटाइड पॉलीपेप्टाइड्स हैं, एक छोटे प्रोटीन जो शरीर में प्राकृतिक रूप से पाए जाने वाले हार्मोन के स्तर को बढ़ाते हैं, जिसमें ग्लूकागन-जैसे-पेप्टाइड 1 (जीएलपी-1) भी शामिल है, जो मस्तिष्क और पाचन तंत्र के माध्यम से वजन को नियंत्रित करता है। आंत में जारी उच्च GLP-1 स्तर, न्यूरॉन्स को उत्तेजित करके प्रतिक्रिया को उत्तेजित करता है जो आंत के कार्य को बदलता है, जिससे परिपूर्णता की भावना होती है। यह प्रक्रिया मस्तिष्क तंत्र में भी प्रवेश करती है जो तंत्रिका मार्गों को प्रज्वलित करती है, जिससे तृप्ति की अनुभूति होती है – जो संतुष्ट होने और पर्याप्त भोजन करने की भावना होती है। वे ग्लूकोज के स्तर को प्रबंधित करने में भी मदद करते हैं, जिससे वे मधुमेह के लिए एक प्रभावी उपचार बन जाते हैं। सेमाग्लूटाइड केवल GLP-1 रिसेप्टर्स को लक्षित करता है। दूसरी ओर, टिरज़ेपेटाइड एक दूसरे हार्मोन: ग्लूकोज-निर्भर इंसुलिनोट्रोपिक पॉलीपेप्टाइड (GIP) को भी बढ़ाता है। GIP मस्तिष्क और वसा कोशिकाओं में रिसेप्टर्स के माध्यम से वजन को भी नियंत्रित करता है। स्रोत: Indian Express शीशम (ROSEWOOD) पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक परीक्षा – पर्यावरण प्रसंग: वन्य जीव और वनस्पति की लुप्तप्राय प्रजातियों के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार पर कन्वेंशन (CITES) ने शीशम की सतत कटाई और व्यापार में शामिल अपने सदस्यों के लिए दिशानिर्देश जारी किए हैं। पृष्ठभूमि: CITES विभिन्न शीशम प्रजातियों के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार की देखरेख करता है, जिसमें डेलबर्गिया, अफज़ेलिया, खाया और प्टेरोकार्पस प्रजातियाँ शामिल हैं। वर्तमान में, इन प्रजातियों को परिशिष्ट II में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है, जो दर्शाता है कि उन्हें तुरंत विलुप्त होने का खतरा नहीं है, लेकिन यदि उनके व्यापार को विनियमित नहीं किया जाता है तो वे खतरे में पड़ सकते हैं। शीशम /रोज़वुड के बारे में : वास्तविक शीशम डालबर्जिया वंश से संबंधित हैं। पश्चिमी विश्व में सबसे ज़्यादा पसंद की जाने वाली शीशम की लकड़ी डालबर्गिया निग्रा की लकड़ी है। इसे “ब्राज़ीलियन शीशम” के नाम से जाना जाता है। इस लकड़ी की गंध बहुत तेज़ और मीठी होती है, जो कई सालों तक बनी रहती है, इसलिए इसे शीशम (rosewood) कहा जाता है। एक और क्लासिक शीशम डालबर्गिया लैटिफोलिया से आता है, जिसे भारतीय शीशम के रूप में जाना जाता है। यह दक्षिण पूर्व भारत के कम ऊंचाई वाले उष्णकटिबंधीय मानसूनी वनों का मूल स्थानिक है। यह भारत के पर्णपाती मानसूनी वनों में सदाबहार और पर्णपाती वृक्ष दोनों के रूप में उगता है। यह वृक्ष कठोर, टिकाऊ, भारी लकड़ी उत्पन्न करता है, जो उचित रूप से सुखाने पर टिकाऊ तथा सड़न और कीटों के प्रति प्रतिरोधी हो जाती है। इस वृक्ष की लकड़ी का उपयोग प्रीमियम फर्नीचर निर्माण और कैबिनेटरी, गिटार बॉडी और फ्रेटबोर्ड, नक्काशी, नावों, स्की और पुनर्वनीकरण के लिए किया जाता है। भारतीय वन अधिनियम, 1927 के तहत जंगली डी. लैटिफोलिया से प्राप्त लकड़ी उत्पादों का निर्यात अवैध है। एक अन्य प्रकार डालबर्जिया सीसो (Dalbergia sissoo) है, जिसे आमतौर पर उत्तर भारतीय शीशम या शीशम के नाम से जाना जाता है। यह तेजी से बढ़ने वाला, कठोर, पर्णपाती शीशम का पेड़ है जो भारतीय उपमहाद्वीप और दक्षिणी ईरान का मूल स्थानिक है। स्रोत: Down To Earth स्कोमेट (विशेष रसायन, जीव, सामग्री, उपकरण और प्रौद्योगिकियां) सूची (SCOMET LIST) पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक परीक्षा – वर्तमान घटनाक्रम प्रसंग: सुरक्षा एजेंसियों ने तमिलनाडु के एक बंदरगाह पर अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर प्रतिबंधित रसायनों की एक चीनी खेप जब्त की है, जो जाहिर तौर पर पाकिस्तान के जैविक और रासायनिक युद्ध कार्यक्रम के लिए थी। पृष्ठभूमि : ऑर्थो-क्लोरो बेंजाइलिडीन मैलोनोनाइट्राइल, जिसे सीएस (CS) के नाम से भी जाना जाता है, का उपयोग आंसू गैस और दंगा नियंत्रण एजेंट के रूप में किया जाता है। सीएस एक दोहरे उपयोग वाला रसायन है जो अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समझौतों और भारत की निर्यात नियंत्रण सूची के तहत सूचीबद्ध है। हालाँकि दंगा नियंत्रण एजेंट के रूप में इसका नागरिक उपयोग है, लेकिन जब्त की गई मात्रा इसके संभावित सैन्य उपयोग के बारे में चिंताएँ पैदा करती है। अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलनों और व्यवस्थाओं के प्रति राष्ट्रीय प्रतिबद्धता: भारत निरस्त्रीकरण और अप्रसार पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलनों, अर्थात रासायनिक हथियार सम्मेलन (सीडब्ल्यूसी) और जैविक एवं विषैले हथियार सम्मेलन (बीडब्ल्यूसी) का हस्ताक्षरकर्ता है। संयुक्त राष्ट्र सुरक्षा परिषद का प्रस्ताव 1540 सभी सदस्य देशों को गैर-राज्यीय कर्ताओं तक सामूहिक विनाश के हथियारों और उनकी वितरण प्रणालियों की पहुंच को प्रतिबंधित करने के लिए बाध्य करता है; तथा सामूहिक विनाश के हथियारों, उनकी वितरण प्रणालियों और संबंधित सामग्रियों, उपकरणों और प्रौद्योगिकी पर उपाय और नियंत्रण निर्धारित करता है। भारत प्रमुख बहुपक्षीय निर्यात नियंत्रण व्यवस्थाओं का सदस्य है, अर्थात मिसाइल प्रौद्योगिकी नियंत्रण व्यवस्था (एमटीसीआर) [मिसाइलों, वितरण प्रणालियों और संबंधित दोहरे उपयोग वाली वस्तुओं पर], वासेनार व्यवस्था (डब्ल्यूए) [युद्ध सामग्री/सैन्य वस्तुओं पर] और जैविक तथा रासायनिक वस्तुओं पर ऑस्ट्रेलिया समूह। अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलनों, तंत्रों और व्यवस्थाओं की प्रासंगिक नियंत्रण सूचियों, दिशा-निर्देशों और प्रावधानों के अनुरूप, भारत दोहरे उपयोग वाली वस्तुओं, परमाणु-संबंधी वस्तुओं और SCOMET सूची के अंतर्गत सॉफ्टवेयर और प्रौद्योगिकी सहित सैन्य वस्तुओं के निर्यात को विनियमित करता है। SCOMET सूची क्या है? एससीओएमईटी (SCOMET) विशेष रसायन, जीव, सामग्री, उपकरण और प्रौद्योगिकी का संक्षिप्त रूप है। तदनुसार, एससीओएमईटी सूची दोहरे उपयोग की वस्तुओं, युद्ध सामग्री और परमाणु संबंधी वस्तुओं, जिनमें सॉफ्टवेयर और प्रौद्योगिकी भी शामिल है, की हमारी राष्ट्रीय निर्यात नियंत्रण सूची है। एससीओएमईटी सूची भारत की विदेश व्यापार नीति के अंतर्गत बनाई जाती है, जिसका क्रियान्वयन विदेश व्यापार महानिदेशालय (डीजीएफटी) द्वारा किया जाता है। एससीओएमईटी सूची के प्रमुख घटक विशेष रसायन: इस श्रेणी में वे रसायन शामिल हैं जिनका विभिन्न उद्योगों में उपयोग होता है, लेकिन इनमें ऐसे गुण भी होते हैं जिनका उपयोग रासायनिक हथियारों या सैन्य उद्देश्यों के लिए किया जा सकता है। उदाहरणों में फार्मास्यूटिकल्स या कृषि के उत्पादन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले रसायन शामिल हो सकते हैं, फिर भी रासायनिक हथियारों के विकास में उपयोग की संभावना है। जीव: जैविक एजेंट और जीव इस श्रेणी में आते हैं। इसमें वे जीव शामिल हैं जिनका उपयोग चिकित्सा, कृषि या औद्योगिक क्षेत्रों में हो सकता है, लेकिन वे जैविक हथियारों या जैव आतंकवाद के संदर्भ में भी खतरा पैदा कर सकते हैं। सामग्री: ऐसी सामग्री जो नागरिक और सैन्य दोनों अनुप्रयोगों में उपयोग की जा सकती है, SCOMET के अंतर्गत आती है। इसमें धातु, मिश्र धातु, कंपोजिट और विशेष सामग्री शामिल हो सकती है, जिनमें दोहरे उपयोग के उद्देश्यों के लिए उपयुक्त गुण होते हैं। उपकरण: विभिन्न प्रकार के उपकरण जिनका रणनीतिक क्षेत्रों में उपयोग किया जा सकता है। इसमें मशीनरी, उपकरण या सिस्टम शामिल हो सकते हैं जिनमें दोहरे उपयोग की क्षमता हो। प्रौद्योगिकी: SCOMET के तकनीकी पहलू में ज्ञान और जानकारी शामिल है जिसे विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में लागू किया जा सकता है। अनुसंधान, विकास और विनिर्माण में उपयोग की जाने वाली प्रौद्योगिकी, लेकिन सैन्य और WMD उपयोग की क्षमता वाली प्रौद्योगिकी शामिल हैं। स्रोत: Economic Times चालक दल स्वास्थ्य और प्रदर्शन अन्वेषण एनालॉग (CREW HEALTH AND PERFORMANCE EXPLORATION ANALOG - CHAPEA) पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक परीक्षा – विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी संदर्भ : कृत्रिम मंगल ग्रह वातावरण में एक वर्ष से अधिक समय बिताने के बाद, नासा के एक दल ने CHAPEA (चालक दल स्वास्थ्य और प्रदर्शन अन्वेषण एनालॉग) परियोजना के भाग के रूप में अपना मिशन सफलतापूर्वक पूरा कर लिया है। पृष्ठभूमि : चार सदस्यीय टीम हाल ही में जॉनसन स्पेस सेंटर में अपने 17,000 वर्ग फुट के आवास से बाहर निकली। CHAPEA के बारे में: CHAPEA, मंगल ग्रह की सतह पर वर्ष भर के प्रवास का अनुकरण करने के लिए नासा द्वारा संचालित एनालॉग मिशनों की एक श्रृंखला है। इसका उद्देश्य नासा की खाद्य प्रणाली और मनुष्यों में शारीरिक और व्यवहारिक स्वास्थ्य पैटर्न के संबंध में डेटा का आकलन और संग्रह करना है, जो भविष्य के अंतरिक्ष मिशनों के दौरान मददगार होगा। प्रत्येक मिशन में चार चालक दल के सदस्य होंगे जो मंगल ग्रह के ड्यून अल्फा नामक 1,700 वर्ग फुट के पृथक आवास में रहेंगे। प्रथम CHAPEA चालक दल ने अपना 378-दिवसीय मिशन 6 जुलाई 2024 को पूरा कर लिया। मार्स ड्यून अल्फा: मार्स ड्यून अल्फा एक 3डी-मुद्रित संरचना है जो ह्यूस्टन, टेक्सास में जॉनसन स्पेस सेंटर में स्थित है। यह दीर्घकालिक, अन्वेषण-श्रेणी के अंतरिक्ष मिशनों को समर्थन देने के लिए एक यथार्थवादी मंगल ग्रहीय आवास का अनुकरण करता है। महत्व: CHAPEA के निष्कर्ष लंबी अवधि के अंतरिक्ष मिशनों की योजना बनाने और मंगल ग्रह पर अंतरिक्ष यात्रियों की क्षमता सुनिश्चित करने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण होंगे। स्रोत: PIB नेपाल पाठ्यक्रम प्रारंभिक परीक्षा – भूगोल संदर्भ : हाल ही में केपी शर्मा ओली को चौथी बार नेपाल का प्रधानमंत्री नियुक्त किया गया है। पृष्ठभूमि: वह नेपाली कांग्रेस पार्टी के समर्थन से गठबंधन सरकार का नेतृत्व करेंगे। यह नियुक्ति पूर्व प्रधानमंत्री पुष्प कमल दहल के खिलाफ अविश्वास प्रस्ताव के बाद की गई है। नेपाल के बारे में: नेपाल दक्षिण एशिया में एक स्थलरुद्ध देश है। इसकी सीमा उत्तर में चीन से तथा दक्षिण, पूर्व और पश्चिम में भारत से लगती है। पांच भारतीय राज्य – उत्तर प्रदेश, उत्तराखंड, पश्चिम बंगाल, सिक्किम और बिहार नेपाल के साथ अपनी सीमाएँ साझा करते हैं। क्षेत्र: तराई क्षेत्र: दक्षिणी तराई का मैदान, जो नेपाल के क्षेत्रफल का 17% है। यह भारत के गंगा के मैदानों का विस्तार है और अपनी उपजाऊ भूमि के लिए जाना जाता है। पहाड़ी क्षेत्र: यह क्षेत्र देश के 68% हिस्से को कवर करता है और इसमें महाभारत रेंज और निचला हिमालय शामिल है। हिमालयी क्षेत्र: उत्तरी भाग, जो नेपाल के क्षेत्रफल का 15% है, में ऊंची पर्वत श्रृंखलाएं और माउंट एवरेस्ट जैसी चोटियां शामिल हैं। जलवायु क्षेत्र: नेपाल में विविध जलवायु क्षेत्र हैं, जो तराई में उष्णकटिबंधीय से लेकर उच्च हिमालय में आर्कटिक तक फैले हैं। देश में चार मुख्य मौसम होते हैं: वसंत, ग्रीष्म (मानसून), शरद और शीत ऋतु। प्रमुख नदियाँ और झीलें: नदियाँ: प्रमुख नदियों में कोसी, गंडकी और करनाली शामिल हैं, जो भारत में दक्षिण की ओर बहती हैं। झीलें: उल्लेखनीय झीलों में नेपाल की सबसे बड़ी रारा झील और पोखरा की फेवा झील शामिल हैं। जैव विविधता: नेपाल जैव विविधता से समृद्ध है, जहां अनेक राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और संरक्षण क्षेत्र हैं, जैसे चितवन राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और सागरमाथा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान। स्रोत: Hindustantimes Practice MCQs दैनिक अभ्यास प्रश्न: Q1.) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखी गई SCOMET सूची के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें SCOMET सूची भारत की राष्ट्रीय निर्यात नियंत्रण सूची है, जिसमें दोहरे उपयोग की वस्तुएं, युद्ध सामग्री और परमाणु संबंधी वस्तुएं, जिनमें सॉफ्टवेयर और प्रौद्योगिकी शामिल हैं, शामिल हैं। इसका रखरखाव भारत की विदेश व्यापार नीति के अंतर्गत किया जाता है, जिसका कार्यान्वयन विदेश व्यापार महानिदेशालय (DGFT) द्वारा किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1, न ही 2 Q2.) भारत के निम्नलिखित राज्यों पर विचार करें: उत्तर प्रदेश उत्तराखंड बिहार असम पश्चिम बंगाल सिक्किम उपर्युक्त राज्यों में से कितने राज्यों की सीमा नेपाल से लगती है? केवल दो केवल तीन केवल चार केवल पांच Q3.) क्रू हेल्थ एंड परफॉरमेंस एक्सप्लोरेशन एनालॉग/ चालक दल स्वास्थ्य और प्रदर्शन अन्वेषण एनालॉग (CHAPEA) परियोजना, जो हाल ही में समाचारों में देखी गई, एनालॉग मिशनों की एक श्रृंखला है जो किसके द्वारा संचालित की गई है? इसरो नासा जाक्सा (JAXA) रोस्कोस्मोस (Roscosmos) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  15th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   MAHARASHTRA SPECIAL PUBLIC SECURITY BILL Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: On July 11, the BJP-led MahaYuti government introduced the Maharashtra Special Public Security (MSPS) Act, 2024, targeting the issue of Naxalism in urban areas. Background:- The provisions of the proposed Bill, which allows the State to declare any organisation as ‘unlawful’ with offences categorised as cognisable and non-bailable, has raised concerns and is being dubbed the ‘urban naxal’ law. Why was the Bill proposed? According to Maharashtra government, Naxalism is not limited to rural areas, but is increasing in urban areas through frontal organisations. These active frontal organisations of Naxal groups give constant and effective support in terms of logistics and safe refuge to its armed cadre. Such frontal organisations propagate maoist ideology of armed rebellion against the constitutional mandate and disrupt public order in the State. According to government, unlawful activities of such frontal organisations need to be controlled through effective legal means and that existing laws are ineffective to tackle the issue. How different is it from the UAPA? The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA) is invoked in cases related to Naxalism and terrorism. This law empowers the state to classify organisations as ‘unlawful associations.’ Both the laws are almost the same. However, in the MSPS Act, an advisory board of three persons who are or have been qualified to be appointed as judges of the High Court shall oversee the confirmation process, while under UAPA, a tribunal led by a High Court judge verifies the State’s declaration. In addition to the UAPA, the State also enforces the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999 (MCOCA) to address perceived extreme situations involving individuals labelled as ‘urban Naxals’. If the proposed legislation is passed, it would allow the State police and security agencies to arrest individuals without a warrant and often without informing them of the charges. All offences under this Act would be cognisable and non-bailable. key provisions of MSPS bill The MSPS Act empowers the State to designate any suspected ‘organisation’ as an ‘unlawful organisation’ and outlines four offences for which a person may be penalised (i) being a member of an unlawful organisation, (ii) being a member and raises funds for an unlawful organisation or harbours any member of the unlawful organisation, (iii) whoever manages or assists in the management of an unlawful organisation, or promotes or assists in promoting a meeting, and (iv) whoever commits or abets or attempts to commit or plans to commit any unlawful activity. When could it come into existence? Since the Bill was tabled at the end of the Assembly’s term, and that too in the Lower House first rather than the Upper House, its progress will largely depend on the next government, as the State is scheduled to go to polls in October or November. The day after the Bill was tabled, the monsoon session was prorogued, and as a result, the proposed bill lapsed, unless the MahaYuti government issues an ordinance to implement it. Source: Hindu LATE BLIGHT DISEASE Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) has issued an advisory for potato farmers across the country, warning of a high risk of late blight disease in the crop due to changes in weather conditions. Background: Late blight disease, a fungal infection is a significant threat to potato crops, causing substantial yield losses and reducing tuber quality.The disease is favoured by cool, moist weather conditions, making the current weather scenario conducive to its spread. What is late blight disease? It is a disease of potato and tomato plants that is caused by the water mold Phytophthora infestans. The disease occurs in humid regions with temperatures ranging between 4 and 29 °C (40 and 80 °F). Hot dry weather checks its spread. Potato or tomato plants that are infected may rot within two weeks. When plants have become infected, lesions (round or irregularly shaped areas that range in colour from dark green to purplish black and resemble frost injury) appear on the leaves, petioles, and stems. A whitish growth of spore-producing structures may appear at the margin of the lesions on the underleaf surfaces. Secondary fungi and bacteria (particularly Erwinia species) often invade potato tubers and produce rotting that results in great losses during storage, transit, and marketing. The disease can be managed with a timely application of fungicide, though epidemics can occur rapidly once crops are infected. In addition to fungicide application, the CPRI advisory stresses the need for proper drainage in fields and preventing weed growth — which can in turn harbour the disease-causing fungus and increase the risk of infection in potato crops. Source: Hindustan times POLITICAL REPRESENTATION OF WOMEN Syllabus Mains – GS 1 & GS 2 Context: In the recently concluded general elections in the U.K., a record 263 women MPs (40%) have been elected to the House of Commons. Background: India provided the right to vote for all its women right from the first general elections in 1952. While the right to vote was provided to all women since the commencement of the Constitution, the representation of women in the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies has been far from satisfactory. Women representatives in independent India The percentage of women MPs in the Lok Sabha had been very low between 5% and 10% till 2004. It rose marginally to 12% in 2014 and currently stands at 14% in the 18th Lok Sabha. The representation in State Legislative Assemblies is even poorer with the national average being around 9%. As on April 2024, India ranks 143 in the list of countries in the ‘Monthly ranking of women in national parliaments’ published by the Inter-Parliamentary Union, a global organisation for national parliaments. The Trinamool Congress has the highest proportion of women MPs in the current Lok Sabha at 38%. The ruling Bharatiya Janata Party and principal Opposition Congress party have around 13% each. Naam Tamilar Katchi, a State party in Tamil Nadu, has been following a voluntary quota of 50% for women candidates in the last three general elections. How do women MPs fare worldwide? Women representation in parliament varies across different democracies. It is a perennial issue to promote higher representation for women who constitute half the population in all countries. The important methods used across the world to ensure higher representation of women are: (a) voluntary or legislated compulsory quotas for candidates within political parties and (b) quota in parliament through reservation of seats. Quotas within political parties provide more democratic choice to voters and allows flexibility to parties in choosing women candidates. Opponents of having a reserved quota in parliament for women argue that it would be seen as women not competing on merit. As the seats reserved for women would be rotated after each delimitation, it may also reduce the incentive for MPs to work hard to nurture their constituencies. What is the 106th amendment? Parliament through the 106th constitutional amendment provided for one-third reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies. This reservation shall come into effect based on the delimitation exercise after the relevant figures of the first Census conducted after the commencement of this act is published. Hence, the Census which is overdue since 2021 should be conducted without any further delay to ensure that this reservation is implemented starting with the general elections in 2029. Source: Hindu JERDON’S COURSER Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Jerdon’s Courser has not been visually spotted in over a decade. This courser is a restricted-range endemic found locally in India in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Background: Once thought extinct, the species was miraculously rediscovered in 1986 near Reddipalli village in Kadapa, prompting the establishment of the Sri Lankamalleswara wildlife sanctuary. About Jerdon’s courser : The Jerdon’s courser (Rhinoptilus bitorquatus) is a nocturnal cursorial (adapted for walking and running) bird endemic to India. The bird was discovered by the surgeon-naturalist Thomas C. Jerdon in 1848 but not seen again until its rediscovery in 1986. The Jerdon’s courser is categorised as “Critically Endangered” by BirdLife International and the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) because it is believed to have a small and declining population. Information on its distribution, population, and habitat requirements is sparse for numerous reasons: its nocturnal habits, nature of its habitat, its shy habits and extreme rarity Source: Times of India ARTICLE 341 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The recent Supreme Court ruling emphasizes that states do not have the authority to modify the Schedule Caste (SC) list published under Article 341 of the Indian Constitution. Background: The court quashed a Bihar government notification from 2015 that classified the Tanti-Tantwa community as SC, reverting them back to the category of Extremely Backward Class. The court called the notification “mala fide” and emphasized that only Parliament has the authority to amend the SC list through legislation, not state governments. About Article 341 : Article 341 of the Indian Constitution plays a crucial role in the recognition and identification of Scheduled Castes (SC). The list of Scheduled Castes is intended to provide special privileges and benefits to these communities, promoting their social and educational advancement. Presidential Authority: Article 341(1) empowers the President to specify, through a public notification, the castes, races, or tribes deemed as SCs in relation to a particular State or Union territory. The President consults with the Governor (in the case of a State) during this process. Parliament’s Power: Article 341(2) grants Parliament the authority to include or exclude any caste, race, or tribe from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in the Presidential notification. Changes to the list can only be made through legislation by Parliament. Source: Hindu NATIONAL COMPANY LAW TRIBUNAL (NCLT) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Bengaluru bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) admitted the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)’s petition seeking insolvency proceedings against ed-tech giant Byju’s. Background: The BCCI – which administers professional cricket in India – had sought initiation of insolvency proceedings against Byju’s over alleged unpaid dues of Rs 158.90 crore under their sponsorship contract for the Indian cricket team. About National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) : The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is a quasi-judicial body established by the Central Government of India under section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013. NCLT was constituted on June 1, 2016. It operates under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. NCLT was formed based on the recommendation of the V. Balakrishna Eradi committee on law relating to the insolvency and the winding up of companies. Functions: The NCLT disposes of proceedings under the Companies Act, including arbitration, compromise, reconstruction, and winding up of companies. It is also the Adjudicating Authority for insolvency proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has the authority to approve the merger of firms in India. This is part of its jurisdiction. The NCLT’s role is to oversee the legal aspects of corporate transactions, including mergers and acquisitions, to ensure they comply with statutory provisions and are in the best interest of shareholders and creditors. Appeals: Decisions taken by the NCLT can be appealed to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), and further appeals can be made to the Supreme Court on points of law. Source: Inc42 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following Jerdon’s courser Pigmy Hog Great Indian Bustard Indian Leopard How many of the above are classifeid as critically endangered? Only one Only two Only three All four Q2.) With reference to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements: The NCLT is a quasi-judicial body under the Companies Act, 2013. The NCLT disposes of proceedings under the Companies Act, including arbitration, compromise, reconstruction, and winding up of companies. The NCLT is the Adjudicating Authority for insolvency proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. Decisions taken by the NCLT can be appealed to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). How many of the above given statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Article 341 of the Indian Constitution. Article 341 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to specify castes, races, or tribes as SC for various states and union territories. Parliament has the authority to include or exclude any caste, race, or tribe from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in the Presidential notification. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION ORGANIZATION (ICAO) Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India will host the second Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on civil aviation on September 11 and 12. Background:- As many as 39 Member States of U.N. aviation safety body International Civil Aviation Organisation fall in the Asia Pacific region and are expected to participate. About INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION ORGANIZATION (ICAO) The International Civil Aviation Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations. Convention on International Civil Aviation, also known as the Chicago Convention established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). ICAO coordinates the principles and techniques of international air navigation, and fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. The ICAO headquarters are located in the Quartier international de Montréal of Montreal, Quebec, Canada. The ICAO Council adopts standards and recommended practices concerning air navigation, its infrastructure, flight inspection, prevention of unlawful interference, and facilitation of border-crossing procedures for international civil aviation. ICAO is distinct from other international air transport organisations, particularly because it alone is vested with international authority (among signatory states). Source: Hindu SYPHILIS Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Improved testing has led to the detection of over 6,000 cases of syphilis, according to data from the Mumbai AIDS Control Society (MDACS) between 2018-19 and 2022-23. Background: The antibiotic penicillin is effective in eradicating the disease completely. What is syphilis? Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI). It is caused by a bacteria called Treponema pallidum Syphilis is transmitted during oral, vaginal and anal sex, in pregnancy and through blood transfusion. Syphilis in pregnancy may lead to stillbirth, newborn death and babies born with syphilis (congenital syphilis). Antibiotic medication treats syphilis. Untreated syphilis can lead to serious health problems, including blindness and damage to your brain, heart, eyes and nervous system. Who might get syphilis? Anyone who’s sexually active can get syphilis, but your risk is higher if you: Have unprotected sex, especially if you have several partners. Are a man who has sex with men (MSM). Have HIV. Have had sex with someone who’s tested positive for syphilis. Tested positive for another STI, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea or herpes. Source: Indian Express MAHABODHI TEMPLE COMPLEX Syllabus Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: A geospatial analysis utilising satellite images and ground surveys has found evidence of the presence of “huge architectural wealth” buried in the Mahabodhi temple complex and its surroundings in Bihar’s Bodh Gaya. Background: In the context of philosophical and cultural history, Mahabodhi Temple Complex is of great relevance as it marks the most important event in the life of Lord Buddha, the moment when Prince Siddhartha attained Enlightenment and became Buddha, an event that shaped human thought and belief. About Mahabodhi Temple Complex: It is one of the four holy sites related to the life of the Lord Buddha, and particularly to the attainment of Enlightenment. The Mahabodhi Temple Complex is the first temple built by Emperor Asoka in the 3rd century B.C., and the present temple dates from the 5th–6th centuries. It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely in brick, still standing, from the late Gupta period and it is considered to have had significant influence in the development of brick architecture over the centuries. The present Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya comprises the 50 m high grand Temple, the Vajrasana, sacred Bodhi Tree and other six sacred sites of Buddha’s enlightenment, surrounded by numerous ancient Votive stupas, well maintained and protected by inner, middle and outer circular boundaries. A seventh sacred place, the Lotus Pond, is located outside the enclosure to the south. The most important of the sacred places is the giant Bodhi Tree, to the west of the main temple, a supposed direct descendant of the original Bodhi Tree under which Buddha spent his First Week and had his enlightment. To the north of the central path, on a raised area, is the Animeshlochan Chaitya (prayer hall) where Buddha is believed to have spent the Second Week. Buddha spent the Third Week walking eighteen paces back and forth in an area called Ratnachakrama (the Jewelled Ambulatory), which lies near the north wall of the main temple. Raised stone lotuses carved on a platform mark his steps. The spot where he spent the Fourth Week is Ratnaghar Chaitya. Immediately after the steps of the east entrance on the central path there is a pillar which marks the site of the Ajapala Nigrodh Tree, under which Buddha meditated during his Fifth Week, answering the queries of Brahmans. He spent the Sixth Week next to the Lotus Pond and the Seventh Week was spent under the Rajyatana Tree, to the south-east of the main temple, currently marked by a tree. Next to the Bodhi Tree there is a platform attached to the main temple made of polished sandstone known as Vajrasana (the Diamond Throne), originally installed by Emperor Asoka to mark the spot where Buddha sat and meditated. Source: Economic Times INDIAN LEOPARD Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian leopard (Panthera pardus fusca) is suspected to have declined 24.5 per cent over the last three generations, according to the latest assessment by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Background: The decline is suspected from range loss and inferred based on actual or potential levels of exploitation. About Indian Leopard : The Indian leopard (Panthera pardus fusca) is a subspecies of the leopard (P. pardus) widely distributed on the Indian subcontinent. Nine subspecies of the leopard have been recognized, and they are distributed across Africa and Asia. The leopard is the smallest of the big cats, and known for its ability to adapt in a variety of habitats. Melanism is a common occurrence in leopards, wherein the entire skin of the animal is black in colour, including its spots. A melanistic leopard is often called black panther or jaguar, and mistakenly thought to be a different species. A nocturnal animal, the leopard hunts by night. It feeds on smaller species of herbivores found in its range, such as the chital, hog deer and wild boar. An extremely agile creature, it spends most of its resting time on top of trees, using land only to move locations, but rarely to rest or nap. It is classified as Near Threatened by IUCN. It is Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and included in Appendix I of CITES. Source: Down To Earth INDIA YOUNG PROFESSIONAL SCHEME 2024 Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: UK recently announced second ballot for India Young Professional Scheme 2024. Background: In 2024, the UK has allocated 3,000 places under this scheme, with most spots already filled during the February 2024 ballot. The second ballot period opened on July 16, 2024, at 13:30 Indian Standard Time and closes on July 18, 2024, at the same time. About India Young Professional Scheme 2024  : The India Young Professional Scheme is a youth mobility scheme that allows Indian nationals to live, work, and study in the United Kingdom for up to two years. This scheme was announced at the G20 summit in Bali in November 2022. It was formally launched in February 2023. It allows up to 3,000 degree-holding citizens aged between 18 and 30 from each country to live and work in the other country for two years. Interested applicants, aged between 18-30 years old or turning 18 by the travel date, with a bachelor’s degree or higher, savings of GBP 2,530, and no dependent children under 18, are eligible to apply. India is the first visa-national country to benefit from this scheme. Source: Economic Times NOUKA BAICH BOAT RACES Syllabus Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: With the south-west monsoon gradually setting in, nouka baich boat races will soon begin in several rural pockets of West Bengal. Background: Boat racing is an exhilarating and diverse water-based sport that involves racing boats or yachts over a set course or distance. This sport encompasses a wide range of boat types and categories, each offering unique challenges and requiring specific skills. About Nouka Baich : Nouka Baich is the traditional boat race of Bengal, predominantly held in rural pockets of West Bengal, including Murshidabad, Nadia, North 24 Parganas, and South 24 Parganas. Historically male-dominated, recent years have seen increasing participation by women. The races commence with the onset of the south-west monsoon, usually starting in the middle of the rainy season. The events continue until September, with some races extending into October and November, depending on the region. Types of Boats Used: Unlike Kerala’s boat races, which typically feature a single type of boat, Bengal’s races use various traditional boats. Chhip, Kaile Bachhari, Chande Bachhari, Chitoi, Sorpi, and Sorengi are commonly used boats in the races. Each boat type has unique design features and historical significance. For example, the Sorengi boat is over 90 feet long and designed to mimic natural forms. Similar Festivals in India: Other regions in India also celebrate boat races with cultural significance. Some examples include: Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Kerala) Aranmula Uthrattadi Vallamkali (Kerala) Payippad Jalotsavam (Kerala) Indira Gandhi Boat Race (Kerala) Pongal Boat Race (Tamil Nadu) Sithargal Boat Race (Tamil Nadu) Hiyang Tannaba (Manipur) Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about International Civil Aviation Organization It is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It was established by the Chicago Convention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Nouka Baich recently seen in news is the traditional boat race of Manipur West Bengal Tamil Nadu Kerala Q3.) With reference to the India Young Professional Scheme, consider the following statements: It is a youth mobility scheme that allows Indian nationals to live, work, and study in the United States for up to two years. This was scheme announced at the G20 summit in Bali in 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

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