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Nov 1, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) GREEN FIRECRACKERS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Delhi earned the tag of the world’s most polluted city on Friday after firecrackers were burst on the occasion of Diwali on Thursday despite a blanket ban in the national capital. Background: – At 6 am on Friday, the Air Quality Index (AQI) was recorded at 359, which falls in ‘very poor’ category, according to CPCB. Key takeaways Green crackers are eco-friendly fireworks developed as a solution to the air and noise pollution caused by traditional firecrackers. They are designed to emit fewer pollutants and are developed with an emphasis on reducing the harmful effects of conventional crackers. Both green crackers and traditional crackers cause pollution. However, the difference is that green crackers cause 30 per cent less air pollution as compared to traditional ones. Green crackers do not contain harmful chemicals like arsenic, lithium, or barium, which are found in conventional firecrackers and are responsible for high emissions of sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter. Use of alternative chemicals and a reduced level of aluminum, which cuts down on the emission of particulate matter (PM). The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CISR) has developed ‘green firecrackers’ to combat pollution. According to the CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, green crackers must have a reduction in the size of the shell, elimination of ash usage, reduced usage of raw materials in the composition, and/or use of additives as dust suppressants to reduce particulate matter, SO2, and NO2 emissions. These ‘green firecrackers’ have types like SWAS (safe water releaser), SAFAL (safe minimal aluminium), and STAR (safe thermite cracker). SWAS is a safe water releaser, which suppresses the dust released by releasing water vapour in the air. It does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur and the particulate dust released will reduce approximately by 30 per cent. SAFAL is safe minimal aluminium which has minimum usage of aluminium, and used magnesium instead. It ensures a reduction in sound in comparison to traditional crackers. STAR is a safe thermite cracker, which does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur, and emits reduced particulate matter disposal and reduced sound intensity. Source: Indian Express DIGITAL ARREST Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: indians lost Rs 120.30 crore in “digital arrest” frauds in the first quarter of this year alone, government cybercrime data shows. Background: – According to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which monitors cybercrime at the central level through the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), digital arrests have of late become a prevalent method of digital fraud. Key takeaways Digital arrests refer to a type of cybercrime where scammers impersonate law enforcement officials to extort money from victims by threatening them with arrest. How the Scam Works Initial Contact: Scammers contact victims via phone calls, text messages, or socialmedia, posing as officials from agencies like the police, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), or the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). False Accusations: Victims are falsely accused of crimes such as money laundering, tax evasion, or cybercrime. Intimidation: Scammers use threats of arrest or legal action to instill fear in their victims. Video Call Impersonation: Scammers may arrange a video call, impersonating officials and using official-looking backgrounds to appear legitimate. Demand for Payment: Victims are pressured to pay a fine or bribe to avoid arrest or legal consequences. Data Theft: Scammers may also attempt to steal personal information, such as bank account details or passwords. Many of those carrying out these frauds are based in three contiguous southeast Asian countries: Myanmar, Laos and Cambodia. According to I4C, there are four types of scams which are on the rise— digital arrest, trading scam, investment scam (task based) and romance/dating scam. Source: Indian Express THE BURGEONING EXPENDITURE OF ELECTIONS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: According to the Centre for Media Studies (CMS), the total expenditure by various political parties for the general election to Lok Sabha this year was around ₹1,00,000 crores. Background: – Urgent reforms are needed to address the burgeoning cost of election expenditures which threaten foundational principles of democracy. Key takeaways What are the limits in India? The election expenditure limit for candidates is ₹95 lakh per Lok Sabha constituency in larger States and ₹75 lakh in smaller States. With respect to Legislative Assemblies, they are ₹40 lakh and ₹28 lakh for larger and smaller States respectively. These limits are set, from time to time, by the Election Commission (EC). There are no limits on the expenditure of political parties during elections. What are international standards? In the U.S., the financing for elections happens primarily by contributions from individuals, corporations, and political action committees (PAC). Out of the estimated expenditure in the November 2024 election cycle, around $5.5 billion is estimated to be spent on the presidential election. This humungous raise is due to large donations. In the U.K., a political party is allowed to spend £54,010 for each constituency they contest. There are also limits placed on candidates’ spending during the campaign. It translates, per constituency, to an average of £46-49,000 during the long campaign period (beginning five months before the full term of the House of Commons ends) and £17-20,000 during the short campaign period after elections are announced. What are the challenges? Elections across democracies have become expensive. Such increased expenditure that is met primarily through large donations creates an unholy nexus between the elected representatives and donors. This also acts as an entry barrier into electoral politics for many well-meaning citizens. In India, candidates from all major political parties breach the election expenditure limits. Further, there are no limits on political party spending during elections. The official expenditures declared by the BJP and Congress for the 2019 election were ₹1,264 crores and ₹820 crores, respectively. However, according to a report by the CMS, ₹50,000 crore was spent by various parties during the 2019 election. The CMS has estimated that spending during the 2024 election by various political parties was close to ₹1,00,000 crores. Such inflated election expenditure fuels corruption, resulting in a vicious cycle. What can be possible reforms? The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) and the Law Commission report (1999) have advocated for State funding of elections. Simultaneous elections are touted as a panacea for addressing the issue of rising expenditures. However, there are challenges on account of principles of federalism and constitutional amendments to this idea. It must be noted that this mechanism may rein in campaign and publicity expenditure to some extent. However, without curbing the illegal distribution of cash to voters, any form of simultaneous election will not have a significant impact on election expenditure. Certain practical steps to create a level playing field regarding election expenditure can be implemented. These are based on the EC’s 2016 report on ‘Proposed Electoral Reforms’. Firstly, the law must be amended to explicitly provide that ‘financial assistance’ by a political party to its candidate should also be within the candidate’s prescribed election expenditure limits. Secondly, there should be a ceiling on political party expenditures. This may be kept at not more than the expenditure ceiling limit provided for a candidate multiplied by the number of candidates of the party contesting the election. Finally, additional judges may be appointed in High Courts for the speedy disposal of election-related cases, which would act as a deterrent against violating these norms. Source: The Hindu MELANISTIC TIGERS Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: A tigress from the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve, Maharashtra, was sent to the Similipal Tiger Reserve so as to diversify the genetic pool of the tiger population in Odisha. Background: It is part of a plan by the Odisha government to tackle inbreeding in the tiger population that has resulted in increasing numbers of the once elusive black tigers or pseudo-melanistic tigers. Key takeaways What are pseudo-melanistic tigers? As far as appearances go, pseudo-melanistic (pseudo: false; melanistic: dark coloured) tigers appear to have a black coat with white and orange stripes occasionally peaking through. The most recent sighting of the black tiger was in 2017-18 in the Similipal Tiger Reserve. How do the tigers get their colours? The pseudo-melanistic tiger is a colour variant of the Bengal tiger. Its strange coat is a result of a mutation in a particular gene. A comparison between tiger populations showed that apart from the Similipal population, the mutation of the gene is extremely rare. The only other black tigers that have been found beyond the Similipal population are in captivity—Nandankanan Zoological Park at Bhubaneswar and Arignar Anna Zoological Park at Chennai—whose ancestry could be traced back to the Similipal population. The prevalence of this particular mutation is abnormally high in the Similipal Tiger Reserve population. Why are the mutations more common in Similipal? A majority of the tigers found in Odisha are in the Similipal Tiger Reserve. The All Odisha Tiger Estimation (AOTE-2023-24) says a total of 30 tigers were found in Odisha’s forests of which 27 of them are in Similipal. Of these 27, atleast 13 adult tigers were found to be pseudo-melanistic. No other wild habitat in the world has pseudo-melanistic tigers. To find out why the concentration of pseudo-melanistic tigers is so high, researchers dug further. The Similipal tiger population is cut off from the other populations by a great distance and has been isolated for an extended period of time. This has led to inbreeding in an already small founding population leading to higher chances of the mutated gene being passed down. The study also attributed the phenomenon of genetic drift which suggests that a mutation may appear in high frequency or die out all together depending on pure chance. Source: The Hindu GLOBAL VALUE CHAINS (GVCS) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Proposed U.S. rules on Chinese-connected car tech and Israel’s pager attacks indicate the changing focus of global supply chains — from resilience to security. Background: – While the COVID-19 pandemic shifted the focus from efficiency (just in time) to resilience (just in case), developments in September 2024 indicate that another shift is underway in how supply chains are envisioned and operationalised — this time towards security (just to be secure). Global Value Chains (GVCs): It consists of intricate production networks that are fragmented across multiple firms and countries for cost optimization and to achieve production efficiency. Countries can participate in GVCs by engaging in either backward or forward linkages. Significance/Benefits of GVCs: GVCs can increase economic growth, especially in developing countries, by attracting foreign direct investment (FDI), creating jobs, and enhancing exports. It also makes them part of the global economy. GVCs can boost inclusive and sustainable growth by streamlining economic systems. GVCs create a path for countries and firms to focus on their strengths and specialize in specific stages of production, leading to cost savings and increased efficiency. GVCs help countries create specialized industries for specific stages of the value chain. GVCs provide access to global markets which in turn enables firms to reach a wider customer base. Countries participating in GVCs can benefit from technology transfer, as they engage with more technologically advanced partners. Issues/Concerns/Challenges related to GVCs: GVCs may widen economic gaps between countries since the gains from GVC participation are not distributed equally across and within countries. GVC participation increases the domestic economy’s exposure—albeit not necessarily its ability to cope with—external shocks. GVCs create strong links in price formation, implying that inflation in one country is more likely to spill over to its direct and indirect trading partners. MSMEs across the world, especially in developing countries, face significant impediments with the entry of global firms and the associated competition in local markets. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Green Crackers is/are correct? Green Crackers emit significantly less pollution compared to conventional crackers by using a lesser amount of polluting chemicals. Green firecrackers have types like SWAS (safe water releaser), SAFAL (safe minimal aluminium), and STAR (safe thermite cracker). Green Crackers are certified by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) for environmental safety. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding “Digital Arrest” scams: These scams involve impersonation of law enforcement officials to extort money by threatening victims with arrest. Scammers contact victims exclusively through video calls and use official-looking backgrounds to appear legitimate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to pseudo-melanistic tigers, consider the following statements: Pseudo-melanistic tigers are a genetic variant of Bengal tigers and are characterized by darker stripes that make them appear black. This mutation is common in all major tiger reserves in India. Genetic drift and inbreeding are possible reasons for the high prevalence of pseudo-melanistic tigers in Similipal Tiger Reserve. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 1st November 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 31st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Nov 1, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 31, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) REMEMBERING THE ‘IRON MAN OF INDIA’ Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: National Unity Day is celebrated in India on 31st October. It was introduced by the Government of India in 2014. The day is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Background: – Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel, famously known as Sardar Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India. Patel was a leader of the Indian National Congress and played a significant role in India’s struggle for freedom. Key takeaways Early Life and Role in the Freedom Movement Born on October 31, 1875, in Nadiad, Gujarat, Patel initially pursued a career in law. Inspired by Gandhi, he joined the independence movement. Notably, his leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, where farmers protested against increased taxes, earned him the title “Sardar” (leader). Sardar Patel’s contribution to uniting India As the first Home Minister of independent India, Sardar Patel played a crucial role in unifying and shaping the nation. At the time of independence, the British presented the challenge of declaring the Indian princely states as independent under the Indian Independence Act of 1947. The issue of the princely states was complex and challenging to resolve. When the British announced their departure, many princes believed it was the perfect moment to declare their independence. Additionally, there were others who found themselves in a struggle between India and Pakistan. However, through his diplomatic efforts, Patel secured the accession of the princely states, aligning these regions with the nation’s constitutional framework. Patel adopted various approaches based on the situation; he offered friendly advice in some cases, persuaded rulers to see reason in others, and even used force in the case of Hyderabad. He was valued for his political astuteness and pragmatic skills, which were essential in bringing together the more than 500 royal territories into the fold of the Indian union. Sardar Patel’s contribution to administration Along with the monumental task of unifying India, the Iron Man of India, Patel also played a crucial role in reinforcing the steel frame of India — the All India Services. He was instrumental in the establishment of the modern all-India services system. For this he is remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants”. Sardar Patel’s Contribution to Constitution As the chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly, Patel played a key role in shaping important sections of the Constitution concerning fundamental and minority rights. Source: Indian Express ‘PINK TICKET’ REPORT Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: A recent report on the free public bus transport for women in Delhi shows a positive picture. Background: – Titled ‘Riding The Justice Route’, the report was released by Greenpeace India on Tuesday, the fifth anniversary of the Delhi government’s ‘pink ticket’ policy that made commuting on public buses free for women, after surveying the participants and assessing the impact of the scheme on their lives. Key takeaways As per the report, one in four women have started using buses after travel was made fare-free. After the scheme’s introduction, 23 per cent of women have started using buses at least four times a week, and 15 per cent of women, who rarely or never used buses before the scheme, now use them regularly. When it comes to challenges faced by women, the survey says that a little less than 50 per cent of women bus users feel “mostly safe” while travelling to the bus stop, waiting there, and riding a bus. The survey also suggests that 77 per cent of women feel unsafe while travelling by bus after 5 pm and two in three women find the lighting at the bus stop inadequate. Frequency also remains a challenge as 87 per cent of the women reported waiting more than 10 minutes, while a good 13 per cent waited more than 30 minutes for the bus. The impact of the scheme on the perception of women towards public transport across income groups is noteworthy. After the ‘pink ticket’ was introduced, 88 per cent of women surveyed perceived the scheme as impactful in promoting bus use among women. Source: Indian Express UNITED NATIONS RELIEF AND WORKS AGENCY FOR PALESTINE REFUGEES IN THE NEAR EAST (UNRWA) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT AFFAIRS Context: Israel’s parliament passed two Bills to ban the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees In The Near East (UNRWA) from operating in Israel and the Palestinian territories. The Knesset also voted to designate UNRWA a terrorist organisation, cutting all ties with the agency. Background: – The UNRWA was established in 1949 to provide aid to Palestinians who were forced to leave their homes during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. Israel has argued that the UNRWA’s role is obsolete, and its work is an impediment to a peace settlement. However, critics have blamed Israel’s own actions, such as not meaningfully recognising the foundation of a Palestinian state, as having perpetuated the longstanding conflict. Key takeaways What is the UNRWA, and what role does it play? UNRWA is mandated by the UN General Assembly to serve ‘Palestine refugees’. This term was defined in 1952 as any person whose “normal place of residence was Palestine during the period 1 June 1946 to 15 May 1948 and who lost both home and means of livelihood as a result of the 1948 conflict. Palestine refugees are persons who fulfil the above definition and descendants of fathers fulfilling the definition. In addition, the UN Assembly has also mandated UNRWA to offer services to certain other persons who require humanitarian assistance, on an emergency basis as and when required, in UNRWA fields of operations. Notably, the Assembly has mandated the Agency to provide services to persons in the region who are currently displaced and in serious need of continued assistance as a result of the 1967 and subsequent hostilities. These persons are not registered as Palestine refugees. Only the UN General Assembly can change the mandate of UNRWA, the definition of a Palestine refugee and whom the Agency is mandated to serve. UNRWA began operations on May 1, 1950. It operates in Gaza and the Israeli-occupied West Bank, as well as in Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan — where Palestinian refugees took shelter after their expulsion. An estimated 5.9 million Palestinian refugees — most of whom are descendants of the original refugees — currently access the UNRWA’s services. The UN agency is funded mostly by voluntary contributions from donor states such as the United States, Germany, the European Union, etc. It also gets a limited subsidy from the UN, which is used only for administrative costs. UNRWA employs some 30,000 Palestinians. More than 200 of its staff members have been killed in Israeli attacks over the past year. So why has Israel acted against the UNRWA? Israel has also accused some of UNRWA’s 13,000 employees in Gaza of participating in the October 7, 2023 attacks on Israel by Hamas. Although UNRWA fired nine employees after an investigation, it has denied that it aids armed groups on purpose — the agency has been sharing the list of its employees with Israel for a long time. What are the two Bills that Israel has passed? One of the Bills bars UNRWA from operating any representative office, providing any service, or conducting any activity, directly or indirectly, in Israel’s sovereign territory. The second Bill cuts all ties between government employees and UNRWA, and takes away the legal immunities of the agency’s staff. Together, the Bills are likely to stop UNRWA from operating in Gaza and the West Bank as Israel controls access to both these Palestinian territories. They could also force the agency to relocate its headquarters from East Jerusalem. What can be the impact of these measures? Since the beginning of the war, almost all of Gaza’s 2 million people have been reliant on UNRWA for basic necessities, including food, water, and hygiene supplies. Along with the Palestinian Red Crescent, UNRWA handles almost all UN aid distribution in the territory. In the West Bank, UNRWA currently provides services for 19 refugee camps, more than 90 schools, and several health services, including prenatal care. Source: Indian Express UNPAID WORK Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The invisibility of women’s contributions to the economy through unpaid care work, parenting, and domestic responsibilities has been a growing topic of research and discussion. Background: While the System of National Accounts has included household production in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculations since 1993, it has notably excluded unpaid care work. Key takeaways Data reveal that women not in the labour force spend over seven hours daily on unpaid domestic and care work. Employed women closely follow, dedicating 5.8 hours to similar tasks. In contrast, unemployed men spend less than four hours, while employed men contribute only 2.7 hours daily. This stark contrast underscores the significant burden of unpaid labour borne by women. Globally, there is a growing effort to recognise and value unpaid work, as countries increasingly understand its significant economic contributions. In 2016, the United Nations integrated this focus into its Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly in SDG 5, which emphasises achieving gender equality and empowering women. SDG Target 5.4 seeks to recognise and value unpaid care and domestic work through supportive policies and shared household responsibilities, particularly in low and middle-income countries by 2030. Economic value of unpaid work Unpaid work in India contributes approximately 7.5% of the country’s GDP, according to a 2023 State Bank of India report. Addressing this imbalance could have substantial economic implications. Research indicates that enhancing women’s participation in the labour force could boost India’s GDP by as much as 27%. To harness this potential for economic growth, it is vital to create policies that recognise and value unpaid work, encouraging gender equity in the workforce and boosting India’s overall productivity. Source: The Hindu FERTILIZER IMPORTS Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: With the crisis continuing in Ukraine and Gaza, experts and policymakers are concerned about further increases in the prices of the components used for making petroleum-based chemical fertilizers. Background: – The Agriculture Minister of Uttar Pradesh recently complained that the State has the stock of fertilizers for only 10 more days. The sowing of winter rabi crops has started and fertilizers such as Diammonium phosphate (DAP) and NPK [Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium] are essential for its growth. Key takeaways What is the current import fertilizer import scenario? Standing Committee of Parliament on Chemicals and Fertilizers tabled a report expressing concern that the production capacity of fertilizers does not commensurate with its demand/requirement and, therefore, the gap between demand and supply is met through imports. According to the report, about 20% of the domestic requirement of urea, 50-60% of the domestic requirement of DAP, and 100% of the domestic requirement of Muriate of Potassium (MOP, or Potash) is met through imports. What is the situation in Ukraine and Gaza? There is no stability in fertilizer markets due to the situations in Ukraine and Gaza. Impact of the conflicts on oil prices will spill over to the by-products such as fertilizers. According to an answer provided in Lok Sabha, in 2018-19, 2019-20, and 2020-21, India’s fertilizer imports were mostly from countries such as China, Russia, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Oman, Iran and Egypt. The worsening situation could impact imports from these regions. What can India do? India has to enhance its fertilizer production capacity and shift its farming systems to reduce dependence on imported fertilizers while making better use of the existing fertilizers. Suggestions such as using nano urea, shifting to natural farming, and enhancing the capacity of fertilizer factories have also been made. The Standing Committee of Parliament also pointed out the need for policy initiatives aimed at creating an environment that would facilitate investments in the public, co-operatives, and private sectors engaged in the manufacturing and marketing of fertilizers. Commenting on the new investment policy, implemented in 2012, to streamline fertilizer production, the committee said it is satisfying to note that six new Urea plants have since been set up each having an annual production capacity of 12.7 LMT thereby adding Urea production capacity of 76.2 LMT per annum. Source: The Hindu UNIFIED PAYMENTS INTERFACE (UPI) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has approved Paytm to onboard new UPI users, subject to adherence to all procedural guidelines and circulars, according to the company. Background: The move is expected to come as a relief to Paytm, which had suffered a blow following the Reserve Bank of India’s restrictions earlier this year on associate company Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) in onboarding new UPI users on the Paytm app. Unified Payments Interface (UPI): It was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016 and built over Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure. It powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features e.g., transfer of funds, etc. It is designed to enable peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process. Features of Unified Payments Interface (UPI): It simplifies transfers using the recipient’s UPI ID, be it a mobile number, QR code, or Virtual Payment Address, eliminating account numbers. Earlier, only the deposited amount could be transacted through the UPI System. But now using the credit line on UPI enables pre-sanctioned credit lines from banks via UPI. It eliminates the need to enter bank details or other sensitive information each time a customer initiates a transaction. It enhances cross-operability, enabling 24/7 transactions. It uses technologies like the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) and the Aadhaar-Enabled Payment System (AEPS) to ensure that payments between accounts go smoothly. The users can both send and receive money offline through any compatible device that supports Near Field Communication (NFC) using UPI Lite X. UPI Tap and Pay allows NFC-enabled QR codes at merchants to complete payments, with a single tap without entering the PIN. Concerns/Issues/Challenges associated with UPI: Expanding UPI to accommodate a global user base will require adhering to data protection, financial laws, and regulations of different countries posing regulatory and compliance challenges. The recent Parliamentary panel’s report, titled ‘Digital Payment and Online Security Measures for Data Protection’ highlighted that foreign entities like PhonePe and Google Pay dominate the Indian fintech sector. For example, the market share of PhonePe is 46.91% and Google Pay is 36.39% in terms of the transaction volume in October-November 2023, whereas for BHIM UPI it is 0.22%. UPI faces various threats by cybercriminals who may exploit vulnerabilities in the system or use social engineering techniques to gain access to sensitive information leading to financial losses. UPI poses a significant challenge for cross-border transactions that includes managing currency conversion and exchange rates while facilitating payments and loading money into the wallet. UPI remains a barrier to its widespread adoption especially among individuals with a lack of familiarity with digital payments, leading to financial fraud. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA): The UNRWA was established in 1949 to provide aid and services to Palestinian refugees displaced due to the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. The UN agency is funded mostly by voluntary contributions from donor states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Sardar Patel was instrumental in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union after Independence. He was India’s first Home Minister and was also given the title “Iron Man of India”. The Statue of Unity, dedicated to Sardar Patel, is located on the banks of the Yamuna River in Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 All 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Unified Payments Interface (UPI): UPI allows users to make peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a two-click factor authentication process. UPI Lite X enables users to make offline payments using Near Field Communication (NFC) technology. UPI transactions can only be done with deposited funds and do not support pre-sanctioned credit lines from banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 and 2 Only 1 and 3 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 30th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Oct 31, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 30, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) EUTHANASIA Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union Health Ministry has released draft guidelines on withdrawing or withholding medical treatment in terminally ill patients. Background: – The draft guidelines have not gone down well among a section of the medical fraternity, citing concerns that it exposes doctors to legal scrutiny and puts them under stress. Key takeaways Euthanasia refers to the practice of an individual deliberately ending their life, oftentimes to get relief from an incurable condition, or intolerable pain and suffering. Euthanasia, which can be administered only by a physician, can be either ‘active’ or ‘passive’. Active euthanasia involves an active intervention to end a person’s life with substances or external force, such as administering a lethal injection. Passive euthanasia refers to withdrawing life support or treatment that is essential to keep a terminally ill person alive. In 2011, the Supreme Court for the first time recognised the legality of passive euthanasia in the case of Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v Union of India. After being sexually assaulted by a ward attendant of Mumbai’s KEM Hospital in 1973 and suffering a brain injury in the process, nurse Aruna Shanbaug was left in a ‘persistent vegetative state’. A petition was filed in SC in 2009, seeking an end to the life-supporting treatment the hospital was providing to Shanbaug, arguing that she should be allowed to die peacefully. The court, while ruling out passive euthanasia in this case, held that Shanbaug was still alive as she did not require life support. However, the court recognised the legality of passive euthanasia. In 2018, the Supreme Court recognised the legality of ‘passive euthanasia’ for terminally-ill patients, holding that the ‘right to die with dignity’ forms a part of the right to life under Article 21. The court also laid down guidelines for passive euthanasia, both in cases where the patient left an ‘advance directive’ or a ‘living will’ and in cases where no such directive was left behind. For long there was no dedicated legislation in India on withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment. However, the Supreme Court’s judgment, and now the draft guidelines, make it clear that withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment is legal in India under a defined framework. Withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to discontinuing life-sustaining medical interventions such as ventilators and feeding tubes, etc., when these no longer help the condition of the patient or prolong their suffering. The withholding or withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment also includes ‘do-not-attempt-resuscitation’ orders. It is crucial to note that when a do-not-attempt-resuscitation order is in place, every effort should be made to continue treating the underlying condition of the patient. The order is limited to not initiating resuscitation efforts. Life-sustaining treatments are medical treatments that artificially replace bodily functions essential to the life of the person. These interventions are withheld or withdrawn with the intention of providing comfort care, allowing the underlying illness to take its course while providing symptomatic relief. Source: Indian Express CENSUS NEXT YEAR, DELIMITATION SOON AFTER Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The government is set to conduct the much-delayed Census next year, and to complete the process by 2026. Following the completion of the Census, the government will go ahead with delimitation, for redrafting of constituencies. Background: – Delimitation would have its own share of problems, with the South worried about the impact on its political share in a Parliament where a disproportionate number of seats will be from the North due to its heavily populated states. Key takeaways In 2002, the Atal Bihari Vajpayee govt had delayed delimitation by 25 years via the 84th Amendment, saying this would be carried out only after “the relevant figures for the first Census taken after the year 2026 have been published”. This meant delimitation to be carried out after the 2031 Census. However, as per sources, the government now plans to begin the delimitation process by 2027 and finish it within a year, so that the next Lok Sabha elections (in 2029) can be done post-delimitation. Although there is demand by various quarters that caste enumeration be included in the Census, the government has not been able to finalise a formula for it. The amendments required for a delimitation process include changes to Article 81 (which defines the composition of the Lok Sabha), Article 170 (composition of Legislative Assemblies), Article 82, Article 55 (deals with the presidential election process for which value of each vote in the electoral college is decided on the population basis), Articles 330 and 332 (covering reservation of seats for the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies, respectively). Source: Indian Express INDIA CANNOT PHASE OUT COAL LIKE THE UK Syllabus Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: UK’s last coal-based generation plant at Ratcliffe-on-Soar was taken off the grid. Background: – The UK has made some progress in the decarbonisation of the power sector though it hasn’t got rid of carbon footprints completely. It is highly dependent on gas which is half as dirty as coal. Key takeaways The UK government has been pursuing a policy of closing down coal mines since the 1990s for reasons other than climate change — mainly political. In 2015, the government decided to completely phase out all coal-based plants by 2025 — the deadline was later advanced to 2024. To get rid of coal-based generation, the government relied on market drivers and regulatory interventions. UK have increased the cost of carbon dioxide emissions. The government also introduced mandatory use of carbon capture and storage for all new coal-based plants. These measures ensured that coal-based generation became unprofitable. UK also had cheap gas as an alternative to coal. Equally important is the fact that UK has already peaked its electricity generation and is now on the way down, both in terms of total generation and also in per capita terms. Generation in 2000 was 377 billion units (BUs) and it was down to 286 BUs in 2023. Similarly, per capita electricity consumption came down from 6 megawatt hours (MWHs) in 2000 to 4.1 MWHs in 2023. There was thus enough excess capacity to phase out coal-based generation. Another point merits consideration. The UK imports a fair amount of electricity. The UK was not dependent on domestic coal-based generators and the country could easily fill the gap through imports. Can India follow in the UK’s footsteps? India’s demand for power is still growing and has not peaked. So the country need to add to its installed capacity every year. India does not have access to cheap gas to substitute coal. Several issues have crippled the growth of the hydro sector. The nuclear sector contributes less than 3 per cent to the electricity mix. Growth in renewable generation may look spectacular but its far less than what is required to meet the demand in 2030. So, India needs to rely on coal. The country is delaying the retirement of coal-based plants and wants them to operate beyond the tenure of the power purchase agreements — usually 25 years. Guidelines on environment norms were issued in 2015 and over time, they have been relaxed to accommodate more coal-based generation. This is exactly the reverse of what was done in the UK where norms became more and more stringent. India’s track record in installing flue-gas desulfurisers (FGDs) is very bad — less than 5 per cent of the identified capacity in the central sector has installed FGDs. Amongst the state sector generators, not a single plant has installed FGDs. Source: Indian Express GREENHOUSE GAS BULLETIN Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the Greenhouse Gas Bulletin No. 20. Background: The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin reports on greenhouse gas concentrations, rather than on emission levels. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin complements the UN Environment Programme’s Emissions Gap report. Both were published ahead of COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan. Key takeaways The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin has been published annually since 2004. The publication presents the latest analysis of observations from the WMO Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW) Programme on concentrations of long-lived greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. The Bulletin reports globally averaged surface mole fractions of carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O). It compares these values to those of the previous year and pre-industrial levels. Additionally, it provides insights into changes in radiative forcing — the warming effect on the atmosphere by long-lived greenhouse gases and details the contribution of individual gases to this effect. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is released yearly to inform the United Nations Climate Change negotiations, the annual Conference of the Parties (COP). Key findings of latest bulletin The globally-averaged surface concentration of CO2 reached 420.0 parts per million (ppm), methane 1934 parts per billion and nitrous oxide 336.9 parts per billion (ppb) in 2023. These values are 151%, 265% and 125% of pre-industrial (before 1750) levels. In 2023, the increase in CO₂ levels was driven by three main factors: large amounts of CO₂ released from wildfires, a possible decline in how much CO₂ forests can absorb, and persistently high CO₂ emissions from fossil fuels due to human and industrial activities. During El Niño years, greenhouse gas levels tend to rise because drier vegetation and forest fires reduce the efficiency of land carbon sinks. Given the extremely long life of CO2 in the atmosphere, the temperature level already observed will persist for several decades even if emissions are rapidly reduced to net zero. The last time the Earth experienced a comparable concentration of CO2 was 3-5 million years ago, when the temperature was 2-3°C warmer and sea level was 10-20 meters higher than now. Source: WMO COMPREHENSIVE NUCLEAR-TEST-BAN TREATY ORGANIZATION (CTBTO) Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: On October 5, two earthquakes struck Iran’s Semnan province, sparking rumours of a nuclear test. This fuelled uncertainty across West Asia but the claims were promptly refuted by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) Background: – CTBTO monitors nuclear activities to detect any possible nuclear tests. It has established an International Monitoring System (IMS) to ensure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. About CTBTO The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) was established under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), adopted in 1996 by the United Nations General Assembly. The CTBT bans all nuclear test explosions everywhere, by everyone, and for all time. Adherence to the Treaty is nearly universal, with 187 States Signatories and 178 ratifying states. However, to enter into force, the Treaty must be ratified by all 44 States listed in its Annex 2, for which nine ratifications are still required. CTBTO Headquarters: Located in Vienna, Austria. Verification Regime: The CTBTO has a comprehensive International Monitoring System (IMS) comprising: Seismic monitoring stations to detect underground tests. Hydroacoustic sensors for underwater tests. Infrasound sensors for atmospheric tests. Radionuclide stations to detect nuclear particles in the air. India has not signed or ratified the CTBT, and is not a member of the CTBTO. India initially participated in negotiating the CTBT, but later walked away from the negotiations. India believes the CTBT’s current format is discriminatory. Source: New Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO), consider the following statements: The CTBTO was established under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). India is a full member of the CTBTO and contributes to its International Monitoring System (IMS). The CTBTO’s headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the World Meteorological Organization’s Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, consider the following statements: The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin reports on both greenhouse gas concentrations and emission levels of short term climate pollutants to provide a complete picture of atmospheric changes. In 2023, the global average surface concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂) reached its highest recorded level at 420 parts per million (ppm). During El Niño years, greenhouse gas concentrations tend to increase due to a reduction in the effectiveness of land carbon sinks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to euthanasia and the legal framework in India, consider the following statements: Passive euthanasia was first legally recognized in India by the Supreme Court in the Aruna Shanbaug case. Active euthanasia is legal in India. The Supreme Court has ruled that the ‘right to die with dignity’ is a part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 25th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Oct 30, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 29, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 28, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 26, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Oct 25, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE (PAC) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch, summoned by Parliament’s Public Accounts Committee (PAC) as part of its review of financial regulators, skipped its meeting on Thursday, citing personal reasons. Background: – PAC Chairman and Congress leader K.C. Venugopal adjourned the meeting after reading out a letter from Ms. Buch, received less than two hours before the meeting was due to begin, conveying her inability to appear before the committee. Key takeaways The PAC is not a constitutional body; it was established in 1921 under the Government of India Act, 1919. Its formation and functions are governed by Parliamentary procedures and Rules of Business. Composition: The committee has 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. Members are elected annually from both houses by proportional representation to ensure representation of various political parties. The Chairperson is traditionally a member of the Opposition from the Lok Sabha. Functions: Examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) submitted to Parliament. Reviews public expenditure to ensure it aligns with parliamentary grants and approvals. Investigates cases of wasteful expenditure, losses, and irregularities in government spending. Ensures that money is used efficiently, effectively, and economically. Limitations: PAC cannot look into policy matters or day-to-day administration. It cannot investigate issues already under judicial scrutiny. The committee’s recommendations are not binding, though they hold significant moral and ethical value. Source: The Hindu CENTRAL GOVT. SANCTION A 50% HIKE IN PRICES OF EIGHT DRUGS Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority of India (NPPA) increased the ceiling prices of eight drugs, comprising medication for common diseases including asthma, tuberculosis, bipolar disorder, and glaucoma, among others. Background: – The Central Government passed the order, citing “extraordinary circumstances” and “public interest.” Key takeaways The NPPA, constituted in 1997, regulates ceiling prices of drugs and has the power to fix costs under what is known as a ‘Drug Price Control Order’ (DPCO) issued by the government under the Essential Commodities Act. NPPA comes under the department of pharmaceuticals under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. The NPPA approved an increase in ceiling prices of eleven scheduled formulations of eight drugs by 50% of their current ceiling prices, in the larger public interest. NPPA invoked extraordinary powers under Para 19 of the DPCO, 2013. Section 19 of the DPCO allows the government to revise the ceiling cost in extraordinary circumstances. Section 19 states: “Notwithstanding anything contained in this order, the Government may, in case of extraordinary circumstances, if it considers it necessary to do so in public interest, fix the ceiling price or retail price of any drug for such period, as it may deem fit and where the ceiling price or retail price of the drug is already fixed and notified, the government may allow an increase or decrease in the ceiling price or the retail price, as the case may be, irrespective of annual wholesale price index for that year.” Every financial year starting April 1, the NPPA increases ceiling prices of drugs based on Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of the preceding year. Pricing of drugs in India is strictly controlled by the Central government. Action is taken against companies found selling at higher prices. Source: The Hindu STATE CONTINGENT DEBT INSTRUMENTS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The recent cascade of countries defaulting on their debt has brought back into vogue complex securities called State Contingent Debt Instruments. Background: – State Contingent Debt Instruments has helped nations from Ukraine to Sri Lanka resolve difficult debt negotiations. Key takeaways State Contingent Debt Instruments (SCDIs) are financial instruments whose repayment terms are linked to certain economic variables or outcomes, like GDP growth, commodity prices, or revenue collection. SCDIs differ from the bulk of sovereign bonds which pay a predetermined amount in interest before a final repayment. Purpose: To provide fiscal flexibility to states by reducing debt servicing pressure during economic downturns. Helps manage debt burden effectively by aligning repayment with state revenue performance. Mechanism: Unlike traditional fixed debt instruments, SCDIs allow variation in repayment based on the agreed-upon economic indicators. When a state faces a downturn, repayments may be reduced; conversely, in a strong economic period, repayments could increase. Benefits: Counter-Cyclical Support: Helps states manage debt better during economic stress by lowering repayment obligations. Debt Sustainability: Reduces the likelihood of debt distress, aiding long-term fiscal health. Fiscal Stability: Supports better planning and stability by managing repayment according to economic performance. Recent Example Ukraine used SCDIs as part of a package to convince investors in August to swap their defaulted bonds for newer instruments — including a GDP-linked bond, which would pay investors more if the economy grows faster than anticipated. Source: The Hindu GEO ENGINEERING: SPRAYING DIAMOND DUST TO COOL EARTH Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: A new study has argued that spraying millions of tonnes of diamond dust in the Earth’s upper atmosphere every year could help cool down the Earth and combat global warming. Background: Previously, several other compounds, such as sulphur, calcium, aluminium, and silicon, have been suggested. The idea here is to scatter material that can reflect solar radiation into Space and prevent it from reaching Earth. Such solutions, called geo-engineering (more specifically solar radiation management), have been under study for quite some time. Key takeaways Geo engineering refers to any large-scale attempt to alter the Earth’s natural climate system to counter the adverse impacts of global warming. Solar Radiation Management (SRM), in which materials are deployed in Space to reflect incoming solar rays and prevent them from reaching Earth, is one of the two broad geoengineering options being explored. Then there are Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) technologies, which include Carbon Capture and Sequestration (CCS). The only method being tried out in practice is CCS. Carbon dioxide emitted, from industry or power plants, is “captured” at source and deposited deep below the Earth’s surface in suitable geological formations for long-term storage. Since carbon dioxide is not released into the atmosphere, overall emissions are reduced. Another option involves the captured carbon being used as an input for other industrial processes (known as Carbon Capture and Utilisation or CCU). In Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS), some carbon dioxide is utilised and the rest is stored underground. Under Direct Air Capture (DAC) methods, carbon dioxide is sucked out through large “artificial trees” from ambient air and directed towards storage sites or utilisation. Since these methods can potentially eliminate carbon dioxide accumulated over the years, the benefits are larger compared to CCS. The most ambitious and potentially rewarding form of geoengineering is SRM, which is still at the conceptual stage. It draws inspiration from the natural process of volcanic eruptions, in which large amounts of sulphur dioxide are released. These combine with water vapour to form sulphate particles that reflect sunlight into space, reducing the amount reaching Earth. The Mount Pinatubo eruptions in the Philippines in 1991, one of the largest in the 20th century, are believed to have reduced the Earth’s temperature by 0.5 degrees Celsius that year. Source: Indian Express KEY BIODIVERSITY AREAS (KBA) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: At the 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), new data was released which shows that the world’s best and most important ecosystems are facing threat from extractive industries. These include key biodiversity areas (KBAs), high-integrity forest landscapes, protected areas, and Indigenous territories. Background: – Maps included in a report titled “Closing Window of Opportunity: Mapping Threats from Oil, Gas and Mining to Important Areas for Conservation in the Pantropics” show that extraction is being carried out for oil, gas, and mining in important areas for conservation across the Amazon Basin, Congo Basin, and Southeast Asia. About Key Biodiversity Areas (KBA) Key Biodiversity Areas (KBA) are geographical regions that have been determined to be of international importance in terms of biodiversity conservation, using globally standardized criteria published by the IUCN as part of a collaboration between scientists, conservation groups, and government bodies across the world. The purpose of Key Biodiversity Areas is to identify regions that are in need of protection by governments or other agencies. KBAs extend the Important Bird Area (IBA) concept to other taxonomic groups and are now being identified in many parts of the world. Examples of types of KBAs include Important Plant Areas (IPAs), Ecologically and Biologically Significant Areas (EBSAs) in the High Seas, Alliance for Zero Extinction (AZE) sites, Prime Butterfly Areas, Important Mammal Areas and Important Sites for Freshwater Biodiversity, with prototype criteria developed for freshwater molluscs and fish and for marine systems. The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (IUCN 2016) sets out globally agreed criteria for the identification of KBAs worldwide. Sites qualify as global KBAs if they meet one or more of 11 criteria, clustered into five higher level categories: threatened biodiversity, geographically restricted biodiversity, ecological integrity, biological processes, and irreplaceability. The KBA criteria can be applied to species and ecosystems in terrestrial, inland water, and marine environments, and may be applied across all taxonomic groups (other than micro-organisms). Source: Down To Earth ILLEGAL IMMIGRATION IS A THREAT TO INTERNAL SECURITY Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Three Bangladeshi nationals have been apprehended in two days while trying to enter Indian territory by negotiating the border fence, the Border Security Force (BSF) said. Background: – The BSF has stepped up vigilance along the border in Tripura. Illegal Immigration is a Threat to Internal Security: It is alleged that among the illegal migrants there are also militants especially groups such as NSCN/KUFLA, who enter India to carry out terrorist activities. In recent decades, trafficking of women and human smuggling has become quite rampant across borders. The Commission on Integration and Cohesion found that tension usually exists with the presence of high levels of migration combined with other forms of social exclusion like poverty, poor housing, etc. Immigration has increased pressure on the part of the government, as the government has to increase the expenditure on education and health facilities for the immigrants. Most illegal immigrants have their names enlisted in the voting list illegally, thereby claiming themselves as citizens of the state. The influx of immigrants created a crisis of identity among the indigenous people of the region. Large areas of forestland were encroached upon by the immigrants for settlement and cultivation. This creates conflict in resource utilization with the local communities. Laws in India to tackle Illegal Migration: Under the Foreigners Act of 1946, the central government can deport illegal foreign nationals. Under the Passport (Entry into India) Act of 1920, the state governments have been entrusted to remove an illegal foreigner by force. The Citizenship Act of 1955 provides for the acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship. Way Forward: A considerable portion of the problem of illegal immigration lies in the fact that we have no such effective refugee policy. The central government should frame a holistic refugee policy. India has to make a diplomatic effort to get neighboring countries to cooperate as illegal migration cannot be solved unless the origin country cooperates. The government should introduce identity cards for the borderland people who frequently used to cross borders for different reasons. There is a vast area of the border that is not protected by fencing. The central government should complete the border fencing. Regional forums like BIMSTEC can be used to discuss issues like illegal migration from neighboring countries and garner support and coordination from the members. Border guards like BSF and ITBP should be strengthened and a second line of defence can be created by the State government through the state police force. Source: Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding State Contingent Debt Instruments (SCDIs) is correct? A) They are debt instruments with fixed repayment terms irrespective of economic performance. B) SCDIs help states reduce repayment obligations during economic downturns by linking repayment to economic indicators. C) SCDIs are exclusively issued by the international financial institutions to manage debt obligations with states. D) SCDIs are always risk free. Q2.) Which of the following statements about Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is correct? A) KBAs are legally protected areas designated by the United Nations. B) KBAs are identified solely based on the economic value of biodiversity. C) KBAs are areas of high biodiversity significance identified based on scientific criteria, such as the presence of threatened species and unique ecosystems. D) KBAs only focus on protecting bird species and ignore other forms of biodiversity. Q3.) Which of the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is correct? A) It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. B) The Chairperson of the PAC is traditionally a member of the ruling party in Lok Sabha. C) The PAC can examine issues of public expenditure and ensure it aligns with parliamentary grants. D) PAC recommendations are binding on the government. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 24th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

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