Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PAN 2.0 Syllabus: Prelims –  CURRENT EVENT Context: The Cabinet approved the PAN 2.0 Project of the Income Tax Department (ITD), with a cost of Rs 1,435 crore. Background: – The project aims to streamline and modernise the process of issuing and managing PAN and TAN, making it more user-friendly and efficient. Key takeaways PAN 2.0 Project is an e-Governance project of ITD for re-engineering the business processes of taxpayer registration services.  Under the project, the existing PAN system will be upgraded completely, the IT backbone will be revamped and PAN will be made as a common business identifier for all digital systems of specified government agencies. How PAN 2.0 will be different from existing setup? Integration of Platforms: Currently, PAN-related services are spread across three different platforms: the e-Filing Portal, UTIITSL Portal, and Protean e-Gov Portal. With the implementation of PAN 2.0, all these services will be integrated into a single, unified portal. This one-stop platform will handle comprehensively issues/matters related to PAN and TAN, including application, updates, corrections, Aadhaar-PAN linking, re-issuance requests, and even online PAN validation.  Comprehensive use of technology for paperless processes: Complete online paperless process as against prevailing mode Taxpayer facilitation:  Allotment/updation/correction of PAN will be done free of cost and e-PAN will be sent to the registered mail id. For physical PAN card, the applicant has to make a request along with the prescribed fee About PAN and TAN A 10-digit alphanumeric number, PAN, enables the Income Tax Department to link all transactions of a person with the department. These transactions include tax payments, Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) / Tax Collected at Source (TCS) credits, returns of income, specified transactions. Once PAN is allotted, it remains the same forever. It is mandatory to quote PAN on filing of income tax return. TAN stands for Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number, which is a 10-digit alphanumeric number issued by the Income Tax Department. TAN needs to be obtained by all persons responsible for deducting or collecting tax at source.It is compulsory to quote TAN in TDS/TCS return, any TDS/TCS payment challan, TDS/TCS certificates. Source: PIB   CYCLONE DEVELOPING IN BAY OF BENGAL, HEADING TOWARDS TAMIL NADU Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: India Meteorological Department (IMD) recently announced intensification of the existing deep depression into a cyclone and the chances of the storm hitting the Tamil Nadu coast. Background: – Flanked by the sea on three sides, India’s east and west coasts are affected by cyclones, annually. Key takeaways The storm will be identified as Fengal, a name proposed by Saudi Arabia.  This is the second cyclone in the post-monsoon season to affect the Indian coast after Cyclone Dana, which crossed Odisha as a ‘severe’ category storm in late October. Climatologically, about five cyclones develop in the North Indian Ocean basin — comprising the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea — each year. Of these, an average of four cyclones develop over the Bay of Bengal and one over the Arabian Sea. This basin is most prone to cyclone development during the pre-monsoon season (April – June) and post-monsoon season (October – December) months. About Tropical Cyclones A “Cyclonic Storm’ or a “Cyclone” is an intense vortex or a whirl in the atmosphere with very strong winds circulating around it in anti-clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere and in clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere.  Tropical cyclones are those which develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer. They are the most devastating storms on Earth. Tropical cyclones are also referred to as ‘Hurricanes’ over Atlantic Ocean, ‘Typhoons’ over Pacific Ocean, ‘Willy-Willies’ over Australian Seas and simply as ‘Cyclones’ over north Indian Ocean (NIO). Structure: Eye: Calm, cloud-free center. Eye Wall: Region of strongest winds and rainfall around the eye. Rain Bands: Spiral bands of thunderstorms extending outward. Favourable Conditions for Formation Warm Ocean Waters: Sea surface temperatures >26.5°C provide the energy source. Coriolis Effect: Ensures rotation; absent at the equator. Low Wind Shear: Allows vertical development of storm clouds. Pre-existing Disturbance: Initial low-pressure zone. Cyclone Formation Process (Cyclogenesis): Warm ocean heats the air above, causing it to rise and create a low-pressure zone. Moist air from surrounding areas rushes in, rises, and condenses, releasing latent heat. The Coriolis effect initiates rotation, forming a spiraling system. The cyclone intensifies as it absorbs more heat and moisture. Source: Indian Express HIGH SEAS TREATY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: India’s recent signing of the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement — better known as the High Seas Treaty — has drawn both praise and scepticism from maritime observers Background: – So far, 105 countries have signed the treaty which is ratified by 14 countries. The High Seas treaty would come into force 120 days after at least 60 countries submit their formal ratification documents. About High Seas Treaty  The high seas comprise 64 percent of the ocean surface and about 43 percent of the Earth. They belong to no one, and everyone enjoys equal rights for navigation, overflight, economic activities, scientific research, and the laying of infrastructure like undersea cables. As high seas are no one’s responsibility this has led to the overexploitation of resources, biodiversity loss, pollution, including dumping of plastics, ocean acidification, and many other problems. The High Seas Treaty has four main objectives: Demarcation of marine protected areas (MPAs), rather like there are protected forests or wildlife areas; Sustainable use of marine genetic resources and equitable sharing of benefits arising from them; Initiation of the practice of environmental impact assessments for all major activities in the oceans; and Capacity building and technology transfer. Marine-Protected Areas: MPAs are where ocean systems, including biodiversity, are under stress, either due to human activities or climate change. Activities in these areas will be highly regulated, and conservation efforts similar to what happens in forest or wildlife zones will be undertaken. Marine Genetic Resources: Oceanic life forms can be useful for humans in areas like drug development. Genetic information is already being extracted, and their benefits are being investigated. The treaty seeks to ensure that benefits arising out of such efforts, including monetary gains, are free from strong intellectual property rights controls, and are equitably shared amongst all. The knowledge generated from is also supposed to remain openly accessible to all. Environment Impact Assessments: The treaty makes it mandatory to carry out a prior environmental impact assessment (EIA) for any activity that is potentially polluting or damaging to the marine ecosystems, or to conservation efforts. An EIA is to be carried out for activities within national jurisdictions as well if the impacts are expected in the high sea. Capacity building and technology transfer: The treaty lays emphasis on this because a number of countries, especially small island states do not have the resources or the expertise to participate in the conservation efforts, or to take benefits from the useful exploitation of marine resources. At the same time, the obligations put on them by the Treaty can be an additional burden. Source: Indian Express DESIGN LAW TREATY (DLT) Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India has signed Riyadh Design Law Treaty, which seeks to harmonise procedures and simplify registration processes of industrial designs in different countries. Background: After nearly two decades of negotiations, the member states of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) adopted the landmark Design Law Treaty (DLT). Key takeaways The Design Law Treaty (DLT), also known as the Riyadh Design Law Treaty, is an international legal instrument adopted by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) in Riyadh on November 22, 2024. Objectives: Harmonize Procedural Frameworks: The DLT aims to harmonize the procedural aspects of industrial design protection globally. This includes standardizing registration processes to make it easier and more affordable for designers to protect their work both domestically and internationally. Promote Innovation: By simplifying the design protection process, the treaty seeks to promote innovation and creativity, particularly among small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), startups, and independent designers. Key Provisions: Relaxed Time Limits: The treaty introduces more flexible deadlines for filing and submissions, giving applicants greater leeway. Restoration of Lost Rights: There is a mechanism to restore rights in case of lapses, ensuring that applicants can recover lost opportunities. Priority Claims: Provisions have been added to make it easier to correct or add priority claims. Multiple Designs: Applicants can file multiple designs in a single application, saving time and costs. Electronic Systems: The treaty encourages countries to adopt electronic systems for design registration and facilitate the digital exchange of priority documents. Impact: Global Competitiveness: By streamlining design protection processes, the DLT aims to boost the global competitiveness of designers and businesses. Environmental Benefits: The move towards electronic systems and paperless processes aligns with sustainability goals, reducing the environmental impact of design registration. Support for SMEs and Startups: The treaty is particularly beneficial for SMEs, startups, and independent designers, empowering them to secure design rights more easily worldwide. Source: PIB OPHIOPHAGUS KAALINGA Syllabus: Prelims  – ENVIRONMENT Context: King cobra found in the Western Ghats and known as ‘Kaalinga Sarpa’ in the local parlance is officially named Ophiophagus Kaalinga. Background: – The name Kaalinga is deeply rooted in Kannada culture. Key takeaways king cobra, whose habitat spreads across South Asia and Southeast Asia, was believed to belong to one species till a nearly decade-long research led by noted herpetologist, P. Gowri Shankar, brought to the fore four species of king cobra, of which Ophiophagus Kaalinga is one. Ophiophagus kaalinga, the Western Ghats king cobra, is a species of King cobra endemic to the Western Ghats of south-western India. It is found in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, and parts of Maharashtra. Its range extends from the Ashambu hills near Kanyakumari through various mountain ranges, including the Agasthyamalai and Cardamom hills, reaching elevations of about 100 m to 1800 m above sea level.  The species is hill-dwelling and thrives in mid-elevation rainforests (500–900 m) but can also be found in lower foothills and montane forests. The specific epithet kaalinga comes from the Kannada language of Karnataka, India, meaning “dark” or “black”. As a member of the king cobra family, the Western Ghats king cobra is also considered as “vulnerable” under the IUCN Red List.  The king cobras are the only snakes in the world to build nests and the female king cobras are found ferociously guarding them. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about tropical cyclones is/are correct? Tropical cyclones are also referred to as ‘Willy-Willies’ over the Atlantic Ocean. The formation of tropical cyclones requires a pre-existing low-pressure zone. Tropical cyclones rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding the High Seas Treaty: The treaty aims to demarcate Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) similar to protected forest zones. It mandates prior Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) only for activities within national jurisdiction. The treaty promotes the equitable sharing of benefits arising from marine genetic resources. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to Ophiophagus kaalinga, consider the following statements: It is a newly identified species of king cobra found in the Eastern Ghats. The name “kaalinga” is derived from the Kannada language and signifies “dark” or “black.” The species is classified as vulnerable under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  27th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INDIA’S FEDERAL VISION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26  November 1949 (it came into effect on 26 January 1950). This day, celebrated as the constitution day is an apt moment to reflect on one of the most defining features of the Indian Constitution — its federal structure. Background: – Indian federalism represents a deliberate constitutional choice by the framers aimed at balancing unity and diversity, decentralisation, and democratic decision-making. Unique features of India’s federalism  India is called a ‘quasi-federal’ republic as it has the characteristics of both federal and unitary systems. While India adopted a federal structure that divides power between the central/federal government and its member states, it also incorporates unitary features, allowing for flexibility in governance. Thus, some of the major federal features put in place by the framers of the Constitution include: Dual polity: With the Union government at the center and state governments at the periphery, India has a dual governance system. Constitutional supremacy: All laws enacted by legislatures at various levels must conform to the Constitution. Rigid amendment procedures: The Constitution of India protects its federal structure by adopting rigid procedures for amendments. Division of power: A transparent system of division of powers between central and state governments is enshrined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which classifies subjects into three lists, i.e. Union List, State List and Concurrent List. The three lists  Union List: Subjects belonging to the Union List exclusively fall under the legislative authority of Parliament, and examples include defence and foreign affairs.  State List: The State List is a list of subjects that come under the authority of state legislatures, and some examples of the subjects include police, public health, and agriculture.  Concurrent List: The Concurrent List was inspired by the Australian Constitution. The list enumerates subjects on which both the Union and state governments can legislate, with Union laws prevailing in the event of a conflict. Examples of subjects include education and marriage. This system ensure that there is no concentration of power at any level of government. Changes made to the three lists  Over time, modifications to the three lists have been undertaken to address the evolving governance needs and public policy priorities. At the time of its adoption, the Constitution allocated 98 subjects to the Union List, 66 to the State List, and 47 to the Concurrent List.  Currently, the numbers stand at 100 subjects in the Union List, 59 in the State List, and 52 in the Concurrent List, reflecting the significant shifts over the decades.  Among these changes, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the most substantial changes to the Seventh Schedule. This amendment transferred key subjects such as education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.  These amendments reflect a broader trend toward increased centralisation within India’s federal structure.  Examples of subjects moved to Concurrent List  The shifting of education to the Concurrent List helped to ensure uniformity in educational standards across the country. It enabled the Union government to introduce national policies like the Right to Education Act, 2009 and the National Education Policy, while allowing states to address region-specific educational needs. Similarly, the Constitution granted states exclusive control over forest management and conservation. The 42nd Amendment moved forests to the Concurrent List in view of the growing concerns about environmental degradation, deforestation, and the global importance of biodiversity. This shift enabled the Union government to enact legislation such as the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. Contemporary challenges  The division of powers articulated in the three lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution exemplifies its adaptability, effectively balancing centralisation and regional autonomy to meet the nation’s governance needs. New challenges such as “climate change, artificial intelligence and cybercrime transcend territorial boundaries which form the basis of federal units.” The Indian federal structure, with its dynamic allocation of powers, can address these challenges through collaborative efforts between the states and the centre. Source: Indian Express   ONE NATION ONE SUBSCRIPTION Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union Cabinet approved a budgetary allocation of Rs 6,000 crore for an initiative called ‘One Nation One Subscription’ (ONOS).  Background: – Aiming to centralise journal subscriptions for nearly 6,300 government-run institutions, ONOS seeks to provide equitable access to 13,000 scholarly journals under a single platform. Current system Higher education institutions (HEIs) can access journals through 10 different library consortia. A library consortium is a group of two or more libraries that have agreed to cooperate to fulfil certain similar needs, usually resource sharing.  For instance, INFLIBNET Centre (Information and Library Network Centre) in Gandhinagar is an Inter-University Centre of the University Grants Commission which oversees the UGC-Infonet Digital Library Consortium, providing access to selected scholarly electronic journals and databases in different disciplines. Apart from this, HEIs also subscribe to several journals individually. What does the ONOS scheme offer? Through the ONOS scheme, the Centre aims to consolidate the disaggregated approach to journal access. ONOS will enable state and central government HEIs to access thousands of journals on one platform, which will be active from January 1, 2025. This common platform will host 13,000 journals published by 30 international publishers. All institutions will only need to register on the platform to access these journals.  INFLIBNET has been designated as the implementing agency for this initiative. The central government negotiated one subscription price for each of the 30 different publishers and approved Rs 6,000 crore for three calendar years — 2025, 2026 and 2027. What is the need for ONOS? First, it would expand access to the best scholarly journals for 55 lakh to nearly 1.8 crore students, faculty, and researchers across roughly 6,300 government universities, colleges, research bodies, and Institutions of National Importance (INIs), including those in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities. Second, it would avoid duplication of journal subscriptions across different library consortia and individual higher education institutions and hence reduce excess expenditure. Third, a single subscription for all central and state government HEIs would provide better bargaining power when negotiating with publishers. Fourth, the Centre will gain insights into the extent to which journals are being accessed and downloaded by higher education ecosystem. This will not only help in long-term planning but also allow to encourage inactive institutions to fully utilise the platform and promote its benefits among their teachers, students, and researchers. Source: Indian Express NATURAL FARMING MISSION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – AGRICULTURE Context: Centre recently announced a National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) to promote natural farming. Background: – The mission, with a budget outlay of Rs 2,481 crore, will cover 1 crore farmers across the country About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) NMNF will be a standalone Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Objectives: Promote Chemical-Free Farming: Encourage farmers to adopt natural farming methods that eliminate the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides. Enhance Soil Health: Improve soil health and fertility through organic practices like the use of cow dung, cow urine, and other natural inputs. Support Biodiversity: Foster biodiversity by promoting diversified cropping systems and integrated farming practices. Climate Resilience: Build resilience to climate risks such as droughts and floods by enhancing soil carbon content and water retention. Key Components of NMNF Diversified Multi-Cropping Systems: Natural Farming encourages the adoption of multiple crops grown simultaneously to improve soil biodiversity and reduce pest outbreaks. Desi Cow-Based Inputs: Inputs derived from indigenous cows, such as cow dung and urine, form the backbone of Natural Farming. These are used to prepare nutrient-rich formulations like Jeevamrit and Beejamrit for soil and plant health. Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs): To ensure farmers have access to Natural Farming inputs, the government plans to establish 10,000 BRCs, providing ready-to-use formulations and resources. Capacity Building and Demonstration Farms: Around 2,000 model demonstration farms will be established across India, supported by Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), agricultural universities, and trained Farmer Master Trainers. These will serve as hubs for hands-on training. Additional Information Source: Krishi Jagran PROBA 3 Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will launch the European Space Agency’s Proba-3 mission on its PSLV rocket from Sriharikota on December 4.  Background: Proba-1 (also launched by ISRO) and Proba-2 were launched in 2001 and 2009, respectively. Proba 3 will attempt the first-ever “precision formation flying”, where two satellites will fly together and maintain a fixed configuration in space. What is Proba-3? Proba-3 is an advanced mission by the European Space Agency (ESA) aimed at studying the Sun’s corona. Proba-3 has an expected mission life of two years. Proba-3 will be placed in a highly elliptical Earth orbit with an apogee of 60,530 km and a perigee of 600 km. The mission is designed with two satellites that will be launched together, separate from each other and then fly in tandem. They will then form a solar coronagraph, an instrument that helps block out the bright light emitted by the Sun to reveal the objects and atmosphere around it. Proba-3 carries three main instruments: ASPIICS (Association of Spacecraft for Polarimetric and Imaging Investigation of the Corona of the Sun) or the coronagraph: Its field of view is between the Sun’s outer and inner corona, a circular belt normally observable during solar eclipse events. DARA (Digital Absolute Radiometer): Measures the Sun’s total energy output known as the total solar irradiance. 3DEES (3D Energetic Electron Spectrometer): Measures electron fluxes as it passes through Earth’s radiation belts. Why is Proba-3 unique? The two satellites — Occulter Spacecraft (weighing 200 kg) and the Coronagraph Spacecraft (weighing 340 kg) — will mimic a natural solar eclipse. They will manoeuvre precisely in Earth’s orbit so that one satellite casts a shadow onto the other. A naturally occurring solar eclipse allows solar physicists to observe and study the Sun’s corona for 10 minutes, across an average of about 1.5 eclipse events per year. Proba-3 will give six hours, equivalent to 50 such events annually, which will help deepen understanding of the Sun’s corona like never before. Both the Occulter and the Coronagraph will face the Sun at all times. They will maintain a formation of a few millimetres and then move to a position where they will be 150 metres apart for six hours at a time. One satellite will act as a viewing telescope, kept at the centre of a shadow cast by the other satellite positioned 150 metres away. This positioning will facilitate observing the Sun’s corona and will be autonomously achieved through precise flight formation. If done successfully, the Occulter will create an artificial yet stable eclipse, by masking large parts of the Sun. As a result, the Sun’s blinding light will get blocked and only the solar corona will be visible to the coronagraph, which will photograph and facilitate studies of the lesser-known features. Source: Indian Express GELEPHU MINDFULNESS CITY Syllabus: Prelims  – CURRENT EVENT Context: Bhutan, the Himalayan kingdom that brought the world the concept of gross national happiness, is set to build a “mindfulness city” and began raising funds to help start the ambitious project. Background: – The “Gelephu Mindfulness City” (GMC) will lie in a special administrative region with separate rules and laws that will aim to be an economic corridor linking South Asia to Southeast Asia Key takeaways Gelephu Mindfulness City (GMC) is an innovative urban development project in Bhutan, envisioned by His Majesty King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck. Location: Gelephu, located in the south-central part of Bhutan. Area: Covers over 2,500 square kilometers, making it one of the largest urban development projects in Bhutan. Special Administrative Region (SAR): GMC is Bhutan’s first SAR, with executive autonomy and legal independence. Key Features: Mindfulness and Sustainability: The city integrates economic growth with mindfulness, holistic living, and sustainability. Economic Hub: Positioned at the crossroads of South Asia, Southeast Asia, and China, GMC aims to become a regional connectivity and economic exchange hub. Zero Carbon City: The city is designed to be a “Zero Carbon” city, aligning with Bhutan’s commitment to sustainable development. Infrastructure: Includes advanced infrastructure, inhabitable bridges, an international airport, and healthcare facilities for both western and traditional medicine. Protected Areas: Includes a national park and a wildlife sanctuary. Vision and Values: Gross National Happiness (GNH): The city is anchored on the vision and values of GNH, promoting conscious and sustainable businesses. Buddhist Heritage: Inspired by Bhutan’s rich spiritual heritage, GMC aims to create a mindful living environment. Business Environment: Businesses in GMC will be screened and invited based on their respect for the Bhutanese way of life, sustainable development, and sovereignty. Source: Reuters Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Regarding the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), which of the following statements is correct? NMNF is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Desi cow-based inputs like Jeevamrit and Beejamrit form the foundation of Natural Farming under this mission. The mission aims to establish 10,000 Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) across India. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to the Proba-3 mission, consider the following statements: Proba-3 aims to study the Sun’s corona through precision formation flying of two satellites. The two satellites in Proba-3 will remain 1,500 kilometers apart to create a solar eclipse. Proba-3 carries instruments like ASPIICS, DARA, and 3DEES to observe and measure solar and space phenomena. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Consider the following features about the Gelephu Mindfulness City (GMC): It will be Bhutan’s first Special Administrative Region (SAR). GMC aims to be a Zero Carbon City while integrating mindfulness with urban development. The project is envisioned as a regional hub connecting South Asia, Southeast Asia, and the Middle East. Which of the statements above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  26th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TREATY TO TACKLE PLASTIC POLLUTION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: More than 170 countries are converging in Busan, Republic of Korea, to negotiate a new legally binding global treaty to end plastic pollution, including marine pollution. Background: – This is the fifth (and final) round of talks since 2022, when the UN Environmental Assembly (UNEA) agreed to develop such a by the end of 2024. Why is a global plastic treaty required? The annual global production of plastic doubled from 234 million tonnes (mt) in 2000 to 460 mt in 2019. Nearly half of this was produced in Asia, followed by North America (19%) and Europe (15%).  Plastic production is expected to touch 700 mt by 2040, according to a report by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Plastic takes anywhere from 20 to 500 years to decompose, and less than 10% has been recycled till now, according to a 2023 study published by The Lancet. Much of the plastic waste leaks into the environment, where it breaks down into smaller particles (microplastic or nanoplastic). Studies have found that exposure to chemicals in plastic can cause endocrine disruption and a range of diseases including cancer, diabetes, reproductive disorders, and neurodevelopmental impairment. Plastic also harms species inhabiting marine, freshwater, and land ecosystems. Plastic contributes to climate change also. In 2020, it generated 3.6% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, with 90% of those  emissions coming from plastic production, which uses fossil fuels as raw material. The remaining 10% of emissions were released during plastic waste management and treatment. India accounts for 20% of the world’s global plastic pollution with release of 9.3 mt, which is significantly more than the countries next in the list — Nigeria (3.5 mt), Indonesia (3.4 mt) and China (2.8 mt), the study said. What is on the negotiating table? Negotiations pertain to formulating a global set of rules that will address plastic pollution through its life cycle, from fossil-fuel based production, and the challenges of managing plastic disposal and waste.  The final rules may also ban particular types of plastic, products and chemical additives used in plastics, and set legally binding targets for recycling and recycled content used in consumer goods. There will be talks on ‘just transition’ for workers and communities whose livelihoods would be affected by the elimination of certain items and a move away from plastic production. However, countries have been unable to converge on agenda items. Saudi Arabia, Iran, Russia, Kazakhstan, Egypt, Kuwait, Malaysia, and India have resistance to stricter mandates and have instead proposed downstream measures such as innovative waste management and sustainable plastic use. Countries have also not been able to agree on the subject of finance. What is India’s position? India has made it clear that it does not support any restrictions on the production of polymers. Any restrictions are beyond the mandate of the UNEA’s resolution adopted at Nairobi in 2022, according to India. The country has also sought the inclusion of financial and technical assistance, and technology transfer in the substantive provisions of any final treaty. On the exclusion of harmful chemicals used for plastic production, India has said that any decision should be based on scientific studies, and the regulation of such chemicals should be regulated domestically. India banned the use of single-use plastics covering 19 categories in 2022. However, the country has said that a decision on the issue of including certain plastic items for phase-out in the final treaty should be pragmatic and regulation should be nationally driven taking into account national circumstances. Source: Indian Express   GLOBAL MATCHMAKING PLATFORM (GMP) Syllabus: Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Climate Club launched the Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP). Background: – The initiative focused on accelerating decarbonisation in heavy-emitting industries was launched in the presence of partner countries, key donor and partner organisations.  Key takeaways The Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP) is an initiative designed to accelerate the decarbonization of heavy-emitting industries in emerging and developing economies. Purpose and Objectives: Decarbonization: The primary goal of the GMP is to fast-track the decarbonization of industries that are major contributors to greenhouse gas emissions. Technical and Financial Solutions: The platform connects countries with technical and financial solutions to reduce emissions in energy and emissions-intensive industrial sectors. How It Works: Single-Point Gateway: The GMP acts as a single-point gateway for governments in emerging and developing economies to raise customized requests and identify globally leading technical and financial solutions. Matchmaking Process: The platform facilitates a matchmaking process where countries’ specific needs are matched with appropriate technical and financial support from partner organizations. Pilot Projects: Pilot project discussions are already underway in countries such as Argentina, Colombia, Chile, Egypt, Indonesia, Kenya, Morocco, and Cambodia. Support and Partnerships: Climate Club: The GMP is a support mechanism of the Climate Club, with the secretariat hosted by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO). Delivery Partners: Key delivery partners include Climate Investment Funds, the German Development Cooperation (GIZ), UNIDO, and the World Bank. Initial Funding: The platform received initial funding from the German Federal Ministry of Economic Cooperation and Climate Action (BMWK). Source: Down To Earth MICRO, SMALL, AND MEDIUM ENTERPRISES (MSMES) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: India’s micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) have added nearly 10 crore new jobs over the past 15 months, according to official data from the Udyam portal. Background: According to the figures, the number of registered MSMEs has now gone up to 5.49 crore from 2.33 crore in August last year while the number of jobs reported by these enterprises has shot up to 23.14 crore from 13.15 crore during this period. Definition and Classification Micro Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹1 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹5 crore. Small Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹10 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹50 crore. Medium Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹50 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹250 crore. Significance Economic Contribution: MSMEs contribute significantly to the GDP, employment, and exports. In India, they account for nearly 30% of the GDP. Employment Generation: MSMEs are major job creators, providing employment to millions of people. Innovation and Entrepreneurship: They foster innovation and entrepreneurship, often leading to the development of new products and services. Government Support The Indian government has made significant strides to support MSMEs, particularly through its 2024-25 Union Budget allocating a substantial Rs 22,137.95 crore to the MSME Ministry—an increase of 41.6% from the previous fiscal year. Digital Initiatives: Initiatives like Udyam Registration and the MSME SAMBANDH portal. Champions Platform: The Champions platform, launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, provides handholding support to MSMEs and new entrepreneurs. Source: DD News CONSTITUTION DAY Syllabus: Prelims – POLITY Context: India observes Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, on November 26 each year.  Background: – This year marks 75 years since the adoption of the Constitution, and the Centre will commemorate the occasion with year-long activities under the campaign ‘Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Swabhiman’. Key takeaways Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Diwas, is celebrated in India on November 26th each year to commemorate the adoption of the Indian Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949.  The Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950, marking the birth of the Indian Republic. The day also honors Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, whose vision and leadership were instrumental in shaping the document. Government of India declared November 26 Constitution Day in 2015, the year that marked the 125th birth anniversary of Dr BR Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. Previously, the day was celebrated as Law Day. Lesser-known facts about the Constitution of India : Manabendra Nath Roy was the first to propose the idea of forming a Constituent Assembly in 1934, which later became an official demand of the National Congress in 1935. The Original Constitution of India was handwritten by Prem Behari Narain Raizada in both Hindi and English. Shantiniketan artists, including Beohar Rammanohar Sinha and Nandalal Bose, decorated every page of the handwritten Constitution. India has the longest Constitution in the world, with 117,369 words. The original copies of the Constitution of India are preserved in helium-filled cases in the Library of the Parliament of India. The original text of the Constitution contained 395 articles in 22 parts and eight schedules. Source: News18 REGENERATIVE AGRICULTURE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Government of Odisha, in partnership with ICRISAT, launched a ‘Compendium of Regenerative Agriculture’ to promote regenerative agriculture. Background: – The compendium outlines five key principles for sustainable farming: minimising soil disturbance, maximising crop diversity, maintaining soil cover, keeping living roots year-round, and integrating livestock.  Key takeaways Regenerative agriculture is a holistic approach to farming that focuses on restoring and enhancing the health of ecosystems. Core Principles: Soil Health: The primary focus is on improving soil health through practices like minimal soil disturbance (no-till farming), cover cropping, and crop rotation. Biodiversity: Enhancing biodiversity by integrating a variety of crops and livestock, which helps in pest control and nutrient cycling. Water Management: Improving water retention and reducing runoff through practices like mulching and agroforestry. Carbon Sequestration: Increasing carbon sequestration in the soil to mitigate climate change by capturing atmospheric CO2. Practices: Cover Cropping: Planting cover crops to protect and enrich the soil during times when main crops are not growing. Composting: Adding organic matter to the soil through composting to improve soil structure and fertility. Agroforestry: Integrating trees and shrubs into agricultural systems to enhance biodiversity and provide additional income sources. Holistic Management: Managing farms as integrated ecosystems, considering the interrelationships between soil, plants, animals, and humans. Benefits: Improved Soil Health: Healthy soil supports better crop yields, reduces the need for chemical inputs, and enhances resilience to extreme weather. Enhanced Biodiversity: Diverse ecosystems are more resilient and productive, providing habitat for beneficial insects and wildlife. Climate Mitigation: By sequestering carbon, regenerative agriculture helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions and combat climate change. Economic Viability: Farmers can reduce input costs and improve profitability through sustainable practices. Source: Hindu Businessline Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India is/are correct? MSMEs contribute nearly 30% to India’s GDP. The Udyam Registration Portal facilitates registration and monitoring of MSMEs in India. A medium enterprise in India is defined as one with an annual turnover not exceeding ₹500 crore. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 every year to commemorate which of the following events? (a) Adoption of the Preamble to the Constitution (b) Formation of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution (c) Adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly (d) Coming into effect of the Constitution of India   Q3.) Which of the following is NOT a core principle of regenerative agriculture? (a) Minimal soil disturbance (b) Maximizing crop diversity (c) Reducing the carbon content in the soil (d) Integrating livestock into farming systems Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  25th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) THE TRUMP EFFECT ON INDIA Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 Context: Mr. Donald Trump has not yet assumed the office of President of the United States. With seven weeks remaining until the inauguration, discussions worldwide are centered on the potential impact of his presidency. Background: – Mr Trump’s ‘Make America Great Again’ is not likely to make the planet a better or safer or more prosperous place. It is, according to Mr Trump, in America’s self-interest. Core Trump ideas Trump, the Mercantilist and the impact Belief in High Tariffs: Advocates high tariffs to protect U.S. interests, particularly targeting imports from China. Impact on U.S. Economy: High tariffs likely to increase costs for industries and consumers, leading to inflation. Inflation could prompt the Federal Reserve to raise policy rates, reversing earlier cuts. Higher interest rates will reverse the flow of capital and developing countries like India will witness outflow of funds. Against a stronger dollar, the Indian rupee will lose value. China may redirect exports to other countries, increasing dumping. India already imposes significant anti-dumping duties on Chinese goods. High U.S. tariffs may trigger retaliatory measures, disrupting world trade. Trump, the Protectionist Industrial Policies: Plans to incentivize domestic manufacturing may hamper foreign direct investments in countries like India. Immigration and Deportation: Promised to deport up to one million illegal immigrants in the first hundred days. Indian deportations could impact bilateral ties. Possible tightening of H1B1 visa regulations, conflicting with U.S. industry needs for skilled Indian professionals. Trump, the Climate Sceptic Energy Policy: Nominated Chris Wright, a proponent of fracking and drilling, as Energy Secretary. Denial of climate crisis likely to hinder COP efforts on Climate Change. Aligns with India’s position for slower COP implementation. Pharmaceutical Industry: Anticipation of deregulation and higher drug prices, which may affect global healthcare affordability. Source: Indian Express   LACHIT BORPHUKAN Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY Context: Every year, 24th November is celebrated as the ‘Lachit Diwas’ to mark the birth anniversary of the Assamese folk hero Lachit Borphukan. Background: – He is considered one of the greatest of Assamese heroes, symbolising the valour, courage, and intelligence that defines the Assamese self-identity. Key takeaways Lachit Borphukan was a legendary army commander of the Ahom kingdom. He defeated the Mughal forces, led by Raja Ramsingh-I, in the ‘Battle of Saraighat’, and thwarted a drawn-out attempt by them to take back Assam. Lachit was born on November 24, 1622, and grew up during a turbulent period of Assam’s history. He was chosen as one of the five Borphukans of the Ahom kingdom by king Charadhwaj Singha, and given administrative, judicial, and military responsibilities. Battles of Alaboi and Saraighat Between 1615 and 1682, the Mughal Empire made a series of attempts, under Jahangir and then Aurangzeb, to annex the Ahom kingdom.  In 1662, Mughal Governor of Bengal Mir Jumla’s forces engaged with the Ahom army and went on to occupy part of the territory under Ahom rule. Between 1667 and 1682, the Ahoms under a series of rulers, launched a counter-offensive to reclaim lost territories. In 1669, Aurangzeb dispatched the Rajput Raja Ram Singh I to recapture territories won back by the Ahoms. The battle of Alaboi was fought on August 5, 1669 in the Alaboi Hills near Dadara in North Guwahati. While the Mughals preferred an open battle, Borphukan relied on his knowledge of the territory and engaged in guerrilla warfare, which provided an edge to his smaller, but fast moving and capable forces. After initial setbacks, Ram Singh sent his entire battery of Rajput soldiers and Mughal veterans and turned the tide of the battle. Unlike in Alaboi, where he was forced to fight on land instead of a naval battle, Lachit in Saraighat enticed the Mughals into a naval battle. Ahom forces combined a frontal attack and a surprise attack from behind. They lured the Mughal fleet into moving ahead by feigning an attack with a few ships from the front. The Mughals vacated the waters behind them, from where the main Ahom fleet attacked and achieved a decisive victory. Lachit died a year after the Battle of Saraighat from a long festering illness. In fact he was very ill during the Battle of Saraighat, as he heroically led his troops to victory. This only added to his legend. The battle of Saraighat proved that Lachit Barphukan was a master strategist who can be compared with the great generals in any part of India. Aptly, the Lachit Barphukan gold medal, instituted in 1999, is given to the best cadet from the National Defence Academy. Source: Indian Express ARGENTINA CONSIDERS PARIS TREATY PULLOUT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Argentina’s far-right President Javier Milei is considering withdrawing his country from the Paris Climate Agreement. Background: The speculation surfaced after Milei’s government asked its negotiators to leave the ongoing COP29 climate summit last week. Key takeaways The Paris Agreement is an international accord that was adopted by nearly every country in 2015 to address climate change and its adverse effects. Its primary goal is to substantially reduce GHG emissions in a bid to limit global warming in this century to “well below” 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing the means to curb warming to 1.5 degrees. The treaty requires all Parties (countries which have joined the agreement) to state every five years what they are doing to tackle climate change — what is known as their nationally determined contribution (NDC).  Each successive NDC is meant to reflect an increasingly higher degree of ambition compared to the previous version, according to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). How does a country withdraw from the Paris Agreement? Article 28 of the Paris Agreement lays out the procedure and timeline for a country’s withdrawal from the treaty. It says, “at any time after three years from the date on which this Agreement has entered into force (this happened in 2016) for a Party, that Party may withdraw from this Agreement by giving written notification to the Depositary”. So if a member state wants to withdraw, it has to submit the notification of a withdrawal to the Office of Legal Affairs of the UN, based at UN Headquarters in New York. Once the withdrawal notification has been received, it only becomes effective after one year (or later if the member state so says in the notification). Until the withdrawal comes into force, the member state remains in the Paris Agreement and has to fully participate in all activities under it. Argentina is South America’s second-largest economy and the world’s 24th-largest emitter of GHGs. It comprises significant fossil fuel resources and exports, with the second-largest reserves of shale gas and the fourth-largest reserves of shale oil worldwide. Source: Indian Express COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT AND DELHI’S POLLUTION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Air pollution in Delhi has been in the ‘severe’ and ‘severe plus’ category for the most part of the last 10 days. This week, the Supreme Court pulled up the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) on its inadequate pollution control response. Background: – The court was referring to various stakeholders not following the CAQM’s orders despite specific provisions under the 2021 Act. What is the CAQM? The CAQM in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas came into existence through an ordinance in 2020, which was later replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.  The CAQM was set up for better coordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding air quality and connected issues.  The CAQM replaced the EPCA (Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority), which was formed in 1998 by the Supreme Court. However, the EPCA was not backed by a statute and experts had raised the issue that it lacked the teeth to act against authorities which did not follow its orders.  Despite that drawback, it was under the EPCA that many of the measures being followed by the CAQM started, including the Graded Response Action Plan or GRAP, a list of temporary emergency measures to control air pollution. What are the powers of CAQM? Under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, the CAQM was given the power to take all measures, issue directions and entertain complaints, as it deems necessary, for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of air in the NCR and adjoining areas.  Under Section 14 of the Act, the CAQM can initiate stringent actions against officers for not following its orders. Is the CAQM to blame for Delhi’s pollution? Though the CAQM makes plans and coordinates with different agencies, it is the agencies that have to implement them on the ground. An official of the CAQM said the commission has improved coordination and planning. Foe example, the CAQM coordinates with Punjab and Haryana to prepare action plans for controlling stubble burning. The commission has primarily focused on controlling stubble burning in recent years, it has to broaden its efforts to address multiple sources of pollution. Increased attention and resources should be directed towards controlling dust and vehicular pollution as well. Source: The Hindu DAL LAKE Syllabus: Prelims  – GEOGRAPHY Context: The famous Chinar boat race 2024 was organised in J&K’s Dal Lake by the Army recently. Background: – The Army has been organising sports and entertainment events in J&K as part of its endeavour to build cordial and closer Army-public relationships. Key takeaways Dal Lake is a freshwater lake located in Srinagar, the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir, India.  It is an urban lake and the second largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir. It is one of the most famous attractions in the Kashmir Valley and is often referred to as the “Lake of Flowers”, “Jewel in the Crown of Kashmir”, or “Srinagar’s Jewel”. Primary Inflows: Telbal Nallah from Marsar Lake Primary Outflows: Regulated through Dal Gate and Nalla Amir Ecological Significance: Ramsar Site: Designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention in 2002. Biodiversity: Home to various flora and fauna, including lotus flowers, water lilies, and several fish species. Floating Gardens: Known as “Rad” in Kashmiri, these gardens blossom with lotus flowers during July and August. Islands: Includes islands like Char Chinar (Roph Lank) and Sona Lank (Gold Island). Tourism and Activities: Houseboats and Shikaras: The lake is famous for its houseboats and colorful shikaras (wooden boats) that offer scenic cruises. Mughal Gardens: The lake is surrounded by Mughal-era gardens like Shalimar Bagh and Nishat Bagh, built during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. Floating Market: A unique market where vendors sell fresh produce and handicrafts from their shikaras. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Dal Lake: It is designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance. The lake is surrounded by Mughal-era gardens like Shalimar Bagh and Nishat Bagh. It is the largest freshwater lake in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to Lachit Borphukan, consider the following statements: He was an army commander in the Ahom Kingdom who led the victory in the Battle of Saraighat. The Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is awarded to the best cadet from the Indian Military Academy. Lachit Diwas is celebrated annually on November 24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), consider the following statements: It has the power to issue directions and entertain complaints to improve air quality in the National Capital Region. The CAQM replaced the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) initiated by the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). The CAQM is empowered to initiate actions against officers who fail to implement its orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  23rd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DELHI’S POLLUTION CASE Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: Delhi is witnessing poor air quality prompting questions regarding the future of city. Background: – Delhi is perhaps going to become, if it has not already, an uninhabitable city for two different reasons. In winters (October-February), pollution levels peak, while during summers (April-June), the heat waves are unbearable, both affecting Delhi’s poor disproportionately Why is Delhi’s air quality so poor? The government often tells that stubble burning in Punjab, Haryana, and U.P. is responsible for Delhi’s pollution. It’s a half-truth. A 2023 report prepared by IIT Kanpur, IIT Delhi, TERI New Delhi, and Airshed Kanpur shows that, even during winter months, when sources of pollution external to Delhi are at their peak, half of the PM2.5 levels can be apportioned to Delhi itself . Vehicles alone contribute 58% to this total. The only realistic solution to air pollution is a massive shift in the way Delhi travels, that is, from private (cars and motorcycles) to public transport running on cleaner energy, with last mile connectivity, a step which will bring the number of vehicles on the road down significantly. Why are the winters so much worse? The concentration of pollutants in the air depends not just on emissions but also on many meteorological factors — temperature, wind direction/speed, and rain, among other things.  Hot air, being lighter, moves up (thereby carrying the pollutants with it), whereas cold air traps pollutants and keeps them closer to the ground. Similarly, wind can disperse the pollutants, while rain can force the most common air pollutants, like PM2.5 and PM10, to the ground. Cold air with slow wind speed and no rains make Delhi a pot of pollution with a lid on. Evidence shows that for the months which have a moderate AQI, either the wind speed is relatively higher (February-June) or rainfall is greater (July-September) than the rest of the year. Both these factors, aided by warmer air, lift the air quality of Delhi from poor/severe to moderate.  Given that Delhi’s own emissions are not winter-specific, its air quality would have been poor throughout the year but for these favourable factors from March through September. Source: The Hindu   ICC ISSUES ARREST WARRANTS FOR NETANYAHU Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The International Criminal Court has issued arrest warrants for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, his former defence minister Gallant, and a Hamas leader, Ibrahim Al-Masri, also known as Mohammed Deif, for alleged war crimes and crimes against humanity. Background: – In granting the warrants, ICC judges stated there were reasonable grounds to believe that Netanyahu and Gallant bore criminal responsibility for the starvation of Gaza and the persecution of Palestinians. Key takeaways Israel, which does not recognize the ICC’s jurisdiction, has condemned the warrants, with Netanyahu labeling them as false and unjust.  The United States, also not a member of the ICC, has criticized the court’s decision, expressing concerns over its implications for international relations. The warrants obligate the 124 ICC member states to arrest the individuals if they enter their territories, potentially restricting their international travel.  However, enforcement remains uncertain, as the ICC lacks its own police force and relies on member states for execution. About International Criminal Court The ICC, headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands, was established under a 1998 treaty called the “Rome Statute”. It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. At present, 124 countries are party to the Rome Statute, including Britain, Japan, Afghanistan, and Germany. India is not a member, nor are China and the US. Unlike the International Court of Justice (ICJ), which deals with countries and inter-state disputes, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Additionally, the offences should be committed either in a country that ratified the agreement or by a national of a ratifying country. The ICC can also practise its jurisdiction over cases referred by the UN Security Council to it. Israel is not party to the Rome Statute, but Palestine is. Source: Indian Express GLOBAL STOCK TAKE Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A day before the scheduled close of talks, the COP29 meeting in Azerbaijan stared at a major crisis with almost every country and bloc rejecting the latest draft negotiating text. Background: Several countries, including India and Saudi Arabia, objected to references being made to one particular paragraph in Global Stock Take (GST) which had asked all countries to transition away from fossil fuels, triple renewable energy by 2030, reduce emissions of non-CO2 gases including methane, and phase-down coal, among other things. Key takeaways The Global Stocktake (GST) is a key mechanism under the Paris Agreement (2015) to assess the world’s collective progress toward achieving the Agreement’s goals, particularly limiting global warming to well below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C, above pre-industrial levels. Key Objectives: Review Climate Actions: Assess the implementation of countries’ climate action plans, known as Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Evaluate Support: Examine the support provided to developing countries, including finance, technology transfer, and capacity-building. Promote Transparency: Enhance transparency and accountability in reporting climate actions and support. Process and Timeline Periodicity: The GST is conducted every five years, with the first stocktake completed in 2023 and the next one scheduled for 2028. Source: Indian Express COLD WAVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Days after night temperatures dipped across Telangana, a public advisory has been issued for cold wave conditions. Background: – The advisory has been issued by the National Programme on Climate Change and Human Health (NPCCHH), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, for Telangana and 16 other states and Union Territories about cold wave conditions. Key takeaways The cold wave conditions signify a certain amount of fall of temperature at a given place with respect to normal climatological value. According to the Indian Meteorological Department, a cold wave occurs when the minimum temperature is 10°C or less for plains and 0°C or less for the hilly regions and negative departure from normal day temperature is 4.5 to 6.4°C. If negative departure is more than 6.4°C, it is a severe cold wave. Which means that day temperatures play an important role in cold waves. Additionally, the plains suffer a cold wave when minimum temperature is 4°C or less and a severe cold wave when minimum temperature falls to 2°C or less. Coastal areas suffer cold waves when the minimum temperature is 15°C or less and the negative departure from the minimum is 4.5 °C. The advisory highlights that the cold wave season extends from November to March, with December and January witnessing the highest frequency of extreme cold events.  The affected States and Union Territories, identified as the ‘Core Cold Wave Zone,’ include Telangana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. Certain population groups are particularly vulnerable. These include the homeless, the elderly, economically disadvantaged individuals, pregnant and lactating women, children, outdoor workers & farmers. The advisory cautions that prolonged exposure to cold can cause severe health issues, including hypothermia and frostbite. Non-freezing cold injuries, such as Immersion Foot—caused by prolonged exposure to cold, wet conditions—are also a risk. Source: The Hindu CLIMATE CHANGE PERFORMANCE INDEX (CCPI) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2025) report was released at the UN climate conference in Baku. Background: – Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks countries’ efforts to combat climate change. Key takeaways The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool that tracks the climate mitigation performance of 63 countries and the European Union (EU). It is published by think tanks Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and Climate Action Network International. Categories: The CCPI assesses each country’s performance in four  categories: GHG Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%). Countries are scored on a scale of 0 to 100, with higher scores reflecting better performance. Key takeaways from Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2025) report India ranks 10th in this year’s CCPI, remaining among the highest performers. India has made considerable progress in renewable energy policy, particularly with large-scale solar power projects and the launch of the Rooftop Solar Scheme. Energy efficiency standards have been introduced, but their coverage remains inadequate, the report said, adding, India is also advancing in electric vehicle deployment, especially with two-wheelers. Despite these positive developments, India remains heavily reliant on coal. The report leaves the first three places empty, as no country performed well enough across all index categories to achieve an overall “very high” rating. Denmark ranks at the top (but technically fourth place), followed by the Netherlands and the U.K. The U.K., this year’s big climber, benefitted from its coal phase out and the government’s pledge to halt new licenses for fossil fuel projects, the report said. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about the Global Stocktake (GST) under the Paris Agreement is correct? It is conducted every year to assess the progress made by individual countries toward achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). GST aims to enhance transparency and accountability in climate actions and support provided to developing countries. The first GST was completed in 2023. It evaluates progress in limiting global warming to well below 3°C above pre-industrial levels. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only   Q2.) Consider the following statements about the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI): It is published by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The four categories assessed in the CCPI include GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, and Climate Policy. India ranks in the top 10 globally due to its progress in renewable energy policies, particularly large-scale solar power projects. The CCPI leaves the first three spots vacant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only   Q3.) With reference to Cold Wave conditions, consider the following statements: A cold wave in plains is declared when the minimum temperature is 10°C or less, with a negative departure of 4.5°C to 6.4°C from the normal. Severe cold waves occur in coastal areas when the minimum temperature falls below 5°C. The core cold wave zone in India includes states like Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar, and Odisha. The frequency of extreme cold events is highest in January. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  22nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here