Posts

Important Articles

[MOCK TEST] Sameeksha 2024 – IASbaba’s All India Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2024 on 2nd June (SUNDAY). Available in Offline & Online Mode (English & हिन्दी)

Hello Aspirants, We understand how this season might affect you… Some of you must be pouring cup after cup of ☕☕ chai/coffee and sitting under the study lamp to cram in every passing minute to make sure you do not miss out on anything… The restlessness and the desire to perform the best are real! But here’s one thing that you can do (some of you are already aware of this Magic Pill)💊💊💊 This Magic Pill in layman’s language is called :- PRACTICE So, what ‘Magic’ does this Magic 💊 bring in your life? Magic 1: Relieves you off the pressure of performing on that 1 day. Because your body and mind get used to the number of questions you are supposed to be attempting, the way your brain starts working while thinking of solutions, the way your heart beats when you come across something out of the unknown and then slowly starts normalizing… Basically, you are training your mind and body both to calm down… Magic 2: You learn things which you might have missed out on. Rather than learning from the same source, you get to fill in the gaps. So, who wouldn’t in their right mind want something like that….? We all want to stay one notch ahead, isn’t it? This is the right moment to turn on your engines and put all your energy in that FINAL revision and practice. To ensure that you get to experience the UPSC’s interface closely and become attuned to it, we have decided to conduct… We Thank You For The Overwhelming Response For Previous Mock Tests Sameeksha 2024 - All India Mock Test on 2nd June (Sunday) Note: We have introduced Rs.10/- as registration fee for OFFLINE & ONLINE mode.The registration fee of Rs.10/- is just a token amount for providing access/hall tickets only. This amount will not be considered an exam fee. We are collecting the fees to avoid unwanted/spam registrations. Register For Mocks - ONLINE Register For Mocks - OFFLINE Registrations will close on 1st June at 4 PMThe details email of the test will be shared by 1st June 8 PM This is the right time to gain momentum that by the time you are in the examination hall, you are at peak of your performance. If you can achieve that, no one will be able to stop you from qualifying the exam. The questions of these mocks will be made by experts from the IASbaba team which have been analysing the language and trend of UPSC. Hence you can be sure that these mocks will be closest to the language and difficulty level of UPSC. Dates of the Sameeksha 2024 - All India Mock Test 2nd June 2024Paper 1 (General Studies)9:30 AM to 11:30 AMPaper 2 (CSAT)12:30 PM to 2:30 PM Modes & Language of Sameeksha 2024 - All India Mock Test Online - (English & हिन्दी)Offline - (English & हिन्दी) Centres for Sameeksha 2024 - All India Mock Test Delhi: IASbaba, 2nd Floor, 22B, Above Domino’s, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi, 110060Bengaluru: IASbaba HQ, 2nd floor, Ganapathi Circle, 80 Feet Rd, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru * Centres are tentative, we will notify you via email if there are any changes. P.S. Since the seats are limited at any given centre, you must register soon through the following linkThe students who are enrolled in Gurukul Advanced, PT20 Prelims Test Series, TLP Connect or Prelims Exclusive Program (PEP) need not appear for the test. Register For Mocks - ONLINE Register For Mocks - OFFLINE Are you ready? All the very best!

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –20th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   FUTURES & OPTIONS TRADING Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: A frenzied growth in India’s equity options market, which clocked a record 85 billion trades last year and accounted for 84 percent of all equity option contracts traded in 2023, is unnerving policymakers and regulators. Background:- Retail investors now make up over 35 percent of options trades, undeterred by the fact that 9 out of 10 individual traders in the equity futures and options (F&O) segment are recorded to have incurred losses. About FUTURES & OPTIONS TRADING Futures and options are two types of financial derivatives that derive their value from an underlying asset such as shares, stock market indices, commodities, ETFs, and more. Futures Futures are contracts that obligate the buyer to purchase a specific asset, and the seller to sell and deliver that asset, at a specific future date. They are typically used to hedge against risk or for speculation. Key Features: Standardization: Futures contracts are standardized in terms of contract size, expiration date, and other details, facilitating easy trading on exchanges. Obligation: Both parties in a futures contract are obligated to fulfill the contract at expiration. This means the buyer must purchase, and the seller must sell the asset at the agreed-upon price. Margin Requirements: Traders must maintain a margin account, which requires an initial margin (a percentage of the contract’s value) and maintenance margin (minimum balance to keep the position open). Options Options, on the other hand, give the buyer (of an options) the right, but not the obligation, to buy (or sell) an asset at a specific price at any time during the life of the contract. They are often used for hedging, speculation, or arbitrage. Key Features: Types: There are two types of options: call and put. A call option confers the right to buy a stock at the strike price before the agreement expires. A put option gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a specific price. Right, Not Obligation: The buyer has the right but is not obligated to exercise the option.The seller, however, has the obligation to fulfill the contract if the buyer exercises the option. Premium: The buyer of an option pays a premium to the seller for this right. The premium is the price of the option. Strike Price: This is the price at which the option holder can buy (call) or sell (put) the underlying asset. Expiration Date: Options have a finite life and must be exercised on or before their expiration date. Here are some key differences between futures and options: Obligation: A futures contract requires a buyer to purchase the underlying security or commodity—and a seller to sell it—on a specific future date, unless the holder’s position is closed earlier. An options contract, however, gives an investor the right, but not the obligation, to buy (or sell) shares at a specified price at any time before the contract’s expiration. Risk: Futures contracts carry a high level of risk because they require the holder to buy or sell the asset in the future, regardless of its current market price. Options contracts, on the other hand, limit potential loss to the cost of the option premium. Cost:Futures require margin and can involve significant capital commitment.Options require the payment of a premium, which is generally lower than the margin for futures. Source: Indian Express CHIR PINE Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: As forest fires rage through Uttarakhand, the chir pine with its inflammable leaves or needles has been in the news for less benign reasons. Background: After a government ban in 1981 on felling of trees over 1,000 mt above sea level, the chir got an opportunity to spread lower in the foothills where the sal grows and above too, among the broad-leaved trees because it’s the nature of the chir to colonise. About CHIR PINE A conifer that can grow up to a height of about 30 metres, the chir pine covers almost 16.5 per cent of Uttarakhand’s total forested area. It owes its scientific name, Pinus roxburghii, to William Roxburgh, a Scottish doctor and naturalist, who went on to become superintendent of the East India Company’s botanic garden at Calcutta and who is widely regarded as the father of Indian botany. Native to the Himalayas, chir pine or the longleaf Indian pine, was not introduced to the Himalayas by the British, as is often believed, though they certainly gave it preference for its commercial use, mainly lumber and resin. Found all over the Western Himalayas at an elevation between 1,000 and 2,000 metres, it covers large parts of Garhwal and Kumaon where it can be seen growing on steep slopes and can be identified by its three needles and its round cone (unlike the elongated cones of other pines). Chir Pine does not allow any vegetation to grow around it as it makes the soil more acidic through its fallen needles. The accumulating carpet of needles on the forest floor under these trees makes conditions unfavourable for many common plants and trees to grow A few years ago, the Uttarakhand government had considered cutting pine trees to combat forest fires, an idea it later abandoned. For the short-term and long-term management of the forests in Uttarakhand, the dense chir pine forest, more like monocultures, must be converted into mixed forests. More broad-leaf species should be promoted and the dense chir pine forests should be effectively managed and their wood used. The state could effectively manage the chir forests and earn some revenue as well. The needles of chir falling onto the forest floor both suppressed the grass and rendered the hillside dangerous for cattle. Thus, in late April or early May, villagers resorted to the time-honoured remedy of fire to obtain a fresh crop of grass. Steps taken by the British to stop this practice often sparked popular protests. While its needles tend to catch fire easily because of their high resin content, the bark of the tree doesn’t catch fire easily since it has a very high ignition temperature — which is why blacksmiths use the bark of the chir pine in their furnaces to melt metal. The tree is perennial but its needles shed maximum between fall and spring. The dry spell is also during this time. The needles should be removed in November-December as was done traditionally to stop spread of forest fires. Source: Indian Express KYRGYZSTAN Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The government on Saturday urged Indian citizens in Kyrgyzstan to stay indoors amid reports of attacks on foreign students and protests by local residents in Bishkek on Friday night over concerns about “growing numbers of migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh, India, Egypt and other countries”. Background: Around 15,000 Indian students are estimated to be in Kyrgyzstan, mostly enrolled in medical colleges and universities. About KYRGYZSTAN : Kyrgyzstan, officially the Kyrgyz Republic, is a landlocked country in Central Asia, lying in the Tian Shan and Pamir mountain ranges. Bishkek is the capital and largest city of the country. Kyrgyzstan is bordered by Kazakhstan to the north, Uzbekistan to the west, Tajikistan to the south, and China to the east and southeast. Ethnic Kyrgyz make up the majority of the country’s 7 million people, followed by significant minorities of Uzbeks and Russians. On 31 August 1991, Kyrgyzstan declared independence from the USSR and a democratic government was established. Kyrgyzstan attained sovereignty as a nation state after the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, Kyrgyzstan was officially a unitary presidential republic; after the Tulip Revolution it became a unitary parliamentary republic, although it gradually developed an executive president and was governed as a semi-presidential republic before reverting to a presidential system in 2021. Kyrgyzstan is a member of the Commonwealth of Independent States, the Eurasian Economic Union, the Collective Security Treaty Organization, the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe, the Organisation of Turkic States, and the United Nations. It is a developing country and is the second poorest country in Central Asia after neighbouring Tajikistan. The country’s transitional economy is heavily dependent on deposits of gold, coal and uranium Source: Indian Express Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: In the last 10 years, Lok Sabha members elected from Delhi’s seven constituencies have not utilised Rs 100 crore from their entitled Rs 311.5 crore funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. Background: In the 17th Lok Sabha, elected in 2019, the entitlement was Rs 124 crore out of which the MPs managed to get only Rs 45.5 crore while Rs 78.5 crore remained unreleased. ABOUT MPLAD scheme. : The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a scheme formulated by the Government of India on December 23, 1993. This scheme enables the members of parliaments (MP) to recommend developmental work in their constituencies with an emphasis on creating durable community assets based on locally felt needs. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Government of India. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme. Under the MPLADS, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 Crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency. The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected. The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme. The scheme primarily focuses on the creation of durable community assets in the areas of drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation, and roads. The process under MPLADS starts with the Members of Parliament recommending works to the Nodal District Authority. The Nodal District concerned is responsible for implementing the eligible works recommended by the Members of Parliament and maintaining the details of individual works executed and amount spent under the Scheme. Source: Indian Express Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: In the last 10 years, Lok Sabha members elected from Delhi’s seven constituencies have not utilised Rs 100 crore from their entitled Rs 311.5 crore funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme. Background: In the 17th Lok Sabha, elected in 2019, the entitlement was Rs 124 crore out of which the MPs managed to get only Rs 45.5 crore while Rs 78.5 crore remained unreleased. ABOUT MPLAD scheme. : The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a scheme formulated by the Government of India on December 23, 1993. This scheme enables the members of parliaments (MP) to recommend developmental work in their constituencies with an emphasis on creating durable community assets based on locally felt needs. The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by Government of India. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme. Under the MPLADS, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of Rs.5 Crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency. The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected. The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme. The scheme primarily focuses on the creation of durable community assets in the areas of drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation, and roads. The process under MPLADS starts with the Members of Parliament recommending works to the Nodal District Authority. The Nodal District concerned is responsible for implementing the eligible works recommended by the Members of Parliament and maintaining the details of individual works executed and amount spent under the Scheme. Source: Indian Express Rules on contesting seats Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context:  Congress leader Rahul Gandhi is contesting in 2 seats. One in Up and other in Kerala. According to the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a candidate is permitted to contest an election from up to two constituencies, but he or she can hold only one seat at a time if elected from both. Background: Opposition to a candidate contesting from many seats was basically due to the fact that many byelections had to be conducted after polls were over. Rules on contesting elections: A sub-section, 33 (7), of the RPA, allowing a candidate to contest from two seats, was introduced through an amendment in 1996, prior to which there was no bar on the number of constituencies from which a candidate could contest. However, Section 70 of the same Act stipulates that a candidate can hold only one seat at a time, regardless of whether he or she has been elected from more than one seat. Thus, if a candidate wins from two seats, a byelection is necessary from the seat he or she vacates. Additional Information The minimum age for a person to contest Lok Sabha and Assembly polls is 25 years, while one can become a member of the Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative Council only at 30 years. There is no minimum educational qualification needed to contest general elections in India. Candidates must be citizens of India, registered in some constituency of the country as a valid voter. How can a candidate be disqualified? A person shall be disqualified from being chosen as or being a member of either House if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State; if he or she is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; if he or she is an undischarged insolvent; if he or she is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state. Under the RPA Act, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of two years or more, this will lead to his disqualification to contest elections. Even if this person is out on bail, after the conviction and his appeal is pending for disposal, he or she is disqualified from contesting an election. For some categories of serious offences, one may incur disqualification for any conviction, regardless of the quantum of punishment. Source: Hindu UN Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The UN Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024 released by the United Nations (UN) stated that more investment is needed if the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), agreed upon by all United Nations members back in 2015, are to be achieved by 2030. Background: With only six years remaining to achieve the SDGs, hard-won development gains are being reversed, particularly in the poorest countries. If current trends continue, the UN estimates that almost 600 million people will continue to live in extreme poverty in 2030 and beyond, more than half of them women. Key Highlights of the UN Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024: Rising geopolitical tensions, climate disasters, and a global cost-of-living crisis have hit billions of people globally, which has halted the progress on healthcare, education, and other development targets. Debt services in the Least developed countries (LDC) will increase from USD 26 billion annually in 2022 to USD 40 billion annually between 2023 and 2025. Stronger and more frequent disasters, caused by the ongoing climate crisis, account for more than half of the debt upsurge in vulnerable countries. The poorest countries now spend 12% of their revenues on interest payments, 4 times more than they spent a decade ago. Roughly 40% of the global population lives in countries where governments spend more on interest payments than on education or health. In least-developed countries, development funding is slowing down. Due to several reasons such as low domestic revenue growth due to tax evasion and avoidance, a falling rate of corporate tax (which was 28.2% in 2000 to 21.1% in 2023), due to globalisation and tax competition, etc. According to the Financing for Sustainable Development Report: Financing for Development at a Crossroads Report 2024, around USD 4.2 trillion in investments is needed to close the development financing gap. This number was USD 2.5 trillion before the Covid-19 pandemic began. Suggestions made by the UN Financing for Sustainable Development Report 2024: The international financial system, which was set up at the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, is no longer fit for purpose. A massive surge of financing and a reform of the international financial architecture can help to achieve SDG goals by 2030. To achieve the SDGs global cooperation, targeted financing, and, crucially, the political will is the need of the hour. Progress made by India in Achieving SDGs: India ranks 112th out of 166 countries (from 121st in 2022) in terms of progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in the United Nations SDG Index and Dashboards Report 2023. India has successfully lifted millions of people out of poverty, reducing the poverty rate from 45% in 1993 to around 21% in 2011. Around 415 million people exited poverty within just 15 years between 2005 and 2021 in India, according to the latest Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023 The prevalence of undernourishment in India has decreased from 18.2% in 2004-2006 to 14.5% in 2016-2018. However, India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people worldwide, making the country a key focus for tackling hunger on a global scale. India has made significant improvements in maternal and child health, with a reduction in maternal mortality ratio from  384 in 2000 to 103 in 2020 (UN MMEIG 2020 report). The under-five mortality rate has also declined from 89 per 1,000 live births in 1990 to 34 in 2019. According to the Education Ministry, the literacy rate in rural India stands at 67.77%, while in urban India, it is 84.11% The ASER 2023 data shows that in the surveyed rural districts, more than 85% of youth (age 14-18) are currently enrolled in some kind of educational institution. The female labour force participation rate in India increased from 23.3% in 2017-18 to 37.0% in 2022-23 (PLFS-5). Source: UN Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Futures and Options Futures and options derive their value from an underlying asset. Futures contracts carry a high level of risk compared to options. Both parties in a futures contract are obligated to fulfill the contract at expiration. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Consider the following statements about Chir Pine: It was  introduced to the Himalayas by the British for commercial purpose. Chir Pine does not allow vegetation to grow around it as it makes the soil more acidic through its fallen needles. It is valuable due to its timber wood as they are largely used for various purposes such as constructing houses, making furniture and even musical instruments. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following countries Liechtenstein Uzbekistan Kyrgyzstan Ethiopia Which among the above countries are “doubly landlocked”: 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –18th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   RUSSIA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Presidents Vladimir Putin and Xi Jinping met at the historic Great Hall of the People, seat of power of the Chinese Communist Party, on Thursday (May 16), where a welcome ceremony for Russia’s leader included a guard of honour by China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA). Background:- Putin’s two-day visit to China comes when Russia has taken a firm grip on the course of the war in Ukraine. Xi has just returned from a tour of Europe where he met with the President of France, as well as the leaders of Hungary and Serbia, both of whom are friends with Putin. About Russia Russia or the Russian Federation is a country spanning Eastern Europe and North Asia. It is the largest country in the world by area, extending across eleven time zones and sharing land borders with fourteen countries. Russia is bounded to the north and east by the Arctic and Pacific oceans, and it has small frontages in the northwest on the Baltic Sea at St. Petersburg and at the detached Russian oblast (region) of Kaliningrad (a part of what was once East Prussia annexed in 1945), which also abuts Poland and Lithuania. To the south Russia borders North Korea, China, Mongolia, and Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, and Georgia. To the southwest and west it borders Ukraine, Belarus, Latvia, and Estonia, as well as Finland and Norway. Russia has a maximum east-west extent of some 5,600 miles (9,000 km) and a north-south width of 1,500 to 2,500 miles (2,500 to 4,000 km). It is the world’s ninth-most populous country and Europe’s most populous country. Russia is a highly urbanized country consisting of 16 population centers with over million inhabitants. Its capital as well as its largest city is Moscow. Saint Petersburg is Russia’s second-largest city and cultural capital. Once the preeminent republic of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (U.S.S.R.; commonly known as the Soviet Union), Russia became an independent country after the dissolution of the Soviet Union in December 1991. Russia has been militarily involved in a number of conflicts in former Soviet states and other countries, including its war with Georgia in 2008 and annexation of Crimea in 2014 from neighbouring Ukraine, followed by the further annexation of four other regions in 2022 during an ongoing invasion. Russia possesses the largest stockpile of nuclear weapons and has the third-highest military expenditure. The country is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council; a member state of the G20, SCO, BRICS, APEC, OSCE, and WTO; and the leading member state of post-Soviet organisations such as CIS, CSTO, and EAEU/EEU. Russia contains Europe’s longest river, the Volga, and its largest lake, Ladoga. Russia also is home to the world’s deepest lake, Baikal, and the country recorded the world’s lowest temperature outside the North and South poles. There is an enormous variety of landforms and landscapes, which occur mainly in a series of broad latitudinal belts. Arctic deserts lie in the extreme north, giving way southward to the tundra and then to the forest zones, which cover about half of the country and give it much of its character. On the basis of geologic structure and relief, Russia can be divided into two main parts—western and eastern—roughly along the line of the Yenisey River. In the western section, which occupies some two-fifths of Russia’s total area, lowland plains predominate over vast areas broken only by low hills and plateaus. In the eastern section the bulk of the terrain is mountainous, although there are some extensive lowlands. Given these topological factors, Russia may be subdivided into six main relief regions: the Kola-Karelian region, the Russian Plain, the Ural Mountains, the West Siberian Plain, the Central Siberian Plateau, and the mountains of the south and east. Source: Britannica CHAR DHAM YATRA Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With nearly twice the number of pilgrims embarking on the Char Dham yatra in Uttarakhand since it commenced on May 10, the state government has reported the death of 11 pilgrims in the first five days. Background: The pilgrimage to Yamunotri, Gangotri, and Kedarnath Dham commenced on May 10, while the doors to Badrinath Dham opened on May 12. Over 1.55 lakh pilgrims have already journeyed to Kedarnath, over 70,000 to Yamunotri, and over 63,000 to Gangotri. Within just three days, Badrinath Dham has welcomed over 45,000 pilgrims. About CHAR DHAM YATRA The Chota Char Dham Yatra is a significant pilgrimage in India, particularly in the state of Uttarakhand, also known as Devbhoomi or the Land of Gods. The term ‘Char Dham’ in Hindi translates to ‘four religious destinations’. This Yatra or pilgrimage is a tour of four holy sites nestled high up in the Himalayas.The pilgrimage sites are Yamunotri and Gangotri in Uttarkashi district, Kedarnath in Rudraprayag and Badrinath in Chamoli. While Kedarnath is the highest at around 11,700 ft, Gangotri is the lowest at around 10,200 ft. Yamunotri: The Yamunotri temple is lodged in a narrow gorge close to the source of River Yamuna, the second-most sacred Indian river after River Ganga, in Uttarkashi district. It is dedicated to Goddess Yamuna. Gangotri: Located in the Uttarkashi district, Gangotri is dedicated to Goddess Ganga, the most sacred of all Indian rivers. Kedarnath: Located in the Rudraprayag district, Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Badrinath: Home to the sacred Badrinarayan Temple, Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. The Yatra is believed to be completed in a clockwise direction, starting from Yamunotri, proceeding towards Gangotri, onto Kedarnath, and finally ending at Badrinath. The high-altitude shrines remain shut for around six months every year, opening in summers (April or May) and closing with the onset of winter (October or November). Some devotees even do a Do Dham Yatra or a pilgrimage to two shrines – Kedarnath and Badrinath. Additional Information: The Char Dham Yatra in India comprises Chota Char Dham and the Bada Char Dham. While the Chota Char Dham involves four sacred sites—Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath—nestled in the picturesque Himalayan peaks, the Bada Char Dham consists of four dhams of utmost significance—Badrinath, Rameswaram, Puri, and Dwarka. Source: Indian Express NATIONAL PHARMACEUTICAL PRICING AUTHORITY (NPPA) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) has announced a lowering of retail prices for 41 essential drugs and revised ceiling rates of seven scheduled formulations. Background: The revision of ceiling prices is a routine exercise undertaken by the NPPA. About NATIONAL PHARMACEUTICAL PRICING AUTHORITY (NPPA) : NPPA was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices. It was made to fix/revise prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce price and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995-2013 (DPCO). Mandate To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order in accordance with the powers delegated to it. To deal with all legal matters arising out of the decisions of the NPPA. To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages and to take remedial steps. To collect/maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc., for bulk drugs and formulations and undertake and/ or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/ pharmaceuticals. Source: Business Standard EXERCISE SHAKTI Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The 7th edition of India- France Joint Military Exercise SHAKTI commenced recently at Umroi, in a fully developed and modern Foreign Training Node in Meghalaya. Background: The Exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 13th to 26th May 2024. ABOUT EXERCISE SHAKTI : Exercise Shakti is a bilateral joint military exercise between the armies of India and France.It is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in India and France. Last edition was conducted in France in November 2021. The exercise started in 2011, and since then, it has been undertaken to promote defence cooperation and interoperability. 7th edition of Exercise Shakti The latest, 7th edition of Exercise Shakti commenced on Monday, May 13, 2024, at Umroi, Meghalaya. The aim of this exercise is to enhance the joint military capability of both sides to undertake multi-domain operations in a sub-conventional scenario. The Indian contingent is primarily represented by a Battalion of the Rajput Regiment, with observers from the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force. The French contingent is mainly represented by personnel from the 13th Foreign Legion Half- Brigade (13th DBLE). The joint exercise focuses on operations in semi-urban and mountainous terrain. Objectives include achieving a high degree of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at a tactical level, and sharing best practices. Tactical drills practiced during the exercise include response to a terrorist action of capturing a defined territory, establishment of a Joint Command Post, establishment of an Intelligence & Surveillance Centre, securing of a helipad/ landing site, Small Team Insertion & Extraction, Special Heliborne Operations, Cordon & Search Operations, and employment of drones and counter-drone systems. Exercise Shakti enables the two sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures of conducting joint operations. This joint exercise fosters inter-operability, bonhomie, and camaraderie between armed forces personnel of the two countries. It also enhances the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations. Source: Times of India INDIAN CYBER CRIME COORDINATION CENTER (I4C) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), in collaboration with Microsoft, has blocked more than 1,000 Skype IDs involved in blackmail, extortion, and “digital arrests” by cybercriminals posing as police and law enforcement authorities, the Union Home Ministry said Background: The Ministry said this was an organised online economic crime and was learnt to be operated by cross-border crime syndicates.The Ministry said that a a large number of complaints were being reported on the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP) regarding such frauds by cybercriminals posing as officials of the Police Department, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), Narcotics Department, Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Enforcement Directorate, and other law enforcement agencies. About INDIAN CYBER CRIME COORDINATION CENTER (I4C) : Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to deal with cyber crime in the country in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. I4C focuses on tackling all the issues related to Cybercrime for the citizens, which includes improving coordination between various Law Enforcement Agencies and the stakeholders, driving change in India’s overall capability to tackle Cybercrime and to improve citizen satisfaction levels. Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre scheme was approved on 05th October 2018. Since its roll out, it has worked towards enhancing the nation’s collective capability to tackle cybercrimes and develop effective coordination among the Law Enforcement Agencies. A citizen-centric National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) is one among the achievements of I4C. Another initiative of I4C, National Cybercrime Helpline number 1930, is helping the common citizen in registering online financial frauds. Objectives of I4C To act as a nodal point to curb Cybercrime in the country. To strengthen the fight against Cybercrime committed against women and children. Facilitate easy filing Cybercrime related complaints and identifying Cybercrime trends and patterns. To act as an early warning system for Law Enforcement Agencies for proactive Cybercrime prevention and detection. Awareness creation among public about preventing Cybercrime. Assist States/UTs in capacity building of Police Officers, Public Prosecutors and Judicial Officers in the area of cyber forensic, investigation, cyber hygiene, cyber-criminology, etc. Source: Hindu Balanced Fertilization Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Balanced fertilization — discouraging farmers from applying too much urea, di-ammonium phosphate (DAP), or muriate of potash (MOP), which only have primary nutrients in high concentrations — is likely to be a key policy goal for the government taking over after the Lok Sabha elections. Background: The fiscal ended March 2024 saw urea consumption hit a record 35.8 million tonnes (mt), 16.9% higher than the 30.6 mt in 2013-14, the year before the Narendra Modi government came to power. Balanced Fertilization: It is a practice in agriculture that focuses on providing plants with the optimal amounts of nutrients that are needed for their healthy growth and development. Balanced fertilization emphasizes supplying these essential nutrients in the correct ratios based on several factors: Different soil types have varying levels of inherent nutrients. Testing the soil reveals its nutrient profile, guiding fertilizer selection and application rates. Different crops have specific nutrient needs at different stages of growth. For example, legumes might require more nitrogen for nitrogen fixation, while fruits might benefit from additional potassium for better quality. Benefits/Significance of Balanced Fertilization: By providing the optimal mix of nutrients, plants can grow to their full potential, leading to higher yields. Balanced nutrients contribute to stronger plants with better resistance to pests and diseases, ultimately improving the quality of the harvest. Overuse of single-nutrient fertilizers can disrupt soil health. Balanced fertilization helps maintain a healthy soil ecosystem, promoting long-term sustainability. Excessive fertilizer application can contribute to nutrient runoff, polluting water bodies. Balanced use minimizes this risk. By preventing over-fertilization and nutrient deficiencies, balanced fertilization can optimize resource utilization and reduce overall fertilizer costs. Issues/Challenges related to Balanced Fertilization: Urea, a single-nutrient nitrogen fertilizer, is heavily subsidized by the government, making it cheaper than other fertilizers like DAP (diammonium phosphate) containing phosphorus and MOP (muriate of potash) containing potassium. This incentivizes the overuse of urea and neglects other crucial nutrients. The current system for setting fertilizer prices fails to consider market forces, leading to imbalances. For example, the price of Muriate of Potash (MOP), a key source of potassium, is too high for both farmers using it directly and fertilizer companies including it in blends. This discourages MOP use, contributing to widespread potassium deficiencies in Indian farms. The lack of adequate soil testing facilities in the rural and remote areas of India makes it difficult for farmers to access them for balanced fertilization. Even if tests are done, interpreting the results and translating them into fertilizer recommendations requires proper training and mechanisms for both farmers and extension workers. Traditional practices and limited knowledge mostly hinder the adoption of balanced fertilization techniques. It is due to the lack of precise fertilizer application techniques resulting in issues of over-fertilization and under-fertilization along with a limited focus on micronutrients. The Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme, meant to encourage balanced use, failed because it didn’t address urea pricing. Urea consumption continued to rise despite NBS. Way Forward: Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) recognizes the limitations of relying solely on chemical fertilisers or organic matter. It advocates for a holistic approach that combines: Chemical fertilizers provide essential nutrients like NPK. Organic matter improves soil health, water retention, and nutrient availability. This includes manure (cow dung), compost, and crop residues (dhaincha crop). Crop rotation introducing diverse crops helps break pest and disease cycles and improves nutrient utilization. Customized fertilizers are multi-nutrient carriers containing macro and micronutrients for satisfying crop needs that are site-specific and validated by scientific crop models. It is the emerging concept based on the balanced nutrient fertilization approach to address the crops’ multiple nutrient needs. Soil Test Crop Response (STCR) tailors fertilizer recommendations based on specific soil types, crop variety, and climatic conditions. It considers nutrient uptake by the crop and soil nutrient availability. The Diagnosis and Recommendation Integration System (DRIS) analyses plant tissue for nutrient ratios (e.g., N/P, N/K) and compares them to established optimal ratios for high yields. Deficient nutrients are then supplemented through top dressing. (More suitable for long-duration crops). Equipping farmers with the knowledge and skills to implement these approaches effectively. Ensuring the availability of customized fertilizers and micronutrients at reasonable prices. Encouraging the use of balanced fertilizers through targeted subsidies and promoting sustainable practices. Developing new technologies and crop-specific nutrient management solutions. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority of India (NPPA); The NPPA monitors the prices of scheduled as well as non-scheduled medicines under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order. NPPA was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals. NPPA, under its Central Sector Scheme named Consumer Awareness, Publicity and Price Monitoring (CAPPM) has set up Price Monitoring and Resource Unit (PMRU) in various states. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Arrange the following pilgrimage sites from west to east Yamunotri Badrinath Kedarnath Gangotri Select the correct answer using the code below: 1-3-4-2 3-4-2-1 2-4-3-1 1-4-3-2 Q3.) Consider the following countries: Poland Lithuania Norway Finland Azerbaijan Mongolia Slovakia How many of the above mentioned countries share land border with Russia? Three only Four only Five only Six only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –17th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   POLLING STATIONS Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context:  During the ongoing Lok Sabha elections, 96.8 crore electors are enrolled to vote at 10.5 lakh polling stations spread out nationwide. Background:- The list of polling stations undergoes verification and updation during annual electoral roll revisions. Key Takeaways Under Section 25 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA), the district election officer (DEO) is assigned the responsibility to set up and publish the list of polling stations in their district. Setting up polling stations: norms and principles There are some principles on the basis of which polling stations are set up. These include ensuring that voters do not have to travel more than two km to cast their vote, a station has a minimum area of 20 sq m, a station serves at most 1,500 electors, and a village with over 300 voters is provided with a polling station. These principles, however, are not set in stone. Polling stations can even cater to less than 300 voters in case access is a problem, say in rugged terrain. For instance, Arunachal Pradesh’s Malogam polling station caters to only a single voter. Conversely, in cases where the number of electors exceeds 1,500, auxiliary polling stations are set up, preferably in the same building. In urban areas, one building can have a maximum of four polling stations, whereas in rural areas, it can have at most two. Locations for polling stations are chosen carefully, preferably in government or semi-government institutions. Private buildings are avoided unless absolutely necessary — they can be requisitioned with the written consent of the owner, or forcefully under Section 160 of the RPA. Layout and some facilities There are separate entrance and exit points for voters, even if only one door is available. This is done with temporary fencing using bamboo and ropes. The voting compartment, constructed from opaque corrugated plastic sheet or steel grey flex board, measures at least 24 x 24 x 30 inches (length × width × height), and is positioned away from windows or doors. People inside a polling station, voting day restrictions Only specific individuals are permitted access inside a polling station. These include registered electors, polling officers, candidates, one polling agent per candidate at a time, authorised media personnel, public servants on election duty, ECI-appointed observers, micro observers, videographers, photographers, and webcasting staff for critical/sensitive polling stations, a child in arms accompanying an elector, a person assisting a blind or infirm voter, and any others admitted by the Presiding Officer for voter identification or assistance purposes, whenever required. A polling party comprises a Presiding Officer and three Polling Officers. The first Polling Officer verifies the elector’s identity, the second applies indelible ink on their left index finger, maintains the voters’ register, and issues voter slips. The third Polling Officer takes back the voter slip issued by the second polling officer, manages the EVM’s control unit, and ensures that an elector has been properly inked before being allowed to vote. There is also a prohibition on any political propaganda, use of cameras, mobile phones, and canvassing within a 100 metre radius of the polling station, with a penalty of arrest without warrant under Section 130 of the RPA. Candidates can set up their booths beyond 200 m of the polling station, and there are also restriction on the use of loudspeakers. Source: Indian Express MERCURY POLLUTION Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Governments of Albania, Burkina Faso, India, Montenegro and Uganda have united to combat chemical pollution, launching a $134-million “Phasing out mercury measuring devices in healthcare project” to eliminate the use of mercury in medical devices. Background: Mercury is one of the top 10 chemicals of major public health concern, according to WHO. Released to the environment from a variety of human activities, it is transported around the globe and bioaccumulates in the food chain.People are exposed to mercury primarily through eating contaminated fish or breathing mercury vapour directly.Children, infants and fetuses are at the highest risk because of their developing nervous systems. About Mercury Mercury is a chemical element symbolized by Hg on the periodic table. It’s the only common metal that is liquid at ordinary temperatures.It’s heavy, silvery-white, and slowly tarnishes in moist air. Mercury Pollution Mercury occurs naturally in the earth’s crust, but human activities, such as mining and fossil fuel combustion, have led to widespread global mercury pollution. Mercury is a persistent, bioaccumulative, toxic pollutant. When released into the environment, it accumulates in water laid sediments where it converts into toxic methylmercury and enters the food chain. Mercury contamination is a significant public health and environmental problem because methylmercury easily enters the bloodstream and affects the brain. Mercury is introduced into the environment in three ways. First, mercury is emitted into the air naturally from volcanoes, the weathering of rocks, forest fires, and soils. Second, mercury is emitted into the air from the burning of fossil fuels and municipal or medical waste. Lastly, mercury can be re-introduced into the environment through natural processes such as evaporation of ocean water. Human exposure to mercury occurs from eating fish and shellfish contaminated with methylmercury. Mercury can also be found in beauty products, particularly skin-lightening creams, but also eye make-up and eye-cleansing products6. Globally, artisanal and small-scale gold mining is the largest source of anthropogenic mercury emissions (37.7%), followed by stationary combustion of coal (21%) Medical thermometers and sphygmomanometers (devices which measure blood pressure) contain mercury and are harmless as long as they remain intact. However, when these devices break or are taken out of service, the mercury they contain can escape into the environment where it vaporises, exposing health care workers and patients to harmful fumes. Inhalation can cause damage to the lungs, kidneys and nervous system, while the waste generated can contaminate the immediate area of the spill, as well as a facility’s wastewater. Phasing out mercury measuring devices in healthcare project Led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), with funding from the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and executed by the World Health Organization (WHO), the Phasing out mercury measuring devices in healthcare project will develop and implement nation-wide strategies to stop the import, export and manufacture of thermometers and sphygmomanometers, encourage the adoption of accurate, affordable and safe mercury-free alternatives, while improving the management of mercury-containing medical waste Source: UNEP CITIZENSHIP AMENDMENT ACT Syllabus Prelims – Polity ConteTwo months after the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the rules for implementation of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, which was enacted by Parliament in December 2019, Union Home Secretary Ajay Bhalla on Wednesday physically handed over the first set of citizenship certificates to 14 applicants. Background: Despite its enactment four years ago, the CAA could not be implemented because the rules were not notified untill recently.Centre notified CAA rules ahead of Lok Sabha polls schedule announcement. About CITIZENSHIP AMENDMENT ACT : The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 (CAA) was passed by the Parliament of India on 11 December 2019. The CAA intends to make it easier for persecuted people from neighbouring countries to become Indian citizens. This act amended the Citizenship Act, 1955. The CAA is for illegal migrants who entered India before December 31, 2014. It covers migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.Specifically, it benefits those of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian faiths. CAA does not grant such eligibility to Muslims from these countries Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, an illegal migrant is a foreigner who enters the country without valid travel documents like a passport and visa, or enters with valid documents, but stays beyond the permitted time period. The Amendment exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920. The two Acts (Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920) specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits. Under The Citizenship Act, 1955, one of the requirements for citizenship by naturalisation is that the applicant must have resided in India during the last 12 months, as well as for 11 of the previous 14 years. The amendment relaxes the second requirement from 11 years to 5 years as a specific condition for applicants belonging to these six religions (Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian) and the aforementioned three countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan). Source: Indian Express SLOVAKIA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Slovak Prime Minister Robert Fico was shot multiple times on Wednesday after a cabinet meeting in the central town of Handlova. Background: The former Communist Party member took power for the fourth time last October and has turned the country’s foreign policy towards more pro-Russian views.During his current term, Robert Fico has garnered worldwide attention after a series of inflammatory comments about Ukraine, calling for Kyiv to cede territory to Moscow to end the war. ABOUT SLOVAKIA : Slovakia, officially the Slovak Republic , is a landlocked country in Central Europe. It is bordered by Poland to the north, Ukraine to the east, Hungary to the south, Austria to the west, and the Czech Republic to the northwest. Slovakia’s mostly mountainous territory spans about 49,000 square kilometres (19,000 sq mi), hosting a population exceeding 5.4 million. The capital and largest city is Bratislava, while the second largest city is Košice. Slovakia became an independent state on 1 January 1993. Slovakia is a developed country with an advanced high-income economy. Slovakia is a member of the European Union, the Eurozone, the Schengen Area, the United Nations, NATO, CERN, the OECD, the WTO, the Council of Europe. The world’s largest per-capita car producer, Slovakia manufactured a total of 1.1 million cars in 2019, representing 43% of its total industrial output. Source: NDTV Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Media reports suggest that the complex and contentious policy issue of rewiring the Indian military into integrated theatre commands (ITC) is gaining traction and that the armed forces are looking at the appointment of a Vice Chief of Defence Staff and a Deputy Chief of Defence Staff. Background: New posts at the higher level are being envisaged to enable the CDS to realise the larger objective of enhancing jointness (the sharing of domain expertise and assets) and improving composite combat capability. About CDS: It is the military head and permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) of the Indian Armed Forces. It is the highest-ranking uniformed officer on active duty in the Indian military and chief military adviser to the Minister of Defence. The Chief also heads the Department of Military Affairs. The first Chief of Defence Staff, General Bipin Rawat, took office on 1 January 2020 The position was created with the aim of improving coordination, tri-service effectiveness and overall integration of the combat capabilities of the Indian armed forces. The government amended Service Rules of the Army, Navy and Air Force, allowing retired Service Chiefs and three-star officers eligible for consideration for the country’s top military post. Age limit that the retired officer should not have attained 62 years on the date of appointment. Source: Indian Express Recipe for a Livable Planet Report Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: The World Bank released a Recipe for a Livable Planet Report stating that annual investments of USD 260 billion are necessary to cut agri-food emissions in half by 2030 and achieve net zero by 2050. Background: Recipe for a Livable Planet is the first comprehensive global roadmap for mitigating the agrifood system’s contributions to climate change. It shows how the agriculture system that produces the world’s food can cut greenhouse gas emissions while continuing to feed the world. Key Highlights of the Report: “Recipe for a Livable Planet” provides a global strategic framework for reducing the agri-food system’s impact on climate change. It outlines how the world’s food production can significantly lower greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions while continuing to ensure global food security. The global agri-food system can decrease nearly a third of the world’s GHG emissions through feasible and accessible measures. These measures will enhance food security, increase the climate resilience of the food system, and protect vulnerable communities during this transition. Agri-food contributes roughly one-third of global GHG emissions, more than all of the world’s heat and electricity emissions combined. About three-quarters of these emissions originate from developing countries, necessitating targeted mitigation actions as per the specific needs of the region. Addressing emissions from the entire food value chain, including land use changes, is critical as over half of the emissions stem from beyond the farm level. Opportunities Highlighted by the Report: The agri-food sector offers significant, cost-effective opportunities for climate action, including drawing carbon from the atmosphere through enhanced land management. The financial outlay required to halve agri-food emissions by 2030 would yield substantial returns, greatly outweighing the costs with beneficial impacts on health, the economy, and the environment. High-income countries should reduce their agri-food energy demands, support lower-income countries through funding and technology transfer, and modify consumer diets away from high-emission foods. Middle-income countries can achieve significant emissions reductions through better land use management and agricultural practices. Low-income countries focus on sustainable growth without the burden of high-emission infrastructures, leveraging strategies like agroforestry to boost productivity and resilience. Enhance private sector investment in agri-food mitigation, repurpose subsidies, and implement policies favouring low-emission technologies. Use digital technologies for better emissions data and invest in innovations to transform the agri-food system, ensuring inclusive stakeholder participation for a just transition. Key Highlights Related to India in the Report: The report identifies India as one of the top 3 countries in terms of total annual agri-food system emissions, along with China, and Brazil. The report notes that in countries like India, around 80% of the technical mitigation potential in agriculture could be achieved by adopting cost-saving measures alone. This represents a major opportunity for India to reduce emissions while also improving agricultural productivity and incomes. Key mitigation options for India include better livestock feeding (Harit Dhara, a nti-methanogenic feed) and breeding, fertiliser management, and better water management in water-intensive crops. A marginal abatement cost curve for India’s agriculture sector shows these are some of the most cost-effective interventions India can pursue to cut agri-food emissions substantially by 2030. India needs to curb methane emissions from agricultural production. Adopting practices like intermittent irrigation and promoting varieties that emit less methane provide mitigation opportunities. India has high rates of food loss and waste. As per the Food Waste Index Report 2021, Indian households generate 50 kg of food waste per capita per year. Reducing food loss and waste can provide another high-impact, cost-effective avenue for India. India will need international financial and technical support to realise its agri-food mitigation potential. Source: World Bank Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following Countries Ethipoia Slovakia Uzbekistan Armenia Belarus How many of the above given countries are landlocked? Only two Only three Only Four All Q2.) Consider the following statements about mercury pollution : Mercury is emitted into the air naturally from volcanoes, the weathering of rocks and forest fires. Medical sphygmomanometers contain mercury. Children, infants and fetuses are at the highest risk due to mercury pollution. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements about Polling stations during Lok Sabha elections. Private buildings cannot be used as polling stations under any circumstance. Under Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA), the district election officer (DEO) is assigned the responsibility to set up and publish the list of polling stations in their district. Candidates can set up their booths beyond 100 m of the polling station. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –16th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIA VOLATILITY INDEX (VIX) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: India VIX, which is an indicator of the market’s expectation of volatility over the near term, surged past the 21 mark on Tuesday (May 14). Background:- The rise shows that fear among traders or market participants on the expected volatility is more now, as compared to 15 days earlier. Currently, the fear among the market players is coming from the outcome of the ongoing Lok Sabha elections. About INDIA VOLATILITY INDEX (VIX) The Volatility Index, VIX or the Fear Index, is a measure of the market’s expectation of volatility over the near term. Volatility is often described as the ‘rate and magnitude of changes in prices’ and in finance often referred to as risk. Usually, during periods of market volatility, the market moves steeply up or down and the volatility index tends to rise. As volatility subsides, the Volatility Index declines. The Volatility Index is a measure of the amount by which an underlying index is expected to fluctuate in the near term, (calculated as annualised volatility, denoted in percentage e.g. 20 per cent) based on the order book of the underlying index options. India VIX is a volatility index computed by the NSE based on the order book of NIFTY Options. For this, the best bid-ask quotes of near and next-month NIFTY options contracts, which are traded on the F&O segment of NSE are used. India VIX indicates the investor’s perception of the market’s volatility in the near term i.e. it depicts the expected market volatility over the next 30 calendar days. The higher the India VIX values, the higher the expected volatility and vice versa, as per NSE. In May so far, the India VIX has risen by around 53 per cent to above 20. On Tuesday, the index touched a high of 21.88 in afternoon trades. The India VIX has risen amid concerns over the results of the ongoing elections. The market participants said a lower voter turnout ratio in this election may have some impact on the BJP’s seat count. Additional Information The Chicago Board of Options Exchange (CBOE) was the first to introduce the volatility index for the US markets in 1993 based on S&P 100 Index option prices. In 2003, the methodology was revised and the new volatility index was based on S&P 500 Index options. ‘VIX’ is a trademark of the CBOE, and Standard & Poor’s has granted a license to NSE, with permission from the CBOE, to use such a mark in the name of the India VIX and for purposes relating to the India VIX Source: Indian Express FLiRT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The new coronavirus variant called KP.2 — nicknamed FLiRT — that has been linked to rising cases of Covid-19 in the United States, United Kingdom, and South Korea, has been in circulation in India since November 2023, genomic surveillance data show. Background: About 250 KP.2 sequences have been reported so far by INSACOG, the country’s genome sequencing consortium. Key Takeaways 2 is a descendant of the JN.1 variant of the virus. It is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. FLiRT, the nickname of KP.2, is based on the letters representing two immune escape mutations that allow the virus to evade antibodies. FLiRT is characterised by its ability to evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue, and digestive issues. The US Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) notes that there are currently no indicators suggesting that KP.2 would cause more severe illness than other strains. However, FLiRT has a heightened transmission rate and, like its parent JN.1, it is likely to drive a wave of infections. Also, the infections are likely to spread silently — because without severe symptoms, most people are unlikely to get themselves tested. India’s Case A little more than half of the 250 KP.2 genomes sequenced by INSACOG — 128 sequences — were from Maharashtra. The highest number of KP.2 sequences were found in March. India has been reporting the highest proportion of KP.2 sequences in the world, global data show. 2 sequences made up 29% of Covid-19 sequences uploaded by India to the Global Initiative on Sharing All Influenza Data (GISAID), the world’s largest repository of these sequences, over the last 60 days. However, JN.1 continues to be the dominant variant of SARS-CoV-2 in the country. Source: Indian Express CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT 2019 Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The Supreme Court ruled on Tuesday that advocates cannot be held liable under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 for deficiency in service. The court ruled that a complaint to this effect against an advocate was not maintainable before a consumer forum. Background: The Supreme Court overturned a 2007 ruling by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) which said services provided by lawyers fell under the Consumer Protection Act. About CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT 2019 : The Act was enacted on August 9, 2019, and came into force in July 2020, replacing the previous Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It was introduced in response to the evolving needs of consumers in the digital age, and aims to provide timely and effective administration and settlement of consumer disputes. Salient Features Defining “E-commerce” and expanding the scope of “Consumer”: As compared to CPA 1986, the definition of “Consumer” has been broadened under CPA 2019 .E-commerce has been specifically mentioned and is defined as buying and selling of goods/services/digital products online. Unfair contracts: Earlier, a consumer could file a complaint only for an unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice adopted by the trader/service provider. However, there were numerous instances where consumers, left with little option, entered into agreements/contracts that were unilateral and arbitrary in nature. Thus, to protect the interests of these consumers, “unfair contracts” has been added as a ground for filing complaints in the present Act. Place of filing complaints: CPA 1986 required consumers to file complaints (in Forums) only at places where the opposite party had its office. However, CPA 2019 allows complainant to file a complaint in the area where he/she resides/ works. Renaming of the Forums: Earlier, the consumer courts at district level were termed as “forums” and at the state and national level as “commissions”. Giving two different names created confusion.Thus, to eliminate the ambiguity around the terms, the district forums have been renamed as district commissions under CPA 2019. Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA): CPA 2019 establishes a Central Consumer Protection Authority (to be termed as Central Authority) that will promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class. Misleading Advertisements: A provision, authorising the CCPA to issue directions and levy penalties against deceptive advertisements under CPA 2019 (Section 21), is an important one.CCPA can impose a penalty of up to Rs. 10 lakhs, which may extend up to Rs. 50 lakhs in case of subsequent violations. Pecuniary Jurisdiction: According to CPA 1986, consumers seeking compensation of Rs. 20 lakhs and less were to approach the district forums, from Rs. 20 lakhs to Rs. 1 crore the state commissions, and above Rs. 1 crore, the national commission. However, under the present Act, in order to facilitate easy access for consumers from districts and to ensure quick disposal of cases, the pecuniary jurisdiction has been increased to upto Rs. 1 crore for district commissions, from Rs. 1 crore to Rs. 10 crores for state commissions and above Rs. 10 crores for national commission. Product Liability: We have not had any laws/regulations to govern product liability and thus, introduction of a separate chapter on product liability in CPA 2019 is of great significance. Product liability refers to the responsibility of a product manufacturer/seller of any product or service to compensate for any harm caused to the consumer by such defective product manufactured/sold or due to deficiency in services. Source: Citizen Consumer And Civic Action Group Home Minister extends ban on LTTE by 5 years Syllabus Mains – GS 2, GS 3 Context: The Union Home Ministry on Tuesday extended the ban on the LTTE by five more years for fostering a separatist tendency among the masses and enhancing the support base for it in the country, particularly in Tamil Nadu, besides threatening the territorial integrity of India. Background: The Centre has imposed the ban invoking the sub-sections (1) and (3) of section 3 of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. Key takeaways : The Home ministry noted that the LTTE is an association based in Sri Lanka but has supporters, sympathisers and agents in the territory of India. In a gazetted notification, the Home Ministry noted that the LTTE is an association based in Sri Lanka but has supporters, sympathisers and agents in the territory of India. ‘The Central government is of the opinion that the LTTE is still indulging in activities which are prejudicial to the integrity and security of the country. Even after its military defeat in May 2009 in Sri Lanka, the LTTE has not abandoned the concept of Eelam (an independent country for Tamils) and has been clandestinely working towards the Eelam cause by undertaking fundraising and propaganda activities and the remnant LTTE leaders or cadres have also initiated efforts to regroup the scattered activists and resurrect the outfit locally and internationally’, the notification stated. The pro-LTTE groups/elements continue to foster a separatist tendency amongst the masses and enhance the support base for LTTE in India and particularly in Tamil Nadu, which will ultimately have a strong disintegrating influence over the territorial integrity of India. The Home ministry said the group’s objective for a separate homeland (Tamil Eelam) amounts to cession and secession of a part of the territory of India from the Union and thus falls within the ambit of unlawful activities. LTTE sympathisers living abroad continue to spread anti-India propaganda among Tamils holding India responsible for the defeat of the LTTE, which, if not checked, is likely to develop a sense of hate among the Tamil populace towards the central government and the Indian Constitution. Additional Information: The LTTE was founded in 1976 by Velupillai Prabhakaran with the goal of creating an independent Tamil Eelam out of Sri Lanka. From clashes with the Sri Lankan military, the LTTE in the early 80s launched a fullscale nationalist insurgency in the north and east of the country, carrying out a string of major terrorist attacks against both military and civilian targets. India’s relationship with the LTTE was complex — from providing support to the guerrillas initially to sending the Indian Peacekeeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka from 1987 to 1990. The LTTE pioneered suicide bombing as a weapon of terror, and in 1991, an LTTE suicide bomber killed Rajiv Gandhi in an attack on Indian soil. India first banned the LTTE after the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi; the ban was last extended for five years in 2014. Source: Indian Express Smart Cities Mission (SCM) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: The Smart Cities Mission (SCM), a flagship programme of the NDA-1 government, has taken a back seat in this year’s list of poll promises and achievements. Background: SCM was announced in June 2015. What was the SCM? : The SCM had two main aspects: area-based development consisting of three components — redevelopment (city renewal), retrofitting (city improvement), and green field projects (city extension); and pan-city solutions based on ICT. These further comprised some six categories that would include e-governance, waste management, water management, energy management, urban mobility, and skill development. Around ₹2 lakh crore was kept aside for the mission, with public-private partnerships (PPP) an important driver of the same. The mission that was to be completed in 2020, was given two extensions till June 2024. Additionally, to make the mission effective, a business model of governance was adopted bypassing the existing models of city governance in the country. An SPV (special purpose vehicle) led by a bureaucrat or a representative of an MNC, and other major stakeholders was created and registered under the Companies Act. The elected council, thus, had little role in the governance structure. What is the status of the SCM? The Urban Ministry’s dashboard as of April 26, exhibits that 8,033 projects sanctioned under the SCM have seen a fall in the total outlay from the expected ₹2 lakh crore to ₹1,67,875 crore, which is 16% less than the projected capital flow in 100 cities. The dashboard also states that the SCM grant funded 5,533 projects worth ₹65,063 crore that have been completed, while 921 projects worth ₹21,000 crore are still ongoing. As many as 400 projects being undertaken by about 10 cities under the Mission are unlikely to meet the extended deadline of June 2024. Interestingly, the funding pattern shows that not more than 5% has come through the PPP route. Where did the SCM falter? The selection of 100 cities on a competitive basis was flawed due to the diversity in existing urban realities. The scheme was divorced from the ground realities of urban India — the urbanisation here is dynamic and not static like the West. The SCM became an exclusionary scheme wherein not more than 1% of a city’s geographical area was selected for development. For example, Chandigarh which received ₹196 crore in the first tranche under the SCM spent it on smart water meters, a Wi-Fi zone, and solid waste management programmes all ploughed into one pocket-sector 43. According to two major reports by McKinsey, to make Indian cities liveable, a capital expenditure of $1.2 trillion is required by 2030. In this context, ₹1,67,875 crore is less than $20 billion in nine years. This comes to around 0.027 % of the total requirement in urban India. Hence, there was little traction for this scheme. Additionally, the SPV model designed for smart cities was not aligned with the 74th Constitutional Amendment, which led to many cities objecting to the governance structure. The design, according to critics, was too top-bottom. Urban India, according to the World Bank has more than 49% of the population living in slums. In the name of executing smart city projects, there was displacement of people living in poorer localities. Another major consequence of the SCM has been enhanced urban flooding. Some of the towns which have historically never been flooded were made vulnerable because of infrastructure development projects that spoiled or dismantled the water channels and contours. Source: Hindu Strategic Importance of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: India’s renewed focus on developing the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (ANI) underscores their strategic significance in the Indo-Pacific region. Background: The transformation of India’s Look East policy into a robust Act East policy, a realisation of the critical importance of ocean power, and the rapid enhancement in the capabilities of the Chinese People Liberation Army (PLA) Navy, have brought a degree of seriousness to the imperative of developing Indian island territories in general, and the Andaman and Nicobar group in particular. Strategic Importance of the A&N Islands: It is located 700 nautical miles southeast of the Indian mainland, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands add 300,000 sq. km to India’s exclusive economic zone, with the potential for undersea hydrocarbon and mineral deposits. The islands’ strategic location astride the Malacca Strait, makes them a crucial asset for India’s ability to monitor and project power in the Indo-Pacific region. The Malacca Strait is a critical maritime choke point, with more than 90,000 merchant ships carrying about 30% of the world’s traded goods passing through it annually. The islands share maritime boundaries with Myanmar, Thailand, Indonesia, and Bangladesh, giving India substantial ocean space under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) in terms of exclusive economic zone and continental shelf. The islands can serve as the first line of defence against any attempt from the East to undermine India’s maritime security, especially in the face of China’s growing influence in the Indo-Pacific region. Port Blair can become a regional hub for navies to collaborate on disaster relief, medical aid, counter-piracy, search and rescue, and other maritime security initiatives. Issues/Challenges for developing of the A&N Islands: The shift from India’s Look East policy to a stronger Act East policy, along with the growing recognition of the significance of maritime power and the increasing capabilities of the Chinese PLA Navy, has underscored the need to develop Indian island territories, especially the Andaman and Nicobar group. Lack of political prioritisation until recently, with the realisation of the islands’ strategic importance only now. Challenges of distance from the mainland and difficulties in developing infrastructure. Complex environmental clearance procedures and regulations on forest and tribal conservation. Coordination challenges due to the involvement of multiple ministries and agencies. The conflict between long-term strategic vision and immediate political gains. Strategic infrastructure development that is required in A&N Islands: Ensuring comprehensive maritime domain awareness and surveillance over the islands. Bolstering deterrence capabilities against any naval misadventures from the East. Developing infrastructure to support India’s maritime economy, especially in the southern group of islands. Improving transportation and connectivity to facilitate development and tourism. Developing Galathea Bay transhipment port on Great Nicobar Island. The plan to connect the A&N Islands to the mainland through Submarine Optical Fibre Cable (OFC) needs revitalisation. This will provide cheaper and better connectivity and access to Digital India’s benefits. Enhancing transportation and connectivity for development and tourism. The military must increase forces and deploy the appropriate assets at the Andaman Nicobar Command (ANC) to maintain island security. This includes basing surveillance and fighter aircraft there, as well as conducting frequent detachments. Exploring partnerships with the Quad and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) for development initiatives. Seeking infrastructure development concessions akin to those on India’s northern borders. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about the Consumer Protection Act 2019: The Act applies to all goods and services, covering all sectors whether they are private, public, or cooperative. The act provides for an Alternate Dispute Resolution Mechanism through mediation. It has no provision covering misleading advertisements. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.)  The word FLiRT recently seen in news is : A new coronavirus variant. A cyber attack through Social media platforms An early warning system for fire hazards A type of Suicide drone Q3.) Consider the following statements about India Volatility Index (VIX) India VIX is a volatility index computed by the SEBI based on the order book of NIFTY Options. It is a measure of the market’s expectation of volatility over the long India VIX typically subsides ahead of events like elections that could have a major impact on the market’s trajectory. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  15th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here