Mar 4, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) World Wildlife Day Part of: Prelims and GS-III-Environment In news- The day is being celebrated on the 3rd of March every year to create awareness about the importance of protecting wildlife. In December 2013, UN General Assembly (UNGA) proclaimed 3 March – the day of signature of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973 – as UN World Wildlife Day. The UNGA resolution also designated the CITES Secretariat as the facilitator for the global observance of this special day for wildlife on the UN calendar.  About CITES It came into force in July 1975 and currently has 183 signatories Aim: Ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located at Geneva, Switzerland. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it does not take the place of national laws. Rather, it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. The International Consortium on Combating Wildlife Crime (ICCWC), a consortium of the CITES Secretariat, INTERPOL, UN Office on Drugs and Crime,  World Bank and the World Customs Organization has been established to tackle illegal wildlife trade. Swathi Weapon Locating radar Part of: Prelims and GS-III-Security In news- Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) bags $40mn defence deal from Armenia for supplying four Swathi Weapon Locating Radars (WLR) Swathi WLR was indigenously developed by DRDO and manufactured by BEL. It is an electronically scanned phased array radar  It automatically locates hostile artillery, mortars and rocket launchers and tracks friendly fire to locate the impact point of friendly artillery fire to issue necessary corrections. The radar is designed to detect projectiles with small cross section across the battle space horizon, and has the capability to handle simultaneous fire from weapons deployed at multiple locations. The radar uses advanced signal processing techniques for detection and tracking projectiles in the presence of ground, weather clutter and other forms of interference in Electronic Warfare scenario. National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) Part of: Prelims and GS-III-Economy; GS-II- Governance In news- NFRA was constituted in 2018 under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is an independent regulator for enforcement of auditing standards and ensuring the quality of audits so as to enhance investor and public confidence in financial disclosures of companies. It can probe listed companies and those unlisted public companies having paid-up capital of no less than Rs 500 crore or annual turnover of no less than Rs 1,000 crore. (while ICAI retains jurisdiction of small listed companies) It can even investigate professional misconduct committed by members of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) for prescribed class of body corporate or persons. Central Fraud Registry Part of: Prelims and GS-III-Economy; GS-II- Governance In news- There has been decline in frauds at Public Sector Banks from ₹50,329 crore in 2013-14 to just ₹3,781 crore in the first three quarters of 2019-20 (Finance Ministry) RBI has put in place a central fraud registry, which is a searchable database to help banks detect instances of fraud by borrowers early on. It also helps Banks in carrying out due diligence during the credit sanction process Frauds of below 5 Crore will be monitored by regional offices of RBI and above 5 Crore will be monitored by the Central Fraud Monitoring Cell (CFMC) of RBI Dogra Dynasty Part of: Prelims and GS-I- History In news- Jammu Airport and the Jammu University to be renamed after Hindu Dogra monarchs Maharaja Hari Singh and Maharaja Gulab Singh, respectively  Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra dynasty and became the first monarch of Jammu & Kashmir kingdom in 1846. J&K was annexed by the Sikhs in 1819 and Gulab Singh was made Raja of the state by Sikhs in 1820 In the First Sikh War (1845–46), Maharaja Gulab Singh held aloof and then appeared as a mediator. As a reward, Jammu & Kashmir was given to him by the British for a cash payment Maharaja Hari Singh was the last Dogra monarch, who acceded to India in 1947. He contributed troops to British war effort in World War II and served on Churchill’s imperial War cabinet Dholavira Part of: Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In news Government of India has submitted nomination dossier of ‘Dholavira: A Harappan City’ for inclusion in the World Heritage List for the year 2020. Dholavira is an archaeological site at Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District, in the state of Gujarat. Dholavira’s location is on the Tropic of Cancer. Also known locally as Kotada timba, the site contains ruins of an ancient Indus Valley Civilization/Harappan city. It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and most prominent archaeological sites in India belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.  [caption id="attachment_57572" align="aligncenter" width="554"] Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd March 2020[/caption] Pic Source Per Capita Availability of Water Part of: Prelims and GS-III- Economy In news- The average annual per capita water availability in the years 2001 was 1816 cubic meters while it reduced to 1545 cubic meters in 2011 This may further reduce to 1486 cubic meters in 2021 and 1367 cubic meters in 2031 As per Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, 135 litre per capita per day (lpcd) has been suggested as the benchmark for urban water supply.  For rural areas, a minimum service delivery of 55 lpcd has been fixed under Jal Jeevan Mission, which may be enhanced to higher level by states As per NCIWRD percentage of water used for irrigation out of the total water use for the year 1997-98 was 83.30%. The same is estimated to decrease to 72.48% by 2025. NCIWRD= National Commission for Integrated Water Resources Development  (MAINS FOCUS) International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: India and its neighbourhood- relations.  Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests US-Taliban pact (Doha Agreement) – Part-II Click here for Part-I of the article The peace deal is expected to kick-off two processes- a phased withdrawal of US troops and an ‘intra-Afghan’ dialogue. The deal is a fundamental step to deliver a comprehensive and permanent ceasefire and the future political roadmap for Afghanistan peace process and the Central Asian region. Challenges Ahead for the Deal: The deal deliberately excluded the Afghan government because the Taliban do not see the government as legitimate rulers. By giving in to the Taliban’s demand, the U.S. has practically called into question the legitimacy of the government it backs. U.S. has made several concessions to the Taliban in the agreement. The Taliban was not pressed enough to declare a ceasefire. Both sides settled for a seven-day “reduction of violence” period before signing the deal.  Disunity within Afghan Government:  President Ashraf Ghani (belongs to Pashtun- largest ethnic group) and his primary challenger Chief Executive Abdullah Abdullah (Tajiks- second largest ethnic group) threatening to set up parallel governments after conflict over 2019 election results. Concessions made by Mr. Ghani’s government to the Taliban will likely be interpreted by Mr. Abdullah’s supporters as an intra-Pashtun deal reached at the expense of other ethnic groups, especially the Tajiks and the Uzbeks, who formed the bulk of the anti-Taliban Northern Alliance from 1996 to 2001.  Consequently, ethnic fissures may descend into open conflict. Disunity within Taliban Taliban is composed of various regional and tribal groups acting semi-autonomously.  All of them may not be amenable to following the directions of its top leadership.  It is, therefore, possible that some of them may continue to engage in assaults on government troops and even American forces during the withdrawal process thus threatening the deal Prisoner release: Afghan government is not on the same page with USA on the release of Taliban prisoners. It has stated the prisoners release can be on the agenda of Intra-Afghan talks and not a precondition to the talks. No promises on Civil Liberties and Democracy: Taliban, whose rule is known for strict religious laws, banishing women from public life, shutting down schools and unleashing systemic discrimination on religious and ethnic minorities, has not made any promises on whether it would respect civil liberties or accept the Afghan Constitution. Taliban and India India and the Taliban have had a bitter past- IC-814 hijack in 1999, The Taliban perceived India as a hostile country, as India had supported the anti-Taliban force Northern Alliance in the 1990s. India never gave diplomatic and official recognition to the Taliban when it was in power during 1996-2001 India has been backing the Ghani-led government and was among very few countries to congratulate Ghani on his 2019 contested victory. Indian foreign policy establishment has shied away from engaging with the Taliban directly, as it is viewed as a proxy of Pakistan. India has supported for enduring and inclusive peace and reconciliation which is “Afghan-led, Afghan-owned and Afghan-controlled”. India has consistently supported for an “independent, sovereign, democratic, pluralistic and inclusive” Afghanistan in which interests of all sections of society are preserved.  Implications of the deal on India The deal legitimises Taliban and its actions. This weakens India’s fight against all sorts of terrorism and violence adopted by such extremist groups. India has a major stake in the continuation of the current Afghanistan government in power, which it considers a strategic asset vis-à-vis Pakistan. As a result of the deal, Pakistan military (through its ally Taliban) will become dominant players in Kabul’s power circles, which is not aligned with India’s interests Although the pact mentions al-Qaeda, it is silent on other terrorist groups — such as anti-India groups Lashkar-e-Toiba or Jaish-e-Mohammed. India, not being an US ally, is not covered under this pact. Ghani government, which India has recognised as winner of the 2019 election, will only serve for an interim period as a result of this deal India will have to engage more directly with Taliban which already controls half of Afghanistan’s territory As Afghanistan is the gateway to Central Asia, the deal might dampen India’s interest in Central Asia. “The bottomline is that India cannot look at the agreements or the route to Kabul via Washington’s view” - Anand Arni (former Special Secretary in RAW) Connecting the dots India’s projects in Afghanistan - Salma Dam Moral impact of deal on anti-India terrorist groups Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. 
 Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources. Top Three SDGs & India Context: President Donald Trump applauded India’s achievements during his speech in Motera stadium in Ahmedabad. The top three Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the United Nations are namely poverty elimination (SDG-1), zero hunger (SDG-2), and good health & well-being (SDG-3) to be attained by 2030 [caption id="attachment_57571" align="aligncenter" width="555"] Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd March 2020[/caption] Pic Source: UNO India’s Present status with regard to these three goals: The World Bank’s estimates of extreme poverty — measured as $1.9/per capita/per day at purchasing power parity of 2011 — show a secular decline in India from 45.9% to 13.4% between 1993 and 2015. If the overall growth process continues as has been the case since, say, 2000 onwards, India may succeed in eliminating extreme poverty by 2030. National Food Security Act (NFSA) that subsidises grains to the tune of more than 90% of its cost to 67% of the population can help India attain the goal of zero hunger before 2030 The real challenge for India, however, is to achieve the third goal of good health and well-being by 2030 Poor Health condition in India (as per NFHS- In 2015-16) Almost 38.4% of India’s children under the age of five years were stunted  35.8% of children (below 5 years) were underweight (low weight for age) 21% of children (below 5 years) suffered from wasting (low weight for height) Also, the Global Hunger Index (GHI) ranks India at 102 out of 117 countries in terms of the severity of hunger in 2019. Slow Progress: The decadal decline in underweight children from 42.5% in 2005-06 to 35.8% in 2015-16 amounts to less than 1 per cent decline per year. Behind Other Nations: According to the Global Nutrition Report, 2016, at the present rates of decline, India will achieve the current stunting rates of China by 2055 What are the governments ambitions w.r.t malnutrition? The National Nutrition Strategy, 2017, aims to reduce the prevalence of underweight children (0-3 years) by 3% points every year by 2022 from NFHS 2015-16 estimates. Under National Nutrition Mission (renamed as POSHAN Abhiyaan), 2017, government aims to reduce  Stunting by 2% per annum,  Undernutrition by 2% per annum, Anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) by 3% per annum Low birth weight by 2% per annum In order to achieve good Health, government has to focus on below four areas Mother’s education.  It is one of the most important factors that has a positive multiplier effect on child care and access to healthcare facilities.  It also increases awareness about nutrient-rich diet, personal hygiene, etc.  This can also help contain the family size in poor, malnourished families.  Thus, a high priority to female literacy, in a mission mode through liberal scholarships for the girl child, would go a long way towards tackling this problem. Access to improved sanitation and safe drinking water. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan should shift its focus from mere ODF declaration to ODF+ and ODF++ strategies which involves proper functioning of community toilets, efficient waste sludge management and recycling measures. Jal Jeevan Mission which aims to provide piped drinking water to all Households by 2024 needs to be implemented in mission mode Change in dietary patterns There is a need to shift dietary patterns from cereal dominance to the consumption of nutritious foods such as livestock products, fruits and vegetables, pulses, etc.  But they are generally costly and their consumption increases only by higher incomes and better education.  Diverting a part of the food subsidy on wheat and rice to more nutritious foods can help New agricultural technologies India must adopt new agricultural technologies of bio-fortifying cereals, such as zinc-rich rice, wheat, iron-rich pearl millet The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has to work closely with Farmer Producer Organisations and NGOs so as to make newer seeds and modern farm practices affordable and accessible to all farmers in the country. Conclusion Global experience shows that with the right public policies focusing on agriculture, improved sanitation, and women’s education, one can have much better health and well-being for its citizens, especially children. India can certainly do better, but only if it focuses on this issue. Connecting the dots 17 Sustainable Development Goals India’s achievements in Millennium Development Goals India’s Ayushman Bharat Programme (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q.1) Consider the following statements about Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) It is legally binding on the Parties but it does not take the place of national laws India is a NOT a signatory to this convention Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements about Swathi Weapon Locating Radars (WLR) It is designed and developed by HAL in collaboration with USA post 1999 Kargil Conflict. The radar has the capability to handle simultaneous fire from weapons deployed at multiple locations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements about National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) It is a statutory body established by NFRA Act, 2018 It is an independent regulator to oversee the auditing profession and accounting standards in India Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) Central Fraud Registry was set up in 2016 by which body? Indian Banks Association Finance Ministry Reserve Bank of India NITI Aayog Q.5) Dholavira, an Harappan Site, is located in which state of India? Rajasthan Gujarat Bihar Uttar Pradesh ANSWERS FOR 02 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 B 3 B 4 D Must Read About Afghanistan -Taliban: The Hindu About Indo-US Nuclear energy deals: The Hindu About Economic Slowdown: The Hindu

Mar 4, 2020 Topper's From IASbaba

UPSC Indian Forest Service (IFS) Final Results 2019 Declared

UPSC Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2019 Results have been declared. To Check the Results - CLICK HERE IASbaba would like to congratulate all the successful aspirants for having made into the most elite services of India. IASbaba Students - Varun BR (Rank 7), Yogeesha CK (Rank 14), Manu Bhat (Rank 26), Gitanjali J (Rank 49), Diganth Nayak (Rank 55), and many more make it to the list.

Mar 4, 2020 AIR

Indo-Portuguese Bilateral Relations - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

Indo-Portuguese Bilateral Relations ARCHIVES Search 14th February 2020 Current Affair here: http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx  Topic: General Studies 2 India’s relationship with other countries – Portugal Five hundred years ago, after Vasco da Gama’s belligerent arrival in Calicut, the Portuguese were busy transforming the Indian subcontinent into a strategic hub for their Asian empire, opening the way for the world’s first era of globalisation. Today, the tables have turned. While Portugal struggles with recession and austerity, India is emerging globally, supporting International Monetary Fund bailouts in Europe and projecting power across Africa and the Indian Ocean region.  The seven-day visit of Portuguese Prime Minister Antonio Costa has the potential to mark the beginning of a new era, one in which beyond the purely bilateral level, both countries could develop trilateral partnerships across the Portuguese-speaking world, from Brazil to Timor-Leste. Exploring potential Become a part of the Community of Portuguese Language Countries: Indian government must express formal interest to become a part of the Community of Portuguese Language Countries, founded in 1996, which is based on Commonwealth and Francophonie organisations and has all nine Portuguese-speaking countries as its members.  Host a strategic and economic dialogue between Indian and Portuguese-speaking officials and other stakeholders in Goa: Like China opted, India could benefit from hosting a less formal, semi-official and annual Track-2 dialogue. India’s trade volume with the Portuguese-speaking economies and Macau has grown six-fold in just ten years, currently peaking at $20 billion, which is similar to the total trade volumes with Germany and Japan. Given Portugal’s extraordinary experience in the development sector in Lusophone Africa, Brazil’s new capabilities there, and India’s willingness to become a collaborative player in the sector, there is also great potential for triangulating assistance and setting up collaborative projects. India and Portugal must work together to meet across Africa: On the maritime front, the security of the Indian Ocean begins in the Atlantic, and vice-versa, demanding greater cooperation and coordination. The Portuguese, Brazilian, Angolan, Mozambican and Indian navies should establish a closer dialogue and joint exercises with a focus on out-of-area deployment, non-conventional maritime threats such as piracy, and other security trends in the Southern Indo-Atlantic region. Explore a potential convergence in various military-technical cooperation domains, including under the Community of Portuguese Language Countries umbrella, which has been developing the idea of a joint CPLP peacekeeping force and training missions. On the defence industry side, the Indian Air Force has made a variety of acquisitions from Brazil’s Embraer, including VIP jets, which have been serviced at Portugal’s OGMA aeronautical hub, indicating another area of potential trilateral cooperation. Lisbon and Delhi should also cooperate on the shipbuilding front, developing vessels and technologies to be exported to Mozambique and Timor-Leste. Pool efforts in terms of culture, education and technology: India and Portugal can also pool efforts to develop human resources and technical capacity in Portuguese-speaking countries. Hundreds of Portuguese-speaking students and government officials arrive every year in India under the Indian Council for Cultural Relations and the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation programmes. To moderate linguistic and cultural barriers, these could be jointly trained in institutions in Goa and in Portugal. On the cultural level, a Lusophone Institute in Goa could also play a catalytic role as hub to increase research collaboration between Indian and Lusophone institutions. In 2008, Brazil sponsored Goa’s Carnival celebrations. Goa’s state archives include thousands of valuable historical documents on India’s links with Brazil, Mozambique, and Timor that are in dire need for closer study and preservation. At the science and technology levels, there is also great potential for research in the maritime domain in collaboration with India’s National Institute of Oceanography. So, what has happened? Several MOUs have been executed for the corporation in sectors such as industrial and intellectual property rights, maritime transport and port development, mobility and start-ups. Further discussions were held related to infrastructure and real estate, with a tie-up made with a Portuguese telecom infrastructure company. India has been offered to use Portuguese expertise in tourism and renewable energy Exchange expertise to be initiated in ICT (Information and Communication Technology),  environment, water and sanitation, public works and construction, since both countries are good at it. Electric mobility business: An agreement has been signed on mobility Enhance India-EU ties: It surely is a good time for India to invest in Portugal, not only to strengthen ties with the EU but because of Portugal’s prospective relation with the Great Britain post-Brexit. Goa, the common link: India has suggested President Marcelo to initiate a government to government partnership in Goa, to enhance tourism and coastal tourist activities with the help of Portugal’s know-how in the field, thus converting the state of Goa into a mini Portugal. It is now time for Portugal and India to revive this legacy and explore its economic potential in the 21st century and strategically couch their relationship in the context of the Portuguese-speaking countries. Connecting the Dots: Can Portugal be the much needed doorway to India-EU ties? Comment.

Mar 4, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 3]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 3 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Land Revenue System Introduced by Ryotwari Alexander Read Mahalwari Thomas Munro Permanent Settlement Lord Wellesley Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.1) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                   भूमि राजस्व प्रणाली                             प्रस्तुतकर्ता 1. रैयतवाड़ी अलेक्जेंडर रीड 2. महालवाड़ी थॉमस मुनरो 3. स्थायी बंदोबस्त लॉर्ड वैलेज़ली ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.2) Factories at places like Bomlipatam, Chinsura, Balasore and Kasimbazar were established initially by? The Dutch The English  The Portuguese  The French Q.2) बोमलीपट्टम, चिनसुरा, बालासोर और कासिम बाजार जैसे स्थानों पर फैक्ट्रियों की स्थापना किसके द्वारा आरंभ में की गई थी? डच अंग्रेजी पुर्तगाली फ्रांसीसी Q.3) With Allahabad treaty, East India Company got a strong political footing in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Allahabad Treaty? Treaty was signed between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Robert Clive as a result of the Battle of Plassey. British were entitled to collect tax directly in lieu of Rs 26 lakhs tribute to be paid annually to the Mughal. Dual System of Government was established in Madras with Nawab retained the judicial functions but the Company had the power to collect revenue. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only  2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.3) इलाहाबाद संधि के साथ, ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी को भारत में एक सुदृढ़ राजनीतिक लाभ मिला। निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन इलाहाबाद संधि के बारे में सही है / हैं? प्लासी की लड़ाई के परिणामस्वरूप मुगल सम्राट शाह आलम द्वितीय और रॉबर्ट क्लाइव के बीच संधि पर हस्ताक्षर किए गए थे। मुगल को प्रतिवर्ष दी जाने वाली 26 लाख रुपये की पेंशन के बदले में ब्रिटिश सीधे कर वसूलने के हकदार थे। नवाब के साथ मद्रास में सरकार की दोहरी प्रणाली स्थापित की गई थी, जिसमें नवाब के पास न्यायिक कार्यों को बरकरार रखा गया था, लेकिन कंपनी के पास राजस्व एकत्र करने की शक्ति थी। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 Q.4) British policies have led to de-industrialisation. Which among the following is NOT a consequence of it in India? Agriculture efficiency reduced with overcrowding effect. With cheaper imports handicraft industry collapsed completely. Destroyed the Self-sufficient rural economy leading to high impoverishment. Increase in export of raw material from India and import of finished goods. Q.4) ब्रिटिश नीतियों ने वि-औद्योगीकरण (de-industrialisation) का नेतृत्व किया है। भारत में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा इसका परिणाम नहीं है? अत्यधिक लोगों की कृषि पर निर्भरता के प्रभाव से कृषि दक्षता कम हो गई। सस्ते आयात से हस्तशिल्प उद्योग पूरी तरह से ध्वस्त हो गया। आत्मनिर्भर ग्रामीण अर्थव्यवस्था को नष्ट कर दिया जिससे उच्च दरिद्रता हो गई। भारत से कच्चे माल के निर्यात में तथा तैयार माल के आयात में वृद्धि हुई। Q.5) ‘Woods dispatch’ of 1854 is called ‘Magna Carta of English Education in India’. Consider the following recommendations of Woods dispatch: It expanded the reach of education by promoting mass education. An education department to be set up in every district. The Indian natives should be given training in their mother tongue also. It recommended grant-in-aid system to encourage private enterprises to provide a free education. Which of the recommendations given above is/are correct? 1,2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.5) 1854 के 'वुड्स डिस्पैच' को 'भारत में अंग्रेजी शिक्षा का मैग्नाकार्टा' कहा जाता है। वुड्स डिस्पैच की निम्नलिखित सिफारिशों पर विचार करें: इसने जन शिक्षा को बढ़ावा देकर शिक्षा की पहुंच का विस्तार किया। प्रत्येक जिले में एक शिक्षा विभाग स्थापित किया जाना है। भारतीय मूल निवासियों को उनकी मातृभाषा में भी प्रशिक्षण दिया जाना चाहिए। इसने निजी उद्यमों को मुफ्त शिक्षा प्रदान करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करने हेतु अनुदान सहायता प्रणाली की सिफारिश की। ऊपर दी गई सिफारिशों में से कौन सी सही है / हैं? केवल 1,2 और 3 केवल 2 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.6) With reference to advent of Europeans to India, consider the following statements: Dutch East India Company had all their trade centres along east coast. Vasco da Gama and Zamorin had cordial relations after Calicut discovery. From 1613, Bombay was the headquarters for the English East India Company on the west coast. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 None of above Q.6) भारत में यूरोपीय लोगों के आगमन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: डच ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के अपने सभी व्यापार केंद्र पूर्वी तट की ओर थे। कालीकट की खोज के बाद वास्को डी गामा और ज़मोरिन के सौहार्दपूर्ण संबंध थे। 1613 से, बॉम्बे पश्चिमी तट पर इंग्लिश ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी का मुख्यालय था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1, 2 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.7) Consider the following statements about Anglo-French wars: In First Anglo-French war French were defeated and it ended with Paris treaty. The Treaty of Pondicherry ended Second Anglo-French war. The Third Anglo-French war was a decisive defeat for French and Aix-La-Chapelle ended this war in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 only None of the above Q.7) आंग्ल-फ्रांसीसी युद्धों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्रथम आंग्ल-फ्रांसीसी युद्ध में फ्रांसीसी की हार हुई तथा यह पेरिस संधि के साथ समाप्त हो गया था। पांडिचेरी की संधि ने द्वितीय आंग्ल-फ्रांसीसी युद्ध को समाप्त कर दिया था। तृतीय आंग्ल-फ्रांसीसी युद्ध फ्रांसीसी के लिए एक निर्णायक हार थी तथा ऐक्स-ला-चैपेल संधि ने भारत में इस युद्ध को समाप्त कर दिया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 2 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.8) The term ‘Goyendas’ is associated with which of the following? Spy system Revenue collection Judicial system Zamindari system Q.8) 'गोएन्ड' (Goyendas) शब्द निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? जासूस प्रणाली राजस्व संग्रह न्यायिक प्रणाली जमींदारी प्रथा Q.9) Consider the following statements about Statutory Civil Service: It was introduced in India by Lord Lytton. It consisted of one-third of covenanted posts to be filled by Indians through nominations. Later it was continued with reforms as recommended by Aitcheson Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.9) सांविधिक सिविल सेवा (Statutory Civil Service) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे भारत में लॉर्ड लिटन द्वारा प्रस्तुत किया गया था। इसमें भारतीयों द्वारा नामांकन के माध्यम से भरे जाने वाले वाचा के एक तिहाई पद (one-third of covenanted posts) शामिल थे। बाद में इसे सुधारों के साथ जारी रखा गया जैसा कि ऐचिसन आयोग द्वारा सिफारिश की गई थी। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 Q.10) With reference to Indian press, consider the following statements: Charles Metcalfe is called as ‘liberator of press’ in India. Registration act of 1867 which replaced Press Act of 1835 is more of restrictive in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) भारतीय प्रेस के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: चार्ल्स मेटकाफ को भारत में 'प्रेस का मुक्तिदाता' कहा जाता है। 1867 का पंजीकरण अधिनियम, जिसने 1835 के प्रेस अधिनियम को स्थानांतरित कर दिया गया था, प्रकृति में प्रतिबंधात्मक था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) In Modern Indian history, Mayo’s resolution of 1870 was related with Police Reform Financial Decentralisation Educational Reforms Vernacular Press Q.11) आधुनिक भारतीय इतिहास में, मेयो का 1870 का संकल्प किससे संबंधित था पुलिस सुधार वित्तीय विकेंद्रीकरण शैक्षिक सुधार वर्नाक्यूलर प्रेस Q.12) With reference to The Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements: It ended the commercial activity of East India Company and reduced it to an administrative body. It instructed the Government of British India to abolish slavery. A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.12) 1833 के चार्टर अधिनियम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसने ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी की वाणिज्यिक गतिविधियों को समाप्त कर दिया तथा इसे एक प्रशासनिक निकाय तक सीमित कर दिया। इसने ब्रिटिश भारत सरकार को दास प्रथा समाप्त करने का निर्देश दिया। प्रत्येक वर्ष भारत के मूल निवासियों के बीच साहित्य, शिक्षा और विज्ञान के पुनरुद्धार, प्रोत्साहन और संवर्धन के लिए एक लाख रुपये की राशि निर्धारित की जानी थी। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.13) By signing Subsidiary Alliance with East India Company, an India state had to agree to which of the following terms? Accept the permanent stationing of a British force within its territory. Prior approval of the British was needed to employ any Europeans, which was not the case when it comes to negotiation with any other Indian ruler. Posting of a British resident in Ruler’s court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.13) ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के साथ सहायक संधि (Subsidiary Alliance) पर हस्ताक्षर करके, भारत के एक राज्य को  क्षेत्र के भीतर एक ब्रिटिश सेना स्थायी रूप से स्वीकार करना। किसी भी यूरोपीय को नियुक्त करने के लिए अंग्रेजों की पूर्व स्वीकृति की आवश्यकता थी, यह प्रावधान किसी अन्य भारतीय शासक से समझौते के मामले में लागु नही था। शासक के दरबार में एक ब्रिटिश रेजिडेंट की नियुक्ति ऊपर दिए गए निम्नलिखित में से किसके लिए सहमत होना था? अपने कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.14) Consider the following pairs: Commission Related with Lord Welby Police Reforms Fowler Currency Richard Strachey Famine Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.14) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                             आयोग                                संबंधित  1. लॉर्ड वेल्बी  पुलिस सुधार  2. फाउलर  मुद्रा  3. रिचर्ड स्ट्रेची  अकाल  ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.15) Arrange the following wars in a chronological order: 1st Anglo – Afghan War 2nd Anglo – Burmese War 1st Anglo – Nepal War 2nd Anglo – Sikh War Select the correct answer using the code given below: 4 – 3 – 1 – 2 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 Q.15) एक कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में निम्नलिखित युद्धों को व्यवस्थित करें: प्रथम आंग्ल-अफगान युद्ध द्वितीय आंग्ल-बर्मा युद्ध प्रथम आंग्ल-नेपाल युद्ध द्वितीय आंग्ल-सिख युद्ध नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 1 - 2 - 4 - 3 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 Q.16) With reference to Policy of Ring Fence, consider the following statements: It was followed by Robert Clive which made him conquer many Indian rulers. Under this policy East India Company would be forging an alliance with neighbouring rulers of French occupations in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16) घेरे की नीति (Policy of Ring Fence) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे रॉबर्ट क्लाइव द्वारा अपनाया गया, जिसने उसे कई भारतीय शासकों पर विजय दिलाई। इस नीति के तहत ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी ने भारत में फ्रांसीसी बस्तियों के पड़ोसी शासकों के साथ गठजोड़ किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) Consider the following statements about judicial reforms undertaken by British in India: Warren Hastings separated the posts of the Civil Judge and the Collector. Circuit Courts were established by Lord Cornwallis. William Bentick promoted vernacular language in courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.17) भारत में ब्रिटिश द्वारा किए गए न्यायिक सुधारों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: वॉरेन हेस्टिंग्स ने सिविल जज और कलेक्टर के पदों को पृथक किया। लॉर्ड कॉर्नवॉलिस द्वारा सर्किट कोर्ट की स्थापना की गई थी। विलियम बेंटिक ने न्यायालयों में देशीय भाषा (vernacular language) को बढ़ावा दिया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.18) Which among the following Acts, marks the beginning of parliamentary control over the East India Company? Charter Act of 1813 Charter Act of 1833 Pitts Act, 1784 Regulating Act, 1773 Q.18) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा अधिनियम, ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी पर संसदीय नियंत्रण की शुरुआत का प्रतीक है? 1813 का चार्टर एक्ट 1833 का चार्टर एक्ट पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट, 1784 रेगुलेटिंग एक्ट, 1773 Q.19)  Consider the following statements: The Permanent Settlement system was introduced by the British to discourage investment in agriculture The British expected the Permanent Settlement system would help the emergence of a class of farmers who would be loyal to the Company welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.19) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कृषि में निवेश को हतोत्साहित करने के लिए ब्रिटिश द्वारा स्थायी बंदोबस्त (Permanent Settlement) प्रणाली की शुरुआत की गई थी अंग्रेजों को उम्मीद थी कि स्थायी बंदोबस्त प्रणाली किसानों के एक वर्ग को उभारने में मदद करेगी जो कंपनी कल्याण के प्रति वफादार होंगे। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.20) Which of the following were contributions of Lord Dalhousie to India? Railways Modern postal system Statistical Survey of India Telegraph Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.20) भारत में लॉर्ड डलहौजी का निम्नलिखित में से किसमें योगदान था? रेलवे आधुनिक डाक प्रणाली भारतीय सांख्यिकीय सर्वेक्षण टेलीग्राफ नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.21) ‘Abujh Marias’ is a tribal group from which of the following states/union territories? Andaman & Nicobar Islands Chhattisgarh Lakshadweep Nagaland Q.21) ‘अबूझ मारिया’ (Abujh Marias) एक आदिवासी समूह है, जो निम्नलिखित राज्यों / केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में पाए जाते हैं? अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप समूह छत्तीसगढ़ लक्षद्वीप नागालैंड Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Blast Disease’ It is a bacterial disease which only affects rice crop. Conditions conducive for the disease include long periods of free moisture and high humidity. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'ब्लास्ट रोग' (Blast Disease) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह एक जीवाणु रोग है जो केवल चावल की फसल को प्रभावित करता है। रोग के लिए अनुकूल परिस्थितियों में लंबे समय तक मुक्त नमी और उच्च आर्द्रता शामिल होती है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) The ‘16 Point Agreement’ is associated with which of the following? USA, Afghanistan and Taliban South Korea and North Korea Syria, Russia and Turkey None of the above Q.23) ‘16 बिंदु समझौता' (16 Point Agreement) निम्नलिखित में से किसके साथ संबद्ध है? संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका, अफग़ानिस्तान और तालिबान दक्षिण कोरिया और उत्तर कोरिया सीरिया, रूस और तुर्की इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.24) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Bomkai Saree – Odisha Dhokra Metal Casting – Maharashtra Kantha Embroidery – West Bengal Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.24) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? बोमकई साड़ी (Bomkai Saree)- ओडिशा ढोकरा धातू ढलाई (Dhokra Metal Casting) - महाराष्ट्र कांथा कढ़ाई (Kantha Embroidery) - पश्चिम बंगाल सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘INSTEX SAS (Instrument for Supporting Trade Exchanges)’ It is a Special Purpose Vehicle aimed at facilitating legitimate trade between European economic operators and Iran. It is financed and managed by France, Germany, and the U.K. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) ‘INSTEX SAS (सहायक ट्रेड एक्सचेंजों के लिए साधन)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह एक विशेष प्रयोजन वाहन है जिसका उद्देश्य यूरोपीय आर्थिक ऑपरेटरों और ईरान के बीच वैध व्यापार की सुविधा प्रदान करना है। यह फ्रांस, जर्मनी और यूनाइटेड किंगडम द्वारा वित्तपोषित और प्रबंधित किया गया है सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) Tiangong-2, recently seen in news is   Ballistic Missile manufactured by China  Anti-Satellite missile developed by China  A manned Chinese space station Chinese Mars Mission  Q.26) तियांगोंग -2 (Tiangong-2), हाल ही में किससे संबंधित समाचारों में देखा गया है चीन द्वारा निर्मित बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल चीन द्वारा विकसित एंटी-सैटेलाइट मिसाइल एक मानवयुक्त चीनी अंतरिक्ष स्टेशन चीनी मंगल मिशन Q.27) The Reko Diq mine situated in Pakistan, recently seen in news is famous for its : Gold reserves Copper reserves Iron Reserves  Both a and b Q.27) पाकिस्तान में स्थित रेको दीक खदान (Reko Diq mine), जो हाल ही में समाचारों में थी, किसके लिए प्रसिद्द है: सोने के भंडार तांबे के भंडार लोहे के भंडार a और b दोनों Q.28) With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a herbivorous marine animal. IUCN lists the dugong as a species ‘Endangered’ to extinction. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3  3 only Q.28) 'डुगोंग' (dugong), भारत में पाया जाने वाला एक स्तनपायी, के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? यह एक शाकाहारी समुद्री जानवर है। डुगोंग को IUCN ने विलुप्त होने के लिए एक प्रजाति के रूप में ‘लुप्तप्राय’ (Endangered) के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया है। इसे वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 की अनुसूची I के तहत कानूनी संरक्षण दिया गया है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें। 1 और 2 केवल 2 1 और 3 Q.29) Consider the following statements about International Whaling Commission (IWC)  It is established to organize the whaling business around the World.  It is one of the United Nations Agencies.  It acts under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)  Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?  1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.29) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्हेलिंग आयोग (IWC) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। व्हेलिंग व्यवसाय को व्यवस्थित करने के लिए स्थापित किया गया है यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र की एजेंसियों में से एक है यह समुद्री कानून पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र सम्मेलन (UNCLOS) के तहत कार्य करता है ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही नहीं है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.30) ‘Operation Thirst’ recently in news is to  Give Packaged Drinking Water (PDW) in Railways premises Code-name for the Indian Armed Forces operation to capture the Siachen Glacier. Curb the menace of unauthorized Packaged Drinking Water (PDW) in Railways premises None of these Q.30) ‘ऑपरेशन प्यास’ (Operation Thirst) हाल ही में समाचारों में था, जो किससे संबंधित है रेलवे परिसर में पैकेज्ड ड्रिंकिंग वॉटर (PDW) दें सियाचिन ग्लेशियर पर अधिग्रहण करने के लिए भारतीय सशस्त्र बल अभियान के लिए दिया गया कोड-नाम। रेलवे परिसर में अनाधिकृत रूप से पैकिंग किये गए पानी (PDW) की बिक्री को रोकने के लिए इनमें से कोई नहीं DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 3, 2020 AIR

Conservation of Migratory Species - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

Conservation of Migratory Species ARCHIVES TOPIC: General Studies 3 Environment and Conservation Climate Change Migratory species are those animals that move from one habitat to another during different times of the year, due to various factors such as food, sunlight, temperature, climate, etc. The movement between habitats, can sometimes exceed thousands of miles/kilometres for some migratory birds and mammals. A migratory route can involve nesting and also requires the availability of habitats before and after each migration. In order to protect the migratory species throughout their range countries, a Convention on Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS), has been in force, under the aegis of United Nations Environment Programme. Also referred to as the Bonn Convention (signed in 1979 in Germany), it provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats and brings together the States through which migratory animals pass, the Range States, and lays the legal foundation for internationally coordinated conservation measures throughout a migratory range. India is the host for three years for the Conservation of Migratory Species. The week-long Conference under the Convention is set to focus on adopting actions to help reverse the decline of migratory species. Enhancing 'ecological connectivity'—the ability of geographical areas to support migratory species together—is the primary focus of the Conference.  The UN Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity released in May 2019 (IPBES Report) showed that  The world could witness a mass extinction of 1 million species, including migratory species if humanity does not alter its course. Despite some success stories, the populations of most migratory species covered by CMS are declining The Conference calls for international cooperation to protect migratory species and their habitats, which is reflected in its theme: Migratory species connect the planet – together we welcome them home. The CMS lists the migratory species that are threatened with extinction. The member countries are obligated to protect the listed species throughout their range. Among the ten species to be added to this list during the Conference, there are three Indian species, viz., Asian Elephant, Bengal Florican, and the Great Indian Bustard. In addition to these, other species to be added to the protection list are Jaguar, Urial, Little Bustard, Antipodean Albatross, Oceanic White-tip Shark, Smooth Hammerhead Shark and Tope Shark. Both Bengal Florican and Great Indian Bustard are critically endangered species as per the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.  Asian Elephants, on the other hand, are categorised as endangered and have a total population of less than 50,000—more than half of whom live in India. Throughout their annual migratory path or corridors, these species face numerous threats like – Human-wildlife conflict Extreme weather events Habitat fragmentation Landscape changes India and CMS 2.4% of the world's land area, India contributes about 8% of the known global biodiversity We have been traditionally practicing the mantra of “Athithi Devo Bhava”, this has been reflected in the slogan theme for the CMS COP 13: “Migratory species connect the planet and together we welcome them home” India will focus more towards conservation of Central Asian Flyway, which passes through India, that covers areas between the Arctic and Indian Oceans, and covers at least 279 populations of 182 migratory water bird species, including 29 globally threatened species. India has also launched the National Action Plan for conservation of migratory species under the Central Asian Flyway. Creation of an institutional facility for undertaking research and assessment, capacity development and conservation initiatives by creating a common platform Millions of people living near forest areas in the country will be co-opted into the formation of joint forest management committees and eco-development communities for the protection of forests and wildlife India has been a Party to the Convention since 1983 and has signed non-legally binding MOU with CMS on the conservation and management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors (2016). Migratory species bring multiple benefits to humans. For example, migratory species provide seed dispersal, pollination, pest control and other ecosystem services and functions.  They also provide major economic benefits and jobs, for instance, through tourism.    Connecting the Dots: Which of the following Conventions aims to conserve terrestrial, Marine and Avian migratory species?  a) Rotterdam Convention  b) Bonn Convention  c) Ramsar Convention  d) Washington Convention

Mar 3, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) India is host to 457 migratory fauna Part of: GS Prelims - Environment  and GS Mains III- Conservation In news: The total number of migratory fauna from India comes to 457 species Birds comprise 83% (380 species)  Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) had for the first time compiled the list of migratory species of India under the CMS before the Conference of Parties (COP 13)  The Asian elephant was added to Appendix I and the urial to Appendix II. The largest group of mammals is definitely bats belonging to the Family Vespertilionidae.  Dolphins are the second highest group of mammals with nine migratory species of dolphins listed Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2020 Source: The Hindu From Prelims Point Of View Convention for the conservation of migratory species or Bonn Convention Signed in 1979 in Germany and is known as the Bonn Convention Environmental treaty of the UN that provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats Only global convention specialising in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes. Appendix I of the Convention lists ‘Threatened Migratory Species’. Appendix II lists ‘Migratory Species requiring international cooperation’ Water crisis looms large in Himalayan regions Part of: GS Prelims – Geography   and GS Mains I- Climate change In news: Eight towns in the Himalayan region of Bangladesh, Nepal, India and Pakistan were nearly 20%-70% deficient in their water supply, Unplanned urbanisation and climate change are the key factors responsible for the state of affairs, The places surveyed are extremely dependent on springs (ranging between 50% and 100%) for their water, and three-fourths were in urban areas  Under current trends, the demand-supply gap may double by 2050 only 3% of the total Hindu Kush Himalayan population lives in larger cities and 8% in smaller towns, projections show that over 50% of the population will be living in cities by 2050 From Prelims Point Of View Hindu-Kush-Himalayan (HKH) Region Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. 5 million square kilometres considered the Third Pole (after the North and South Poles Significant implications for climate. vast cryospheric zones and is also the world’s largest store of snow and ice outside the polar region. Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2020 Source: The Hindu Pakke Tiger Reserve Part of: GS Prelims - Environment  and GS Mains III- Conservation In news: Recently there was an opposition to not to pursue a proposed highway through the ‘nationally important’ Pakke Tiger Reserve. From Prelims Point Of View: Background: Lies in the foothills of the eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve. Falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.  Known for its amazing sightings of four resident hornbill species. India is home to nine species of hornbills. three of them, the wreathed hornbill (Aceros undulatus), the brown hornbill (Anorrhinus austeni) and the Rufous-necked hornbill (Aceros nipalensis)great hornbill is the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.  It is ‘vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red list. Hornbill festival celebrated in Nagaland is named after the bird – Hornbill which is the most revered and admired bird for the Nagas. Puttenahalli lake under threat Part of: GS Prelims - Environment  and GS Mains III- Conservation In news: Puttenahalli lake Puttenahalli lake is a small, restored freshwater lake located in Bangalore. The primary water sources are rain and surface water diverted to the lake through channels. The lake is currently maintained by Puttenahalli Neighbourhood Lake Improvement Trust (PNLIT) The lake was on the brink of extinction, but due to the efforts of PNLIT, is now a haven for bird-watchers and on its way to being completely restored. Fears rise as COVID-19 cases, deaths hit new high Part of: GS Prelims – Health   and GS Mains II- Health In news: The number of countries hit by the COVID-19 outbreak climbed past 60 Coronavirus Coronaviruses are a specific family of viruses, with some of them causing less-severe damage, such as the common cold, and others causing respiratory and intestinal diseases. A coronavirus has many “regularly arranged” protrusions on its surface, because of which the entire virus particle looks like an emperor’s crown, hence the name “coronavirus”. Apart from human beings, coronaviruses can affect mammals including pigs, cattle, cats, dogs, martens, camels, hedgehogs and some birds. So far, there are four known disease-causing coronaviruses, among which the best known are the SARS coronavirus and the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) coronavirus, both of which can cause severe respiratory diseases. Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2020 SRC: BBC (MAINS FOCUS) Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies. National Population Register (NPR) Context: Bihar Assembly passed a unanimous resolution stating that there is no need for a National Register of Citizens in the State and that the implementation of the NPR would be done strictly according to the 2010 format. What is NPR? NPR is a register of usual residents of the country. It includes both Indian citizens as well as a foreign citizen. According to the Citizenship Rules, 2003, a usual resident is a person who has resided (or intends to reside) in a local area for the past 6 months  The entire NPR exercise will be conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Union Home Ministry. The first NPR was prepared in 2010 and updation of this data was done (except in Assam and Meghalaya) during 2015 by conducting door to door survey. The present NPR has a database of 119 crore residents. The NPR 2020 enumeration exercise will be undertaken during April–September 2020 How is the NPR linked to the National Register of Citizens? NPR is considered to be the mother database for “identity purposes”. The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003 mandates that particulars of “every family and individual” in the NPR would be used for verification in the National Register of Citizens (NRC) The Local Registrar is empowered, during verification, to mark out the particulars of individuals whose citizenship is doubtful, with “appropriate remarks” for further enquiry. What happens if individual citizenship is marked doubtful? The individual concerned has to then appear before the Sub-district or Taluk Registrar of Citizen Registration to prove s/he is a citizen before a formal decision is taken to include or to exclude their particulars in NRC The onus to prove s/he is a citizen is entirely on the individual concerned.  Thus, the data collected through NPR becomes the crux for determining the citizenship of a person. What is the NPR format of 2010? Fifteen identity particulars of the individual members of the household are sought in the 2010 format.  These include name, relationship to the head of the household, sex, date of birth, marital status, educational qualification, occupation/activity, names of parents, place of birth (of everybody staying in the household at the time), nationality, present address of usual residence, duration of stay at the present address and permanent residential address. What does the updated NPR manual of 2020 say? Certain new information will be collected like Aadhaar, mobile, voter ID, passport and driving licence, if available with the residents on a voluntarily basis.  New format also requires residents to disclose their mother tongue and the places & dates of birth of their parents even if they are not living in the same household at the time or not alive What is the problem? Lack of Documentation: In a country where a large part of the population is underprivileged and where people have not been able to formalise their birth due to lack of access to health care, the task of disclosing the exact birth and place of birth, especially of their aged parents and orphans, would prove to be a daunting task. Fear of Exclusion: NPR is being viewed in fear as a facilitator for the NRC. Along with this, the passage of Citizenship (Amendment) Act,2019 has induced fears among sections of society (particularly Muslims) that inadequate documents may invite remarks by local registrar during enumeration exercise, thus stripping off their citizenship status. CAA, 2019 fast-tracks citizenship-by-naturalisation process of persons from six religious communities, other than Muslims, who have fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan. State governments are nervous that the NPR data would be used to target citizens on the basis of their identity and deprive them of their public services What lies ahead? The workforce for updation of NPR 2020 has to be provided by the State governments.  With more States objecting to the new format and its contentious clauses, the exercise may reach an impasse.  Widespread doubts about the intentions behind the NPR may also affect the smooth conduct of the Census. Connecting the dots What happens when State & Centre reach impasse (suppose in case of NPR)? Should Judiciary get involved or should mechanism like Inter-State Council be utilized? Cooperative Federalism Article 131 of Indian Constitution International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: India and its neighborhood- relations.  Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests US-Taliban pact (Doha Agreement) After nearly a year long negotiation, USA has signed a peace agreement with Taliban (Afghan government not a signatory). India attended the signing ceremony in Doha, and was represented by Ambassador to Qatar. Separately, a joint declaration between the Afghan government (Islamic Republic of Afghanistan) and the US was issued in Kabul. Brief background to the deal USA went into Afghanistan in October 2001, a few weeks after the 9/11 terror attacks, with the goals of defeating terrorists (particularly Al-Qaeda) and rebuilding and stabilising the country.  USA’s war in Afghanistan is said to be the longest war (19 years)  in its history. The Afghan war is estimated to have cost $2-trillion, with more than 3,500 American and coalition soldiers killed.  Afghanistan lost hundreds of thousands of people, both civilians and soldiers.  After all these, the Taliban is at its strongest moment since the U.S. launched the war. It now controls half of the country, mainly in its hinterlands.  The war had entered into a stalemate long ago and the U.S. failed to turn it around despite both American Presidents Barack Obama and Donald Trump having sent additional troops.  Faced with no other way, the U.S. just wants to leave Afghanistan. Key elements of the US-Taliban Pact: Troops Withdrawal:The US will draw down to 8,600 troops in 135 days from the present 14000 troops. And all troops will be out within 14 months. The alliance and its partners in Afghan security mission, known as “Resolute”, would reduce their military presence in the country in recognition of the new agreement. At present, resolute consists of 17000 troops from 39 countries Taliban Commitment: Taliban will not allow any of its members, other individuals or groups, including al-Qaeda, to use the soil of Afghanistan to threaten the security of the United States and its allies (does not include India) Intra-Afghan Negotiations: Taliban would engage with Kabul government directly from March 10th to find a lasting solution to the civil war 4.Sanctions Removal: UN sanctions on Taliban leaders to be removed by three months (by May 29) and US sanctions by August 27.  Pakistan has been accused of giving refugee to some these sanctioned persons and this has been one of the reasons for Pakistan being in FATF grey list (supporting terrorists) Prisoner Release: Up to 5,000 imprisoned Taliban and up to 1,000 prisoners from “the other side” held by Taliban “will be released” by March 10 — which is when intra-Afghan negotiations are supposed to start, in Oslo Ceasefire: The agreement states ceasefire will be simply “an item on the agenda” when intra-Afghan talks start, and indicates actual ceasefire will come with the “completion” of an Afghan political agreement. Part II of the article - will deal with Challenges w.r.t the deal and Implications of deal on India Connecting the dots P5+1 deal with Iran Impact of Taliban’s victory on the other extremists in the region (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?  Juniper  Mahogany Islver fir Spruce Q 2. Consider the following protected areas:  Bandipur  Bhitarkanika Manas  Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only  l, 2, 3 and 4 Q 3. The term M-STRIPES' is in the context of  Captive breeding of Leopards  Maintenance of Tiger Reserves Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Q 4. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?  Sand deserts of northwest India Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir Salt marshes of western Gujarat Western Ghats ANSWERS FOR 29 FEB 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 A 3 C 4 A Must Read About Nehru : The Hindu About protests and their response by the government : The Hindu About impact of Coronavirus: The Hindu

Mar 3, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 2]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) From tomorrow, it will be posted between 11 AM-12 PM. The solution will be released around 8 PM Daily.  Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released around 8 PM, cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come.  You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights These are also available to corporations or companies. These are also available against the action of private individuals. These are sacrosanct or permanent. Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.1) मौलिक अधिकारों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें ये निगमों या कंपनियों के लिए भी उपलब्ध हैं। ये निजी व्यक्तियों की कार्रवाई के विरुद्ध भी उपलब्ध हैं। ये पवित्र (sacrosanct) या स्थायी हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) Which of the following are considered as ‘state’ under the Article 12? Panchayats and Municipalities ONGC NCERT Judiciary Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 All of the above Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से किसे अनुच्छेद 12 के तहत ‘राज्य’ माना जाता है? पंचायतें और नगर पालिकाएँ ओएनजीसी एनसीईआरटी न्यायपालिका नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1,2 और 3 1,2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Which of the following elements of Rule of law are applicable to the Indian system? Absence of arbitrary power Equality before the law The primacy of the rights of the individual Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.3) भारतीय प्रणाली पर कानून के नियम (Rule of law) के निम्नलिखित में से कौन से अवयव लागू हैं? मनमानी शक्ति का अभाव कानून के समक्ष समानता व्यक्तिगत अधिकारों की प्रधानता नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) Consider the following statements Defamation and incitement to an offence are among the grounds to impose reasonable restrictions. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed by executive action alone. Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें उचित प्रतिबंध लगाने के लिए अपराध हेतु मानहानि और उकसाना एक आधार है। अकेले कार्यकारी कार्रवाई द्वारा उचित प्रतिबंध लगाए जा सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) Right to travel abroad comes under Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 22 Q.5) विदेश यात्रा का अधिकार किसके अंतर्गत आता है अनुच्छेद 15 अनुच्छेद 19 अनुच्छेद 21 अनुच्छेद 22 Q.6) Consider the following statements about Right to Education It was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002. It was the first such provision for free and compulsory education to be included in the constitution. The right is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.6) शिक्षा के अधिकार के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसे 2002 के 86 वें संवैधानिक संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा जोड़ा गया था। यह संविधान में सम्मिलित होने वाला मुफ्त एवं अनिवार्य शिक्षा संबंधी पहला ऐसा प्रावधान था। यह अधिकार नागरिकों के साथ-साथ विदेशियों, दोनों के लिए उपलब्ध है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.7) Which of the following can be considered as ‘Law’ under Article 13? Ordinances Naga customary laws Constitutional amendment Notification by Central government Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित में से किसे अनुच्छेद 13 के तहत ‘कानून’ (Law) माना जा सकता है? अध्यादेशों नागा प्रथागत कानून (Naga customary laws) संवैधानिक संशोधन केंद्र सरकार द्वारा अधिसूचना नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1,2 और 3 1,2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following statements about Article 25 mentioned in the Indian Constitution It includes a right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Under this, state can provide for reform of Hindu religious institutions. The Hindus, under this right, include Sikhs, Parsis, Jains and Buddhists Choose the correct statement using codes below 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 All of the above Q.8) भारतीय संविधान में उल्लिखित अनुच्छेद 25 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसमें एक व्यक्ति को दूसरे के धर्म में परिवर्तन का अधिकार शामिल है। इसके तहत, राज्य हिंदू धार्मिक संस्थानों के सुधार के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान कर सकता है। इस अधिकार के तहत आने वाले हिंदुओं में सिख, पारसी, जैन और बौद्ध शामिल हैं नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 केवल 2 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is/are not based on Socialist principles? Equal pay for equal work. Free legal aid to the poor. To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs Protection and improvement of the environment. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 3 and 4 4 only 1,2 and 3 Q.9) निम्नलिखित में से कौन राज्य नीति के निर्देशक सिद्धांतों में समाजवादी सिद्धांतों पर आधारित नहीं है / हैं? समान काम के लिए समान वेतन गरीबों को मुफ्त कानूनी सहायता अनुसूचित जाति, अनुसूचित जनजाति के शैक्षिक और आर्थिक हितों को बढ़ावा देना पर्यावरण का संरक्षण और सुधार नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 3 और 4 केवल 4 1,2 और 3 Q.10) Which of the following pair has been correctly matched? 42nd Amendment Act: Minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities 44th Amendment Act: Secure the participation of workers in the management of industries 86th Amendment Act: Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 Q.10) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? 42 वां संशोधन अधिनियम: आय, पदस्थिति (status), सुविधाओं और अवसरों में असमानता को कम करना 44 वां संशोधन अधिनियम: उद्योगों के प्रबंधन में श्रमिकों की भागीदारी को सुरक्षित करना 86 वां संशोधन अधिनियम: सभी बच्चों के प्रारंभिक बचपन की देखभाल तथा शिक्षा, जब तक वे छह वर्ष की आयु पूरी नहीं कर लेते नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 3 2 और 3 Q.11) Which of the following have been made for implementing the Directive Principles? The Child and Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act The Maternity Benefit Act Formation of Khadi and Village Industries Board The Criminal Procedure Code  Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 1,2 and 3 1,2 and 4 All of the above Q.11) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कार्य निर्देशक सिद्धांतों को लागू करने के लिए किया गया है? बाल और किशोर श्रम निषेध एवं विनियमन अधिनियम मातृत्व लाभ अधिनियम खादी और ग्रामोद्योग बोर्ड का गठन आपराधिक प्रक्रिया संहिता नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1,2 और 3 1,2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Which of the following are not Fundamental duties as given under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution? To defend the country To pay taxes To safeguard public property To cast vote Choose the correct answer using codes below 1,2 and 4 2,3 and 4 2 and 4 All of the above Q.12) भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 51 ए के तहत दिए गए निम्नलिखित में से कौन से मौलिक कर्तव्य नहीं हैं? देश की रक्षा करना करों का भुगतान करना सार्वजनिक संपत्ति की सुरक्षा करना वोट देना नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1,2 और 4 2,3 और 4 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) Consider the following statements about Fundamental duties India’s is the only democratic Constitution in world which contains a list of duties of citizens. These include both moral duties as well as civic duties. They are enforceable by law. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.13) मौलिक कर्तव्यों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारतीय संविधान विश्व का एकमात्र लोकतांत्रिक संविधान है जिसमें नागरिकों के कर्तव्यों की एक सूची है। इनमें नैतिक कर्तव्यों के साथ-साथ नागरिक कर्तव्य दोनों शामिल हैं। वे कानून द्वारा प्रवर्तनीय हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Consider the following statements  Fundamental rights are positive, as they require the State to do certain things. Directive Principles require legislation for their implementation and they are not automatically enforced. The Fundamental Rights always enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 All of the above Q.14) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें मौलिक अधिकार सकारात्मक हैं, क्योंकि उनके लिए राज्य को कुछ कार्य करने की आवश्यकता होती है। निर्देशक सिद्धांतों को उनके कार्यान्वयन के लिए कानून की आवश्यकता होती है तथा वे स्वचालित रूप से लागू नहीं होते हैं। मौलिक अधिकार सदैव निर्देशक सिद्धांतों पर प्रभावी होते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 3 केवल 2 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.15) As per the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy judgement, Right to privacy is protected under Article 14 Article 19 Article 21 Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.15) पुट्टस्वामी अधिनिर्णय में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के अनुसार, निजता का अधिकार किसके अंतर्गत सुरक्षित है अनुच्छेद 14 अनुच्छेद 19 अनुच्छेद 21 नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Which of the following laws have been saved from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 and 19? Amalgamation of corporations Modification of rights of shareholders of corporations Acquisition of property of a minority educational institution by the State Taking over the management of properties by the State Choose the correct answer using codes below 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2 and 4 All of the above Q.16) निम्नलिखित में से किस कानून को अनुच्छेद 14 और 19 द्वारा प्रदत्त मौलिक अधिकारों के उल्लंघन के आधार पर चुनौती देने और अमान्य होने से बचाया गया है? निगमों का समामेलन (Amalgamation of corporations) निगमों के शेयरधारकों के अधिकारों में संशोधन राज्य द्वारा अल्पसंख्यक शैक्षणिक संस्थान की संपत्ति का अधिग्रहण राज्य द्वारा संपत्तियों का प्रबंधन संभालना नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1, 2 और 4 1, 3 और 4 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें अनुच्छेद 35 राज्य सूची में निर्दिष्ट मामलों पर एक कानून बनाने के लिए संसद की क्षमता को विस्तृत करता है। अनुच्छेद 35 राज्य विधायिका को कुछ मामलों पर कानून बनाने के लिए प्रतिबंधित करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) Consider the following statements Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters specified in the State List. Article 35 restricts the state legislature to make laws on certain matters. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें अनुच्छेद 35 राज्य सूची में निर्दिष्ट मामलों पर एक कानून बनाने के लिए संसद की क्षमता को विस्तृत करता है। अनुच्छेद 35 राज्य विधायिका को कुछ मामलों पर कानून बनाने के लिए प्रतिबंधित करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. Which of the following regarding martial law are correct? The expression ‘martial law’ has been defined in the Constitution as ‘rule of military in an area’. The declaration of martial law results in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only All of the above Q.18) अनुच्छेद 34 मौलिक अधिकारों पर प्रतिबंध के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान करता है, जब मार्शल लॉ भारतीय क्षेत्र के भीतर किसी भी क्षेत्र में लागू हो। मार्शल लॉ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है? 'मार्शल लॉ' की व्याख्या को संविधान में 'एक क्षेत्र में सेना के शासन' के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है। मार्शल लॉ की घोषणा के परिणाम स्वरुप बंदी प्रत्यक्षीकरण रिट का निलंबन हो जाता है। यह सरकार और सामान्य कानूनी न्यायालयों को निलंबित करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.19) The writ of certiorari can be issued against Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities Administrative authorities Legislative bodies Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.19) उत्प्रेषण (certiorari) रिट किसके विरुद्ध जारी की जा सकती है न्यायिक और अर्ध-न्यायिक प्राधिकरण प्रशासनिक अधिकारी वैधानिक निकायों (Legislative bodies) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Article 28 distinguishes between four types of educational Institutions. Religious instruction is completely prohibited in which of the following? Institutions wholly maintained by the State. Institutions receiving aid from the State. Institutions recognised by the State. Institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 1 and 2 1,2 and 4 All of the above Q.20) अनुच्छेद 28 चार प्रकार के शिक्षण संस्थानों के बीच अंतर करता है। धार्मिक निर्देश निम्नलिखित में से किसमें पूरी तरह से निषिद्ध है? राज्य द्वारा पूर्णतः पोषित संस्थान राज्य से सहायता प्राप्त करने वाली संस्थाएँ राज्य द्वारा मान्यता प्राप्त संस्थान राज्य द्वारा प्रशासित संस्थान लेकिन किसी धर्मस्व (endowment) या ट्रस्ट के तहत स्थापित। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 1 और 2 1,2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) According to The Botanical Survey of India’s first comprehensive Census of Orchids of India  Entire orchid family is listed under appendix II of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)  Among the 10 bio-geographic zones of India, the Himalayan zone is the richest in terms of orchid species Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.21) भारतीय ऑर्किड की पहली व्यापक जनगणना में भारतीय वानस्पतिक सर्वेक्षण (Botanical Survey of India) के अनुसार निम्नलिखित तथ्य हैं   संपूर्ण आर्किड परिवार को CITES (वन्य जीवों और वनस्पतियों की लुप्तप्राय प्रजातियों में अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार पर सम्मेलन) के परिशिष्ट II के तहत सूचीबद्ध किया गया है भारत के 10 जैव-भौगोलिक क्षेत्रों में से, हिमालयी क्षेत्र आर्किड प्रजातियों के मामले में सबसे समृद्ध है ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.22) Consider the following statements about Over the Counter (OTC) medicines in India  OTC medicines policy is formulated by Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation(CDSCO) Pain relievers, cough remedies and anti-allergens can be categorised as OTC drugs Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) भारत में ओवर द काउंटर (Over the Counter- OTC) दवाओं के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें ओटीसी दवाओं की नीति केंद्रीय औषधि मानक नियंत्रण संगठन (सीडीएससीओ) द्वारा बनाई गई है दर्द निवारक, खांसी उपचार और एंटी-एलर्जी को ओटीसी दवाओं के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जा सकता है निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) Kuril Islands are situated between Sea of Okhotsk and Pacific Ocean Sea of Japan and Pacific Ocean Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea Arctic Ocean and Bering Sea Q.23) कुरील द्वीप समूह किसके मध्य स्थित हैं ओखोटस्क सागर और प्रशांत महासागर जापान सागर और प्रशांत महासागर ओखोटस्क सागर और बेरिंग सागर  आर्कटिक महासागर और बेरिंग सागर Q.24) Which of the following statements about ASRAAM missile is incorrect? It is a high speed air-to-air missile.  It is designed as a "fire-and-forget" missile. ASRAAM is intended to detect and launch against targets at much shorter ranges. It has increased speed and range up to 50 km. Q.24) ‘ASRAAM’ मिसाइल के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है? यह तीव्र गति की हवा से हवा में मार कर सकने वाली मिसाइल है। इसे "दागो और भूल जाओ" (fire-and-forget) मिसाइल के रूप में डिज़ाइन किया गया है। ASRAAM का लक्ष्य बहुत छोटी सीमा तक लक्ष्य के पता लगाना और उसके विरुद्ध लॉन्च करना है इसमें गति उच्च तथा परास 50 किमी तक है। Q.25) Match the following  ‘Dastak Campaign’ – A) To eradicate deadly Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) disease.  ‘Utkarsh 2022’ – B) To achieve excellence in the performance of RBI’s mandates for macoeconomic development.  ‘Operation Milap’ – C) To rescue the trafficked or kidnapped person and arrests the kidnappers.  ‘Operation Sankalp’ – D) Indian Navy’s operation in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman as a measure to assure the safety and security of the Indian vessels Which of the following statements is correct? 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C  1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A  1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D Q.25) निम्नलिखित का मिलान करें ‘दस्तक अभियान’- A) घातक तीव्र इन्सेफेलाइटिस सिंड्रोम (AES) और जापानी एन्सेफलाइटिस (JE) रोग को समाप्त करने के लिए। ‘उत्कर्ष 2022 '- B) मैक्रो आर्थिक विकास के लिए आरबीआई के जनादेश के प्रदर्शन में उत्कृष्टता प्राप्त करना। ‘ऑपरेशन मिलाप’- C) तस्करी या अपहृत व्यक्ति को बचाने के लिए तथा अपहरणकर्ताओं को गिरफ्तार करने के लिए। ‘ऑपरेशन संकल्प’ - D) भारतीय नौसेना का फारस की खाड़ी और ओमान की खाड़ी में भारतीय जहाजों की सुरक्षा और रक्षा सुनिश्चित करने के उपाय के रूप में ऑपरेशन नीचे दिये गये कथनों में से कौन सही है? 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C  1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A  1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Model Tax information exchange agreements (TIEA)’ A model TIEA was developed by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). It is not a binding instrument. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) ‘मॉडल कर सूचना विनिमय समझौतों (TIEA)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। एक मॉडल TIEA को आर्थिक सहयोग और विकास संगठन (OECD) द्वारा विकसित किया गया था। यह एक बाध्यकारी समझौता नहीं है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Financial Benchmark Administrators (FBAs)’ FBA should be a company incorporated in India with a minimum net worth of Rs Ten crores at all times. FBAs control ‘significant benchmarks’ in the markets for financial instruments regulated by the RBI. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'वित्तीय बेंचमार्क प्रशासक (Financial Benchmark Administrators- FBA)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। FBA को भारत में हर समय दस करोड़ रुपये की न्यूनतम निवल संपत्ति के साथ निगमित होना चाहिए। RBI द्वारा विनियमित वित्तीय साधनों के लिए FBAs बाजारों में 'महत्वपूर्ण बेंचमार्क' को नियंत्रित करता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) ‘Puerto Williams’, which was in news recently is located in Chile  Puerto Rico Argentina New Zealand Q.28) ‘प्यूर्टो विलियम्स' (Puerto Williams), जो हाल ही में समाचारों में था, कहाँ स्थित है? चिली प्यूर्टो रिको अर्जेंटीना न्यूजीलैंड Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘GAMA Portal’. It is launched by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs. It is a portal where complaints relating to misleading advertisements can be lodged. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) 'गामा पोर्टल' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसे उपभोक्ता मामलों के मंत्रालय द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया है। यह एक पोर्टल है जहां भ्रामक विज्ञापनों से संबंधित शिकायतें दर्ज की जा सकती हैं। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) The ‘E-2020 initiative’ is associated with which of the following diseases/disorders? Non-communicable Diseases Malaria HIV/AIDS Coronavirus Q.30) ‘E-2020 पहल’ (E-2020 initiative) निम्नलिखित में से किस बीमारी / विकार से संबंधित है? गैर - संचारी रोग मलेरिया एचआईवी / एड्स कोरोनावायरस DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 3, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 1]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) From tomorrow, it will be posted between 11 AM-12 PM. The solution will be released around 8 PM Daily.  Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released around 8 PM, cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come.  You can also take part in discussion with peers.   DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH  HINDI Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to word ‘Sovereign’ as mentioned in Indian Constitution It implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation and has complete political freedom. India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state. The membership of Commonwealth of Nations limits the sovereign status of India in so far as this membership accepts the British King/Queen as the head of the Commonwealth. Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 All of the above Q.1) भारतीय संविधान में उल्लिखित शब्द 'संप्रभु' (Sovereign) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसका तात्पर्य यह है कि भारत न तो किसी अन्य देश पर निर्भर है और न ही किसी का डोमिनियन है तथा इसे पूर्ण राजनीतिक स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त है। भारत या तो विदेशी क्षेत्र का अधिग्रहण कर सकता है या किसी विदेशी राज्य के पक्ष में अपने क्षेत्र का हिस्सा दे सकता है। राष्ट्रमंडल की सदस्यता भारत की संप्रभु स्थिति को सीमित करती है, जहां यह सदस्यता ब्रिटिश राजा / रानी को राष्ट्रमंडल के प्रमुख के रूप में स्वीकार करती है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विवरण चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) Consider the following statements with respect to Secularism as practiced in India The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism. It places an equal focus on intra-religious and inter-religious domination. It allows equal disrespect for some aspects of organized religions. Choose the correct statements using the codes given below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.2) भारत में प्रचलित पंथनिरपेक्षता के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारतीय संविधान पंथनिरपेक्षता की सकारात्मक अवधारणा का प्रतीक है। यह अंतर-धार्मिक और विभिन्न धर्मों के मध्य प्रभुत्व पर समान ध्यान केंद्रित करता है। यह स्थापित धर्मों के कुछ (जड़) पहलुओं के लिए समान अनादर की अनुमति देता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Match the following features of the Indian Constitution with sources from which these have been borrowed 1.      Method of election of President a. British Constitution 2.      Idea of Justice b. Soviet Constitution 3.      Post of Vice President c. US Constitution 4.      Fundamental duties d. Irish Constitution 5.      Cabinet System Choose the correct answer using the codes below 1-d, 2-c, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5- a 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-b, 5-a Q.3) भारतीय संविधान की निम्नलिखित विशेषताओं का मिलान उन स्रोतों से करें जिनसे ये लिए गए हैं 1. राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव की विधि a. ब्रिटिश संविधान 2. न्याय का विचार b. सोवियत संविधान 3. उपराष्ट्रपति का पद c. अमेरिकी संविधान 4. मौलिक कर्तव्य d. आयरिश संविधान 5. कैबिनेट प्रणाली नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1-d, 2-c, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5- a 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-b, 5-a Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Pitt’s India Act It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. Choose the correct statement/s using the code below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसने पहली बार गवर्नर-जनरल की परिषद के विधायी और कार्यकारी कार्य को अलग किया। इसने कंपनी के वाणिज्यिक और राजनीतिक कार्यों के मध्य विभेद किया। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) Which of the following features were not a part of the Government of India Act of 1935? It provided bicameralism in provinces. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy in the provinces. It divided the powers between the Centre and provinces in terms of three lists—Federal List, Provincial List, and the Concurrent List, with the Provincial list containing the maximum number of items. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी विशेषताएं भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935 का हिस्सा नहीं थीं? इसने प्रांतों में द्विसदनीयता (bicameralism) प्रदान की। इसने प्रांतों में द्वैधशासन (dyarchy) अपनाने के लिए प्रावधान किया। इसने तीन सूचियों-संघीय सूची, प्रांतीय सूची और समवर्ती सूची के संदर्भ में केंद्र और प्रांतों के बीच शक्तियों को विभाजित किया, जिसमें प्रांतीय सूची में अधिकतम संख्या में विषय थे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly? It acted as the first Parliament of free India. It ratified India’s membership in the Bretton Woods Institution. It adopted the Objective Resolution moved by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru. Choose the correct statement/s using the code below 1 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कार्य संविधान सभा द्वारा किया गया था? इसने स्वतंत्र भारत की पहली संसद के रूप में कार्य किया। इसने ब्रेटन वुड्स संस्थान में भारत की सदस्यता की पुष्टि की। इसने पंडित जवाहर लाल नेहरू द्वारा लाए गए उद्देश्य संकल्प को अपनाया। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 Q.7) Consider the following statements Territory of India comprises territories of the states and union territories only. In 1975, Sikkim gained the status of a state after being a Union territory. President of India is the chief administrator of Union territories. Choose the correct statement/s using the code below 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारतीय क्षेत्र में राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों के क्षेत्र शामिल हैं। 1975 में, केंद्र शासित प्रदेश होने के बाद सिक्किम को एक राज्य का दर्जा मिला। भारतीय राष्ट्रपति केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों के मुख्य प्रशासक हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding states in India Providing status of a ‘State’, or taking away the status of a ‘State’, amounts to constitutional amendment under Article 368. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. The settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.8) भारत में राज्यों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें किसी को ‘राज्य’ का दर्जा प्रदान करना, या, ‘राज्य’ का दर्जा छीन लेना, अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत संवैधानिक संशोधन के अंतर्गत आता है। अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत संविधान में संशोधन करके ही भारतीय क्षेत्र को एक विदेशी राज्य के रूप में जाना जा सकता है। भारत और दूसरे देश के बीच सीमा विवाद के निपटारे के लिए संवैधानिक संशोधन की आवश्यकता नहीं है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India Children of refugees, taking birth in India are considered Indian citizens. If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, all its citizens automatically become the citizens of India. The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only All of the above Q.9) भारत में नागरिकता के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारत में जन्म लेने वाले शरणार्थियों के बच्चों को भारतीय नागरिक माना जाता है। यदि कोई विदेशी क्षेत्र भारत का हिस्सा बन जाता है, तो उसके सभी नागरिक स्वतः ही भारत के नागरिक बन जाते हैं। भारत में तैनात विदेशी राजनयिकों के बच्चे और विदेशी शत्रु जन्म से भारतीय नागरिकता हासिल नहीं कर सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.10) Consider the following statements In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no discrimination is made between them. When a person renounces his Indian citizenship, the minor child of that person does not lose his/her Indian citizenship. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारत में, चाहे वे जिस भी राज्य में पैदा हुए हों या निवास करते हों, सभी नागरिक पूरे देश में नागरिकता के समान राजनीतिक और नागरिक अधिकारों का आनंद लेते हैं तथा उनके बीच कोई भेदभाव नहीं किया जाता है। जब कोई व्यक्ति अपनी भारतीय नागरिकता का त्याग करता है, तो उस व्यक्ति का नाबालिग बच्चा अपनी भारतीय नागरिकता नहीं खोता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Consider the following statements about Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 The Act does not apply to areas under sixth schedule of the Constitution as well as those having the inner line permit regime. The act relaxes the provision of residence in India from 12 years to 6 years for the people belonging to those six religions from any country. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.11) नागरिकता संशोधन अधिनियम, 2019 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें अधिनियम संविधान की छठी अनुसूची के साथ-साथ इनर लाइन परमिट शासन वाले क्षेत्रों पर लागू नहीं होता है। यह अधिनियम भारत में किसी भी देश के उन छह धर्मों के लोगों के लिए 12 वर्ष के निवास के प्रावधान को शिथिल करके 6 वर्ष करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.12) Which of the following is not contained in any of the schedules of Indian Constitution? Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances and privileges of the Chief Election Commissioner of India. Provisions related to administration of tribal areas of Manipur. Acts of state legislatures dealing with land reforms. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 1 only 2 only 2 and 3 Q.12) निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारतीय संविधान की किसी अनुसूची में शामिल नहीं है? भारत के मुख्य चुनाव आयुक्त के पद, भत्ते और विशेषाधिकारों से संबंधित प्रावधान। मणिपुर के आदिवासी क्षेत्रों के प्रशासन से संबंधित प्रावधान। भूमि सुधारों से संबंधित राज्य विधानसभाओं के अधिनियम। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 2 और 3 Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme OCI confers political rights to the registered OCI persons. The registered OCI shall not be entitled to the rights conferred on a citizen of India under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. They have parity with Non-Resident Indians in respect of all facilities available to them in economic, financial and educational fields except in matters relating to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.13) भारत के प्रवासी नागरिक (OCI) योजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें ओसीआई, पंजीकृत ओसीआई व्यक्तियों को राजनीतिक अधिकार प्रदान करता है। पंजीकृत ओसीआई सार्वजनिक रोजगार के मामलों में अवसर की समानता के संबंध में संविधान के अनुच्छेद 16 के तहत भारत के नागरिक पर प्रदत्त अधिकारों का हकदार नहीं होगा। उनके पास कृषि या वृक्षारोपण संपत्तियों के अधिग्रहण से संबंधित मामलों को छोड़कर, आर्थिक, वित्तीय और शैक्षिक क्षेत्रों में उपलब्ध सभी सुविधाओं के संबंध में गैर-निवासी भारतीयों (NRI) के साथ समानता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Which of the following features of the Parliamentary form of government are shared by India and Britain? Sovereignty of Parliament Dual executive Collective responsibility Republican system Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 Q.14) भारत और ब्रिटेन द्वारा सरकार के संसदीय रूप की निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी विशेषताएँ साझा की जाती हैं? संसद की संप्रभुता दोहरी कार्यकारी (Dual executive) सामूहिक उत्तरदायित्व गणतंत्रवादी प्रणाली नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 4 3 और 4 Q.15) Which of the following are the reasons for the preference of Parliamentary form of government over Presidential form? Stable government Responsible government Separation of powers Wide representation Choose the correct answer using the code below 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 All of the above Q.15) राष्ट्रपति प्रणाली के स्थान पर सरकार के संसदीय स्वरूप को वरीयता देने के निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कारण हैं? स्थिर सरकार उत्तरदायी सरकार शक्तियों का पृथक्करण व्यापक प्रतिनिधित्व नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 2 और 4 1, 2 और 3 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements about Zonal councils in India There are 6 zonal councils, established via the State Reorganisation Act of 1956. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. One of the main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils is arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.16) भारत में क्षेत्रीय परिषदों (Zonal councils) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें 6 क्षेत्रीय परिषदें हैं, जो राज्य पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 1956 के माध्यम से स्थापित की गयी हैं। केंद्रीय गृह मंत्री इनमें से प्रत्येक परिषद् के अध्यक्ष होते हैं। क्षेत्रीय परिषदों की स्थापना के मुख्य उद्देश्यों में से एक तीव्र राज्य चेतना, क्षेत्रवाद, भाषावाद और विशिष्ट प्रवृत्ति की वृद्धि पर रोक लगाना है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) The Preamble reveals which of the following ingredients or components – Source of authority of the Constitution Nature of Indian State Objectives of the Constitution Date of adoption of the Constitution Choose the correct answer using the code below 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.17) प्रस्तावना से निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी सामग्री या घटक का पता चलता है - संविधान के अधिकार का स्रोत भारतीय राज्य की प्रकृति संविधान के उद्देश्य संविधान को अपनाने की तिथि नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 2 और 3 1, 3 और 4 2, 3 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.18) Which of the following are the qualifications to obtain citizenship by naturalization? He has an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. He is not a subject or citizen of any country where citizens of India are prevented from becoming subjects or citizens of that country by naturalization. He is of good character. Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.18) निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी योग्यता प्राकृतिकिकरण (naturalization) द्वारा नागरिकता प्राप्त करने की योग्यता है? उन्हें संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में निर्दिष्ट भाषा का पर्याप्त ज्ञान है। वह किसी भी ऐसे देश का विषय या नागरिक नहीं है, जहां भारत के नागरिकों को प्राकृतिक रूप से उस देश का विषय या नागरिक बनने से रोका जाता है। वह अच्छे चरित्र का है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.19) Which of the following are the conditions responsible for depriving someone of his/her Indian citizenship? Obtaining citizenship by fraud. Unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war. Booked under sedition charges (Sec124A). Choose the correct answer using the code below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.19) निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी ऐसी स्थितियाँ हैं जो किसी को उसकी भारतीय नागरिकता से वंचित करने के लिए उत्तरदायी हैं? धोखे से नागरिकता प्राप्त करना। युद्ध के दौरान शत्रु के साथ अवैध रूप से व्यापार या संचार। राजद्रोह के आरोपों (Sec124A) के तहत दर्ज (Booked) किया गया हो। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Match the following personalities with the committees of the Constituent Assembly chaired by them Committees Personality 1.       States Committee a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2.      Provincial Constitution Committee b. Dr. K.M. Munshi 3.      Rules of Procedure Committee c. Jawahar Lal Nehru 4.      Order of Business Committee d. Sardar Patel Choose the correct answer using the code below 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b Q.20) संविधान सभा की समितियों के साथ निम्नलिखित व्यक्तित्वों का मिलान उनके द्वारा किया गया                            समितियां                                   व्यक्तित्व 1. राज्यों के लिए समिति a. डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद 2. प्रांतीय संविधान समिति b. डॉ. के.एम. मुंशी 3. प्रक्रिया नियम समिति c. जवाहर लाल नेहरू 4. कार्य संचालन समिति d. सरदार पटेल नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b Q.21) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Ottan Thullal’. It is dance and poetic performance form of Kerala. It is a war dance performed in Karnataka It refers to colorful motifs done by hands in Tamil Nadu. It is a martial art of Andhra Pradesh which is similar to Silambam. Q.21) 'ओटन थुल्लल' (Ottan Thullal) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है। यह केरल का नृत्य और काव्य प्रदर्शन रूप है। यह कर्नाटक में किया जाने वाला एक युद्ध नृत्य है यह तमिलनाडु में हाथों से किए गए रंगीन रूपांकनों को संदर्भित करता है। यह आंध्र प्रदेश की एक मार्शल आर्ट है जो सिलंबम (Silambam) के समान है। Q.22) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Places in News – State Oussudu lake – Kerala Sadikpur Sinauli – Rajasthan Pari Adi mountain – Arunachal Pradesh Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 3 2 and 3 3 Only Q.22) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? समाचारों में स्थान - राज्य औसुडु झील - केरल सादिकपुर सिनौली - राजस्थान परि आदि पर्वत - अरुणाचल प्रदेश सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 3 2 और 3 केवल 3 Q.23) Which of the following countries do not open to the ‘Yellow Sea’? Japan South Korea North Korea China Q.23) निम्न में से कौन सा देश ‘पीला सागर’ (Yellow Sea) की ओर लिए नहीं खुलता है? जापान दक्षिण कोरिया उत्तर कोरिया चीन Q.24) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘Sambar Deer’? It is the state animal of Odisha It is listed as a critically endangered species on the IUCN Red List In India, it is only found along the Eastern Coast and North-East part of the country. Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 1 and 3 None of the above Q.24) ‘सांभर हिरण’ (Sambar Deer) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? यह ओडिशा का राज्य पशु है इसे IUCN रेड लिस्ट में गंभीर रूप से लुप्तप्राय () प्रजातियों के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है यह भारत में केवल पूर्वी तट और देश के उत्तर पूर्व भाग में पाया जाता है। सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 2 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.25) ‘Abhay Karandikar Panel’ which was in news recently is associated with Maharashtra Karnataka Border Dispute 5G Spectrum Feasibility of nationwide National Register of Citizenship Automobile Sector Q.25) ‘अभय करंदीकर पैनल' जो हाल ही में समाचारों में था, किससे संबद्ध है? महाराष्ट्र कर्नाटक सीमा विवाद 5 जी स्पेक्ट्रम राष्ट्रव्यापी नागरिकता के राष्ट्रीय रजिस्टर की व्यवहार्यता ऑटोमोबाइल सेक्टर Q.26) The ‘Consumer Confidence survey’ is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Reserve Bank of India Ministry of Finance Q.26) ‘उपभोक्ता विश्वास सर्वेक्षण’ (Consumer Confidence survey) किसके द्वारा आयोजित किया जाता है सांख्यिकी और कार्यक्रम कार्यान्वयन मंत्रालय उपभोक्ता मामले, खाद्य और सार्वजनिक वितरण मंत्रालय भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक वित्त मत्रांलय Q.27) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?        Places in News - Country Fujairah Port – Oman Changangkha Lhakhang – Bhutan Garzweiler – Germany Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Q.27) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? समाचारों में स्थान     -                                                  देश फुजैराह पोर्ट (Fujairah Port)             -         ओमान चंगंगख लखंग (Changangkha Lhakhang)- भूटान गार्ज़वीलर (Garzweiler)                        -         जर्मनी सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 2 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.28) Campaign 'Zero Chance' was launched concerning illegal immigration by which of the following countries? United States of America Poland Australia Hungary Q.28) निम्नलिखित में से किस देश द्वारा अभियान 'जीरो चांस' (Zero Chance) अवैध आव्रजन के संबंध में शुरू किया गया था? संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका पोलैंड ऑस्ट्रेलिया हंगरी Q.29) The term ‘Pillar III Disclosure’ is associated with Basel Committee on Banking Supervision Financial Action Task Force International Criminal Police Organization International Atomic Energy Agency Q.29) 'स्तंभ III प्रकटीकरण' (Pillar III Disclosure) शब्द किसके साथ संबद्ध है? बैंकिंग पर्यवेक्षण पर बेसल समिति वित्तीय कार्रवाई कार्य बल अंतर्राष्ट्रीय आपराधिक पुलिस संगठन अंतरराष्ट्रीय परमाणु ऊर्जा एजेंसी Q.30) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘‘Operation Sunshine-2’ It was a joint operation between India and Myanmar. It was aimed at transnational crime networks seeking to profit from wildlife smuggling activities. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) ‘ऑपरेशन सनशाइन -2’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह भारत और म्यांमार के बीच एक संयुक्त अभियान था। यह वन्यजीव तस्करी गतिविधियों से लाभ प्राप्त करने वाले अंतरराष्ट्रीय अपराध नेटवर्क को लक्षित करने के उद्देश्य से था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 3, 2020 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC IAS Daily Current Affairs Quiz Compilation – 2019-20

  Hello Friends, Continuing our effort in assisting you in revision, here we will be coming up with the Daily Current Affairs Quiz Monthly Compilation of 2019-20. Note March 2020 onward current affairs questions will be covered in 60 Days Programme (Its details will be posted soon). Previous compilations are available here- Click Here JUNE 2019 JULY 2019 AUGUST 2019 SEPTEMBER 2019 OCTOBER 2019 NOVEMBER 2019 DECEMBER 2019 JANUARY 2020 FEBRUARY 2020 P.S- Other compilations will be updated here soon. 

Mar 2, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th February 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th February 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Red Snow Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment In news: Red snow has been noticed around Ukraine’s Vernadsky Research Base, off the coast of Antarctica’s northernmost peninsula. Reason: It is the algae that give the snow its red tinge This alga species, Chlamydomonas Chlamydomonas nivalis, exists in snow in the polar and glacial regions, and carries a red pigment to keep itself warm. Impact: These algae change the snow’s albedo. Darker the tinge, the more the heat absorbed by the snow. Therefore, the red snow causes the surrounding ice to melt faster Cause of Concern: While the melt is good for the microbes that need the liquid water to survive and thrive, it’s bad for glaciers that are already melting from a myriad of other causes “Second Moon” Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Geography In news: Astronomers have observed a small object orbiting Earth- named 2020 CD3 - which they have dubbed a “mini-moon” or the planet’s “second moon”. However, it is actually an asteroid, about the size of a car with diameter about 1.9-3.5 m. Such an asteroid is called a Temporarily Captured Object (TCO) Unlike Earth’s permanent Moon, the mini-moon is temporary which will eventually break free of Earth’s orbit and go off on its own way. Explanation: When an asteroid’s orbit crosses Earth’s orbit, it can sometimes be captured into the latter orbit. This is what happened with 2020 CD3. The orbits of such objects is unstable Did You know? The previously discovered 2006 RH120 orbited Earth for some time in 2006 before it escaped in 2007 Once caught in Earth’s orbit, such objects usually remain for a few years before they break free and go into independent orbit around the Sun. IMD: Summer to be hotter than usual Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment In news: The forecast from IMD indicates that the MAM (March-May) season averaged temperatures are likely to be at least half a degree hotter than normal About Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) IMD was established in 1875. It is an agency of the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India. It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology NIA makes first arrest in Pulwama case Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Security In news: Pulwama case: Forty CRPF jawans travelling in convoy were killed by a vehicle-borne suicide attack on February 14, 2019 in Pulwana City of Jammu & Kashmir Prelims Value Addition NIA was created after the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks with the enactment of the National Investigation Agency Act 2008. NIA is the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India and it works under overall guidance of Ministry of Home Affairs Census 2021 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance, Federalism In news: Maharashtra and Bihar assembly have passed resolution seeking caste-based census for the enumeration of the OBCs in Census 2021 As of now, Registrar General & Census Commissioner of India has not accepted the request, based on following reasons: The collection of data of OBCs, SEBCs, other castes etc. will adversely affect integrity of census exercise and therefore the enumeration of OBCs, SEBCs, other castes has not been taken up in 2021 Census No Standardisation: In case, a question on OBCs is canvassed, it will return names of thousands of castes, sub-castes as the people use their clan/gotra, sub-caste, caste interchangeably thus making the caste enumeration exercise practically difficult Unlike SC & ST, there is no such constitutional mandate to provide census numbers of OBCs. The 2011 caste data, collected as part of the Socio Economic Caste Census (SECC), is yet to be released by the Centre. The last caste-based census was conducted by the British in 1931. Prelims Value addition about Census The census provides information on size, distribution and socio-economic, demographic and other characteristics of the country's population.  The first synchronous census in India was held in 1881. Since then, censuses have been undertaken uninterruptedly once every ten years. The Census 2021 will be conducted in 18 languages out of the 22 scheduled languages (under 8th schedule) and English, while Census 2011 was in 16 of the 22 scheduled languages declared at that time. For the first time in the 140 year history of census in India, data is proposed to be collected through a mobile app by enumerators The Census data would be available by the year 2024-25 as the entire process would be conducted digitally and data crunching would be quicker. 33 Turkish soldiers killed in Syria strikes Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In news: Syrian Civil War: Syrian government forces, backed by Russian air power, have launched an assault to capture the northwest Syria, the last remaining territory held by Syrian rebels backed by Turkey As a result, UN Security Council called an emergency meeting to avert open conflict between Russia and NATO member Turkey Prelims Value Addition North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the Washington Treaty of April 4, 1949, by US, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against then USSR A key provision of the treaty, the so-called Article 5, states that if one member of the alliance is attacked then it is to be considered an attack on all members.  NATO effectively put Western Europe under the "nuclear umbrella" of the US. As of 2019, there are 29 member states, with Montenegro becoming the latest member to join the alliance in 2017 [caption id="attachment_57455" align="aligncenter" width="528"] Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th February 2020[/caption] (MAINS FOCUS) International Affairs Topic: General Studies 2: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.  India’s Need for Regional bonding Context Sri Lankan Prime Minister Ranil Wickremesinghe’s participation in The Hindu’s Huddle Conclave, where he discussed on the India’s foreign policy & the need for greater regional integration. India’s recent steps India has more or less shut down all conversations on SAARC (Summit not being held since 2014) India has walked away from the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). Failure of BIMSTEC and SAARC to engender more intra-regional trade in comparison to other groupings such as ASEAN & EU. Indian government has taken a protectionist attitude on multilateral trade pacts and is relying more on direct bilateral deals with countries rather than overarching ones that might expose Indian markets to flooding by Chinese goods About South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) It was established on 8 December 1985. Its member countries are—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan (2005) The Headquarters and Secretariat of the Association are at Kathmandu, Nepal. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (2018) of the global economy. About Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration Its member countries are – Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal & Bhutan With Pakistan not being a member of organisation it was envisaged as a platform for India to speed up its regional integration process. It acts as a bridge between South and South East Asia  Important Connectivity Projects are: Kaladan Multimodal Project – links India and Myanmar. Asian Trilateral Highway - connecting India and Thailand through Myanmar. Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal (BBIN) Motor Vehicles Agreement - for seamless flow of passenger and cargo traffic. Significance of SAARC and BIMSTEC Neighbourhood first: Primacy to the country’s immediate neighbours. Geostrategic significance: Can counter China (OBOR initiative) through engaging our neighbours in development process and economic cooperation. Regional stability: These regional organisations can help in creation of mutual trust and ensure that regional interest over ride bilateral disputes Global leadership role: It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities. Game changer for India’s Act East Policy: Linking of South Asian economies with South East Asian region will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India particularly in its under-developed Eastern region Potential for India’s export: With closer economic integration of economies in the region, India’s domestic companies will get access to much bigger market thus boosting their revenues Challenges for SAARC & BIMSTEC Broad area of cooperation leads to diversion of energy and resources. Inadequate Political Will: India’s inclination towards Big powers which leads to neglecting its relationship with its neighbours Bilateral tensions, especially between India and Pakistan, spilling over into SAARC meetings. Perception of India being a Big Brother vis-à-vis its neighbours whereby India enforces its own agenda on small neighbouring countries through these groupings Slow implementation of the projects announced by India - declines India’s credibility to deliver on its promises thus pushing Nations to seek help from China or West. Rising China in the region with its overarching Belt & Road initiative (Cheque book Diplomacy of China) Suggestion made by Mr. Wickremesinghe at the conclave An even smaller sub-grouping of four countries with complementary economies: India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Thailand, to begin the process of reducing tariffs and demolishing non-tariff barrier regimes Proactive India’s leadership and more integrated South Asian region would enable India & others to negotiate for better terms with RCEP so as not to be cut out of the “productivity network” in Asia Also there is need to come up with concrete Economic Integration Road Map to speed up the process of greater cooperation & integration in regional arena Conclusion For any regional sub-grouping in South Asia to flourish, it is India that will have to make the most concessions given the vast trade deficits India’s neighbours have at present, which it may not wish to do. India needs to be more accommodative for the realisation of its ambitions. Connecting the dots ASEAN and EU – difference in structure & functioning of these regional organisation Economy Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.  India’s Economic Slowdown Context The economy grew at 4.7 per cent in the October-December quarter, down from the revised estimate of 5.1 per cent in the second quarter However, the situation is much worse than what the headline numbers suggest.  At the aggregate level, gross value added grew by 4.5% in the third quarter, down from 4.8% in the previous quarter. But excluding public administration, defence and other services, which largely connote government spending, value added by the rest of the economy grew by a mere 3.7% in the third quarter, down from 5.2% in the same quarter last year Growth thus continues to be propped up by higher government spending. Manufacturing sector has seen contraction (negative growth) for two consecutive quarters For the full year, manufacturing sector is expected to grow barely at 1%, down from 5.7% in the last year. Construction activity also slowed down reflecting the continued dismal performance of the real estate sector. Gross fixed capital formation, which represents investment in the economy, has now contracted for two straight quarters NSO now expects investments to contract by 0.6% in 2019-20, after growing by 9.8 per cent in the previous year,  Future Bright Prospects Gross value added is expected to pick up to 5 per cent in the fourth quarter, up from 4.5 per cent in the third quarte Data of the eight core sectors have grown for two consecutive months. National statistics office thus believes that the economy has bottomed out and an upward trend is likely in coming quarters Capital investments announced by government (National Infrastructure Pipeline) will kickstart private sector and start yielding results in medium to long term The structural changes brought in economy through Insolvency & Bankruptcy code, GST and JAM trinity (Financial Inclusion) will enable formalisation of the economy in the long run.  Downside risks The Centre’s revenues may well fall short of the revised estimates. This may impinge on its ability to maintain its spending at current levels in the fourth quarter. The full impact of the coronavirus is yet to play out. Economic activity in February and March is likely to be impacted directly and indirectly, depending on the duration and intensity of its spread. Disruptions in supply chains and lower external demand due to trade tensions of USA with China & others, may further add to domestic issues. Conclusion One of the reasons for current slowdown has been the weak demand in the country especially from rural sector. Thus, government should try to increase disposable incomes (through schemes like MGNREGA) in the hands of people which will revive the growth in economy. Connecting the dots Impact of Coronavirus on world markets Multilateral trade deals during weak domestic economic situation – prospects & dangers (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA) It is a statutory body which functions as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India   it works under overall guidance of Ministry of Defence Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Red Snow The presence of algae that carries red pigment gives the red colour to snow. The algae changes the albedo of the snow, which makes the melting of ice slower. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about 2020 CD3 It has been dubbed by the astronomers as Earth’s “Mini Moon” or “Second Moon” Unlike Earth’s permanent Moon, 2020 CD3 is temporary that will eventually break free of Earth’s orbit and go off on its own way. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology in India It is an agency of the Ministry of Science & Technology Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 28 FEB 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 B 3 A 4 D Must Read About Sri Lanka’s Post war recovery : The Hindu About US elections : The Hindu About Cough Syrup poisoning:  The Hindu