Mar 20, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force Part of: GS Prelims In News: To deal with the economic challenges caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, ‘COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force’ will be created It will be headed by Union Finance Minister. The Task Force will consult stakeholders, take feedback, on the basis of which decisions will be taken to meet the challenges. Electricity Production Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: As per the latest world energy statistics published by the IEA in 2019, India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India also ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017.  The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the OECD in 1974 Abel Prize Part of: GS Prelims In News: Abel prize was established by the Norwegian government in 2002 on the occasion of the 200th anniversary of Neil Henrick’s birth (Norwegian Mathematician) The purpose is to award the Abel Prize for outstanding scientific work in the field of mathematics. GreenCo Rating System Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment Conservation In News: GreenCo Rating, developed by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), has been acknowledged in India's Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) document, submitted UNFCCC in 2015 It is being used as a proactive voluntary action of Indian industry / private sector towards combating climate change. The GreenCo rating assesses the firms on their environmental performance and thus aligns them to national priorities towards environment such as energy efficiency, water conservation, renewable energy, waste management, etc Puri Jagannath Temple Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In News: The Jagannath Temple in Puri was called the “White Pagoda”. The temple is a part of Char Dham (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram) pilgrimages that a Hindu is expected to make in one’s lifetime. When most of the deities in the temples of India are made of stone or metal, the idol of Jagannatha is made of wood which is ceremoniously replaced in every twelve or nineteen years by using sacred trees. The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Jagannath Puri temple is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. New definition of MSMEs soon Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: The government would come out with a new definition of MSMEs, which are currently defined on the basis of investment in plant and machinery Government has accepted 39 suggestions by the U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI, including the setting up a “fund of funds” for MSME sector.  The MSME sector currently contributed 24% of the GDP growth and 48% of exports, with an annual turnover of ₹1 lakh crore in FY20. Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Bill, 2020 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The bill accords the Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda at Jamnagar, Gujarat, the status of ‘institution of national importance’ by clubbing the cluster of ayurveda institutes at the Gujarat Ayurveda University campus in Jamnagar. The three institutes (in Jamnagar) which would be a part of the proposed conglomeration are  The Institute of Post Graduate Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Gulabkunwerba Ayurveda Mahavidyalaya  The Institute of Ayurveda Pharmaceutical Sciences. The objective of the institute will be the promotion of quality and excellence in education, research and training in Ayurveda and allied disciplines LiDAR Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: In simple terms, LiDAR stands for light detection and ranging.  It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  These light pulses – when combined with other data, generate accurate, high-resolution three-dimensional information of the object. This technology is mostly used for ground-based surveys. LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Apart from aerial surveys, the LiDAR sensor is the most important component in self-driving cars. The LiDAR sensor provides continuous 360 degrees of visibility and accurate depth information. Challenges with LiDAR LiDAR can measure the distance to surrounding objects up to 5 meters away, but won’t fare well in identifying objects in the vicinity. Also, it can’t perform well in fog, rain, snow and dusty weather.  LiDAR also struggles to detect a glass wall or door, which is why smartphone manufacturers and self-driving cars makers use LiDAR along with secondary cameras and sensors. Do You Know? Sonar (short for sound navigation and ranging) relies on sound waves to detect objects and hence is usually used to detect objects underwater. Meanwhile, Radar (short for radio detection and ranging) uses radio waves to determine an object’s distance or range. Radio waves can work over a long distance and perform better in dusty conditions. Windrush Scandal Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: The British government apologised for Windrush scandal i.e. its treatment of Britons of Caribbean origin, who were wrongly detained or deported for being illegal immigrants Windrush generation refers to migrants from the Caribbean Commonwealth who had come to the U.K. at a time when they had the right to remain indefinitely in Britain, but had had their rights questioned under a toughened immigration regime. The Windrush generation is named after one of the many vessels that ferried some half a million people from the Caribbean islands to the U.K. in the late 1940s.  (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.  Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth Context: The Madras High Court is to decide on whether the recommendations made by such panels are binding upon the state A Brief Background In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.  The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.  Therefore, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States. These institutions can be considered as “fourth branch institutions” (similar to how other institutions like ECI, CAG, CIC which perform vital functions of Constitution) HRCs was established in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris (October, 1991) and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations on 20 December, 1993. Functions and Powers of NHRC/SHRC They are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative. While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.  Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government  to grant compensation to the victim  to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities,  to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps.  Furthermore, Section 18 of the Human Rights Act also obligates the concerned government to “forward its comments on the report, including the action taken or proposed to be taken thereon, to the Commission”, within a period of one month. Criticism of NHRC/SHRCs Politicisation of autonomous bodies The Human Rights Commissions are toothless: The word “recommend” in Section 18 of the act has been interpreted till now as only advisory in nature and not binding on the government. Thus, the government left free to disobey or even disregard their findings. If the state was left free to obey or disobey the findings of the Commission, then the constitutional role of NHRC/SHRC would be effectively pointless (effectively, the state judging itself) NHRC does not have any mechanism of investigation. In majority cases, it asks the concerned Central and State Governments to investigate the cases of the violation of Human Rights Inadequacy of funds hamper the working of these bodies. A large number of grievances go unaddressed because NHRC cannot investigate the complaint registered after one year of incident. National Human Rights Commission powers related to violations of human rights by the armed forces have been largely restricted. A case for making the recommendations & reports of HRCs binding on government In the past, courts have invoked constitutional purpose to determine the powers of various fourth branch institutions in cases of ambiguity The Supreme Court laid down detailed guidelines to ensure the independence of the Central Bureau of Investigation Various judgments have endorsed and strengthened the powers of the Election Commission to compulsorily obtain relevant details of candidates, despite having no express power to do so. Very recently, the Supreme Court held in the context of “opinions” rendered by the Foreigners Tribunals, held that these “opinions” were binding. The Human Rights Commission has the powers of a civil court, and proceedings before it are deemed to be judicial proceedings.  This provides strong reasons for its findings to be treated — at the very least — as quasi-judicial, and binding upon the state (unless challenged) Conclusion The requirement of state accountability in a democracy committed to a ‘culture of justification’ — strongly indicates that the Commission’s recommendations should be binding upon the state Connecting the dots: National Commission on Scheduled Castes (NCSC)/ National Commission on Scheduled Tribes/ National Commission on Backward Classes - are their recommendations binding? Tribunalisation of Judiciary Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Disqualification under Tenth Schedule Context: In a first, the Supreme Court removed Manipur Minister Thounaojam Shyamkumar Singh, against whom disqualification petitions were pending before the Speaker since 2017 Further, the court restrained him “from entering the Legislative Assembly till further orders”. Brief Background of the case The concerned person had become an MLA in 2017 on a Congress ticket before switching to the BJP to become Minister in Manipur State Government. A disqualification petition against the minister was pending before the Speaker since 2017 but the Speaker failed to take the decision within a reasonable time period.  On 21st January 2020, a three-judge Supreme Court Bench had asked the Speaker of Manipur Legislative Assembly to decide the disqualification (under Tenth Schedule) petitions of the concerned MLA within four weeks. It also gave other pronouncements (discussed below) Supreme Court invoked its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to remove the minister from the Cabinet. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution and was enacted by Parliament Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985.  Legislators used to change parties frequently bringing in Political Instability and was also considered as betraying the mandate of voters (who voted for the legislator considering his political party) The purpose of 10th Schedule is to curb political defection by the legislators.  There are two grounds on which a member of a legislature can be disqualified. One, if the member voluntarily gives up the membership of the party Second, if a legislator votes in the House against the direction of his party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days  However, there is an exception – if there is a merger between two political parties and two-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger, they will not be disqualified. The Presiding officer of the House (Speaker/Chairman) is the adjudicating authority with regard to disqualification of legislators under the Tenth Schedule. Criticism of the anti-defection Law Curbs the freedom of speech & expression of law makers Tyranny of Political Parties: Legislators have to abide by the line taken by Political parties even it is against their own stand or against the interest of her constituency Role of the Speaker is biased: Speaker who is a member of a political party is often not neutral and comes under the influence of his political party instead of deciding the cases on merit Delay in decision making: several presiding officers have allowed defectors to bolster the strength of ruling parties and even be sworn in Ministers by merely refraining from adjudicating on complaints against them Supreme Court Judgement in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) case:  Five Judge Bench of SC upheld the validity of the Constitution’s Tenth Schedule. It was also held in this case that a Speaker or a Chairman, acting Tenth Schedule, is a Tribunal and thus his discretionary powers were protected by Constitution. (Dissenting view by Justice JS Verma  questioned the fairness of speaker in adjudication) This verdict had also made the Speaker’s order subject to judicial review on limited grounds and that mere procedural infirmities could not prompt judicial intervention. It was also held that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman.  Supreme Court in its 21st Jan 2020 order gave the following pronouncements Reasonable Time period for deciding on Disqualification Unless there were “exceptional circumstances”, disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule should be decided by Speakers within three months  Failure to deliver decision by Speaker within a reasonable time period will entail the court to intervene in the disqualification matter (as has happened now in this case) Suggested an Independent Body  SC asked the Parliament to consider having an independent and permanent body to decide disqualification petition, which requires an amendment to the constitution. Given the fact that a Speaker belongs to a particular political party, the Court mooted this idea Also, Speaker wasn’t adjudicating election disputes or disqualification of members under Articles 103/ 192/ 329 for good reason, because their fairness could be suspected. Way Forward: The Constitution is called a living document because of its ability to grow and change with time and circumstances. Clearly, the Tenth Schedule has fallen short in fulfilling its objective of preventing defections and needs a relook. Parliament must fix this flaw and institute a tribunal recognising the significance of anti-defection provisions in upholding the sanctity of Parliament. Connecting the dots: Speakers role in deciding whether the bill is money bill or not Britain’s model of Speaker’s post (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements  India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about LiDAR It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI dealt with which of the following sector? Digital Payments Retail Payments MSME Sector None of the above Q 4. Windrush Scandal seen in news is related to which of the following country? United States of America Britain India Canada Q 5. Consider the following statements about Puri Jagannath Temple The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 19 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  and SAARC The Hindu President Ram Nath Kovind about COVID-19: The Hindu

Mar 20, 2020 AIR

Women and Wildlife Conservation - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

ARCHIVES Women and Wildlife Conservation Search 2nd March 2020 here: http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx TOPIC: General Studies 3 Environment and Conservation; Climate Change Women and Climate change Gender is a key component in shaping attitudes about conservation, and lack of attention to gender differences in perceptions can work against the aims of community-based conservation actions and initiatives.  Women play an integral role in conservation, with countless pioneering female conservationists working globally to save endangered wildlife. Women need to be equally and actively involved in processes to conserve and sustainably use biodiversity because they play critical roles as primary land managers and resource users, and they face disproportionate impacts both from biodiversity loss and gender-blind conservation measures. The Issue Rural women's engagement as farmers or gatherers of non-timber forest products place them in the front line in terms of their knowledge of the physical environment and natural resources and potential threats to their sustainability.  For example, while women in many countries are increasingly taking on responsibility for managing small-scale agriculture, they do not have an equivalent voice in decision-making related to land use, nor equal access to needed resources. Biodiversity loss also poses a disproportionate burden for women and girls by increasing the time required to obtain necessary resources such as water, fuel wood, and medicinal plants, which reduces the time they can spend on income generating activities and education. Beyond equity, enabling women’s full engagement in biodiversity decisions is critical to ensure that biodiversity conservation and sustainable use efforts are successful in the long term. Without the contributions and buy-in of women and girls, these efforts risk overlooking the root causes of biodiversity loss, as well as potential solutions, and may continue to perpetuate gender inequalities.    The challenge of excluding women from Wildlife Conservation The connections between gender and wildlife use are diverse and depend on particular economic, cultural and ethnic contexts. But women may not participate in conservation activities either because they are excluded from doing so by vested interests or because they do not feel empowered to speak out in their cultural contexts. This lack of understanding is highly problematic for conservation projects. Also, women’s productive and reproductive unpaid work and their participation in decision-making have a direct impact in wildlife use by:  1) Making male labour available to hunt or fish at times when seasonal demand for labour in agriculture peaks and  2) Reducing monetary cost of family reproduction and generating alternative sources of income and supporting food production, all which might reduce pressure on wildlife.  Women’s particular roles and responsibilities within the household, community, and society lead women to develop unique knowledge related to biodiversity, shaped by their specific needs and priorities. They are thereby in a unique position to bring different perspectives and new solutions to addressing biodiversity concerns. The other side Today, women around the world are changing the trajectory of conservation. As the fate of so many species and habitats hangs in the balance, women are rising to meet global challenges through collaboration, compassion, and courage. Research shows that conservation projects achieve better results when they involve women in decision-making. Yet, obstacles such as gender bias, discrimination, harassment, inequity in pay, cultural constraints, and violence remain prevalent. The overarching and adverse impacts of these gender-related challenges are only recently being studied and more openly spoken about in the conservation realm. Although women are professionally expanding their presence in conservation, they are often underrepresented in higher positions of leadership across the conservation world. In local communities, women tend to have limited influence around management of natural resources and protected areas. And in science, less than 30 percent of the world’s researchers are women, and those women are publishing less and getting paid less. Yet, women across the world are underrepresented in decision-making positions related to environmental and sustainable development issues. Women also fall well behind men in achieving paid employment in natural resource management sectors – notably agriculture, fisheries, and forestry – in both developing and developed countries. Furthermore, according to the OECD’s Social Institutions & Gender Index, laws or customary practices of around 102 countries still restrict women’s rights to access land. Without equal access to land and other key resources, women’s opportunities and capacity to play an active role in biodiversity conservation is severely limited.    The Way Forward Measures are necessary to increase the representation of women in decision-making roles related to biodiversity and environmental governance at all levels. We need to mitigate both cultural and logistical barriers to allow women to voice their needs, knowledge, priorities, and solutions in relation to sustainable development – at the same level as men.  Equal rights and access to ownership and control over land are also critically important for women across the world, as reflected in the Sustainable Development Goals (targets 1.4, 2.3, 5.a).   We must allocate our attention and resources to the local level, to ensure that projects and programmes are implemented in ways that address gender issues.  We need to spread awareness among women and girls of proposed biodiversity-related actions that affect them, and we must build their knowledge about their rights and about their options for contributing to shaping those actions. We also have to ignite the full engagement and support of men and boys to enable empowered participation of women and girls in biodiversity conservation. It is critical that men and boys understand and support measures for women’s empowerment, to ensure that these measures will be accepted in the community. An inclusive approach would also contribute to addressing the root causes of inequalities, through creating awareness and promoting long-term beneficial action.  

Mar 20, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 17]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 17 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) CAR-T is a personalized form of treatment for –  AIDS Tuberculosis Sickle cell anaemia Cancer Q.1) CAR-T किसके उपचार का एक व्यक्तिगत रूप है - एड्स यक्ष्मा सिकल सेल एनीमिया कैंसर Q.2) Which country has recently approved 1st human – animal embryo experiment? China  USA Japan  France Q.2) किस देश ने हाल ही में पहले मानव-पशु भ्रूण प्रयोग को मंजूरी दी है? चीन अमेरीका जापान फ्रांस Q.3) Which of the following benefit can come out of our understanding of human genome sequence? Genetic disorders like cystic fibrosis or sickle cell anaemia can be identified. Personalised medication can be prescribed. Treatments for common cancers can be developed. Select the correct option using the codes given below 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the above Q.3) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा लाभ मानव जीनोम अनुक्रम (human genome sequence) की हमारी समझ से सामने आ सकता है? सिस्टिक फाइब्रोसिस या सिकल सेल एनीमिया जैसे आनुवंशिक विकारों की पहचान की जा सकती है। वैयक्तिकृत दवा निर्धारित की जा सकती है। सामान्य कैंसर के उपचार विकसित किए जा सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विकल्प का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Gene Drive Technology – It alters the rules of inheritance from parent to offspring. Vector borne diseases can be controlled using the technology. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) जीन चालित तकनीक (Gene Drive Technology) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह माता-पिता से संतानों को विरासत के नियमों को बदल सकता है। तकनीक के उपयोग से वेक्टर जनित रोगों को नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विकल्प चुनें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding National Stem Cell Registry – It comes under the ageis of Department of Science and Technology. A person enrolling for Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana will be automatically enrolled in National Stem Cell Registry. It will help in treating patients with blood-related disorders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only  2 and 3 only 3 only  All of the above Q.5) राष्ट्रीय स्टेम सेल रजिस्ट्री (National Stem Cell Registry) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग के अंतर्गत आता है। प्रधान मंत्री जन आरोग्य योजना के लिए नामांकन करने वाला व्यक्ति स्वतः ही राष्ट्रीय स्टेम सेल रजिस्ट्री में नामांकित हो जाएगा। यह रक्त से संबंधित विकारों के रोगियों का इलाज करने में मदद करेगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Which of the following is incorrect regarding Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR;) Act, 2001? A farmer can produce using any seed protected under the act. Seed Producers will have exclusive rights against the protected variety and criminal remedy in case of infringement of rights. Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the act for conducting an experiment or research. There is provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety. Q.6) पौधों की किस्मों और किसानों के अधिकारों का संरक्षण (PPV & FR) अधिनियम, 2001 के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन गलत है? एक किसान अधिनियम के तहत संरक्षित किसी भी बीज का उपयोग कर उत्पादन कर सकता है। बीज उत्पादकों के पास अधिकारों के उल्लंघन के मामले में संरक्षित विविधता और आपराधिक उपाय के विरुद्ध विशेष अधिकार होंगे। शोधकर्ता किसी भी पंजीकृत किस्म का प्रयोग या अनुसंधान करने के लिए अधिनियम के तहत उपयोग कर सकता है। किसानों को किस्मों के गैर-प्रदर्शन के लिए मुआवजे का प्रावधान है। Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to 3–Parent Baby? This technology will protect children from all genetic diseases. It involves gene editing of nuclear DNA of biological mother. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.7) 3-पैरेंट बेबी ( 3–Parent Baby) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? यह तकनीक बच्चों को सभी आनुवांशिक बीमारियों से बचाएगा। इसमें जैविक मां के नाभिक डीएनए का जीन संपादन (gene editing) शामिल है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.8) Which of the following can be considered as a case of allograft? Heart transplant among identical twins. Bone marrow transplant from one cousin to another. Transplants of skin from mother to daughter. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  2 only 2 and 3 only  All of the above Q.8) निम्नलिखित में से किसे एलॉग्राफ़्ट (allograft) का मामला माना जा सकता है? समान जुड़वाँ बच्चों में ह्रदय का प्रत्यारोपण। अस्थि मज्जा का एक चचेरा भाई से दूसरे में प्रत्यारोपण। माँ से बेटी में त्वचा के प्रत्यारोपण। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding DNA Data storage technology –  The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 advocates to legalise its use. It involves the use of DNA to store data as alternate data storage to binary data storage History of genetic disorder in human beings can be traced using this technology. Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only Q.9) डीएनए डेटा संग्रहण तकनीक (DNA Data storage technology) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - व्यक्तिगत डेटा संरक्षण बिल, 2018 इसके उपयोग को वैध बनाने की वकालत करता है। इसमें द्विआधारी (बाइनरी) डेटा संग्रहण के लिए वैकल्पिक डेटा संग्रहण के रूप में डेटा को स्टोर करने के लिए डीएनए का उपयोग शामिल है इस तकनीक का उपयोग करके मानव में आनुवंशिक विकार के इतिहास का पता लगाया जा सकता है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 3 Q.10) Consider the following statements: Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells can be used to treat blood disease like thalassaemia, sickle-cell anaemia and haemophilia. Meristematic Tissue show totipotency in plant tissue culture. Rice was the first crop to be genome sequenced Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the above Q.10) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्रेरित प्लुरिपोटेंट स्टेम सेल (Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells)  का उपयोग रक्त की बीमारी जैसे थैलेसीमिया, सिकल सेल एनीमिया और हीमोफिलिया के इलाज के लिए किया जा सकता है। मेरिस्टेमेटिक ऊतक (Meristematic Tissue) पौधे के उत्तक संवर्धन में टोटीपोटेंसी (totipotency) को दर्शाता है। चावल जीनोम अनुक्रम (genome sequenced) होने वाली पहली फसल थी ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding ‘IndiGen Initiative’ – It is the 1st of its kind whole genome sequencing of Indians. It will enable genetic epidemiology of diseases. Genome sequencing of 1,00,000 Indians were done covering all states and ethnicities. It was carried out by Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine (InStem) in association with IIT Delhi.  Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.11) इंडिजेन पहल (IndiGen Initiative) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह भारतीयों का इस तरह की पहला संपूर्ण जीनोम अनुक्रमण है। यह रोगों के आनुवंशिक व्यापक रोग-विज्ञान (epidemiology) को सक्षम करेगा। सभी राज्यों और नस्लों को कवर करते हुए 1,00,000 भारतीयों की जीनोम अनुक्रमण किया गया था। इसे आईआईटी दिल्ली के सहयोग से स्टेम सेल विज्ञान और पुनर्योजी चिकित्सा के लिए संस्थान (InStem) द्वारा किया गया था। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to artificial leaf – Artificial leaf is a lab-grown leaf using Recombinant DNA technology. It absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and converts it into fuel. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.12) कृत्रिम पत्ती (artificial leaf) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - कृत्रिम पत्ती, पुनःसंयोजक डीएनए तकनीक का उपयोग करके एक प्रयोगशाला में विकसित पत्ती है। यह हवा से कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड को अवशोषित करती है तथा इसे ईंधन में परिवर्तित करती है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Scuba Rice that is often seen in news relates to which of the following? Flood-resistant rice Rice fortified with Vitamin A Another name for seaweed Pest-resistant rice Q.13) स्कूबा चावल (Scuba Rice) जो अक्सर समाचारों में देखा जाता है, निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? बाढ़-प्रतिरोधी चावल विटामिन ए के साथ संवर्धित चावल समुद्री शैवाल (seaweed) के लिए एक अन्य नाम कीट-प्रतिरोधी चावल Q.14) CCR5-delta 32, recently in news, is related to which of the following? Gene editing Proton therapy Genetic mutation  Organ transplantation Q.14) CCR5-डेल्टा 32 (CCR5-delta 32), हाल ही में समाचार में था, निम्नलिखित में से किस से संबंधित है? जीन संपादन (Gene editing) प्रोटॉन चिकित्सा आनुवंशिक उत्परिवर्तन अंग प्रत्यारोपण Q.15) Consider the following statements about the Earth Bio Genome Project: It aims to sequence the genomes of all of earth’s currently described eukaryotic biodiversity.  It is an open source DNA database. It is funded by Global Environment Facility and supported by host of organisations like World Bank and IUCN.   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) पृथ्वी जैव जीनोम परियोजना (Earth Bio Genome Project) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसका उद्देश्य पृथ्वी के वर्तमान में वर्णित यूकेरियोटिक जैव विविधता वाले सभी जीनों को अनुक्रमित करना है। यह एक ओपन सोर्स डीएनए डेटाबेस है। यह वैश्विक पर्यावरण सुविधा द्वारा वित्त पोषित है तथा विश्व बैंक और आईयूसीएन जैसे संगठनों द्वारा समर्थित है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the IndOBIS? It aims to sequence the genomes of all marine mammal species in the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.  It is partly funded by the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats.  It is the joint initiative of Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change, Earth Bio-Genome Project and IUCN. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Q.16) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन इंडओबिस (IndOBIS) के बारे में सही है / हैं? इसका उद्देश्य अरब सागर, बंगाल की खाड़ी और हिंद महासागर में सभी समुद्री स्तनपायी प्रजातियों के जीनोम को अनुक्रमित करना है। यह आंशिक रूप से वन्यजीव आवासों के एकीकृत विकास के अंतर्गत रिकवरी कार्यक्रम द्वारा वित्त पोषित है। यह पर्यावरण वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय, पृथ्वी जैव-जीनोम परियोजना और आईयूसीएन की संयुक्त पहल है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) Consider the following statements: DNA finger printing is the process of determining an individual's DNA characteristics, which are as unique as fingerprints. DNA barcoding is a process to identify a species rather than an individual. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: डीएनए फिंगर प्रिंटिंग एक व्यक्ति की डीएनए विशेषताओं को निर्धारित करने की प्रक्रिया है, जो उँगलियों के निशान की तरह अद्वितीय हैं। डीएनए बारकोडिंग एक व्यक्ति के बजाय एक प्रजाति की पहचान करने की एक प्रक्रिया है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) ‘Mitochondrial Eve’, recently seen in news, relates to which of the following? Genetic disease due to mutation in mitochondrial genes. Technology used to produce a three parent babies. Common female ancestor from which all humans trace their descent. Genetic changes taking place in mitochondria when females hit menopause. Q.18) ‘माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल ईव' (Mitochondrial Eve), हाल ही में समाचार में देखा गया है, निम्न में से किससे संबंधित है? माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल जीन में उत्परिवर्तन के कारण आनुवंशिक रोग से। एक थ्री पैरेंट बेबी के उत्पादन में प्रयोग की जाने वाली प्रौद्योगिकी से। सामान्य महिला पूर्वज, जिससे सभी मनुष्य अपने वंश का पता लगाते हैं। माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया में होने वाले आनुवंशिक परिवर्तन, जब महिलाएं रजोनिवृत्ति से होती हैं। Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Artificial blood’ –  It performs the function of RBC and platelets but not that of WBC and plasma. Personalised development of artificial blood, making transfusion safe, has been done for the first time in United States recently. It can be used to remove infection in cases of Ebola, SARS etc Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only All of the above None of the above Q.19) 'कृत्रिम रक्त' (Artificial blood) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह आरबीसी और प्लेटलेट्स का कार्य करता है लेकिन डब्ल्यूबीसी और प्लाज्मा का नहीं। कृत्रिम रक्त का व्यक्तिगत विकास, रक्त-आधान (transfusion) को सुरक्षित बनाते हुए, हाल ही में संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में पहली बार किया गया है। इसका उपयोग इबोला, सार्स (SARS) आदि के मामलों में संक्रमण को दूर करने के लिए किया जा सकता है सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2  उपरोक्त सभी इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.20) Consider the following statements –  MANAV: Human Atlas Initiative is a project to construct a comprehensive map of every tissue of the human body. National genomic grid will facilitate sharing of data on new genome research among government and private institutions.  Import of human embryo is completely prohibited in India.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only All of the above  None of the above  Q.20) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - मानव (MANAV): मानव एटलस पहल मानव शरीर के प्रत्येक ऊतक का एक व्यापक मानचित्र बनाने की एक परियोजना है। राष्ट्रीय जीनोमिक ग्रिड सरकारी और निजी संस्थानों के बीच नए जीनोम अनुसंधान पर डेटा साझा करने की सुविधा प्रदान करेगा। भारत में मानव भ्रूण का आयात पूरी तरह से प्रतिबंधित है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 उपरोक्त सभी इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.21) India’s first international Women's Trade Centre (iWTC) is established in which of following State/UT? Kerala Maharashtra  Delhi Gujarat Q.21) भारत का पहला अंतर्राष्ट्रीय महिला व्यापार केंद्र (iWTC) निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य / केन्द्र शासित प्रदेश में स्थापित किया गया है? केरल महाराष्ट्र दिल्ली गुजरात Q.22) The term ‘51 Pegasi b’ sometimes seen in news in the context of  Cyber Attacks Solar Mission Artificial Intelligence  Exoplanet discovery Q.22) ‘51 पेगासी b’ (51 Pegasi b) शब्द कभी-कभी समाचार में किसके संदर्भ में देखा जाता है साइबर हमले सौर मिशन कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता  बाह्य ग्रह खोज (Exoplanet discovery) Q.23) Consider the following statements: The Article 131 of the Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.   Constitution authorises the President of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.23) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: संविधान का अनुच्छेद 131 दिल्ली को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की सीट घोषित करता है। संविधान भारत के राष्ट्रपति को अन्य स्थान या स्थानों को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की सीट के रूप में नियुक्त करने के लिए अधिकृत करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.24) Keeladi is an urban settlement of Sangam Age on the banks of which of the following river? Cauvery Vaigai Pennar Ponnaiyar Q.24) कीलाडी (Keeladi) निम्न नदी के तट पर संगम युग की एक नगरीय बस्ती थी? कावेरी वैगई पेन्नार पोन्नियर Q.25) Consider the following statements about Debug Fresno Project: Under the project, male anopheles mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia are released into the environment.  It uses the approach called Sterile Insect Technique (SIT). It was undertaken in African countries affected by malaria. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.25) डिबग फ्रेस्नो प्रोजेक्ट (Debug Fresno Project) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: परियोजना के तहत, वुलबैचिया (Wolbachia) ले जाने वाले नर एनोफिलिज मच्छरों को पर्यावरण में छोड़ा जाता है। यह Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) नामक दृष्टिकोण का उपयोग करता है। यह मलेरिया से प्रभावित अफ्रीकी देशों में किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Black softshell turtle’. It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. In India it can generally be found in Assam. Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'काले मुलायम कवच वाले कछुए' (Black softshell turtle) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसे IUCN रेड लिस्ट के तहत ‘गंभीर रूप से लुप्तप्राय’ के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है। भारत में यह आम तौर पर असम में पाया जा सकता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) ‘Ambergris’, is a term associated with Olive Ridley Turtles Sperm Whales Indian Pangolins Red Sanders Q.27) ‘एम्बरग्रीस’ (Ambergris), शब्द किससे संबंधित है ऑलिव रिडले कछुए शुक्राणु व्हेल (Sperm Whales) भारतीय पैंगोलिन लाल चंदन (Red Sanders) Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Thylacine’. Fossilised remains of thylacines have been found across the Indus Valley Civilization sites. It was once the world’s largest marsupial carnivore. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) 'थाइलैसिन' (Thylacine) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के स्थलों में थायलैसीन के जीवाश्म अवशेष पाए गए हैं। यह कभी विश्व का सबसे बड़ा दलदली मांसाहारी था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) Which of the following is associated with Arunachal Pradesh? Solung Festival River Sisseri Chapchar Kut Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्नलिखित में से कौन अरुणाचल प्रदेश से संबंधित है? सोलंग महोत्सव सिसरी नदी चापचर कुट सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) ‘Hershey-Chase experiment’ was in news recently. It is concerned with? Deoxyribonucleic Acid Antiretroviral Therapy Reverse Osmosis None of the above Q.30) ‘हर्षे-चेज़ प्रयोग' (Hershey-Chase experiment) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। इसका किससे संबंध है? डिऑक्सीराइबोन्यूक्लिक अम्ल एंटीरेट्रोवाइरल उपचार रिवर्स ऑस्मोसिस इनमें से कोई भी नहीं DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 20, 2020 Yojana

IAS UPSC YOJANA & KURUKSHETRA Magazine ‘FEBRUARY’ 2020

Archives Hello Friends, Here we are with the FEBRUARY 2020, edition of Yojana and Kurukshetra. Yojana/Kurukshetra: FEBRUARY 2020 – Download Download Mind Maps - Click here Click here Click here

Mar 19, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) State Human Rights Commission Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Rajasthan SHRC recommends meditation to fight COVID-19 The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of State Human Rights Commission at the state level.  A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects covered under state list and concurrent list in the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution The Governor of the state appoints the chairperson and other members on the recommendations of a committee consisting of   Chief Minister as its head  Speaker of the Legislative Assembly The state home minister  The leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly  In case the state has legislative council- The chairman and the leader of the opposition of legislative council would also be the members of the committee The chairman or any other member is removable by the President on the charge of proved misbehavior or incapacity after a regular inquiry by a judge of the Supreme Court. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) puts contingency plans in place to fight COVID-19 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Disaster Management In News: NDRF was established in 2006 under The Disaster Management Act, 2005  It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world It works under National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) which lays down policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management. Capabilities for undertaking disaster response, prevention, mitigation and capacity building At present there are 12 battalions in NDRF (three each from the BSF and CRPF and two each from CISF, ITBP and SSB) which are deployed strategically across country to provide immediate response. All battalions have been equipped and trained to respond natural and man-made disasters including chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear (CBRN) emergencies. Rehabilitation of Beggars Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society  In News: The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is exploring the possibilities of a scheme for persons engaged in the act of begging. The Scheme would cover identification, rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development with the support of State governments & NGOs. The Ministry provides funds to the National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) for skill development programmes for beggars About NBCFDC NBCFDC is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It was incorporated under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 on 13th January 1992 as a Company not for profit. Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures. Ibuprofen Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- health In News: WHO advised patients suffering from COVID-19-like symptoms to avoid the drug ibuprofen, unless prescribed by doctors. It is an anti-inflammatory drug that is easily available with chemists in India, and can be purchased without a doctor’s prescription.  Ibuprofen, a non-steroid, is used for relief from joint pain, migraine, fever, body ache, and even pain during the menstrual cycle.  Its function is to reduce pain, swelling, and fever by suppressing substances that produce swelling in the body.  Other non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs include aspirin, cortisone, naproxen and diclofenac. The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha The Bill seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and provides for a medical education system to ensure availability of quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Key features of the bill are: The Bill provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM).  The NCISM will consist of 29 members, appointed by the central government.  Functions of the NCISM include:  Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine of the regulations made under the Bill Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards set up under the Bill. Autonomous Boards: The bill sets the following boards under supervision of NCISM The Board of Ayurveda and the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa The Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine: The Ethics and Medical Registration Board:  The central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine.  The Council will be the primary platform through which the states/union territories can put forth their views and concerns before the NCISM.  Entrance Exam: There will be a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate education in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions regulated by the Bill. (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary  Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions. Judicial Propriety Context: Within five months of his retirement as Chief Justice of India, Justice Ranjan Gogoi has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the government.  Former CJI had presided over politically sensitive cases (Assam NRC, Sabarimala, Ayodhya, Rafale, CBI) in which the government was a party. This raises the question that, should judges stop accepting post-retirement jobs offered by the government, at least for a few years after retiring. Consequence of Post-retirement appointments of Judges of Higher Courts Post-retirement appointments mean that Judges, during his serving period, can get vulnerable to the ruling dispensation pressures so as to deliver the verdict in government’s favour in a quid-pro-quo arrangement. It is often feared that a judge who is nearing retirement could decide cases in a manner that pleases the government in order to get a favourable post-retirement position. It would signal that the judiciary is not independent, but is vulnerable to dictates of the executive Deteriorates the Public Perception about the integrity of the Judiciary.  The very fact that a judge accepts such an appointment could cast doubt on his judgements.  Independence of Judiciary The authority of the Supreme Court of India can be said to be resting on two things: The cogency of its reasoning, and the integrity of its judges. India has adopted the doctrine of Separation of Powers whereby Legialature, elected by people, makes laws; executive who is a part of Legislature (Parliamentary form of government) implements the laws and Judiciary interprets these laws The judiciary is the upholder of the Constitution and provides a check against executive excesses, arbitrariness, and unlawful steps. Being Guardian of Constitution, the judiciary has to be independent — insulated from pressures and inducements. Independence of the Judiciary is ensured by many constitutional provisions like Judges do not hold their offices at the “pleasure” of the President They can only be impeached by a special majority of both houses (Article 124(4)) of Parliament  Article 121 and 211 provides that there shall be no discussion in the legislature of the state with respect to the conduct of any judge of Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties The salaries and allowances of the judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of Supreme Court judges Parliament can only add to the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court but cannot curtail them Both the Supreme Court and the High Court have the power to punish any person for their contempt (Article 129 and 215) Is this the first time that such post-retirement appointment is taking place? No, retired judges have been appointed to political office since independence. In 1952, Justice Fazl Ali was appointed the Governor of Orissa, shortly after retiring from the Supreme Court. In 1958, Chief Justice M C Chagla resigned from the Bombay High Court in order to become India’s Ambassador to the US at Prime Minister Nehru’s invitation. In April 1967, Chief Justice Subba Rao resigned from the Supreme Court to contest elections for President. Justice Baharul Islam served as Judge of Supreme Court from 4th Dec 1980 to 12th Jan 1983. He contested elections as a Congress party candidate and was elected to the Rajya Sabha from 15th June 1983 to 14th June 1989. He gave a Judgement in the case absolving the then Congress Bihar Chief Minister Jagannath Mishra in the urban cooperative bank scanda Ranganath Mishra served as CJI 25 Sep 1990 to 24 Nov 1991. He was first Chairman of the NHRC in 1993 and a member of the Rajya Sabha on a Congress ticket from 1998 to 2004. He was the sole member of the Commission of Inquiry into the 1984 anti-Sikh riots which gave clean chit to Congress Party In more recent times, Chief Justice P Sathasivam was appointed the Governor of Kerala. Should Judges be prohibited from Post-retirement appointment? There is no explicit prohibition against judges accepting Rajya Sabha nominations In the Constituent Assembly, K T Shah, suggested that High Court and Supreme Court judges should not take up an executive office with the government, “so that no temptation should be available to a judge for greater emoluments, or greater prestige which would in any way affect his independence as a judge”. Article 124(7) of the Indian Constitution provides that a retired Supreme Court judge cannot “plead or act in any court or before any authority within the territory of India”.  However, this provision only restricts post-retirement appointments in Judiciary itself, but not in posts of president, governor, member of parliament, etc In its 14th report in 1958, the Law Commission noted that retired Supreme Court judges used to engage in two kinds of work after retirement: Firstly, “chamber practice” (a term which would, today, mean giving opinions to clients and serving as arbitrators in private disputes) and secondly, “employment in important positions under the government”. The Law Commission frowned upon chamber practice, but did not recommend its abolition. However, it strongly recommended banning post-retirement government employment for Supreme Court judges because the government was a large litigant in the courts. The Commission’s recommendations were never implemented. Challenges in prohibiting the post-retirement appointments: It is often thought that the solution to this problem requires explicit prohibition on any post-judicial appointment, including commissions of inquiry.  The solution is not that simple; after all, there are many positions that require judges to be appointed. Institutions like NHRC, SHRC, NGT, Lokpal often require appointment of Judges of Higher Court. Thus, a blanket prohibition will restrict the working of other important institutions of our Democracy Way Forward: Cooling-off period: Several appointments to administrative bodies require a cooling-off period for individuals so as to eliminate the possibility or suspicion of a conflict of interest or quid pro quo. This cooling-off period must be extended to Indian Judiciary. Former CJI R M Lodha recommended a cooling-off period of at least 2 years. The 16-point code of conduct for judges also called the “Restatement of Values of Judicial Life” -adopted at a Chief Justices Conference in May 1997- needs to be followed by Judges in letter and spirit Connecting the dots Post-retirement prohibitions on Election Commission of India Case of Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah who was appointed vice-president nine years after his tenure as CJI ended. Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. An SC verdict violative of minority rights Context: Supreme Court upheld the West Bengal Madrasah Service Commission Act, 2008. The court set aside a Calcutta High Court verdict which had held the legislation was unconstitutional What is the legislation all about? As per the provision of the act, the appointment of teachers in these theological institutions (Madrassas) shall now be made by a board nominated by the government. As per Section 10 of the act, all appointments of teachers to the religious schools are to be recommended by the commission and the management committee shall be bound by such recommendations.  Section 11 says that anyone appointed in contravention of this Act shall not be considered a teacher and such an appointment shall be invalid.  Section 12 empowers the government to deny grants to the schools that refuse to make appointments in accordance with such recommendations.  Further, government recognition and affiliation of such schools can be withdrawn, if government guidelines are not followed Why were cases filed against this law? Several petitions were filed in the court challenging the validity of the law, contending that the government, which funds or provides aid to the minority institutions, can formulate guidelines for appointments of teachers but cannot itself appoint them Also, the act violates Article 30 which stated that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Additionally, the judgment by a three-judge bench in Chandana Das (2019) case gave the Sikh minority institutions of West Bengal the right to appoint teachers.  The dual test criterion In Rev. Sidharjbhai (1963), a six-judge bench of the Supreme Court observed that every government regulation in respect of a minority institution shall be valid only when it satisfies the dual test, i.e.,  It is regulative and not destructive of the organisation’s minority character  It makes the minority institution an effective vehicle of minority education. Other Judgements which upheld the Minority Institution’s right to appoint teachers & Staff Kerala Education Bill case (1957)  Rev. Father W. Proost (1969) Very Rev. Mother Provincial (1969) Ahmedabad St. Xaviers (1974) Bihar State Madrasa Education Board (1990), where the court observed “under the guise of regulating educational standards to secure efficiency in institution, the state is not entitled to frame rules or regulations compelling the management to surrender its right to administration”. In T.M.A. Pai (2003) An 11-judge bench reiterated that the management of minority institutions should have freedom in day-to-day affairs of the institutions, for example, in appointment of teaching and non-teaching staff and administrative control.  However, minimum qualifications, experience and other conditions may be fixed by the government. The apex court has been consistent in holding that the term includes rights of minority institutions to select their governing bodies, teachers and staff and exercise disciplinary control over them and a right to fix reasonable fees and admit students in a fair and transparent manner. Importance of Minority Rights Protection of minorities is the hallmark of a civilisation.  Lord Acton said: “The most certain test by which we judge whether a country is really free is the amount of security enjoyed by minorities. special safeguards were guaranteed to the minorities and incorporated under Article 30 with a view to instil in them a sense of confidence and security.  Also, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), minority rights were held to be the part of basic structure of the Constitution. Minority rights and special privileges (like Article 30) is thus necessary to ensure a thriving and a vibrant Democracy Conclusion The Chief Justice of India has now referred this judgment to a larger bench where we need to see if the judgement is upheld or reversed. Connecting the dots Article 29 and its difference with Article 30 Is Article 30 absolute? Or is it limited by reasonable restrictions? (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) The tenure of the chairperson and members is five years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.  The recommendations of SHRC are binding on the state government or authority. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding State Human Rights Commission (SHRC)? The commission has the power of a civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received within one year of occurrence. It can recommend compensation to victim, prosecution of accused. But such recommendations aren’t binding. It submits special or annual reports to state legislatures along with action taken on their recommendations and reasons for non acceptance of advice. All Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Disaster Response Force(NDRF) It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) It is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Finance Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Hyogo Framework and Sendai Framework often seen in news is related to which of the following? Disaster Management Prevention of trade in wildlife Money Laundering and Terrorism funding Conservation of Biodiversity ANSWERS FOR 18 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  The Hindu About UP govt’s move to proceed with Ayodhya Mela: The Hindu About US elections and Climate Change: The Hindu

Mar 19, 2020 RSTV Video

Healthy Kidney – Ayushman Bhava – RSTV IAS UPSC

Healthy Kidney Archives World Kidney Day: March 12 – to raise awareness of the importance of kidney health and preventive behaviours to reduce the risk of kidney disease. Kidneys are two vital organs that sit in your abdomen on either side of your backbone. They’re about the size of a fist and shaped like a bean. Filter your blood: They process your blood to sort out excess fluids, unwanted chemicals and waste, and turn these into urine.  Help regulate your blood pressure Balance the amount of water in your body Manage your body’s production of vitamin D Any changes to damage to your kidneys can cause these amazing organs to fail. Kidney stones are a painful condition. These stones are hard deposits that form inside the kidneys. A kidney stone can cause severe pain in the side and back and below the ribs. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) often has no signs or symptoms in the early stages. That’s why the majority of individuals with kidney disease tend to have symptoms in the later stages - when the kidneys are failing or when there are high levels of protein in the urine. Signs and symptoms of kidney failure: Too much or not enough urine Swelling of legs, ankles, feet Persistent nausea Vomiting Muscle cramps Itching Fatigue Pain or pressure in your chest Confusion Unexplained shortness of breath What causes kidney failure? There are several causes or conditions that can lead to kidney failure - with diabetes and high blood pressure being the most common cause of kidney failure, also known as end-stage renal disease or ESRD. Other factors that put you at an increased risk of kidney failure are: Heart disease or a heart attack A severe infection like sepsis Urinary tract problems Chemotherapy drugs that treat cancer and some autoimmune diseases Drug abuse Being overweight or obese Dehydration Kidney stones A family history of kidney disease How to prevent kidney failure There is a lot you can do to prevent or reduce your risk of kidney failure. Eat a healthy diet rich in fresh fruits, vegetables (citrus, calcium, plant based protein) Reduce your intake of salt to avoid high blood pressure Exercise regularly Lose weight if you’re overweight Keep your blood sugar, lipids under control Do not smoke or quit smoking Take medications as directed by your doctor Get tested for kidney disease especially if you’re at risk

Mar 19, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 16]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 16 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements about Jallianwala Bagh massacre: Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park to peacefully protest the arrest of Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew. Rabindranath Tagore and S Subramanian Iyer renounced their knighthood in protest to massacre. Government of India formed Buttler Committee to investigate the tragedy. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.1) जलियांवाला बाग नरसंहार के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: सत्यपाल और सैफुद्दीन किचलू  की गिरफ्तारी के विरोध में शांतिपूर्वक धरना देने के लिए कई ग्रामीणों के पार्क में इकट्ठा होने पर नरसंहार हुआ। रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर और एस सुब्रमण्यन अय्यर ने नरसंहार के विरोध में अपना नाइटहुड त्याग दिया। भारत सरकार ने त्रासदी की जांच के लिए बटलर समिति का गठन किया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.2) Montego Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 introduced which of the following changes into Provincial Governments? Authorisation to present separate budget Bicameral legislature Subjects were divided into Transferred and Reserve List Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) 1919 के मोंटेग्यु चेम्सफोर्ड सुधार ने प्रांतीय सरकारों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा परिवर्तन आरंभ किया? पृथक बजट प्रस्तुत करने के लिए प्राधिकृत द्विसदनीय विधानमंडल विषय हस्तांतरित और आरक्षित सूची में विभाजित थे नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.3) Match the following political agitations by Gandhi with the techniques:    1. Champaran Satyagraha     First Hunger strike    2. Ahmadabad Mill Strike     First Mass strike   3. Kheda Satyagraha     First Civil Disobedience   4. Rowlet Satyagraha     First Non Cooperation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C 1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-B 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-A Q.3) गांधी जी द्वारा अपनायी गयी तकनीकों के साथ निम्नलिखित राजनीतिक आंदोलन का मिलान करें: 1. चंपारण सत्याग्रह A. प्रथम भूख हड़ताल 2. अहमदबाद मिल हड़ताल B. प्रथम सामूहिक हड़ताल 3. खेड़ा सत्याग्रह C. प्रथम सविनय अवज्ञा 4. रोलेट सत्याग्रह D. प्रथम असहयोग नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C 1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-B 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-A Q.4) In response to which of the following incidents did Mahatma Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement? All India Khilafat Committee formation Moplah Rebellion Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Chauri Chaura outrage Q.4) निम्नलिखित में से किस घटना के प्रतिउत्तर में महात्मा गांधी ने असहयोग आंदोलन स्थगित कर दिया था? अखिल भारतीय खिलाफत समिति का गठन मोपला विद्रोह जलियांवाला बाग नरसंहार चौरी चौरा घटना  Q.5)  Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmadabad Session of 1921. Hakim Ajmal Khan Lala Lajpat Rai Chittaranjan Das Hasrat Mohani Q.5) निम्नलिखित नेताओं में से किसने 1921 के अहमदबाद सत्र में कांग्रेस के लक्ष्य के रूप में पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता को अपनाने का प्रस्ताव रखा था। हकीम अजमल खान लाला लाजपत राय चित्तरंजन दास हसरत मोहानी Q.6) Who among the following were the Swarajists? Motilal Nehru Vithalbahi Patel M A Ansari Jawaharlal Nehru Subhash Chandra Bose Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन स्वराजवादी (Swarajists) थे? मोतीलाल नेहरू विट्ठलभाई पटेल एम ए अंसारी जवाहर लाल नेहरू सुभाष चंद्र बोस नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 5 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5 Q.7) Consider the following statements about Nehru Report: It was a response by Indian leaders to Birkenhead challenge. The report demanded the Poorna Swaraj for India. It recommended for universal adult suffrage and equal rights for women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.7) नेहरू रिपोर्ट के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारतीय नेताओं द्वारा बर्कनहुड चुनौती के लिए एक प्रतिक्रिया थी। रिपोर्ट में भारत के लिए पूर्ण स्वराज की मांग की गई थी। इसने सार्वभौमिक वयस्क मताधिकार और महिलाओं के लिए समान अधिकारों की सिफारिश की। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.8) Which of the following events was/were a part of the Civil Disobedience Movement?  Dharsana Satyagraha Servants of God Movement Sholapur Upsurge Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3  Q.8) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी घटना सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन का एक हिस्सा थी? धरसना सत्याग्रह सर्वेंट ऑफ़ गॉड मूवमेंट  शोलापुर उपद्रव नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.9) Which of the following leaders was/were associated with the phase of Underground activity during the Quit India movement, 1942? Jayaprakash Narayan Aruna Asaf Ali Ramnandan Misra Usha Mehta Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.9) भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन, 1942 के दौरान निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा नेता भूमिगत गतिविधि के चरण से जुड़े थे? जयप्रकाश नारायण अरुणा आसफ अली रामनंदन मिश्रा उषा मेहता नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4  1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.10) Consider the following statements: ‘August Offer’ made by the Lord Linlithgow proposed for setting up of Constituent Assembly after the Second World War. Indian National Congress rejected the August offer and launched mass Civil Disobedience Movement.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: लॉर्ड लिनलिथगो द्वारा ‘अगस्त प्रस्ताव’ द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के बाद संविधान सभा की स्थापना के लिए प्रस्तावित था। भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस ने अगस्त प्रस्ताव को अस्वीकार कर दिया तथा बड़े पैमाने पर सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन आरंभ किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Consider the following events: Bardoli Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha Flag Satyagraha Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 2 – 1 – 3  3 – 1 – 2  2 – 3 – 1  3 – 2 – 1  Q.11) निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार करें: बारदोली सत्याग्रह वायकोम सत्याग्रह झंडा सत्याग्रह उपरोक्त घटनाओं से कौन सा कालानुक्रमिक अनुक्रम सही है? 2 - 1 - 3 3 - 1 - 2 2 - 3 - 1 3 - 2 - 1 Q.12) Consider the following statements about The Trade Union Act, 1926 and Trade Dispute Act, 1929. Act recognised trade unions as legal associations. Act liberalised trade union political activities. Act made the strikes in public utility services like posts, railways, water and electricity illegal under all circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 ,2 and 3 Q.12) ट्रेड यूनियन अधिनियम, 1926 और व्यापार विवाद अधिनियम, 1929 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अधिनियम ने ट्रेड यूनियनों को वैधानिक संघों के रूप में मान्यता दी। अधिनियम ने ट्रेड यूनियन राजनीतिक गतिविधियों को उदार बनाया। अधिनियम ने सभी परिस्थितियों में सार्वजनिक उपयोगिता सेवाओं जैसे पोस्ट ऑफिस, रेलवे, पानी और बिजली पर हड़ताल को अवैध बना दिया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.13) Consider the following pairs:               Commission Related with   1. Linlithgow Commission Working of Dyarchy   2. Lee Commission Civil Service Reforms    3. Whitley Commission Agriculture Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.13) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                             आयोग                         संबद्धता  1. लिनलिथगो आयोग  द्वैधशासन पर कार्य  2. ली आयोग  सिविल सेवा सुधार 3. व्हिटली आयोग  कृषि ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2  केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.14) Which of the following statements about Indian National Congress (INC) session during Freedom struggle was correct? Only session of INC presided by the Mahatma Gandhi was held in Belgaum in 1924. Annie Besant and Sarojini Naidu were the only two women Presidents of INC before independence.  The largest session of INC presided over by the Chakravarti Vijayaraghavachariar. Abul Kalam Azad was the President of INC at the time of Indian Independence. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.14) स्वतंत्रता संग्राम के दौरान भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस (INC) सत्र के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही था? महात्मा गांधी की अध्यक्षता में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस का केवल 1924 में बेलगाम सत्र आयोजित किया गया था। एनी बेसेंट और सरोजिनी नायडू स्वतंत्रता से पहले भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस की केवल दो महिला अध्यक्ष थीं। कांग्रेस के सबसे बड़े सत्र की अध्यक्षता चक्रवर्ती विजयराघवाचार्य ने की थी। अबुल कलाम आज़ाद भारतीय स्वतंत्रता के समय भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के अध्यक्ष थे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 Q.15) Who sang Vande Mataram in the Independence Session of the Constituent Assembly on 14th August 1947? Sucheta Kripalani Manmohini Sahgal Usha Mehta Aruna Asaf Ali Q.15) 14 अगस्त 1947 को संविधान सभा के स्वतंत्रता सत्र में वंदे मातरम किसने गाया था? सुचेता कृपलानी मनमोहिनी सहगल उषा मेहता अरुणा आसफ अली Q.16) With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:             Person  Position held   1. Balwant Rai Mehta Secretary, All India State’s people’s Conference   2. Lala Lajpat Rai President, All India Trade Union Congress   3. M. R. Jayakar Chairman, Indian Road Development Committee Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.16) भारतीय राष्ट्रीय आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                           व्यक्ति                             पद 1. बलवंत राय मेहता सचिव, आल इंडिया स्टेट पीपुल्स कॉन्फ्रेंस  2. लाला लाजपत राय अध्यक्ष, अखिल भारतीय ट्रेड यूनियन कांग्रेस 3. एम. आर. जयकर अध्यक्ष, भारतीय सड़क विकास समिति ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.17) Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct regarding the Communal Award announced by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald? The Award declared the depressed classes also to be minorities, and entitled them to separate electorates. Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India during the announcement. Poona Pact and Gandhi – Irwin pact were the consequence of the Communal Award announcements. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.17) ब्रिटिश प्रधानमंत्री, रैम्जे मैकडॉनल्ड द्वारा घोषित सांप्रदायिक पुरस्कार के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है / है? पुरुस्कार ने दलित वर्गों को भी अल्पसंख्यक घोषित किया तथा उन्हें पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल का हकदार बनाया। घोषणा के दौरान लॉर्ड इरविन भारत के वायसराय थे। पूना पैक्ट और गांधी - इरविन समझौता सांप्रदायिक पुरस्कार की घोषणाओं के परिणाम थे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.18) Consider the following pairs:              Women Organisation     Founder   1. All India Women’s Conference Annie Besant   2. Women’s Indian Association Sarojini Naidu   3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal Kamla Devi Chattopadhayay Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                       महिला संगठन                               संस्थापक 1. अखिल भारतीय महिला सम्मेलन एनी बेसेंट 2. भारतीय महिला संघ सरोजिनी नायडू 3. भारत स्त्री महामंडल कमला देवी चट्टोपाध्याय ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से मेल खाती है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.19) With reference to Indian Modern History, arrange the following events in a chronologically order. Cabinet Mission Dickie Bird Plan Cripps Mission Wavell Plan and Shimla Conference Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 Q.19) भारतीय आधुनिक इतिहास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को कालानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित करें। कैबिनेट मिशन डिकी बर्ड प्लान क्रिप्स मिशन वेवेल योजना और शिमला सम्मेलन नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 Q.20)  Who among the following was a member of Imperial War Cabinet of Winston Churchill and later become the first President of UN Economic and Social Council? Rettaimalai Srinivasan Madurai Pillai  S Subramaniam Iyer Arcot Ramaswamy Mudaliar Q.20) निम्नलिखित में से कौन विंस्टन चर्चिल के इम्पीरियल युद्ध मंत्रिमंडल का सदस्य था तथा बाद में, संयुक्त राष्ट्र आर्थिक और सामाजिक परिषद का पहला अध्यक्ष बना? रेट्टिमिलाई श्रीनिवासन मदुरई पिल्लई एस सुब्रमण्यम अय्यर अर्काट रामास्वामी मुदलियार Q.21) National Animal Disease Control Programme aims to control and eradicate which of the following diseases amongst livestock? Anthrax Foot and Mouth Disease Brucellosis Rinder Pest Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Q.21) राष्ट्रीय पशु रोग नियंत्रण कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य पशुधन में निम्न में से किस बीमारी को नियंत्रित और उन्मूलन करना है? गिल्टी रोग (Anthrax) खुरपका एवं मुंहपका रोग (Foot and Mouth Disease) ब्रूसिलोसिस रिंडर पेस्ट (Rinder Pest) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 Q.22) Which of the following Ministries provide grants under the ‘PACEsetter Fund’ Programme?  Ministry of Science and Technology Ministry of Commerce Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Q.22) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा मंत्रालय ‘पेससेट्टर फंड’ (PACEsetter Fund) कार्यक्रम के तहत अनुदान प्रदान करता है? विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय वाणिज्य मंत्रालय़ नवीन एवं नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय स्वास्थ्य एवं परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय Q.23) With reference to ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? IAEA is the international centre for cooperation in the nuclear field which reports to UN General Assembly and Security Council. India is a founding member of IAEA. IAEA opened world’s first Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) Bank in its Headquarters. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.23) ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय परमाणु ऊर्जा एजेंसी (IAEA)’ के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? IAEA परमाणु क्षेत्र में सहयोग के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय केंद्र है, जो संयुक्त राष्ट्र महासभा और सुरक्षा परिषद को रिपोर्ट करता है। भारत IAEA का संस्थापक सदस्य है। IAEA ने अपने मुख्यालय में विश्व का पहला निम्न समृद्ध यूरेनियम (LEU) बैंक खोला है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.24) Which of the following tribes can recall the name of their ancestor from 20 generations ago? Galos Nyishi Apatani Abor Q.24) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जनजाति 20 पीढ़ी पहले तक के अपने पूर्वजों का नाम याद कर सकती है? गालो न्यिशी अपातानी अबोर  Q.25) Recently seen in news, INS Nilgiri is  A Stealth frigate built under Project 75I A Submarine built under Project 75I A Stealth frigate built under Project 17A A Submarine built under Project 17A Q.25) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया, आईएनएस नीलगिरि क्या है प्रोजेक्ट 75I के तहत निर्मित एक स्टील्थ युद्धपोत प्रोजेक्ट 75I के तहत निर्मित एक पनडुब्बी प्रोजेक्ट 17A के तहत निर्मित एक स्टील्थ युद्धपोत प्रोजेक्ट 17A के तहत निर्मित एक पनडुब्बी Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘The "Sustainability, Stability and Security" (3S) Initiative. It was launched to address the root causes of instability in Africa – in particular migration and conflict related to the degradation of natural resources. It was launched by the ‘Asia-Africa Growth Corridor’ at the Third India–Africa Forum Summit. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) "सततता, स्थिरता और सुरक्षा" (3S) पहल के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह अफ्रीका में अस्थिरता के मूल कारणों- विशेष रूप से प्रवासन और प्राकृतिक संसाधनों के क्षरण से संबंधित संघर्ष को दूर करने के लिए आरंभ किया गया था। इसे तीसरे भारत-अफ्रीका फोरम शिखर सम्मेलन में 'एशिया-अफ्रीका ग्रोथ कॉरिडोर' द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘TReDS’ platform. It is a platform for financing/factoring of trade receivables of MSME Sellers against Corporate Buyers, Govt. Departments and PSUs. It is operated by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'TReDS' प्लेटफ़ॉर्म के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह कॉर्पोरेट खरीदारों, सरकारी विभागों और सार्वजनिक उपक्रमों के विरुद्ध एमएसएमई विक्रेताओं के व्यापार प्राप्य के वित्तपोषण /लेनदारी-लेखा-क्रय (financing/factoring) के लिए एक मंच है। । यह खादी और ग्रामोद्योग आयोग द्वारा संचालित है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) ‘U.K. Sinha Committee’ is associated with Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Corporate Governance Digital Payments Data Privacy Q.28) ‘यू.के. सिन्हा समिति' किससे संबद्ध है सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यम कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस डिजिटल भुगतान डाटा गोपनीयता Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub (Global AMR R&D; Hub)’ The operation of the Global AMR R&D; Hub is supported through a Secretariat, established in Berlin India is a member of the Global AMR R&D; Hub. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) 'वैश्विक रोगाणुरोधी प्रतिरोध अनुसंधान और विकास हब (Global AMR R&D; Hub)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वैश्विक AMR R&D; हब का संचालन बर्लिन में स्थापित एक सचिवालय के माध्यम से समर्थित है भारत वैश्विक AMR R&D; हब का सदस्य है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) Which of the following statements is/are correct? Karnataka has the highest number of GI-tagged products. Tamil Nadu leads in the number of GI-tagged agricultural products. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? कर्नाटक में जीआई-टैग उत्पादों की संख्या सबसे अधिक है। तमिलनाडु में कृषि उत्पादों में जीआई-टैग की संख्या सबसे अधिक है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 18, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Becquerels Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: The SI unit for measuring the amount of radioactivity is the becquerel (symbol Bq). One becquerel (1Bq) is equal to 1 disintegration per second. An older unit of radioactivity is the curie. The curie was originally defined as equivalent to the number of disintegrations that one gram of radium-226 will undergo in one second.  Currently, a curie is defined using becquerels as 1Ci = 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second.  National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: NABL is a Constituent Board of Quality Council of India.  NABL has been established with the objective to provide Government, Industry Associations and Industry in general with a scheme for third-party assessment of the quality and technical competence of testing and calibration laboratories. About Quality Council of India (QCI)  QCI was set up in 1997 as an autonomous body  It was setup jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) It aims to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.  Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Federalism In News: The Assam government’s decision to restrict large gatherings as a precaution against the COVID-19 may cast a shadow on the BTC elections(40 seats)  BTC Polls are conducted by State Election Commission  Any decision on rescheduling the polls would be taken by the Governor, who is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. About BTC The second Bodo accord, 2003 led to the formation of the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution The area under the BTC jurisdiction is now officially called the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) comprising of 3,082 villages in four districts— Kokrajhar, Chirang, Udalguri and Baska. Sixth schedule of the Constitution: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides for decentralized self-governance and dispute resolution through local customary laws in parts of the North East which are mainly tribal areas. It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Lopinavir and Ritonavir Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: These are anti-HIV drugs  This drug combination isrecommended by Union Health Ministry to be used on a case-to-case basis depending upon the severity of the condition of a person having coronavirus infection. Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Security In News: LCA Tejas is a single-engine multirole light combat aircraft. It replaced the aging Mig 21 fighter planes. It is the second supersonic fighter jet that was developed by HAL (the first one being HAL HF-24 Marut). Bodies involved: Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), the autonomous society of DRDO is the design agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) as the manufacturer It is the lightest and smallest multirole supersonic fighter aircraft in its class. It can attend the maximum speed of Mach 1.8.  It is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided and standoff weaponry. It is a single pilot aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of 13,300 kg.  It has a general range of 850 km and a combat range of 500 km. Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is a zoonotic disease (spreads from animals to humans - just like COVID-19, Ebola, HIV, Anthrax, SARS) KFD is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever endemic to South India. It was first identified in 1957 in a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of KFD virus. Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick Transmission to humans may occur after a tick bite or contact with an infected animal, most importantly a sick or recently dead monkey. No person-to-person transmission has been described Larger animals such as cattle, goats or sheep may become infected with KFD but play a limited role in transmission of disease to humans Signs and Symptoms: After an incubation period of 3-8 days, the symptoms like chills, fever, headache, severe muscle pain, vomiting, gastrointestinal symptoms and bleeding may occur.  Endemic Regions of KFD in India are: Karnataka Tamil Nadu Kerala states Prevention: A vaccine does exist for KFD and is used in endemic areas of India. Additional preventative measures include insect repellents and wearing protective clothing in areas where ticks are endemic (MAINS FOCUS) Society & Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. A case for more policewomen Context: India persists with a male-dominated police force.  In 2009 the Home Ministry set 33% as the target for women’s representation in the police. Present Status of Women in Police Inadequate representation: In 2019, women comprised less than 10% of police personnel. Only seven States (Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Gujarat and Sikkim) had more than 10% policewomen.  Slow pace of women intake: There has been only a 5% increase in the number of policewomen in a decade (3.65% in 2009 to 8.98% in 2019). The annual change in the share of women in the police force from 2012 to 2016 was found to be less than 1% across States, according to the India Justice Report, 2019 At this rate, most States will take over 50 years to achieve the 33% target. Selective Implementation Although States have adopted the reservation policy, they are very selective about its implementation.  Restrictive Reservations: Very few States apply reservation for women at all the entry points (constable, sub-inspector, and deputy superintendent of police levels) or to all posts at each level.  Some States (Kerala and Karnataka) have reservation for women only at the constable rank.  Some (Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu) extend it to the constable and sub-inspector ranks. But here too there are restrictions: reservation is limited to specific cadre posts within each rank. Consequence of Selective Implementation Huge disparity in the representation of women across ranks Inadequate Women at Top decision making level: There are far fewer women at the gazetted ranks at the State level (assistant sub-inspector to deputy superintendent of police) than those at the constabulary level.  This means that women are most prominent in the most junior ranks. Women remain in large numbers at the bottom of the ladder without moving up. Inefficient Policing: As a consequence, there are not enough women personnel to perform exclusive functions when gender-based crimes are reported For instance, in 2013, the Home Ministry said that at least three women sub-inspectors should be available in a police station as investigating officers.  Tamil Nadu, which has the highest percentage of women personnel (17.46%), requires 6,057 women sub-inspectors to meet this standard across its 2,019 police stations.  At present, it has barely one-fourth of that requirement. Other Challenges for Women Police Officers Women are typecast — for example, they are asked to deal with crimes against women, while they are kept outside the mainstream of varied experiences As a result, new recruits will become increasingly ghettoised in the absence of a framework to guide their career path. Frequent inter-district transfers Disallowing postings in home districts for specified periods of time  Poor childcare support systems  Lack of basic amenities like toilets, uncomfortable duty gear (designed mainly for men) and inadequate privacy. Policing sub-culture, with its association with “masculinity” and coercive force, has impacted the mental pressure on women police officers Way Forward Effective implementation of Reservation Policy at all levels to increase the number of women in Police department Gender sensitization among the Police Personnel and also among the public Gender-friendly gadgets and clothes. State- funded special health checkup for women personnel like pap smear tests (for cervical cancer), mammography (for breast cancer) and tests for estimation of bone density,  Sanitary pad dispensers should be installed at all women posts and portable toilets be provided to them under the 'Swachh Bharat' mission. More creches, school pickup and drop facilities for children and clean living quarters and toilet facilities Conclusion Increasing the number of recruits alone will not be enough; institutional changes embedded in principles of diversity, inclusion and equality of opportunities are as important. Otherwise, discrimination and exclusion will continue to persist even as the numbers of women increase. Connecting the dots Women in Judiciary 33% Reservation for Women in Parliament and State legislature International Affairs Topic: General Studies 2: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.  A revival of Multilateralism, steered by India The COVID-19 pandemic which has confronted the world has two aspects: The disease is cross-national in character- it respects no national boundaries and are not amenable to national solutions Cross-domain in nature: The diseases has strong feedback loops. A disruption in one domain often cascades into parallel disruptions in other domains. What should be the underlying principle to tackle COVID-19 pandemic? The intersection of cross-national and cross-domain challenges demand multilateral approaches.  They require empowered international institutions of governance.  Underlying these must be a spirit of internationalism and solidarity, a sense of belonging to a common humanity.  Rise of Nationalism Over the past decade and more, the world has been moving in direction opposite to that of multilateralism There has been an upsurge in narrow nationalism, an assertion of parochial interests over pursuit of shared interests  There has been increased competition among states rather than embracing collaboration.  US-China Trade war, BREXIT, US coming out of Paris Climate deal, Rise of right wing parties in Europe and decline in WTO are reflection of this trend The Present State of Play vis-à-vis COVID-19 Pandemic COVID-19 has brought these deepening contradictions (need for multilateralism to combat the challenges vs rise of nationalism) into very sharp relief. COVID-19 pandemic is a global challenge which recognises no political boundaries It is a health crisis but is also spawning an economic crisis through disrupting global value chains and creating a simultaneous demand shock But interventions to deal with the COVID-19 crisis are so far almost entirely at the national level, relying on quarantine and social distancing There is virtually no coordination at the international level.  There is also blame game that has erupted between China and the USA which does not augur well for international cooperation and leadership.  The long-term impact of the pandemic could follow alternative pathways.  Revival of Multilateralism: The more hopeful outcome would be for countries to finally realise that there is no option but to move away from nationalistic urges and embrace the logic of international cooperation through revived and strengthened multilateral institutions and processes. Intensification of Nationalist trends:  Countries could begin to build walls around themselves Existing multilateralism gets further weakened.  Institutions such as UN and WHO which are already marginalised may become increasingly irrelevant.  There could be a return to autarkic economic and trade policies and an even deeper and more pervasive anti-globalisation sentiment.  An Opportunity for India This is when the world needs leadership and statesmanship Success of 2008 response: U.S.-led response to the global financial and economic crisis of 2008 lead to the birth of G-20 summit and a coordinated response prevented catastrophic damage to the global economy. Since US and West have adopted nationalistic leaning, India which is a key G-20 country, the world’s fifth largest economy and with a long tradition of international activism should step into the leadership role by advocating the multilateral approach of tackling the pandemic A leadership role in mobilising global collaboration would be in keeping with India’s traditional activism on the international stage. India’s recent video conferencing with SAARC nation to collaborate on tackling the pandemic in the subcontinent is a step in right direction This should be followed by an international initiative, either through the G-20 or through the U.N. India should reaffirm its policy of seeking friendship with all countries – which is the underlying principle followed in our non-alignment foreign policy practised since Nehru time. Conclusion The COVID-19 pandemic presents India with an opportunity to revive multilateralism, become a strong and credible champion of internationalism and assume a leadership role in a world that is adrift – Shyam Saran (former Foreign Secretary) Connecting the dots India’s recent initiatives in Solar energy BIMSTEC and SAARC – Which one should India focus on? (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Quality Council of India (QCI) It is a statutory body set up in 1997 to promote quality through National Quality Campaign.  Its Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister and the nodal ministry of the body is Ministry of Commerce & Industry Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) It is a zoonotic disease that is endemic to North-Eastern India There is no vaccination for the disease and can only be prevented by taking precautionary measures such as using insect repellents and wearing protective clothing in areas where ticks are endemic Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) was established under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Tejas Aircraft It is manufactured by Hindustan Aeronotics Limited in collaboration with USA’s Boeing Company It is the lightest and smallest multirole supersonic fighter aircraft in its class. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Becquerels often seen in news is related to which of the following? Radioactivity Music Marine Pollution Air Pollution ANSWERS FOR 17 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  The Hindu About Prediction Model for COVID-19: The Hindu About Biometrics in Policing: The Hindu

Mar 18, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Nomination to Rajya Sabha Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: President nominated former CJI Ranjan Gogoi to Rajya Sabha Twelve members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India for six-years term for their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services.  This right has been bestowed upon the President according to the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Constitution of India. Indian Council of Medical Research and COVID-19 Testing Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: ICMR has decided to monitor community transmission by random sampling rather than expanding testing.  This decision has been taken to avoid “futile testing” as well as hospitalisation for mildly symptomatic, positive patients. Four Stages of Transmission of COVID-19 Stage 1-Imported Transmission Stage 2-Local Transmission Transmission through direct contact with an infected person within the country. Stage 3-Community Transmission It signifies that a virus is circulating in the community and can affect people with no history of travel to affected areas or of contact with an infected person. India’s strategy on social distancing and isolation is aimed at checking community transmission. Stage 4- Epidemic An epidemic is a large outbreak, one that spreads among a population or region. It is less severe than pandemic due to a limited area of spread. Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: BIS is working to incorporate maximum permissible limit of Uranium as 0.03 mg/l (as per WHO provisional guidelines) in all drinking water standards Elevated uranium level in drinking water may be associated with kidney toxicity BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods Classical Languages Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Rajya Sabha passes bill to grant the status of Central universities to three deemed Sanskrit universities: Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan in Delhi Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth in Delhi  Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth in Tirupati. Currently there are six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers; The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Places in News: Pakke Tiger Reserve - a biodiversity hotspot of the eastern Himalayas is located in Arunachal Pradesh  The Sundarban National Park is located in the south-east of Calcutta in the District of West Bengal and forms part of the Gangetic Delta. (MAINS FOCUS) International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: India and its neighbourhood relations Policies and politics of developed and developing countries Back to SAARC Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s convened a video conference of leaders of the SAARC to collaborate on tackling COVID-19 coronavirus pandemic. The virtual summit is the first high-level SAARC meet since 2014, and comes after India’s pulling out of the 2016 summit following the Uri attack; The virtual summit led to the setting up of a  SAARC COVID-19 emergency fund — India will contribute $10-million Rapid Response Team (of doctors, specialists, testing equipment and attendant infrastructure) to be put at the disposal of the SAARC,  About South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) It was established on 8 December 1985. Its member countries are—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan (2005) The Headquarters and Secretariat of the Association are at Kathmandu, Nepal. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (2018) of the global economy Significance of SAARC for India Neighbourhood first: Primacy to the country’s immediate neighbours. Geostrategic significance: Can counter China (OBOR initiative) through engaging our neighbours in development process and economic cooperation. Regional stability: These regional organisations can help in creation of mutual trust  (India & Pakistan) and ensure that regional interest over ride bilateral disputes Global leadership role: It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities. Game changer for India’s Act East Policy: Linking of South Asian economies with South East Asian region will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India particularly in its under-developed Eastern region Potential for India’s export: With closer economic integration of economies in the region, India’s domestic companies will get access to much bigger market thus boosting their revenues Challenges of SAARC Broad area of cooperation leads to diversion of energy and resources. Low Intra-regional trade: South Asia is the world’s least integrated region; less than 5% of the trade of SAARC countries is within. Inadequate Political Will: India’s inclination towards Big powers which leads to neglecting its relationship with its neighbours Bilateral tensions, especially between India and Pakistan, spilling over into SAARC meetings. Perception of India being a Big Brother vis-à-vis its neighbours whereby India enforces its own agenda on small neighbouring countries through these groupings Slow implementation of the projects announced by India - declines India’s credibility to deliver on its promises thus pushing Nations to seek help from China or West. Rising China in the region with its overarching Belt & Road initiative (Cheque book Diplomacy of China) Impact of COVID-19 on SAARC Major concern is of an escalation in the virus’s spread in the subcontinent.  With close to 300 positive cases, South Asia has seen a much lower incidence globally, but given its much higher population density, it is clear that any outbreak will lead to far more casualties.  Afghanistan and Pakistan have specific challenges as they share long borders with Iran, which has emerged, after China and Italy, as a major hub of the virus.  Bhutan, the Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka worry about the impact on tourism, which is a mainstay of their economies.  Other concerns are about under-reporting, as fewer people are being tested in much of South Asia  Inadequate public health service infrastructure to cope with rising cases, as all SAARC members are developing nations with sub-standard public health infrastructure. Conclusion India’s assertive expression of its new willingness to stabilise the region through cooperative mechanisms, without being distracted by short-sighted disingenuous ploys of a troubled Pakistan, is a welcome step for regional cooperation in tackling the pandemic India cannot afford to not to harvest this opportunity, after having sowed the seeds of a New South Asia. Governance Topic: General Studies 3: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Women work participation rates Context: Women’s work participation rates have fallen sharply — from 29 per cent in 2004-5 to 22 per cent in 2011-12 and to 17 per cent in 2017-18 Concerned with ostensibly declining women’s work participation, identifying sectors from which women are excluded and more importantly, in which women are included have been missed out in our analysis. It is thus time to count women’s work rather than women workers. Anatomy of the decline Decline in women’s work participation rates shows that it is driven by rural women. In the prime working age group (25-59), urban women’s worker to population ratios (WPR) fell from 28% to 25% between 2004-5 and 2011-12, stagnating at 24% in 2017-18.  However, rural women’s WPR declined sharply from 58% to 48% and to 32% over the same period.  Among rural women, the largest decline seems to have taken place in women categorised as unpaid family helpers — from 28% in 2004-5 to 12% in 2017-18. This alone accounts for more than half of the decline in women’s WPR.  The remaining is largely due to a drop of about 9% in casual labour, while their regular salaried work increased by a mere 1 percentage point In contrast, women counted as focusing solely on domestic duties increased from 21% to 45% Some of the reasons for the decline are: Increasing incomes: As husband's and other family income increases, women’s incentive to work declines. Goldin’s U- Shaped Hypothesis: where female labour force function is related it to the level of education and the emergence of the white collar sector jobs supports the argument of rising incomes impacting female labour force participation Economic Slowdown, particularly in last three years, has pushed women out of the labour force as there is overall increase in unemployment. Lack of Employment Opportunities for educated rural women: Rural men with a secondary level of education have options like working as a postman, driver or mechanic — few such opportunities are open to women.  Women with secondary education have only half the work participation rate compared to their uneducated sisters.  Weakness in Survey System which fails to take into account the exact nature of work being done by females (especially in rural areas).  With shortage of funds and trained personnel, the National Sample Surveys increasingly relies on contract investigators hired for short periods, who lack these skills. Way Forward: More Robust Survey System  Need to ask detailed questionnaire while undertaking surveys especially about the primary and secondary activity status of each household member Similar questions also need to be asked about livestock ownership and about people caring for the livestock, ownership of petty business and individuals working in these enterprises Develop data collection processes from the lived experiences of women and count women’s work rather than women workers  Implementation of the recommendations of ‘Shramshakti: Report of National Commission on Self Employed Women and Women in the Informal Sector’  Providing employment opportunities for women in rural areas by adopting decentralization in our developmental strategy Connecting the dots Educational level and Women work wages disparity Global Gender Gap Index (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) It is a statutory body constituted under the BIS Act 2016  Its mandate is harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Classical Languages All Scheduled Eight Languages having an history of more than 700 years are declared as Classical languages of India The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) It was established in 1911 as Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) making it one of oldest and largest medical research bodies in the world. It is funded by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about nominated member of Rajya Sabha Nominated members enjoy all powers, privileges and immunities available to an elected member of Parliament including their right to vote in the election of the President of India. A nominated member has been exempted from filing his assets and liabilities under Section 75A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 which requires the elected member to do so within 90 days of his making or subscribing oath/affirmation Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in which state of India? Arunachal Pradesh Mizoram Nagaland Assam ANSWERS FOR 16 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 A Must Read About Gender Gap in Science  The Hindu About Crisis in Iran: The Hindu

Mar 18, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 15]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 15 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following pairs:                     Organisation Leader    1. Madras Mahajan Sabha  P Ananda Charlu   2. Bombay Presidency Association K T Telang   3. All India National Conference  Anand Mohan Bose Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.1) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                           संगठन                             नेता 1. मद्रास महाजन सभा पी आनंद चार्लू 2. बॉम्बे प्रेसीडेंसी एसोसिएशन के टी तेलंग 3. अखिल भारतीय राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन आनंद मोहन बोस ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The first meeting of the Indian National Congress was organized by W. C. Banarjee in Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College of Bombay. A resolution was passed in the first meeting of Congress demanding expansion of Indian Council of the Secretary of State for India to include Indians. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस की पहली बैठक बॉम्बे के गोकुलदास तेजपाल संस्कृत कॉलेज में डब्ल्यू सी बनर्जी द्वारा आयोजित की गई थी। भारतीयों को शामिल करने के लिए भारत के राज्य सचिव की भारतीय परिषद के विस्तार की मांग करते हुए कांग्रेस की पहली बैठक में एक प्रस्ताव पारित किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.3) Which among the following was NOT the demand of the Congress under the moderates? Removal of poverty by the rapid development of agriculture and modern industries Complete Independence from British. Spread of primary education among the masses. Freedom of speech and press for the defence of their civil rights. Q.3) निम्न में से कौन सी नरमपंथियों (moderates) के अंतर्गत कांग्रेस की मांग नहीं थी? कृषि और आधुनिक उद्योगों के तीव्र विकास के द्वारा गरीबी उन्मूलन अंग्रेजों से पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता आम जनता के बीच प्राथमिक शिक्षा का प्रसार नागरिक अधिकारों की रक्षा के लिए प्रेस स्वतंत्रता एवं वाक् स्वतंत्रता Q.4) With reference to United Patriotic Association, consider the following statements:  Raja Shiv Prasad Singh of Banaras was one of the co-founders of the United Patriotic Association. It was organised to counter Indian National Congress propaganda. It aimed at developing close ties between the Muslim community and Hindu nationalists. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.4) यूनाइटेड पैट्रियटिक एसोसिएशन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: बनारस के राजा शिव प्रसाद सिंह यूनाइटेड पैट्रियटिक एसोसिएशन के सह-संस्थापकों में से एक थे। यह भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के प्रचार-प्रसार का विरोध करने के लिए आयोजित किया गया था। इसका उद्देश्य मुस्लिम समुदाय और हिंदू राष्ट्रवादियों के बीच घनिष्ठ संबंध विकसित करना था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.5)  Consider the following statements: All the sections within the Congress, ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’, were united against the partition of Bengal. Following the annulation of partition of Bengal, the ‘extremists’ started functioning separately outside the Congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.5) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कांग्रेस के सभी वर्ग, 'नरमपंथी' और 'चरमपंथी' बंगाल के विभाजन के विरुद्ध एकजुट थे। बंगाल के विभाजन की घोषणा के बाद, 'चरमपंथियों' ने कांग्रेस के बाहर रहकर पृथक रूप से कार्य करना आरंभ कर दिया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.6) Which of the following resolutions was/were passed by Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress in 1906? Swadeshi Swaraj Boycott National Education  Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा संकल्प 1906 में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के कलकत्ता सत्र द्वारा पारित किया गया था? स्वदेशी स्वराज्य बहिष्कार राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.7) Consider the following statements with regard to Indian Universities Act of 1904: It was based on the recommendations made by the Hunter Commission on Education. It increased Government's control over the universities. It introduced the principle of election in the constitution of the Senate of the Universities along with fixing the minimum and maximum number of seats in Senate. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.7) भारतीय विश्वविद्यालयों अधिनियम 1904 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह शिक्षा पर हंटर कमीशन द्वारा की गई सिफारिशों पर आधारित था। इसने विश्वविद्यालयों पर सरकार का नियंत्रण बढ़ा दिया। इसने सीनेट में न्यूनतम और अधिकतम सीटों की संख्या निश्चित करने के साथ विश्वविद्यालयों के सीनेट के चुनाव के सिद्धांत को प्रस्तुत किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.8)  Consider the following statements: In his famous book Hind Swaraj, Bal Gangadhar Tilak declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians and has survived only because of their cooperation. According to the book, if Indian refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year and Swaraj would come. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.8) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अपनी प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक हिंद स्वराज में, बाल गंगाधर तिलक ने घोषणा की कि ब्रिटिश शासन भारत में भारतीयों के सहयोग से स्थापित किया गया था तथा उनके सहयोग के कारण ही बचा है। पुस्तक के अनुसार, यदि भारतीय सहयोग करने से इनकार करते हैं, तो भारत में ब्रिटिश शासन एक वर्ष के भीतर ढह जाएगा और स्वराज आ जाएगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.9) Consider the following statements about the Lucknow Pact of 1916: Lucknow session of Indian National Congress was presided over by Rash Bihari Ghosh. Indian National Congress accepted the separate electorate for Muslims. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant played crucial role in this agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.9) 1916 के लखनऊ समझौते के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के लखनऊ अधिवेशन की अध्यक्षता रास बिहारी घोष ने की। भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस ने मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल स्वीकार किया। बाल गंगाधर तिलक और एनी बेसेंट ने इस समझौते में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.10)  Which of the following was/were the components of 'Home Charges' during British Rule? Pensions of civil and military British officials Interest on foreign capital investments Expenses on India Office establishment in London Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.10) ब्रिटिश शासन के दौरान निम्नलिखित में से कौन 'होम चार्ज' (Home Charges) के घटक थे? नागरिक और सैन्य ब्रिटिश अधिकारियों की पेंशन विदेशी पूंजीगत निवेश पर ब्याज लंदन में भारत कार्यालय प्रतिष्ठान पर खर्च नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.11) With reference to Indian modern history, consider the following events: Komagata Maru incident Pacific Coast Hindustan Association founded Gandhi returned to India from South Africa What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 2 – 1 – 3  1 – 2 – 3  2 – 3 – 1  1 – 3 – 2  Q.11) भारतीय आधुनिक इतिहास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार करें: कोमागाटामारू घटना प्रशांत तट हिंदुस्तान एसोसिएशन की स्थापना गांधी जी का दक्षिण अफ्रीका से भारत लौटना उपरोक्त घटनाओं का सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम क्या है? 2 - 1 - 3 1 - 2 - 3 2 - 3 - 1 1 - 3 - 2 Q.12) Deccan Sabha as a rival organisation to Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Krishna Gokhale Bipin Chandra Pal  Q.12) पूना सार्वजनिक सभा के प्रतिद्वंद्वी संगठन के रूप में दक्कन सभा किसके द्वारा स्थापित की गयी थी दादाभाई नौरोजी बाल गंगाधर तिलक गोपाल कृष्ण गोखले बिपिन चंद्र पाल Q.13) Which among the following events can be associated with Lord Ripon’s tenure? The Vernacular Press Act was enacted The Illbert Bill was introduced A resolution on Local Self Government Second Afghan war started Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.13) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी घटना लॉर्ड रिपन के कार्यकाल से जुड़ी हो सकती है? वर्नाक्युलर प्रेस एक्ट लागू किया गया इल्बर्ट बिल प्रस्तुत किया गया था स्थानीय स्व-शासन पर एक संकल्प द्वितीय अफगान युद्ध आरंभ हुआ नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2, 3 और 4  Q.14) With reference to Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements: Act provided for the first time the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy. Act introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Act provided for the members to discuss the budget and matter of public interest without asking any supplementary questions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.14) भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1909 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अधिनियम में पहली बार वायसराय की कार्यकारी परिषदों में भारतीयों की संबद्धता के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान किया गया। अधिनियम ने मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल प्रस्तुत किए। अधिनियम ने सदस्यों के लिए बिना कोई अनुपूरक प्रश्न पूछे बजट और सार्वजनिक हित के मामले पर चर्चा करने के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.15)  Consider the following pairs:              Newspaper/Journal     Associated Personality   1. Amrita Bazar Patrika Moti Lal Ghosh   2. Darpan Gopal Hari Deshmukh   3. Swadeshi Mitran S. Subramanian Iyer Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.15) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                     समाचार पत्र / जर्नल                         संबद्ध व्यक्तित्व 1. अमृता बाजार पत्रिका मोती लाल घोष 2. दर्पण गोपाल हरि देशमुख 3. स्वदेशी मित्रन एस. सुब्रमण्यन अय्यर ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से मेल खाती है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.16) Which of the following statements about revolutionaries is NOT correct? Shyamji Krishnavarma founded India Home Rule Society in London. Provisional Government of free India in Kabul was proclaimed with M. Barkatulla as its President. Madam Bhikaji Cama unfurled the Indian National flag at the International Socialist Conference in Germany. All the above statements are correct. Q.16) क्रांतिकारियों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है? श्यामजी कृष्णवर्मा ने लंदन में इंडिया होम रूल सोसाइटी की स्थापना की। काबुल में स्वतंत्र भारत की अस्थाई सरकार ने एम. बरकतुल्ला को अपने राष्ट्रपति के रूप में घोषित किया गया था। मैडम भीकाजी कामा ने जर्मनी में अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समाजवादी सम्मेलन में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय ध्वज को फहराया। उपरोक्त सभी कथन सही हैं। Q.17) With reference to Home Rule Movement in India, consider the following statements: Outbreak of World War I was one of the factors leading to the rise of Home Rule Movement in India. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant separately launched Home Rule Leagues in India. Both these leagues had the common objective of achieving self-government in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.17) भारत में होम रूल आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्रथम विश्व युद्ध का आरंभ होना भारत में होम रूल आंदोलन के उदय के लिए प्रमुख कारकों में से एक था। बाल गंगाधर तिलक और एनी बेसेंट ने अलग-अलग भारत में होम रूल लीग आरंभ की थी। इन दोनों लीगों का भारत में स्व-शासन प्राप्त करने का सामान्य उद्देश्य था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.18) Which of the following pairs about associations and the personalities involved in its formation are correctly matched? Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company - Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty Swadesh Bandhab Samiti – Bipin Chandra Pal Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceutical Works Ltd -  Prafulla Chandra Ray Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) संघों और इसके गठन में शामिल व्यक्तित्वों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? स्वदेशी स्टीम नेविगेशन कंपनी - गाज़ुलु लक्ष्मीनारासु चेट्टी स्वदेश बांधव समिति - बिपिन चंद्र पाल बंगाल केमिकल एंड फार्मास्यूटिकल वर्क्स लिमिटेड - प्रफुल्ल चंद्र रे नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.19) Who among the following revolutionaries shot dead Col. William Curzon Wyllie, political aide-de-camp to the secretary of State for India? Madan Lal Dhingra Bhupendanath Dutta Sohan Singh Bhakna Kartar Singh Sarabha Q.19) निम्न क्रांतिकारियों में से किसने, भारत के राज्य सचिव के राजनीतिक सहयोगी कर्नल विलियम कर्जन वायली की गोली मारकर हत्या की? मदन लाल ढींगरा भूपेंद्रनाथ दत्ता सोहन सिंह भाकना करतार सिंह सराभा Q.20) Consider the following statements about August declaration of 1917: It was declared by the Edwin Samuel Montagu, Viceroy of India. The declaration promised a policy of gradual development of responsible government in India. It was well accepted by the leaders of the Home Rule Movement without any objections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.20) अगस्त 1917 की घोषणा के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे भारत के वायसराय एडविन सैमुअल मोंटेग्यु द्वारा घोषित किया गया था। घोषणा में भारत में उत्तरदायी सरकार के क्रमिक विकास की नीति का वादा किया गया था। इसे बिना किसी आपत्ति के होम रूल आंदोलन के नेताओं द्वारा अच्छी तरह से स्वीकार किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.21) India is planning to replicate the Girinka programme of which of the following African countries? Nigeria Gambia Rwanda Tanzania Q.21) भारत निम्नलिखित में से किस अफ्रीकी देश के गिरिंका कार्यक्रम (Girinka programme) को दोहराने की योजना बना रहा है? नाइजीरिया गाम्बिया रवांडा तंजानिया Q.22) Hope Island seem in news is a part of which of the following sanctuaries? Pulicat Wildlife Sanctuary Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary Malvan Wildlife Sanctuary Q.22) ‘होप आइलैंड’ समाचारों में दिखा है जोकि निम्नलिखित में से किस अभयारण्य का एक हिस्सा है? पुलिकट वन्यजीव अभयारण्य कोरिंगा वन्यजीव अभयारण्य कृष्णा वन्यजीव अभयारण्य मालवन वन्यजीव अभयारण्य Q.23) Consider the following pairs:           Military Exercises Countries involved    1. TSENTR China   2. MAITREE Bangladesh   3. KAZIND Kazakhstan   4. MALABAR Japan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only Q.23) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                         सैन्य अभ्यास                             शामिल देश  1. TSENTR चीन 2. मैत्री (MAITREE) बांग्लादेश 3. काज़िंद (KAZIND) कजाखस्तान 4. मालाबार (MALABAR) जापान ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 Q.24) With reference to ‘Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB)’, consider the following statements: A-WEB is largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide. It undertakes election Observation Programmes in various countries. Permanent secretariat of A-WEB is located at Seoul. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.24) ‘एसोसिएशन ऑफ वर्ल्ड इलेक्शन बॉडीज (A-WEB)’ के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: A-WEB विश्व भर में चुनाव प्रबंधन निकायों (EMBs) का सबसे बड़ा संघ है। यह विभिन्न देशों में चुनाव अवलोकन कार्यक्रम करता है। A-WEB का स्थायी सचिवालय सियोल में स्थित है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.25) Consider the following statements about ‘International Migrant Stock 2019’ report: It is released by International Organization for Migration (IOM). As per the report India is the leading country of origin of international migrants in 2019 followed by Mexico. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) 'अंतर्राष्ट्रीय प्रवासी स्टॉक 2019' (International Migrant Stock) रिपोर्ट के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह प्रवास के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संगठन (IOM) द्वारा जारी किया गया है। रिपोर्ट के अनुसार भारत 2019 में मेक्सिको के बाद अंतर्राष्ट्रीय प्रवासियों की उत्पत्ति का प्रमुख देश है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) ‘Gandan Tegchenling Monastery’ was in news recently. Where is it located? India Bhutan Tibet Mongolia Q.26) ‘गंदान टीचिंगलिंग मठ’ (Gandan Tegchenling Monastery) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह कहाँ स्थित है? भारत भूटान तिब्बत मंगोलिया Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Post Disaster Needs Assessment (PDNA)’ The PDNA tool is developed by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). It is supported by the World Bank, and the European Union. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'आपदा संबंधी आवश्यकताओं का आकलन (PDNA)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। PDNA उपकरण आपदा प्रतिरोधी संरचना के लिए गठबंधन (CDRI) द्वारा विकसित किया गया है। यह विश्व बैंक और यूरोपीय संघ द्वारा समर्थित है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) ‘Shondol dance’ is associated with which of the following regions? Terai Ladakh Chhota Nagpur Khandesh Q.28) ‘शोंडोल नृत्य’ (Shondol dance) निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र से संबंधित है? तराई लद्दाख छोटा नागपुर खानदेश Q.29) ‘Hangul’, can be spotted in which of the following National Parks? Namdapha National Park Dachigam National Park Galathea National Park Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park Q.29) 'हंगुल', निम्नलिखित में से किस राष्ट्रीय उद्यान में देखा जा सकता है? नामदाफा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान दाचीगाम राष्ट्रीय उद्यान गैलाथिया राष्ट्रीय उद्यान मन्नार की खाड़ी समुद्री राष्ट्रीय उद्यान Q.30) ‘Thalweg Principle’ was in news recently. What is it associated with? Border demarcation between nation states Extradition Treaties Peaceful Uses of Outer Space Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes Q.30) ‘थालवेग सिद्धांत’ (Thalweg Doctrine) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह किसके साथ संबद्ध है राष्ट्र राज्यों के मध्य सीमा का सीमांकन प्रत्यर्पण संधियाँ बाह्य अंतरिक्ष का शांतिपूर्ण उपयोग अपशिष्टों की डंपिंग द्वारा समुद्री प्रदूषण DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba