Mar 27, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan [Day - 23]- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 Science and Technology & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Hello Friends, The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 23 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   ARCHIVES OF 60 DAY PLAN Q.1) ‘There’s Plenty of Room at the Bottom’ was a famous talk by Richard Feynman. What was subject of the talk? Deep Ocean minerals Geothermal energy Nanotechnology Quantum computing  Q.1) ‘इसके अंदर बहुत सारी संभावनाएं हैं’ (There’s Plenty of Room at the Bottom) रिचर्ड फेनमैन का एक प्रसिद्ध संवाद था। इस संवाद का विषय क्या था? गहरे महासागरीय खनिज भू-तापीय ऊर्जा नैनो तकनीक  क्वांटम कम्प्यूटिंग Q.2) Which of the following properties of matter change at the Nano scale? Chemical reactivity Mechanical strength Electrical conductivity. Refractive index  Melting point  Density Colour  Select the correct option –  1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 only All of the above Q.2) नैनो स्तर पर पदार्थ के निम्नलिखित गुणों में से कौन सा परिवर्तन होता है? रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया यांत्रिक सामर्थ्य (Mechanical strength) विद्युत चालकता अपवर्तक सूचकांक (Refractive index) गलनांक घनत्व रंग सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 7 केवल 1, 2, 3, 5 और 7 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Which of the following factors are responsible for causing significant difference in properties of nano materials as compared to normal material? Decreased Density Increased relative surface area Increased quantum effects Select the correct option –  1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.3) सामान्य सामग्री की तुलना में नैनो सामग्री के गुणों में महत्वपूर्ण अंतर पैदा करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कारक उत्तरदायी हैं? घनत्व में कमी सतह के सापेक्ष क्षेत्र में वृद्धि क्वांटम प्रभाव में वृद्धि सही विकल्प का चयन करें - 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) Claytronics, an evolving concept, is related to which of the following? Quantum computing Programmable matter Soil testing Robot to scoop matter from celestial body Q.4) क्लेट्रोनिक्स (Claytronics), एक उभरती हुई अवधारणा, निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? क्वांटम कम्प्यूटिंग प्रोग्राम करने योग्य वस्तु (Programmable matter)  मृदा परीक्षण खगोलीय पिंड से पदार्थ निकालने के लिए रोबोट Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Smart Fertilizers’ – Nutrient is released only on-demand by the crop It has designer molecule that allows sustained release of nutrients by a plant-root activated mechanism. Each molecule is a Nano-bot that helps in elimination of unwanted microorganisms from the soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 only 1 and 2 only  2 and 3 only Q.5) 'स्मार्ट उर्वरक' (Smart Fertilizers) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - फसल द्वारा केवल मांग पर पोषक तत्व जारी किया जाता है इसमें डिजाइनर अणु होते है जो एक पादप-जड़ सक्रिय तंत्र द्वारा पोषक तत्वों के निरंतर निर्गमन की अनुमति देता है। प्रत्येक अणु एक नैनो-बॉट (Nano-bot) होते है जो मिट्टी से अवांछित सूक्ष्मजीवों को समाप्त करने में मदद करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  Q.6) Which of the following statements are correct about the Microdot patches? This involves spraying of body parts of vehicles with invisible microdots, which give a unique identification. They will reduce road accidents. They will reduce vehicle thefts.  Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only  1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 Q.6) माइक्रोडॉट पैच (Microdot patches) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? इसमें अदृश्य माइक्रोडॉट का वाहनों के हिस्सों पर छिड़काव शामिल है, जो एक विशिष्ट पहचान देते हैं। वे सड़क दुर्घटनाओं को कम करेंगे। वे वाहन चोरी को कम करेंगे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.7) In which of the following areas Nano Technology has application? RO filtration technology  Fuel Cell Cloud Seeding Solar cells Quantum Computing Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above Q.7) नैनो टेक्नोलॉजी में निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र में अनुप्रयोग है? आरओ निस्पंदन प्रौद्योगिकी (RO filtration technology) ईंधन सेल बादलों में छिड़काव (Cloud Seeding) सौर सेल क्वांटम कम्प्यूटिंग नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Graphene –  It is the thinnest and lightest material known to man. It exhibits both electrical and thermal conductivity. It is optically Transparent.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.8) ग्राफीन (Graphene) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह मनुष्य को ज्ञात सबसे पतली और सबसे हल्की सामग्री है। यह विद्युत और तापीय चालकता दोनों को प्रदर्शित करता है। यह ऑप्टिकली (देखने में) रूप से पारदर्शी है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements –  The new division of ‘New and Emerging Strategic Technologies (NEST)’ has been established under Ministry of Science and Technology.  It will spearhead collaboration with foreign partners in the field of 5G and artificial intelligence. It will encourage more public-private collaboration and funding to cutting edge private research.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.9) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय के तहत ‘नई और उभरती हुई सामरिक प्रौद्योगिकियां (NEST)’ का नया विभाग स्थापित किया गया है। यह 5 जी और कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता के क्षेत्र में विदेशी भागीदारों के साथ सहयोग करेगा। यह अत्याधुनिक निजी अनुसंधान को अधिक सार्वजनिक-निजी सहयोग और वित्त पोषण को प्रोत्साहित करेगा। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 Q.10) Which of the following is planning to launch a four-armed robot, Chaser, to clean up Earth’s orbit in 2025? NASA JAXA European Space Agency Roscosmos Q.10) 2025 में पृथ्वी की कक्षा को साफ करने के लिए, निम्नलिखित में से कौन एक चार-सशस्त्र रोबोट, चेज़र (Chaser) लॉन्च करने की योजना बना रहा है? नासा जाक्सा (JAXA) यूरोपीय अंतरिक्ष एजेंसी रोसकॉस्मोस  Q.11) Which country has recently sent the humanoid robot to International Space Station to assist astronauts? U.S.A Japan China  Russia Q.11) हाल ही में किस देश ने अंतरिक्ष यात्रियों की सहायता के लिए मानव रोबोट (humanoid robot) को अंतर्राष्ट्रीय अंतरिक्ष स्टेशन भेजा है? संयुक्त राज्य अमेरीका जापान चीन रूस Q.12) Consider the following statements –  The International Conference on Nano Science and Nano Technology (ICONSAT) is organised under the aegis of Nano Mission by Department of Science and Technology.  India is amongst the top five nations in the world in terms of scientific publications in Nanoscience and technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.12) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - नैनो विज्ञान और नैनो प्रौद्योगिकी पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन (ICONSAT) का आयोजन विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग द्वारा नैनो मिशन के तत्वावधान में किया जाता है। भारत नैनो विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी के क्षेत्र में वैज्ञानिक प्रकाशनों के मामले में विश्व के शीर्ष पांच देशों में शामिल है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding Tissue Nano Transfection: The process is believed to heal injuries or regrow organs with one touch. A Nano-chip injects genetic code into skin cells, turning those skin cells into other types of cells required for treating diseased conditions. It first converts the skin cells into pluripotent cells and then converts them into functional cells. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.13) ऊतक नैनो अभिकर्मक (Tissue Nano Transfection) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: ऐसा माना जाता है कि यह प्रक्रिया एक स्पर्श के साथ चोटों को ठीक करती है या अंगों को फिर से बढ़ने देती है। नैनो-चिप आनुवंशिक कोड को त्वचा कोशिकाओं में इंजेक्ट करती है, तथा उन त्वचा कोशिकाओं को रोगग्रस्त स्थितियों के इलाज के लिए आवश्यक अन्य प्रकार की कोशिकाओं में बदल देती है। यह पहले त्वचा कोशिकाओं को प्लूरिपोटेंट कोशिकाओं (pluripotent cells) में परिवर्तित करती है तथा फिर उन्हें कार्यात्मक कोशिकाओं में परिवर्तित करता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही हैं? 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Nano Composites: It is a combination of a bulk matrix and nano-dimensional phase(s) differing in properties. Nanocomposites differ from conventional composite materials due to the exceptionally high surface to volume ratio of the reinforcing phase. Nano composites are not found in nature. Select the code from following: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.14) नैनो मिश्रण (Nano Composites) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है: यह एक अत्यधिक मैट्रिक्स और नैनो-आयामी चरणों के गुणों में भिन्नता का एक संयोजन है। प्रबल चरण में आयतन अनुपात के असाधारण उच्च सतह के कारण नैनो मिश्रण, पारंपरिक मिश्रित सामग्रियों से भिन्न होते हैं। नैनो मिश्रण प्रकृति में नहीं पाए जाते हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.15) Which of the following is correct description of ‘Vyommitra’, recently in news? ISRO’s humanoid robot that will test-flight Gangayaan ISRO’s humanoid robot that will go to International Space Station. Large robotic air purifiers developed indigenously by CSIR. Drones installed with air guns for scattering of smog.     Q.15) निम्नलिखित में से कौन ‘व्योमित्र’ (Vyommitra) का सही वर्णन है, जो हाल ही में समाचारों में था? इसरो का ह्यूमनॉइड रोबोट, जो गंगनयान का परीक्षण करेगा इसरो का ह्यूमनॉइड रोबोट जो इंटरनेशनल स्पेस स्टेशन जाएगा। सीएसआईआर द्वारा स्वदेशी रूप से विकसित बड़े रोबोट एयर प्यूरीफायर। स्मॉग को बिखराने के लिए एयर गन वाला ड्रोन। Q.16) Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Automated Guided Vehicle’ Robots? They are portable robots that follow along marked lines or wires on the floor. They are most often used in industrial applications to transport heavy materials around a large industrial building, such as a factory or warehouse. It uses lasers, camera, Electromagnetic radiation or Magnetism to navigate. Select the code from following: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.16) ‘स्वचालित निर्देशित वाहन’ (Automated Guided Vehicle) रोबोट के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? वे पोर्टेबल रोबोट हैं जो फर्श पर चिह्नित लाइनों या तारों के साथ चलते हैं। वे अक्सर औद्योगिक अनुप्रयोगों में बड़े औद्योगिक भवन के आसपास भारी सामग्री के परिवहन के लिए उपयोग किए जाते हैं, जैसे कि कारखाने या गोदाम। नेविगेट करने के लिए यह लेजर, कैमरा, इलेक्ट्रोमैग्नेटिक रेडिएशन या मैग्नेटिज्म का उपयोग करता है। निम्नलिखित में से कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) Which of the following best describes Quantum Dots? Interstitial spaces, at the nanoscale, in the crystal of a metal.  Basic units of quantum computing. Nanoparticles made of Semiconductor materials. Electronic state forbidden in materials at the Nano scale.   Q.17) निम्नलिखित में से कौन क्वांटम डॉट्स (Quantum Dots) का वर्णन करता है? मध्य अंतरिक्ष, नैनो स्तर पर, एक धातु के क्रिस्टल के रूप में। क्वांटम कंप्यूटिंग की बुनियादी इकाइयाँ। सेमीकंडक्टर सामग्रियों से बने नैनोपार्टिकल्स। नैनो पैमाने पर सामग्री में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्थिति निषिद्ध करना। Q.18) There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. They can enter the food chains. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) कुछ रासायनिक तत्वों के नैनोकणों के बारे में कुछ चिंताएं हैं जिनका उपयोग उद्योग द्वारा विभिन्न उत्पादों के निर्माण में किया जाता है। क्यों? वे पर्यावरण में जमा हो सकते हैं, तथा पानी और मिट्टी को दूषित कर सकते हैं। वे खाद्य श्रृंखलाओं में प्रवेश कर सकते हैं। वे मुक्त कणों (free radicals) के उत्पादन को गति प्रदान कर सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें। केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.19) Which of the following are prospective applications of Nanotechnology? Gene sequencing Tissue engineering Neuro-electronic devices Stem Cell Technology Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.19) नैनोटेक्नोलॉजी के निम्नलिखित में से कौन से संभावित अनुप्रयोग हैं? जीन अनुक्रमण (Gene sequencing) ऊतक अभियांत्रिकी (Tissue engineering) न्यूरो-इलेक्ट्रॉनिक डिवाइस स्टेम सेल प्रौद्योगिकी सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Consider the following statements – Indian Nanoelectronics Users Programme (INUP) is being implemented at Centre of Excellence in Nanoelectronics (CEN) at IISc and IIT Bombay. It has been initiated by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.20) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - भारतीय नैनोइलेक्ट्रॉनिक उपयोगकर्ता कार्यक्रम (INUP) को IISc और IIT बॉम्बे में नैनोइलेक्ट्रॉनिक के उत्कृष्टता केंद्र (CEN) में कार्यान्वित किया जा रहा है। इसकी शुरुआत इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय (MeitY) द्वारा की गई है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.21) ‘Currency Derivatives’ in Indian Pairs like ‘USDINR’ and ‘GBPINR’ are traded on NFO BSE MCX CDS Q.21) ‘USDINR’ और ‘GBPINR’ जैसी भारतीय युग्मित ‘करेंसी डेरिवेटिव्स’ (Currency Derivatives) का व्यापर किसमें किया जाता है। NFO BSE MCX CDS Q.22) Recently announced Einstein Challenge, is related to which of the following? To ensure the ideals of Gandhi are remembered by future generations. To build all modules in a timely manner for India’s own Space station.  To develop innovative solutions to the social problems of India. To make all urban areas within India Open Defecation Free (ODF). Q.22) हाल ही में घोषित आइंस्टीन चैलेंज (Einstein Challenge), निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? गांधी जी के आदर्शों को भविष्य की पीढ़ियों द्वारा स्मरण किया जाना सुनिश्चित करने के लिए। भारत के अपने अंतरिक्ष स्टेशन के लिए समय पर ढंग से सभी मॉड्यूल का निर्माण करना। भारत की सामाजिक समस्याओं के लिए अभिनव समाधान विकसित करना। भारत के सभी शहरी क्षेत्रों को खुले में शौच मुक्त (ओडीएफ) बनाने के लिए। Q.23) Consider the following statements about C40 Clean Air Cities Declaration: It was unveiled at the WHO Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health. Delhi is the only Indian city to sign the declaration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only  Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.23) C40 स्वच्छ वायु शहरों की घोषणा के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: डब्ल्यूएचओ वायु प्रदूषण और स्वास्थ्य पर वैश्विक सम्मेलन में इसका अनावरण किया गया। घोषणा पर हस्ताक्षर करने वाला दिल्ली एकमात्र भारतीय शहर है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.24) The Future Investment Initiative (FII) is an annual investment forum held in Switzerland Saudi Arabia Singapore  South Africa Q.24) भविष्य के लिए निवेश पहल (Future Investment Initiative- FII) एक वार्षिक निवेश फोरम है, जो कहाँ आयोजित किया जाता है स्विट्जरलैंड सऊदी अरब सिंगापुर दक्षिण अफ्रीका Q.25) Recently seen in news, Phazolicin is  A semi-Dirac metal An organoid grown in lab A new antibiotic discovered A cancer drug discovered Q.25) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया, फेजोलिकिन (Phazolicin) क्या है एक अर्ध डायरक धातु (semi-Dirac metal) एक प्रयोगशाला निर्मित अंग एक खोजी गयी नई एंटीबायोटिक एक खोजी गयी कैंसर की दवा Q.26) Which of the following is/are correct regarding the 20th Livestock Census of India? It covers all domesticated animals and its headcounts only in rural areas.  Uttar Pradesh (UP) has recorded highest livestock population followed by Rajasthan. West Bengal has the highest cattle population among the Indian States. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.26) भारत की 20 वीं पशुधन जनगणना के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? यह सभी पालतू पशुओं को शामिल करता है तथा वे केवल ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में ही पाए जाते हैं। उत्तर प्रदेश में सबसे अधिक पशुधन आबादी दर्ज की गई है, उसके बाद राजस्थान है। पश्चिम बंगाल में भारतीय राज्यों में सबसे अधिक मवेशियों की आबादी है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.27) As per Global Hunger Index (GHI) Report 2019, the severity of hunger problem of India falls in which of the following category? Low  Moderate Serious Alarming Q.27) वैश्विक भुखमरी सूचकांक (GHI) रिपोर्ट 2019 के अनुसार, भारत की भूख समस्या की गंभीरता निम्नलिखित में से किस श्रेणी में आती है? निम्न मध्यम गंभीर (Serious) खतरनाक स्तर (Alarming)  Q.28) Which of the following global efforts aims to conserve Snow Leopard? Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Program Global Tiger Initiative SECURE Himalaya Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only 1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.28) निम्न में से किस वैश्विक प्रयास का उद्देश्य हिम तेंदुए का संरक्षण करना है? ग्लोबल स्नो लेपर्ड एंड इकोसिस्टम प्रोग्राम ग्लोबल टाइगर इनिशिएटिव सुरक्षित हिमालय (SECURE Himalaya) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 1, 2 और 3 Q.29) Sometimes seen in news, Soli Chip Technology is developed by  Google Qualcomm Samsung  Intel Q.29) कभी-कभी समाचारों में देखी जाने वाली, सोली चिप टेक्नोलॉजी (Soli Chip Technology) किसके द्वारा विकसित की गयी है गूगल क्वालकॉम सैमसंग इंटेल Q.30) Consider the following statements: RBI will setup the framework for Acceptance Development Fund (ADF) to increase acceptance of debit and credit cards in tier II cities. It was recommended by the Nandan Nilekani Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only  Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: RBI टियर II शहरों में डेबिट और क्रेडिट कार्ड की स्वीकृति बढ़ाने के लिए स्वीकृति विकास निधि (ADF) की रूपरेखा तय करेगा। इसकी सिफारिश नंदन नीलेकणी समिति ने की थी। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times – Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 26, 2020 Important Articles

PRELIMS EXCLUSIVE: CURRENT AFFAIRS CLASSES (12 SESSIONS-By Tauseef Sir): JOIN NOW!

PRELIMS EXCLUSIVE CURRENT AFFAIRS CLASSES (12 SESSIONS-By Tauseef Sir): JOIN NOW! Dear Aspirants, The World is facing an unprecedented crisis. It can be seen as one of the biggest catastrophes being faced by humankind. And we are no different. Our country is in complete-lockdown for 21 days.  Looking at the gravity of the situation, this lockdown may increase for a number of weeks. Whole World is trying hard to fight this menace. The contribution of each one of us is crucial in this fight. Following the regulation is one way to contribute. Do not disobey the law and order at any cost. You should utilize this opportunity to introspect on yourself. As an aspirant, present time can be productively used in self-introspection. You can carefully introspect your learning curve. You can cross-check your preparation level. Don’t indulge in rumours regarding postponement of UPSC Prelims 2020. What if everything is settled by next month and UPSC decides to conduct the examination as on scheduled date? Secondly, UPSC has not announced anything regarding the postponement of Prelims. Whatsoever be the case, you as an aspirant should be on your toes w.r.t preparation. We know that things are not that easy, but it has never been an easy option for you guys anyway.  Isolation is not new to an UPSC aspirant. You always had to focus on preparation more than anything else. Every moment has two faces: Positive and Negative Negative is what we are witnessing in the World.  Positive is what you can do to yourself! We have been getting a lot of calls and requests regarding revision of Current Affairs for Prelims. Let us have a reality check on Previous Years Prelims Questions from Current Affairs and its relevance w.r.t tons of materials/compilations/modules that many of you follow or try to mug just before Prelims. You conservatively cover more than 1000 pages of compilations prepared by yourself or someone else (past 1 and half Years Current Affairs). Even if 1 or 2 questions are replicated, it doesn’t actually bear fruit for the effort put. In those compilations, you aren’t taught about the relevance and importance of topics or issues and why it should be covered or not missed? Let us see, the questions from previous Prelims 2019: Q.) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Mudumalai, Sathyamagalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and papikonda Wildlife Sancturies; and Mukurthi National park Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam Tiger Reserve ANALYSIS: How many such questions are there in UPSC Prelims every year? More than 30 (encompassing all the domains)   Now, this question seems random for many of you. How is it possible to mug so many WLs, NPs and Tiger Reserves etc.? What if you had read newspapers in such a manner to witness the same there? Do not believe? Check this out: Q.) What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? Recently discovered uranium deposits Tropical rain forests Underground cave systems Water reservoirs ANALYSIS: May seem static to most of you, but it was also in current affairs. Check this out! Q.) Which one of the following statements is not correct? Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the numbers of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. ANALYSIS: You cannot prepare topics like this in isolation. Covering current affairs sincerely in required dimensions will help you solve such questions with ease. Q.) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent ANALYSIS: There are more than 30 such questions in Prelims that can be easily solved if proper follow up of important aspects from current affairs is done. Continuing our effort to bridge the gap in your preparation level and providing guidance, IASbaba is coming up with an Exclusive Current Affairs- 12 Sessions to be taken by Tauseef Ahmad Sir (One of the Founders of IASbaba). He has been very active in guiding, planning and executing Current Affairs Content, Classes and has been very instrumental in previous Track-record in Hit Ratio of IASbaba’s initiatives (Prelims and Mains). Starting 15th April, these sessions will be very productive in terms of notifying the most important aspects from current affairs for upcoming UPSC Prelims 2020. These sessions will surely help you understand the importance of interconnecting issues and aspects from the examination point of view. The core underlying factor in these sessions will be having the greatest number of hits in Prelims 2020. These sessions will focus on such dimensions.  It is an ONLINE MODE PROGRAMME. Session 1-15th April Session 2- 17th April Session 3-19th April Session 4- 21st April Session 5- 23rd April Session 6-25th April Session 7-27th April Session 8-29th April Session 9-1st May Session 10- 3rd May Session 11- 5th May Session 12- 7th May FEE STRUCTURE We have kept the FEE very affordable so that everyone can avail this programme without any difficulty. We request you all to spread the word and let all sincere aspirants be part of this programme. Fee- ₹1200 Plus Tax PAYMENT LINK- CLICK HERE Programme Special Features: Most Probable Prelims Current Affairs Topics from past 1.5 years will be covered in 12 sessions. Crisp and Organized Notes/Content, to make your revision easier- This will be provided on the Platform just after the subscription. You can start preparing from these notes and gear up for the classes starting on 15th April. Sample- Click Here  You can read the FEEDBACK here- Click Here Theme based coverage - Polity, Geography, History, Art and Cultures, Economics, Science and Technology, Environment Tailor-made approach with a major focus on scoring maximum in UPSC Prelims 2020. PRELIMS EXCLUSIVE PROGRAMME (PEP)-2020 FULL PROGRAMME AND Current Affairs PEP Batch- Students need not register for this programme. You will get these lectures on the PEP platform. Do not regret the decision of not joining this program after Prelims 2020.  Feel Confident and Beat the Prelims heat with IASbaba! Also, you can READ - Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times – Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours

Mar 26, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Significance of 21-day lockdown period Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance; Health; GS III – Disaster Management; Science and Technology In News:  Indian Prime Minister recently announced 21-day lockdown period in the entire country to contain the COVID- 19 pandemic. Key Takeaways: 21­day quarantine was encouraged extensively during Ebola crisis as well. The calculations are based on the estimated incubation period of the virus in the human host.  Usually, incubation period for any infection is 14 days epidemiologically. Another week is added to ensure that the infection dies out and the host is entirely safe. Since, this is a novel corona virus, the scientists have estimated the time between entry of virus to the onset of infection, falls within this period, known as median incubation period. It was also recently reported that the median incubation period for COVID­19 is just over five days. 97.5% of people who develop symptoms do so within 11.5 days of infection.  This is the most effective way of preventing the spread of infection. Maintaining personal hygiene and practising personal distancing are other ways of prevention. Important value additions: Ebola  Ebola virus disease (EVD) is also known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever. It is viral haemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by ebolaviruses.  The virus causes severe bleeding, organ failure and can lead to death. Humans may spread the virus to other humans through contact with bodily fluids such as blood. Quarantine  Quarantine is a restriction on the movement of people and goods which is intended to prevent the spread of disease or pests. Preventive Detention, PSA and NSA Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity  In News:  Public Safety Act and National Security Act were in news because of recent detentions that took place after abrogation of Article 370 and also due to NCR and Anti-CAA protests. Besides, recently former J&K CM Omar Abdulla was released after revocation of his detention. So it is important to understand the concept of Preventive detention and FRs as well. Important value additions: Preventive Detention It is the imprisonment of a person with the aim of preventing him from committing further offences or of maintaining public order. Article 22 (3) - If a person is arrested or detained under preventive detention, then the protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 (1) and 22(2) shall not be available. A detainee under preventive detention can have no right of personal liberty guaranteed by Article 19 or Article 21.  To prevent reckless use of Preventive Detention, certain safe guards are provided in the constitution: A person may be taken to preventive custody only for 3 months at the first instance.  The detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention. The detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention.  Public Safety Act (PSA) The Jammu & Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 is a preventive detention law. A person is taken into custody to prevent him/her from acting in a manner that is a threat to the security of J&K. It is very similar to the National Security Act. It allows for detention of a person without a formal charge. Detention can be up to two years. Detained person need not be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the detention.  The detained person does not have the right to move a bail application before a criminal court. He/she cannot engage any lawyer also. Only The High Court and the Supreme Court have the jurisdiction to hear habeus corpus petitions against the detention. National Security Act The purpose of The National Security Act of 1980 is to make provisions for preventive detention in certain cases and for related matters. The act extends to the whole of India.  The act empowers the Central Government and State Governments to detain a person to prevent him/her from acting in any manner prejudicial: to the security of India,  to the relations of India with foreign countries,  to the maintenance of public order,  to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.  The act also gives power to the governments to detain a foreigner in a view to regulate his presence or expel from the country.  The maximum period of detention is 12 months. Addendum to the Guidelines regarding Nationwide Lockdown issued Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance; GS III – Disaster Management In News:  Addendum to the guidelines regarding Nationwide lockdown was issued recently by Ministry of Home Affairs. This addendum lays down additional categories of essential goods and services exempted under the Disaster Management Act, with respect to the 21- day lockdown. Important value additions: Disaster Management Act  The Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for the legal and institutional framework for disaster management in India at the national, state and district levels. The primary responsibility of Disaster Management vests with the state government. The central government lays down the plans, policies and guidelines and provides support. Recently, the Home Ministry declared the coronavirus outbreak as a "notified disaster", thus bringing into play the provisions of the Disaster Management Act. The Act allows the National Executive Committee to give directions to governments regarding measures to be taken by them. The Disaster Management Act is also being used to rein in the circulation of fake news. The Act is being used in tandem with the Epidemic Diseases Act. Recapitalisation plan for regional rural banks approved Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III - Economy In News:  The Centre has approved Rs.1.304 crore recapitalisation plan for regional rural banks. Key takeaways: It is done to improve their capital-to-risk weighted assests ratio (CRAR). These institutions that play major role in provision of credit in rural areas shall be strengthened. Important value additions: Regional Rural Banks. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks (Government Banks)  They operate at regional level in different states of India.  They have been created with a view to serve primarily the rural areas of India with basic banking and financial services. Capital-to-Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) The CRAR is the capital needed for a bank measured in terms of the assets (mostly loans) disbursed by the banks.  Higher the assets, higher should be the capital by the bank. Mass nesting of Olive Ridleys Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III – Environment; Conservation In News:  Vulnerable Olive Ridley sea turtles have returned to Odisha’s Rushikulya river in lakhs for mass nesting. Key takeaways: The animals had skipped Rushikulya in 2019 which became a cause of concern for turtle researchers. Tourists have been barred from visiting Rushikulya due to the countrywide lockdown in place since March 24. Thousands of turtles also laid eggs at Gahiramatha marine sanctuary recently. Important value additions: Olive Ridley The Olive Ridley sea turtle is the most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. It is found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans. It is best known for their unique mass nesting called arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. IUCN status: Vulnerable. Marine Turtles Five species of sea turtles are known to inhabit Indian coastal waters and islands. Olive Ridley turtle  Green turtle Hawksbill turtle Loggerhead turtle Leatherback turtle Except the Loggerhead, the remaining four species nest along the Indian coast. Olive Ridley turtle [caption id="attachment_58396" align="aligncenter" width="389"] Mass nesting of Olive Ridleys[/caption] Image Source: Click here (MAINS FOCUS) GOVERNANCE/ HEALTH ISSUE Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.   Drug Security: COVID-19’ s impact on API Industry Do you know? All drugs are made up of two core components: API & Excipients Indian pharmaceutical industry is the 3rd largest in the world by volume but is largely dependent on China India imports 80% of the APIs used for drug manufacturing from China What is Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API)?  Part of any drug that produces its effects.  Intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other direct effect in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease What are Excipients? Substances other than the drug that helps deliver the medication to your system.  Excipients are chemically inactive substances, such as lactose or mineral oil.  Example: for headache, acetaminophen is the API, while the liquid in the gel-capsule or the bulk of a pill is the excipient.  Why India is poor in APIs? Weak Domestic Manufacturing sector Inadequate government support Lack of Central-State cooperation in effective policy making Impact on COVID-19 on India’s API sector Hostage to Supply Side disruption due to high dependence on China on APIs thus endangering the drug security in India Price Rise of pharmaceutical drugs Impacts the affordable healthcare services Disproportionately impacts the poor  Measures taken by the government (on 21st March 2020)  Production Linked Incentive Scheme  Objective: To encourage domestic manufacture of key starting materials (raw material used in manufacture of APIs), drug intermediates, and APIs. Financial incentive will be given to eligible manufacturers of identified 53 critical bulk drugs on their incremental sales over the base year (2019-20) for a period of 6 years. A sum of Rs. 6,940 crore has been approved for this scheme Promotion of Bulk Drug Parks 3 mega Bulk Drug parks will be developed in India in partnership with States. Parks will have common facilities such as solvent recovery plant, distillation plant, power & steam units, common effluent treatment plant etc. A sum of Rs. 3,000 crore has been approved for this scheme for next 5 years. Impact of the above two initiatives: Reduces manufacturing cost of bulk drugs in the country  Reduces dependency on other countries for bulk drugs Attracts private sector and foreign investment into the sector Creates additional employment Challenges ahead Issues with Government’s price-capping policy – so less private player participation Drug makers are forced to cut costs to maximise profits - favour cheap Chinese APIs with basic minimum quality, Indian made APIs Also capping prices doesn’t really succeed (study from different countries) Drug price control Order (DPCO) needs reforms and amendments Connecting the dots Medical Devices Amendment Rules How India can attain self-sufficiency in manufacturing drugs INTERNATIONAL/ECONOMY Topic: General Studies 3: Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests COVID-19: Possibility of Biggest Depression World had witnessed two great depressions- The Great Depression (GD) of 1930s and 2008 global financial crisis (GFC). There is high possibility that COVID-19 could cause the history’s biggest economic depression given the number of people and economies it has affected What is depression? It is a sustained, long-term downturn in economic activity in one or more economies Impact of the previous two depressions – GFC & GD of 1930s  Stock markets collapsed by 50% or more Credit markets froze up Massive bankruptcies of firms followed Unemployment rates soared above 10% GDP contracted at an annualized rate of 10% or more How COVID-19 induced depression can be different from previous depression? The above mentioned macroeconomic and financial outcomes of depression took around three years to play out for 2008-GFC & 1930-GD In the current COVID-19 crisis, similar outcomes have materialized in three weeks- thus exacerbating the possibility of Depression. COVID induced depression is more severe & faster. Measures needed by countries Containing the epidemic All countries need to roll out widespread Covid-19 testing, tracing and treatment measures, enforce quarantines, and a full-scale lockdown (China model) Antivirals and other therapeutics need to be deployed on a massive scale as it could take 18 months for a vaccine to be developed and produced at global scale Easy Monetary Policy by Central Banks Zero or negative interest rates Quantitative easing –large-scale asset purchases by Central Bank to induce liquidity into system Credit easing to banks, non-banks, money market funds, and even large corporations. Massive Fiscal Stimulus Direct cash disbursements to households Monetizing the increased fiscal deficits – so that interest rates are kept low Challenges Monetization of massive deficits starts can lead to high inflation.  Geopolitical white swans that could derail recovery of global economy The crisis can give way to renewed conflicts between the West and at least four revisionist powers: China, Russia, Iran, and North Korea. The possibility of cyber attacks on the US election process may lead to a contested final result which will have a spill over effect on International Institutions (causes disorder & chaos) Risk of a war between the US and Iran Conclusion The trifecta of risks—uncontained pandemics, insufficient economic policy arsenals, and geopolitical white swans—will be enough to tip the global economy into persistent depression and a runaway financial-market meltdown. Thus, above measures needs to be taken. Connecting the dots: Difference between Earlier depression and Depression that can be caused by COVID-19 How should world countries work together after COVID-19 to bring back the economy Keynesian Economics (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements: The time between entry of virus to the onset of infection is known as Median incubation period. Median incubation period for COVID-19 is five days. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements: Under preventive detention, protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 (1) and 22(2) shall be available. Detention can be upto 3 years under Public Safety Act. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements: #stayhomeindiawithbooks initiative was launched recently by Human Resource Development Ministry. The books are available for download only in Hindi and English. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements: Disaster management is the prime responsibility of state government. Recently coronavirus pandemic was notified as a disaster. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 25th March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 D 3 D 4 B Must Read About Indian Health Diplomacy: The Indian Express About COVID-19 and data puzzle of China: The Hindu

Mar 26, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan [Day - 22]- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Hello Friends, The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 22 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   ARCHIVES OF 60 DAY PLAN Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Capital Conservation Buffer’ It is the mandatory capital that financial institutions are required to hold above the minimum regulatory requirement. While Capital Adequacy Ratio is determined by RBI, Capital Conservation Buffer is fixed by the government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.1) 'पूंजीगत संरक्षण बफर' (Capital Conservation Buffer) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह अनिवार्य पूंजी है जिसे वित्तीय संस्थानों को न्यूनतम नियामक आवश्यकता से ऊपर रखने की आवश्यकता होती है। पूंजी पर्याप्तता अनुपात RBI द्वारा निर्धारित किया जाता है, जबकि पूंजीगत संरक्षण बफर सरकार द्वारा निर्धारित किया जाता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)’ None of the NBFCs can accept Time deposits. NBFCs can invest the money in Share Market, unlike banks which are not allowed to do so. CRR does not apply to any NBFC while SLR applies only to deposit-taking NBFC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.2) 'गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कंपनियों (NBFC)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। कोई भी एनबीएफसी सावधि जमा (Time deposits) को स्वीकार नहीं कर सकता है। एनबीएफसी उन बैंकों के विपरीत शेयर बाजार में पैसा लगा सकते हैं, जिन्हें ऐसा करने की अनुमति नहीं होती है। CRR किसी भी NBFC पर लागू नहीं होता है, जबकि SLR केवल जमा (deposit) स्वीकार करने वाली NBFC के लिए लागू होता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Which of the following category is not included under ‘Priority Sector Lending’? Housing Healthcare Education Renewable energy Q.3) ‘प्राथमिकता क्षेत्र के ऋणों’ के तहत निम्न में से कौन सी श्रेणी शामिल नहीं है? आवास स्वास्थ्य देखभाल शिक्षा नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Digital Public Credit Registry’ It will capture loan information of individuals and corporate borrowers and work as a financial information infrastructure. It was set up based on the recommendations given by Y.M. Deosthalee committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) ‘डिजिटल पब्लिक क्रेडिट रजिस्ट्री’ (Digital Public Credit Registry) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह व्यक्तियों और कॉर्पोरेट उधारकर्ताओं की ऋण जानकारी को संग्रहित करेगा तथा वित्तीय जानकारी के बुनियादी ढांचे के रूप में काम करेगा। यह वाई.एम. देवस्थले समिति द्वारा दी गई सिफारिशों के आधार पर स्थापित किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is an initiative of the government aimed at making banking services available at people’s doorstep. Consider the following statements regarding IPPB IPPB is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Department of Post and will be governed entirely by it. It will accept deposits, offer remittance services, mobile banking and provide services such as insurance and mutual fund. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.5) इंडिया पोस्ट पेमेंट्स बैंक (IPPB) सरकार की एक पहल है, जिसका उद्देश्य बैंकिंग सेवाओं को लोगों के घर पर उपलब्ध कराना है। IPPB के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें IPPB डाक विभाग की पूर्ण स्वामित्व वाली सहायक कंपनी है तथा पूरी तरह से इसके द्वारा शासित होगी। यह जमा स्वीकार करेगा, प्रेषण (remittance) सेवाओं, मोबाइल बैंकिंग तथा बीमा और म्यूचुअल फंड जैसी सेवाएं प्रदान करेगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.6) ‘Bharat 22’ recently seen in news refers to An Exchange Traded Fund India’s fastest Indigenous train Mission to develop affordable influenza vaccine by 2022 Mission to consolidate all the disparate digital initiatives by 2022 Q.6) 'भारत 22' हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया है, जो किससे संबंधित है एक विनिमय व्यापार फंड (Exchange Traded Fund) भारत की सबसे तेज़ स्वदेशी ट्रेन 2022 तक सस्ते इन्फ्लूएंजा टीका विकसित करने का मिशन 2022 तक सभी असमान डिजिटल पहलों को समेकित करने का मिशन Q.7)  Which of the following are steps taken by the government to address the issue of Non-Performing Assets (NPA)? Indradhanush Scheme Project Sashakt Project Insight Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.7) गैर-निष्पादित परिसंपत्तियों (NPA) के मुद्दे को हल करने के लिए सरकार ने निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कदम उठाए हैं? इन्द्रधनुष योजना प्रोजेक्ट सशक्त प्रोजेक्ट इनसाइट नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Money Multiplier in an economy Money Multiplier increases with a reduction in statutory liquid ratio. Money Multiplier increases with a decrease in Loan demand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.8) एक अर्थव्यवस्था में मौद्रिक गुणक (Money Multiplier) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें वैधानिक तरलता अनुपात में कमी के साथ मौद्रिक गुणक बढ़ता है। मौद्रिक गुणक, उधार की मांग में कमी के साथ बढ़ता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.9) The term ‘Narrow Banking’ refers to Banks that invest only on Narrow money Banks that invest large parts of deposits in risk-free assets Banks that invest only in a few specific industries Banks that serve only a few selected clientele Q.9) ‘संकीर्ण बैंकिंग’ (Narrow Banking) शब्द से क्या तात्पर्य है बैंक जो केवल संकीर्ण मुद्रा पर निवेश करते हैं बैंक जो जोखिम-मुक्त संपत्ति में अपनी जमा के बड़े हिस्से का निवेश करते हैं बैंक जो केवल कुछ विशिष्ट उद्योगों में निवेश करते हैं बैंक जो केवल कुछ चुनिंदा ग्राहकों की सेवा करते हैं Q.10) Punjab and Maharashtra cooperative bank was recently in news. Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative Banks. They are controlled and regulated by the RBI. They are distributed uniformly throughout India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) पंजाब और महाराष्ट्र सहकारी बैंक हाल ही में समाचारों में थे। सहकारी बैंकों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वे आरबीआई द्वारा नियंत्रित और विनियमित होते हैं। वे पूरे भारत में समान रूप से फैले हुए हैं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Which of the following are regulated by Securities exchange board of India (SEBI) Venture Capital Chit Fund Companies Pension funds Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only None of the above Q.11) भारतीय प्रतिभूति विनिमय बोर्ड (SEBI) द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विनियमित किया जाता है उद्यम पूंजी (Venture Capital) चिट फंड कंपनियां पेंशन निधि नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) of RBI Only Scheduled banks can avail MSF from RBI. The MSF rate is usually higher than the Repo rate. Banks can pledge government securities from the SLR quota up to 1% under the MSF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.12) RBI की सीमांत स्थायी सुविधा (Marginal Standing Facility- MSF) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें केवल अनुसूचित बैंक ही RBI से MSF का लाभ उठा सकते हैं। MSF दर आमतौर पर रेपो दर से अधिक होती है। MSF के तहत बैंक एसएलआर कोटे से 1% तक सरकारी प्रतिभूतियों में रख सकते हैं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements BHIM app allows the user to transfer money only to someone with a UPI-enabled bank account. BHIM app does not allow transactions of commercial nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.13) डिजिटल भुगतान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें BHIM ऐप उपयोगकर्ता को केवल UPI- सक्षम बैंक खाते वाले किसी व्यक्ति को धन हस्तांतरित करने की अनुमति देता है। BHIM ऐप वाणिज्यिक प्रकृति के लेनदेन की अनुमति नहीं देता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.14) The term ‘Zero coupon bonds’ refer to Bonds that are issued at a discount to its face value but pays no interest. Bonds that are issued at its face value but pays interest. Bonds that are not backed up by collateral or security. Bonds that yield zero interest if the issuing company/entity becomes bankrupt. Q.14) शब्द 'शून्य कूपन बॉन्ड' किससे संबंधित है बांड जो इसके अंकित मूल्य पर छूट के साथ जारी किए जाते हैं, लेकिन कोई ब्याज नहीं देते हैं। बांड जो इसके अंकित मूल्य पर जारी किए जाते हैं, लेकिन ब्याज का भुगतान करते हैं। बांड जो संपार्श्विक या सुरक्षा द्वारा समर्थित नहीं होते हैं। यदि बांड जारी करने वाली कंपनी / इकाई दिवालिया हो जाती है तो शून्य ब्याज प्राप्त होता है। Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Treasury bills Treasury bills are securities issued only by the Government treasury. Individuals, Firms, Trusts, Institutions and banks can purchase Treasury Bills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.15) ट्रेजरी बिल के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें ट्रेजरी बिल केवल सरकारी खजाने (ट्रेज़री) द्वारा जारी की जाने वाली प्रतिभूतियां हैं। व्यक्ति, फर्म, ट्रस्ट, संस्थान और बैंक ट्रेजरी बिल खरीद सकते हैं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.16) Which of the following statement regarding Participatory notes (P-notes) is incorrect? P-notes are instruments issued by SEBI for overseas investors who want to invest in the stock markets in India. Any entity can invest in the participatory notes without registering under SEBI. Participatory notes are transferable through endorsement and delivery making trading easy in the country. P-Notes also help in keeping the investor’s name anonymous along with reducing the transaction costs. Q.16) पार्टिसिपेटरी नोट्स (पी-नोट्स) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है? पी-नोट विदेशी निवेशकों के लिए सेबी द्वारा जारी किए गए उपकरण हैं जो भारत के शेयर बाजारों में निवेश करना चाहते हैं। कोई भी इकाई सेबी के तहत पंजीकरण के बिना पार्टिसिपेटरी नोटों में निवेश कर सकती है। पार्टिसिपेटरी नोट देश में व्यापार को आसान बनाने वाले अनुमोदनों और वितरण के माध्यम से हस्तांतरणीय हैं। पी-नोट्स लेन-देन की लागत को कम करने के साथ-साथ निवेशक का नाम गुमनाम रखने में भी मदद करते हैं। Q.17) Which one of the following provides the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) in India? Indian banks’ Association National Securities Depository Limited National Payments Corporation of India Reserve Bank of India Q.17) निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत में तत्काल भुगतान सेवा (IMPS) प्रदान करता है? भारतीय बैंकों का संघ नेशनल सिक्योरिटीज डिपॉजिटरी लिमिटेड भारतीय राष्ट्रीय भुगतान निगम भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक Q.18) Merger of Several Public Sector Banks was recently in news. Which of the following are benefits of the Merger of Banks? Reduces operational costs of the bank. Better ability to raise resources from the market. Eliminates all NPAs of the bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.18) कई सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों का विलय हाल ही में समाचारों में था। निम्नलिखित में से बैंकों के विलय के क्या लाभ हैं? बैंक की परिचालन लागत को कम करता है। बाजार से संसाधन जुटाने की बेहतर क्षमता होती है। बैंक की सभी गैर-निष्पादित संपत्तियों (एनपीए) को समाप्त करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.19) The Ombudsman for Digital Transactions (OSDT) has been set up by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology Ministry of Finance Reserve Bank of India Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Q.19) डिजिटल लेनदेन के लिए लोकपाल (Ombudsman for Digital Transactions- OSDT) किसके द्वारा स्थापित किया गया है इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय वित्त मत्रांलय भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक उपभोक्ता मामले, खाद्य और सार्वजनिक वितरण मंत्रालय Q.20) Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS) was recently in the news. Consider the following statements regarding IL&FS It is a Systemically Important Non-Deposit Core Investment Company (CIC-ND-SI). It is entirely owned by the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.20) इन्फ्रास्ट्रक्चर लीजिंग एंड फाइनेंशियल सर्विसेज (IL&FS) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। IL&FS के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह एक व्यवस्थित रूप से महत्वपूर्ण गैर-जमा (Non-Deposit) कोर निवेश कंपनी (CIC-ND-SI) है। यह पूरी तरह से भारत सरकार के स्वामित्व में है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.21) ‘Fire Coral fungus’ which was in news recently is not found in  Australia India Japan Papua New Guinea Q.21) 'फायर कोरल फंगस' (Fire Coral fungus) जो हाल ही में समाचारों में था, यह कहाँ नहीं पाया जाता है? ऑस्ट्रेलिया भारत जापान पापुआ न्यू गिनी Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Matua Mahasangha’. It was launched as a reformation by the followers of Swami Vivekananda. It originated in the North West Frontier Province. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'मटुआ महासंघ' (Matua Mahasangha) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसे स्वामी विवेकानंद के अनुयायियों द्वारा सुधारक के रूप में लॉन्च किया गया था। यह उत्तर पश्चिम सीमा प्रांत में आरंभ हुआ था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) ‘Gossypol’ was in news recently. It is associated with which of the following crops? Cotton Mustard Paddy Ragi Q.23) 'गॉसिपोल' (Gossypol) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह निम्नलिखित में से किस फसल के साथ संबद्ध है? कपास सरसों धान रागी Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Skandagupta’. He was the last emperor in India to be given the title of Vikramaditya. He successfully fought the battle against the invading Huns. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) 'स्कंदगुप्त' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वह भारत के अंतिम सम्राट थे जिन्हें विक्रमादित्य की उपाधि दी गई। उन्होंने आक्रमणकारी हूणों के विरुद्ध सफलतापूर्वक लड़ाई लड़ी। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Bombay blood group’. The group is deficient in expressing antigen H. Bombay blood group can donate their blood to A,B,O blood types. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) 'बॉम्बे ब्लड ग्रुप' (Bombay blood group) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। प्रतिजन एच (antigen H) को व्यक्त करने की समूह में अल्पता होती है। बॉम्बे ब्लड ग्रुप अपना रक्त A, B, O ब्लड ग्रुप को दान कर सकते हैं। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) The Huns were Nomadic People from which of the following regions? Central Asia Northern Africa South East Asia North East Asia Q.26) हूण (Huns) खानाबदोश लोग निम्न में से किस क्षेत्र के थे? मध्य एशिया उत्तरी अफ्रीका दक्षिण - पूर्व एशिया उत्तर पूर्व एशिया Q.27) ‘State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2019-20” Report was released by NITI Aayog Reserve Bank of India Ministry of Finance GST Council Q.27) ‘राज्य वित्त: 2019-20 के बजट का एक अध्ययन’ रिपोर्ट किसके द्वारा जारी की गई है नीति आयोग भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक वित्त मत्रांलय जीएसटी परिषद Q.28) ‘Rajiv Gauba Committee’ is associated with which of the following sectors? Telecom Sector Education Sector Health Sector Energy Sector Q.28) ‘राजीव गौबा समिति’ निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र से संबंधित है? दूरसंचार क्षेत्र शिक्षा क्षेत्र स्वास्थ्य क्षेत्र ऊर्जा क्षेत्र Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Carbon Pricing Leadership Coalition (CPLC)’ The CPLC Secretariat is administered by The World Bank Group. It is a voluntary partnership of national and sub-national governments. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) ‘कार्बन मूल्य निर्धारण नेतृत्व गठबंधन (CPLC)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। CPLC सचिवालय विश्व बैंक समूह द्वारा प्रशासित है। यह राष्ट्रीय और उप-राष्ट्रीय सरकारों की एक स्वैच्छिक साझेदारी है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) ‘FASTER principles’ is concerned with  Electric Vehicles Carbon Pricing Banking Regulations Multilateral Tax Treaties Q.30) ‘FASTER सिद्धांतों’ (FASTER principles) का संबंध किससे है बिजली के वाहन कार्बन मूल्य निर्धारण बैंकिंग विनियम बहुपक्षीय कर संधियाँ DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times – Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours All the Best! IASbaba  

Mar 26, 2020 RSTV Video

Pandemic & Public Health System – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

Pandemic & Public Health System Archives TOPIC: General Studies 2 Health and Governance In news: India currently has over 140 confirmed cases of COVID-19. The government has been quick to adopt a multipronged strategy, including issuance of clear guidelines to ministries for coordinated action, imposition of travel restrictions, suspension of visas, large-scale screening and contact tracing as well as regular dissemination of information to the public. Mounting a swift response involving all stakeholders in a country of India’s scale and diversity is undoubtedly commendable. With these measures in place we can be confident that India will be able to successfully limit the spread of the disease.  Meanwhile in Italy, the number of coronavirus cases and deaths continue to surge. Doctors and nurses are under increasing pressure and are calling out for help while medical supplies run out rapidly.  In the US, dozens of health-care workers have fallen ill with COVID-19, and more are quarantined after exposure to the virus, an expected but worrisome development as the U.S. health system braces for a surge in infections.  India and COVID-19 COVID-19 has no vaccine or certain treatment. It is a virus whose spread is faster than anything the world health community and governments have ever handled before. As medical sciences work round the clock to develop vaccines and medicines and governments grapple with tough decisions, the responsibility of prevention extends equally to society. Possible effective antiviral medications are being explored. A vaccine will take a year or more to develop. Therefore, the public health measures that needs to be used in the meantime are: Containment through quarantine of exposed people Isolation of infected individuals Border and travel restrictions Social distancing Venue closings Public education especially pertaining to personal measures to help prevent transmission, surveillance, and diagnostic testing.  Towards a resilient public health system In an increasingly globalised and rapidly urbanising world, the risk of such outbreaks spreading quickly to all parts of the world is only becoming higher. The need of the hour is to build a resilient public health system that can prevent diseases, promote good health, and respond quickly to minimise loss of life when faced with an outbreak of this magnitude. Increase spending on public health:  The government needs to enhance funding for health to at least 2.5% of GDP as stated in the National Health Policy (NHP), 2017.  States, too, have a critical role to play in meeting the NHP target of increasing health expenditure to more than 8% of their budget by 2020.  We need to ensure that a large share of the funds goes towards preventative care. A focal point for public health at the central level, with state counterparts: Such an agency would be responsible for performing the functions of disease surveillance and response, monitoring health status, informing and educating the public, as well as of providing evidence for public health action.  In order to be effective, the agency would also need to be legally empowered to enforce compliance from other public authorities, as well as citizens. This is crucial because several factors require inter-sectoral action to achieve a measurable impact on population health. The legislation, possibly in the form of a Public Health Act, would clearly confer specific powers on the agency for taking action to promote public health, especially in situations of “public health nuisances”.  Essential to institute a public health cadre in states, with officials trained in disciplines such as epidemiology, biostatistics, demography, and social and behavioural sciences:  NITI Aayog has consulted a wide range of stakeholders on developing a model public health cadre that draws upon various best practices.  The 13th Conference of the Central Council of Health and Family Welfare (CCHFW) has resolved to establish a public health and management cadre in states by 2022. CCHFW is an apex advisory body that recommends broad lines of policy action in health-related areas. Train front-line workers—like Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs), and Multi-Purpose Workers (MPWs)—  To promote healthy behaviours among people, and identify early signs of a disease outbreak in communities.  Given the inherent information asymmetry in health, and the fact that we live in world where misinformation can spread rapidly, appropriate channels are necessary for ensuring that people are aware of diseases, their symptoms, as well as mechanisms for prevention and treatment.  The National Medical Commission Act, 2019 includes enabling provisions for creating a cadre of mid-level service providers who can also play a vital role in screening people for early signs of illness in rural areas. Efforts must be made to reinforce disease surveillance, and response:  This requires the list of notifiable diseases to be expanded, along with steps for integrating health facilities in the private sector in disease reporting as part of regular surveillance systems.  Infrastructure for surveillance, including adequate numbers of suitably equipped laboratories for testing samples, also needs to be strengthened. The need of the hour is to build a resilient public health system that can prevent diseases, promote good health and respond quickly to minimise loss of life when faced with an outbreak of this magnitude.

Mar 25, 2020 RSTV Video

SAARC Fighting Corona Together – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

SAARC Fighting Corona Together Archives TOPIC: General Studies 2 India’s Diplomacy International Relations In News: Prime Minister Modi reached out to the eight-member regional grouping and pitched for a video conference among the leaders of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation to chalk out a strong strategy to combat coronavirus outbreak. PM Modi's suggestion was backed by all member states of SAARC. “We can respond best by coming together, not growing apart--collaboration not confusion, preparation not panic.” Steps taken by India Covid-19 emergency fund proposed by India: India has pledged $10 million toward a Covid-19 emergency fund With this fund countries can contribute and meet the cost of immediate actions.  Foreign secretaries, through embassies, can coordinate quickly to finalize the concept of this fund and its operations. Medical Emergency Help: India is also putting together a rapid response team of doctors and specialists for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (Saarc) nations India has offered to also quickly arrange online training capsules for your emergency response teams. This will be based on the model we have used in our own country, to raise the capacity of all our emergency staff. India has set up an Integrated Disease Surveillance Portal to better trace possible virus carriers and the people they contacted. The PM offered to share this technology with Saarc partners besides providing training on using it.  Suggested that existing facilities, such as the Saarc Disaster Management Centre, could be used to pool best practices and suggested a common platform to coordinate research on controlling epidemics within South Asia.  Offered Indian Council of Medical Research’s (ICMR) help to coordinate such exercises. Other Suggestions: Experts could brainstorm on the longer-term economic consequences of Covid-19 and how South Asia can insulate internal trade and local value chains from its impact.  Suggested that common SAARC pandemic protocols could be drawn up and applied in such situations The Corona Diplomacy Pakistan:  Pakistan has said it will participate in a video conference of SAARC member countries proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to combat the fast-spreading coronavirus pandemic that has killed over 5,000 people globally.  Pakistan acknowledged that coordinated efforts were needed to minimise the threat posed by the deadly coronavirus.  Raised the Kashmir issue, saying the lockdown there should be ended to help fight the coronavirus outbreak.  Islamabad also sought to get China involved in the SAARC initiative. Mirza proposed that the SAARC secretariat be mandated to establish a working group of national authorities for health information, data exchange and coordination in real time. He proposed a SAARC’s health ministers’ conference and development of regional mechanisms to share disease surveillance data in real time. Afghanistan: Afghan President Ashraf Ghani referred to challenges stemming from Afghanistan’s open border with Iran, where the outbreak has been severe, and suggested that the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) mechanism be used to help deal with the matter. He also proposed modelling diffusion patterns, creation of a common framework for telemedicine and greater cooperation. Maldives: Maldives President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih cited the economic downturn in Maldives owing to the drop in tourists and sought a South Asian response to the crisis. Solih thanked the Indian government for medical assistance and for evacuating nine Maldivians from Wuhan. Sri Lanka: The Sri Lankan President also referred to economic losses and mentioned steps taken by his government. Bangladesh: Sheikh Hasina thanked Prime Minister Modi for bringing 23 Bangladeshi students back from Wuhan. She proposed continuance of the dialogue at technical level through video conference by health ministers and secretaries. Bhutan: Prime Minister Lotay Tshering stated that the pandemic will affect the smaller and vulnerable economies disproportionately. The pandemic does-not follow geographical boundaries, hence it is all the more important for the nations to work together. India and SAARC The video summit is significant because, since 2016, SAARC has been mostly inactive. India had refused to attend the 2016 SAARC summit, which was to be held in Islamabad, following the Uri terror attack, which it said was perpetrated by terrorists based in Pakistan. After Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Bhutan also withdrew from the meet, the summit was called off. India - natural Leader: India has assumed leadership of the South Asian charge against COVID-19. This is appropriate given the reported infection levels is still surprisingly low and the commensurate mass mobilisation, precautionary measures and mass evacuations that India carried out. This posited India as a natural leader. Given how irrelevant the South Asia block has become of late, the video conference served more as a diplomatic bolster rather than an actual organisational meeting. There is more expected out of India… Given the open borders between Nepal, Bhutan and India – borders that were never really policed and consequently, not equipped for such policing – or the highly porous Bangladesh border, it was a tactical mistake for India to not offer more aid. Bangladesh, for example, has a large migrant population in Italy – possibly the worst affected country right now. Any uncontained fallout will almost certainly spread to India and further on to Nepal and Bhutan.  Similarly, Afghanistan and Pakistan have a highly porous border with the second-worst affected country in percentage terms – Iran. And COVID-19 can break the temperature borders and infect lakhs in populous South Asia. Connecting the Dots: Regional cooperation initiatives on a global disaster like this will act as building blocks for re-discovering the virtues of multilateralism. Discuss.

Mar 25, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Environment Ministry orders relocation of desalination plant project Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment   In News:  The Ministry of Environment and Forests’ Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) has directed the Tamil Nadu Water and Drainage Board (TWAD) to shift its project site. The project site was for setting up a 60 MLD Sea and Brackish Water Reverse Osmosis (SWRO) plant near the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park. According to The EAC, The project site is within the eco-sensitive zone of the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park. The release of brine will certainly impact the fish catch affecting the fishermen. Reefs, seaweeds, seagrass and the overall ecosystem of the area will also be affected. No detailed marine environmental impact assessment had been carried out for the project. Important value additions: The Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park  It is a protected area of India. It consists of 21 small islands and adjacent coral reefs in the Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean. It is the core area of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve. Public access inside the Park is limited to glass bottom boat rides. Image source: https://tvaraj.com/tag/gulf-of-mannar-marine-national-park/ Expert appraisal committee It exists at the Union as well as state levels (state expert appraisal committee or SEAC)  It is formed to advise the government on environmental clearance of development projects. They are involved at all the stages, except for public hearing. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)  It is a process of evaluating the likely environmental impacts of a proposed project or development. Both EPA and EIA are provided under Environment Protection Act 1980. G20 virtual summit Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II – Global groupings In News:  G20 leaders are likely to hold a video conference on 25th March, 2020 to discuss the coronavirus pandemic. Key takeaways: Saudi Arabia, the current president of the forum, declared that it would convene a virtual summit on the extraordinary threat posed by the virus that has killed thousands across the world. Important value additions: G20 The G20 (or Group of Twenty) is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union (EU).  It was founded in 1999. Its aim is to discuss policy pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability. The G20 members are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Republic of Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States and the European Union (EU). Coronavirus pandemic  It is an on-going pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19), caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). CM announces loan waiver under Badavara Bandhu Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II – Welfare schemes; Governance In News:  Karnataka Chief Minister recently announced waiver of loans under the Badavara Bandhu scheme, to provide relief to the poor due to COVID -19 pandemic. Important value additions: Badavara Bandhu scheme Under the scheme, mobile banks were launched to disburse interest-free loans to street vendors and small traders. Small traders will get loans of up to Rs.10,000 without any interest and collateral. The beneficiaries will have the flexibility of repaying the loan on daily instalments of Rs.100 or one-time repayment within three months.  If they repay within the stipulated time, they are eligible for a fresh loan of up to Rs.15,000. Various festivals across the country being celebrated Part of: GS Prelims and Mains I – Art and Culture In News:  Indian Prime Minister greeted people on the occasion of various festivals across the country being celebrated on 25th March, 2020. Key takeaways: The festivals being celebrated are Yugadi, Gudhi Padwa, Navreh and Sajibu Cheiraoba. These festivals mark the New Year's Day for the people belonging to Hindu religion and Sanamahism religion. They are celebrated on the first day of the Hindu lunisolar calendar month of Chaitra.  This typically falls in March or April of the Gregorian calendar. Important value additions: Festivals Description Yugadi It is celebrated in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana states in India. Gudhi Padwa It is celebrated in and near Maharashtra and Goa. Navreh It is celebrated by Kashmiri Pandits. Sajibu Cheiraoba It is celebrated by the people who follow the Sanamahism religion of the Indian state of Manipur. (MAINS FOCUS) GOVERNANCE Topic: General Studies 3: Disaster Management Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies. Death by fireworks Context: Frequent accidents in fireworks units in Sivakasi, Tamilnadu In news: In the past decade 239 people have been killed and over 265 injured in 142 accidents in fireworks units. The fireworks sector has currently grown to 1,070 licensed units employing an estimated 10 lakh workers. Some of the major causes of accidents are: Illegal Functioning: Unlicensed units manufacturing firecrackers have increased, which don’t adhere to the safety guidelines provided by State authorities. Sub-leasing of works who often neglect safety measures so as to maximise their profit.  Mishandling of Chemicals: Rough handling of chemicals by untrained and unskilled workers often leads to fire mishaps Spillage or overloading of chemicals during the filling process  Working outside permitted areas which puts the safety of the neighbourhood in danger. Lack of adequate monitoring by the state authorities The Chaitanya Prasad Committee It examined, among other things, statutory and administrative shortcomings that led to the death of 40 workers at Om Shakti Fireworks Industries in 2012. Some of the committee’s key findings are: Conspicuous absence of proper inspection mechanisms at various government departments.  Lack of coordination between Central and State authorities dealing with the regulation of fireworks industries. It recommended making sub-leasing of works by licensed units a cognisable penal offence As part of industrial safety measures, it mandated inter-safety distances between sheds to be covered with earthen mounds. Way Ahead Adopting safe work practices Comprehensive monitoring by Central and State licensing  Strict enforcement of the safety guidelines by authorities. Increased manpower in such enforcement & regulatory authorities Implementing the recommendation of Chaitanya Prasad Committee Awareness among stakeholders involved in the sector about the significance of safety in manufacturing process. Connecting the dots: Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) Green Crackers HEALTH/GOVERNANCE ISSUE Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Health related issues COVID-19: The race to find a cure Context: The novel coronavirus has infected more than 4 lakh people worldwide and has led to the deaths of more than 17,000.   The epicentre of the pandemic has now shifted from China to Western Developed countries With no specific therapy available at present, there is an increased pressure on world scientific community to fast-forward the development of vaccine Encouraging Developments As per WHO reports, nearly 20 vaccine candidates are in advanced stages of development and will be ready for Phase-I safety trials. In USA: Phase-I safety trials of an experimental vaccine (mRNA-1273) has already been administered to healthy volunteers for its safety and immunogenicity. In China: Another vaccine jointly developed by China’s Academy of Military Medical Sciences and CanSino Biologics has reportedly been cleared for early-stage clinical trials on more than 100 healthy volunteers  The Serum Institute of India has also announced its readiness to start safety trials of a drug following animal experiments Challenges of Vaccine Discovery Side Effects: The immune response induced by experimental vaccination may lead to any disease enhancements. Duration of immunity: If the immunity induced due to vaccination is transient, then humans will be susceptible to reinfections. Thus, a longer test period is required Lengthy Process: It will not be possible to roll-out any efficacious vaccine for at least another year, considering the complexity and the lengthy regulatory process involved in vaccine development Alternative Way Scientists and pharmaceutical companies have thus rushed to investigate and use drugs that have already been approved by regulatory authorities. With the available biological information about the virus protein & its mechanism of infection, the re-purposing of existing drugs to treat COVID-19 patients has already been started in many countries However, without any appropriate controls, careful dosing and safety concerns, such small experiments can do more harm than good Controlled randomised trials It is a study in which people are allocated at random (by chance alone) to receive one of several clinical interventions (in this case the experimental vaccine) Randomization reduces bias and provides a rigorous tool to examine cause-effect relationships between an intervention and outcome. This speeds up the process to understand the drug’s efficacy without undermining safety standards. Solidarity Project: It is an initiative by WHO whereby four drugs or drug combinations will be tested randomly in many countries around the world.  It includes the anti-Ebola drug, Remdesivir, Chloroquine, anti-HIV drugs, and the Ritonavir/Lopinavir combination, with or without Interferon-beta.  The European counterpart of the trial, Discovery, will also conduct such trials in countries including France, Spain, Germany and the U.K. The pharma company Roche has also decided to initiate large, randomised Phase-III trials of its arthritis drug Actemra for its safety and efficacy in adult patients with severe COVID-19 pneumonia.  Conclusion Hopefully, these trials will lead to tangible drug therapies against COVID-19. Connecting the dots: Generic drugs and Branded drugs (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements: Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park is the core area of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve. Public access inside the Park is limited. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements regarding Expert appraisal committee: It exists at the Union level only. The committee is involved at all the stages of environmental clearance. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Which of the following country is not the part of G20 Summit? Argentina Australia Brazil Venezuela Q 4. Consider the following statements: Yugadi is celebrated in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana states of India.  Gudhi Padwa is celebrated in and near Maharashtra and Goa. Which of the above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 24 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 A 3 A 4 A Must Read About Income Support Plan for the Poor to tide over COVID-19 crisis: Livemint About COVID-19 and its impact on digitalisation Livemint About COVID-19 impact on economy The Indian Express

Mar 25, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan [Day - 21]- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Hello Friends, The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 21 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   ARCHIVES OF 60 DAY PLAN Q.1) Consider the following statements Walking inflation is the one which hovers between 3-10% a year and is harmful to the economy because it heats up economic growth too fast During Galloping inflation money loses value so fast that business and employee income can't keep up with costs and prices Stagflation is when economic growth is stagnant but there still is price inflation Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.1) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें चलती मुद्रास्फीति (Walking inflation) वह है जो एक वर्ष में 3-10% के बीच रहती  है तथा अर्थव्यवस्था के लिए हानिकारक होती है क्योंकि इसमें आर्थिक विकास को बहुत तीव्र होता है सरपट मुद्रास्फ़ीति (Galloping inflation) के दौरान मुद्रा मूल्य इतनी तेज़ी से घटता है कि व्यवसाय और कर्मचारी आय को लागत और कीमतों के साथ नहीं रख सकते हैं मुद्रास्फीतिजनित मंदी (Stagflation) तब होता है जब आर्थिक विकास स्थिर होता है लेकिन अभी भी मूल्य मुद्रास्फीति होती है उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) Which of the following phenomenon contradicts the economic theory of Philips curve? Deflation Re-inflation Stagflation Core inflation Q.2) निम्न में से कौन सी घटना फिलिप्स वक्र के आर्थिक सिद्धांत का विरोध करती है? अपस्फीति (Deflation) पुन: मुद्रास्फीति मुद्रास्फीतिजनित मंदी (Stagflation) मूल स्फीति (Core inflation) Q.3) Consider the following statements  Cost-push inflation occurs due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials while demand for the affected product remaining constant Inflation can erode a consumer's purchasing power at all times Demand-pull inflation is characterized by "too many rupees chasing too few goods" Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.3) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें लागत-जनित मुद्रास्फीति मजदूरी और कच्चे माल की लागत में वृद्धि के कारण होती है जबकि प्रभावित उत्पाद की मांग अभी भी स्थिर रहती है।  मुद्रास्फीति किसी भी समय उपभोक्ता की क्रय शक्ति को नष्ट कर सकती है मांग-जनित मुद्रास्फीति की विशेषता "बहुत अधिक रुपयों के साथ कुछ वस्तुओं का पीछा करने" से है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) Which of the following is not an example of cost-push inflation? The increase in general level of prices due to increase in oil price 2012 floods in Punjab and Sindh region that resulted in widespread disruption in supplies Disruption of supply caused by natural disasters like Japan's earthquake in 2011 The 2008 financial crisis, which resulted in asset inflation occurred in gold and oil Q.4) निम्नलिखित में से कौन लागत-जनित मुद्रास्फीति का उदाहरण नहीं है? तेल की कीमत में वृद्धि के कारण कीमतों के सामान्य स्तर में वृद्धि होना  2012 में पंजाब और सिंध क्षेत्र में बाढ़ आई, जिसके कारण आपूर्ति में व्यापक व्यवधान होना  2011 में जापान के भूकंप जैसी प्राकृतिक आपदाओं के कारण आपूर्ति में व्यवधान होना  2008 का वित्तीय संकट, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप संपत्ति मुद्रास्फीति (asset inflation) जो सोने और तेल में हुई Q.5) Which of the following can be the causes for demand-pull inflation? A growing economy A low unemployment rate Increased Government spending Inflation expectations Asset inflation Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above Q.5) मांग-जनित मुद्रास्फीति के निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कारण हो सकते हैं? एक विकसित होती अर्थव्यवस्था निम्न बेरोजगारी दर सरकारी व्यय में बढ़ोत्तरी  मुद्रास्फीति की आशाएं  संपत्ति मुद्रास्फीति नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Consider the following statements about “Operation greens scheme” It is a programme to boost production and processing of tomato, onion and potato only as part of an objective to check price volatility in them It was announced during the annual budget of 2018-19 with an outlay of 5,000 crore Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.6) "ऑपरेशन ग्रीन योजना" (Operation greens scheme) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह केवल टमाटर, प्याज और आलू के उत्पादन और प्रसंस्करण को बढ़ावा देने के लिए एक कार्यक्रम है, जिसके एक उद्देश्य के रूप में उनमें मूल्य अस्थिरता की जांच करना है। इसकी घोषणा 5,000 करोड़ के परिव्यय के साथ 2018-19 के वार्षिक बजट के दौरान की गई थी उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.7) Which of the following can be the causes for cost-push inflation? Increase in wages Business monopoly Government regulation and taxes Exchange rates Rising production costs Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित में से कौन लागत-जनित मुद्रास्फीति का कारण हो सकता है? वेतन में वृद्धि व्यवसाय का एकाधिकार सरकार विनियमन और कर विनिमय दरें (Exchange rates) बढ़ती उत्पादन लागत नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Which of the following is considered to be the advanced form of “mixed inflation”? Mark-up inflation Stagflation Dis-inflation Hyperinflation Q.8) निम्नलिखित में से किसे "मिश्रित मुद्रास्फीति" (mixed inflation) का उन्नत रूप माना जाता है? मार्क-अप मुद्रास्फीति (Mark-up inflation) मुद्रास्फीतिजनित मंदी (Stagflation) विस्फीति (Dis-inflation) अति स्फीति (Hyperinflation) Q.9) Consider the following statements  Reflation refers to the situation where measures are taken to curb inflation During deflation the purchasing power of money increases Consumer Price Index based inflation is called headline inflation Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.9) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें पुन:स्फीति (Reflation) उस स्थिति को संदर्भित करती है जहां मुद्रास्फीति को रोकने के लिए उपाय किए जाते हैं अपस्फीति (deflation) के दौरान मुद्रा की क्रय शक्ति बढ़ जाती है उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक आधारित मुद्रास्फीति को हेडलाइन मुद्रास्फीति (headline inflation) कहा जाता है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.10) Which of the following brings out the “Consumer price index number for Rural population”? The Reserve Bank of India The Department of Economic affairs The Labour Bureau The National Statistical office Q.10) निम्नलिखित में से कौन “ग्रामीण आबादी के लिए उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक संख्या” को लाता है? भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक आर्थिक मामलों का विभाग श्रम ब्यूरो राष्ट्रीय सांख्यिकी कार्यालय Q.11) Consider the following statements  The GDP deflator measures the prices of all goods and services produced, whereas the CPI measures the prices of only the goods and services bought by consumers. The weights are constant (in the basket) in CPI and WPI, but they differ according to production level of each goods and services in GDP deflator. The GDP deflator includes only those goods produced domestically. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only All of the above Q.11) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें जीडीपी अपस्फीतिकारक (deflator) उत्पादित सभी वस्तुओं और सेवाओं की कीमतों को मापता है, जबकि सीपीआई केवल उपभोक्ताओं द्वारा खरीदी गयी वस्तुओं और सेवाओं की कीमतों को मापता है। सीपीआई और डब्ल्यूपीआई में भारांक स्थिर (टोकरी में) होते है, लेकिन वे जीडीपी अपस्फीतिकारक (deflator) में प्रत्येक वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के उत्पादन स्तर के अनुसार भिन्न होते हैं। जीडीपी अपस्फीतिकारक (deflator) में केवल उन्हीं वस्तुओं को शामिल किया जाता है जो घरेलू स्तर पर उत्पादित होती हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 2 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements  Higher inflation will cause our exports to price more and imports to cost less. Deflation favours the economy which invests in continuous technological advancements. Zero inflation is bad for the economy as both the production and demand remains constant. Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only All of the above Q.12) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें उच्च मुद्रास्फीति हमारे निर्यात के अधिक कीमत तथा आयात के कम कीमत का कारण बनेगी। अपस्फीति (Deflation) अर्थव्यवस्था की सहायक होती है जो निरंतर तकनीकी प्रगति में निवेश करती है। शून्य मुद्रास्फीति (Zero inflation) अर्थव्यवस्था के लिए खराब होती है क्योंकि उत्पादन और मांग दोनों ही स्थिर होते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन करें केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 2 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) Consider the following statements Consumer Price Index based inflation has consistently increased during the last 5 years. GDP deflator has consistently increased during the last 5 years. Wholesale Price Index based inflation has consistently increased during the last 5 years. Choose the answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 only None of the above Q.13) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक आधारित मुद्रास्फीति पिछले 5 वर्षों के दौरान लगातार बढ़ी है। जीडीपी अपस्फीतिकारक (GDP deflator) में पिछले 5 वर्षों के दौरान लगातार वृद्धि हुई है। थोक मूल्य सूचकांक आधारित मुद्रास्फीति पिछले 5 वर्षों के दौरान लगातार बढ़ी है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2  इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.14) Which of the following refers to the distortion in a monthly inflation figure that results from abnormally high or low levels of inflation in the year-ago month? Base effect Domino effect Cost-push effect The mark-up effect Q.14) निम्न में से कौन मासिक मुद्रास्फीति के आंकड़े में विकृति को दर्शाता है जो वर्ष-महीने में असामान्य रूप से उच्च या निम्न स्तर की मुद्रास्फीति से होता है? आधार प्रभाव (Base effect) दूरगामी प्रभाव (Domino effect) लागत-जनित प्रभाव मार्क-अप प्रभाव (mark-up effect) Q.15) The ‘inflation expectation survey’ of households in India is conducted by Central Statistical Organization National Sample Survey Organization Reserve Bank of India Ministry of Finance Q.15) भारत में परिवारों का 'मुद्रास्फीति प्रत्याशा सर्वेक्षण' (inflation expectation survey) किसके द्वारा किया जाता है केंद्रीय सांख्यिकी संगठन राष्ट्रीय नमूना सर्वेक्षण संगठन भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक वित्त मत्रांलय Q.16) Which of the following conditions may necessitate the RBI to keep the policy rate at a higher level? Inflation in the economy is high Inflation expectation in the economy is high Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16) निम्न में से किस स्थिति में RBI को नीति दर को उच्च स्तर पर रखने की आवश्यकता हो सकती है? अर्थव्यवस्था में मुद्रास्फीति अधिक हो अर्थव्यवस्था में मुद्रास्फीति की प्रत्याशा (expectation) अधिक हो  नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) Consider the following statements about Inflation targeting in India Inflation target is set by the Government in consultation with RBI, once in every four years. Inflation target is measured by the consumer price index-combined (CPI-C). Inflation target is 4% (+/-) 2% for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Q.17) भारत में मुद्रास्फीति लक्ष्यीकरण (Inflation targeting) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें मुद्रास्फीति का लक्ष्य सरकार द्वारा प्रत्येक चार वर्ष में एक बार RBI के परामर्श से निर्धारित किया जाता है। मुद्रास्फीति लक्ष्य को उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक-संयुक्त (CPI-C) द्वारा मापा जाता है। 5 अगस्त, 2016 से 31 मार्च, 2021 की अवधि के लिए मुद्रास्फीति का लक्ष्य 4% (+/-) 2% है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 3 Q.18) Which of the following statements about inflation are correct? Inflation benefits creditors Inflation benefits debtors Inflation benefits bondholders Inflation benefits depositors Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.18) मुद्रास्फीति के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? मुद्रास्फीति का लाभ लेनदारों को मिलता है मुद्रास्फीति का लाभ देनदारों को मिलता है मुद्रास्फीति से लाभ बॉन्ड धारकों (bondholders) को मिलता है मुद्रास्फीति का लाभ जमाकर्ताओं को मिलता है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2  केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding Inflationary Gap It describes the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the anticipated GDP that would be experienced if an economy is at full employment. It exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due to factors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increased government expenditure. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.19) मुद्रास्फीतिक अंतराल (Inflationary Gap) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह वास्तविक सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (जीडीपी) के मौजूदा स्तर और प्रत्याशित जीडीपी के बीच अंतर का वर्णन करता है जो कि अनुभव होगा यदि अर्थव्यवस्था पूर्ण रोजगार स्तर पर है। यह तब मौजूद होता है जब समग्र रोजगार के उच्च स्तर, व्यापार गतिविधियों में वृद्धि या सरकारी व्यय में वृद्धि जैसे कारकों के कारण वस्तुओं और सेवाओं की मांग, उत्पादन से अधिक हो जाती है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.20) Which of the following must decrease if a country is experiencing inflation? Wage level The output of goods and services The amount of money needed to purchase a given quantity of goods and services Purchasing Power Q.20) यदि किसी देश को मुद्रास्फीति का सामना करना पड़ रहा है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन अवश्य घटता है? मजदूरी का स्तर वस्तुओं और सेवाओं का उत्पादन किसी दी गयी वस्तुओं और सेवाओं को खरीदने के लिए आवश्यक मुद्रा की मात्रा  क्रय क्षमता Q.21) ‘Askot Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located in Arunachal Pradesh Sikkim Uttarakhand Goa Q.21) ‘अस्कोत वन्यजीव अभयारण्य’ (Askot Wildlife Sanctuary) में स्थित है अरुणाचल प्रदेश सिक्किम उत्तराखंड गोवा Q.22) ‘Teesta River’ flows through Sikkim West Bengal Bangladesh Tibet Bhutan Select the correct code: 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 5 1, 2, 3 and 5 Q.22) ‘तीस्ता नदी’ कहाँ से होकर बहती है सिक्किम पश्चिम बंगाल बांग्लादेश तिब्बत भूटान सही कूट का चयन करें: 1, 2, 3 और 4 1, 3, 4 और 5 2, 3, 4 और 5 1, 2, 3 और 5 Q.23) _____________ is the nodal agency for Fake Indian Currency Note (FICN) related cases. National Investigation Agency (NIA) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Directorate of Enforcement (ED) Criminal Investigation Department (CID) Q.23) _____________ नकली भारतीय मुद्रा नोट (Fake Indian Currency Note- FICN) से संबंधित मामलों के लिए नोडल एजेंसी है। राष्ट्रीय जांच एजेंसी (NIA) केंद्रीय जांच ब्यूरो (CBI) प्रवर्तन निदेशालय (ED) आपराधिक जांच विभाग (CID) Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)’ It is responsible for the exploration, production, refining, of petroleum, natural gas, petroleum products, and liquefied natural gas in India. It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MOP&NG;). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) 'पेट्रोलियम और विस्फोटक सुरक्षा संगठन' (PESO) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह भारत में पेट्रोलियम, प्राकृतिक गैस, पेट्रोलियम उत्पादों और तरलीकृत प्राकृतिक गैस के अन्वेषण, उत्पादन, शोधन, के लिए उत्तरदायी है। यह पेट्रोलियम और प्राकृतिक गैस मंत्रालय (MOP & NG) के तत्वावधान में है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Consider the following statements Parts or the whole of the six northeastern States fall under the Sixth Schedule, which makes special provisions for tribal areas. Sixth Schedule provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें आंशिक या पूरे छह पूर्वोत्तर राज्य छठी अनुसूची के अंतर्गत आते हैं, जो जनजातीय क्षेत्रों के लिए विशेष प्रावधान करता है। छठी अनुसूची एक स्वायत्त क्षेत्र के रूप में गठित प्रत्येक क्षेत्र के लिए अलग-अलग क्षेत्रीय परिषदों के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान करता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) ‘International Co-operation Review Group (ICRG)’ is associated with  World Trade Organisation (WTO) Financial Action Task Force (FATF) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) Q.26) ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सहयोग समीक्षा समूह (International Co-operation Review Group -ICRG)' किसके साथ संबद्ध है विश्व व्यापार संगठन (WTO) वित्तीय कार्रवाई कार्य बल (FATF) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय परमाणु ऊर्जा एजेंसी (IAEA) बैंकिंग पर्यवेक्षण पर बेसल समिति (BCBS) Q.27) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Thengar Char – Bangladesh Trak Island – Myanmar Tulagi Island – Japan Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 None of the above Q.27) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? थेंगर चार (Thengar Char)- बांग्लादेश ट्राक द्वीप (Trak Island)- म्यांमार तुलागी द्वीप - जापान सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 2 2 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.28) ‘Theyyam’, a popular ritual form of worship is associated with which of the following states? Kerala Maharashtra Telangana Tamil Nadu Q.28) ‘थेय्यम’ (Theyyam), पूजा का एक लोकप्रिय अनुष्ठान निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य से संबद्ध है? केरल महाराष्ट्र तेलंगाना तमिलनाडु Q.29) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Anaval Pidi – Kerala Kambala – Karnataka Hori Habba – Maharashtra Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्न में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? अनावल पिडी - केरल कंबाला - कर्नाटक होरी हब्बा - महाराष्ट्र सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) The ‘Joint Declaration of Peace and Friendship’ was in news recently. It is associated with which of the following countries? Ethiopia and Eritrea Israel and Palestine USA and North Korea Taiwan and China Q.30) ‘शांति और मित्रता की संयुक्त घोषणा’ (Joint Declaration of Peace and Friendship) हाल ही में समाचारों में थी। यह निम्नलिखित देशों में से किसके साथ संबद्ध है? इथियोपिया और इरिट्रिया इज़राइल और फिलिस्तीन संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका और उत्तर कोरिया ताइवान और चीन DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times – Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 24, 2020 Motivational Articles

Coronavirus[VIDEO]: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba

Coronavirus[VIDEO]: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba Our Honorable Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has announced a complete lock down all over the country from 12 AM (midnight) 25th March to 14th April (for a period of 21 days). Let's all support the cause for the greater good of our family, community, country and the world. If not it can become one of the greatest disaster to mankind. #stayhomestaysafe Please find below the guidelines from the Home Ministry on the measures to be taken by the State Governments, Union Territories and List of Essential Services and Commodities available! Home Ministry Guidelines - Coronavirus (Covid19) Timeline from Start to 00.08.47 The video is about Coronavirus, Covid-19; The gravity of the situation and India has another 2-3 weeks to halt the onset of Stage 3 -Myths and False information about the Spread and Prevention of Coronavirus; Symptoms, Spread and Prevention of Coronavirus. Timeline from Start to 00.08.48 to end Message to UPSC Aspirants, Key takeaways for UPSC Preparation, Importance of Identifying the theme and having a structure for Prelims Preparation. Coronavirus: Breaking Notions and Spontaneous Solidarity What we are witnessing today is something unprecedented. At no point in the history of world, there was a moment or phase that had impacted, in so little time, almost the entire population of the world. We have seen crises before but the scale used to be limited to a country or a continent. World Wars I and II can be said to have the maximum impact as their reach transcended not only countries but continents. However, what we are witnessing as a generation today, is not a highly violent phase characterising warring nations, but a threat to humanity itself. How we respond to this crisis will have a great bearing on our future. In the annals of history, the year 2020 will either be remembered as a phase that witnessed human beings collaborate and stand as a unified force against a deadly global epidemic or be relegated as an ugly blot in mankind’s evolutionary history. Indeed, these are testing times for the mankind. The rapid spread of the deadly coronavirus has left the mankind contemplate and scramble with uncomfortable thoughts. Political and economic philosophies seem immaterial. All the powerful missiles that counties have stockpiled, capable of carrying nuclear warheads are lying idle in the warehouses. Warring nationalities are losing lives to the deadly Coronavirus without even firing a bullet. The rich and the poor alike including the heads of states are getting sick. The notion of hard power and economic might gets more and more irrelevant with each addition in the number of casualties to the virus. The difference between the illiterate and the stupid is getting clearer with each passing day. Churches, mosques and temples are lying empty. Doctors and healthcare workers are emerging as the new Gods. After watching ‘The Platform’, a deeply disturbing movie directed by Galder Gaztelu-Urrutia, the question of ‘spontaneous solidarity’ is haunting netizens like me. Spontaneous solidarity, as shown in the movie is the tenacity of a group of individuals under high levels of stress and scarcity to collaborate, show mutual compassion and face the crisis as a group. What if we fail to mobilise the kind of social solidarity and restraint that is needed to control the spread of this virus. Do humans compete or collaborate when faced with adversity? Do they scramble for the pie or support each though small sacrifices? Well, we don’t know yet. We have seen both the types of behaviour. Depending upon the region that we live in, the response of our society varies a great deal. We have seen people in our own country showing high levels of personal restraint and discipline but at the same time, we have also witnessed instances wherein people have flouted norms with great disdain. It only indicates that spontaneous solidarity is difficult to achieve, something that was shown vividly in ‘The Platform’. To expect order amidst chaos is too much to ask for. But unfortunately, that is the only way out. That is why the crisis that we face today is a momentous occasion for the mankind. But to think for the mankind as a whole is a little overwhelming. The best way is to think like an individual and make little contributions as a responsible member of the great family that we call the MANKIND. #stayhomestaysafe Remember the keyword SHIP– stay Safe, stay Healthy, stay Informed and continue with your Preparation! We at IASbaba are always there to guide you to the best of our abilities. For UPSC Aspirants, please find below the articles related to Coronavirus from Exam point of view- Coronavirus and its impact – IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs (Prelims + Mains Focus) Coronavirus & Impact on Economy – The Big Picture – RSTV – All India Radio (AIR) Thank You IASbaba

Mar 24, 2020 PIB

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 15th March to 23rd March – 2020

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 15th to 23rd March, 2020 ARCHIVES GS-1 Central Sanskrit Universities Bill, 2020 stands passed in Parliament  (Topic: Society, Culture) This bill will convert  (i) Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, New Delhi (ii) Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth, New Delhi (iii) Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth, Tirupati into Central Sanskrit Universities The Central University status awarded to these 3 Universities will enhance the status of these Universities and will give boost to Post Graduate, Doctoral and Post-doctoral education and Research in the field of Sanskrit and Shastraic education. This will pave way for many people from abroad to learn Sanskrit and Shastraic lore from these prestigious Central Sanskrit Universities in our country.   Universities will have more opportunities to spread the knowledge of Sanskrit language not only in India but also across the world in a better way. This bill is dedicated to the nation and a small example of commitment of the government towards “Har Ek Kaam Desh Ke Naam”. GS-2 Some important Bills, passed by Houses of Parliament  (Topic: Government schemes and policies) Social Justice and Educational Reforms – Certain Bills to further strengthen Social Justice and Educational Reforms in India were passed during this Session.  The Constitution Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Bill, 2020 amends Part VI of the Order which specifies the Scheduled Tribes in Karnataka.  The Central Sanskrit Universities Bill, 2020 intends to upgrade the three Deemed to be Universities in Sanskrit, namely, Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, Delhi, Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth, New Delhi and Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth, Triputi into Central Sanskrit Universities in order to give a boost to Post Graduate, Doctoral and Post Doctoral education and Research in the field of Sanskrit and Shastraic education. It would help in getting better faculty, attract foreign students, Sanskrit scholars, foreign faculty of international repute and help in international collaborations with global Universities across the world. Economic Sector/Ease of doing Business measures – Some important legislations to address the economic sentiment in the country were passed during the current session.  The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020 intends to facilitate seamless transfer of all valid rights, approvals, clearances, licenses and the like for a period of two years to a new lessee in case of minerals other than coal, lignite and atomic minerals.  The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2020 intends  to give the highest priority in repayment to last mile funding to corporate debtors to prevent insolvency, in case the company goes into corporate insolvency resolution process or liquidation to prevent potential abuse of the Code by certain classes of financial creditors, to provide immunity against prosecution of the corporate debtor and action against the property of the corporate debtor and the successful resolution applicant subject to fulfilment of certain conditions to fill the critical gaps in the corporate insolvency framework.  The Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas Bill, 2020 proposes for resolution of pending tax disputes by not only generating timely revenue for government but also the tax payers who will be able to deploy time, energy and resources saved by opting for such dispute resolution towards their business activities. Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for females in higher education is higher than the National Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) (Topic: Government schemes and policies) As per All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2018-19, there are 39931 colleges in India, out of which 60.53% are located in rural areas. Further, majority of the colleges provide higher education to both males and females and 11.04% colleges are exclusively for females. Females constitute 48.6% of the total enrolment in higher education Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for females in higher education at 26.4% is higher than the national GER of boys at 26.3% Gender Parity Index (GPI) has increased during the last 5 years, from 0.92 in 2014-15 to 1 in 2018-19. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) (Topic: Government schemes and policies) Objectives: To engage the faculty and students of Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs) in identifying development issues in rural areas and finding sustainable solutions for the same. Identify & select existing innovative technologies, enable customisation of technologies, or devise implementation method for innovative solutions, as required by the people. To allow HEIs to contribute to devising systems for smooth implementation of various Government programmes. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan 2.0 is the upgraded version of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan 1.0.The scheme is extended to all educational institutes; however under Unnat Bharat Abhiyan 2.0, participating institutes are selected based on the fulfillment of certain criteria. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India. Currently under the scheme UBA,  13072 villages have been adopted by 2474 Institutes The technology interventions under the scheme Unnat Bharat Abhiyan has been able to transform the living conditions in villages. It covers different subjects broadly categorized like in the area of sustainable agriculture; water resource management; artisans, industries and livelihood; basic amenities (infrastructure & services) and rural energy system.  ‘Samagra Shiksha’ Scheme (Topic: Government schemes and policies) Samagra Shiksha - an Integrated Scheme for School Education subsumes the three erstwhile Centrally Sponsored Schemes of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE).  It is an overarching programme for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class XII and aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education at all levels of school education. It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school, primary, upper primary, secondary to senior secondary levels. The major interventions under the scheme are:  (i) Universal Access including Infrastructure Development and Retention;  (ii) Gender and Equity (iii) Inclusive Education (iv) Quality (v) Financial support for Teacher Salary  (vi) Digital initiatives (vii) Entitlements under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 including uniforms, textbooks etc. (viii) Pre-school Education (ix) Vocational Education (x) Sports and Physical Education (xi) Strengthening of Teacher Education and Training (xii) Monitoring of the scheme Posts Open for Women in Defence Forces (Topic: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation) In pursuance of the Judgement dated 17th February, 2020 passed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the Government is committed to grant Permanent Commission to Short Service Commission (SSC) women officers in Indian Army as per their qualification, professional experience, specialization, if any and organizational requirement. Women in Army: Background of the case 1992: Induction of Women officers into Army started. Women were commissioned for a period of five years in certain chosen streams through Women Special Entry Scheme (WSES) WSES had a shorter pre-commission training period than their male counterparts who were commissioned under the Short Service Commission (SSC) scheme. 2003: PIL was filed before the Delhi High Court for grant of permanent commission (PC) to women SSC officers in the Army 2006: WSES scheme was replaced with the SSC scheme, which was extended to women officers.  Women were commissioned for a period of 10 years, extendable up to 14 years Women were however, restricted to roles in streams specified earlier — which excluded combat arms such as infantry and armoured corps. While male SSC officers could opt for permanent commission at the end of 10 years of service, this option was not available to women officers Impact of such a system:  Women were kept out of any command appointment (they could only reach up to the level of Colonel) Women could not qualify for government pension, which starts only after 20 years of service as an officer. 2008: Defence Ministry passed an order saying PC would be granted prospectively to SSC women officers in the Judge Advocate General (JAG) department and the Army Education Corps (AEC) (2 out of 10 streams in PC) 2010: Delhi High Court Order: Women officers of the Air Force and Army on SSC who had sought permanent commission but were not granted that status, would be entitled to PC at par with male SSC officers. This order was subsequently challenged by government in the Supreme Court and also did not implement the High Court order even though it was not stayed by the apex court. August 15, 2018: Prime Minister Modi announced that permanent commission would be granted to serving women officers of the armed forces. However, it was not implemented on the ground which led the SC to pass the present judgement Basis of arguments put forth by the government in the Apex Court while arguing against Women’s inclusion in Permanent Commission are: Women were kept out of command posts on the reasoning that the largely rural rank and file will have problems with women as commanding officers.  Limitations of judicial review on policy issues  Occupational hazards SSC is merely a support cadre Biological arguments: Rationalization on physiological limitations for employment in staff appointments. Deployment of women officers was not advisable in conflict zones where there was “minimal facility for habitat and hygiene. (Despite the fact that 30% of the total number of women officers are deputed to conflict areas) Implications of Supreme Court ruling: The court rejected all the above arguments of the government as discriminatory and against Article 14 of the Constitution Women on a par with male officers: SC has done away with all discrimination for grant of PC in 10 non-combat wings in the army, bringing women on par with men. Opening of command positions would necessarily kick-start a flurry on activities within the military. Military secretary’s branch will have to begin with reorganising cadre management to accommodate women officers It has also removed the restriction of women officers only being allowed to serve in staff appointments, which is the most significant and far-reaching aspect of the judgment. PM interacts with SAARC leaders to combat COVID-19 in the region (Topic: International Affairs) Prime Minister Modi reached out to the eight-member regional grouping and pitched for a video conference among the leaders of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation to chalk out a strong strategy to combat coronavirus outbreak. PM Modi's suggestion was backed by all member states of SAARC. “We can respond best by coming together, not growing apart--collaboration not confusion, preparation not panic.” Steps taken by India Covid-19 emergency fund proposed by India: India has pledged $10 million toward a Covid-19 emergency fund With this fund countries can contribute and meet the cost of immediate actions.  Foreign secretaries, through embassies, can coordinate quickly to finalize the concept of this fund and its operations. Medical Emergency Help: India is also putting together a rapid response team of doctors and specialists for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (Saarc) nations India has offered to also quickly arrange online training capsules for your emergency response teams. This will be based on the model we have used in our own country, to raise the capacity of all our emergency staff. India has set up an Integrated Disease Surveillance Portal to better trace possible virus carriers and the people they contacted. The PM offered to share this technology with Saarc partners besides providing training on using it.  Suggested that existing facilities, such as the Saarc Disaster Management Centre, could be used to pool best practices and suggested a common platform to coordinate research on controlling epidemics within South Asia.  Offered Indian Council of Medical Research’s (ICMR) help to coordinate such exercises. Other Suggestions: Experts could brainstorm on the longer-term economic consequences of Covid-19 and how South Asia can insulate internal trade and local value chains from its impact.  Suggested that common SAARC pandemic protocols could be drawn up and applied in such situations The Corona Diplomacy Pakistan:  Pakistan has said it will participate in a video conference of SAARC member countries proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to combat the fast-spreading coronavirus pandemic that has killed over 5,000 people globally.  Pakistan acknowledged that coordinated efforts were needed to minimise the threat posed by the deadly coronavirus.  Raised the Kashmir issue, saying the lockdown there should be ended to help fight the coronavirus outbreak.  Islamabad also sought to get China involved in the SAARC initiative. Mirza proposed that the SAARC secretariat be mandated to establish a working group of national authorities for health information, data exchange and coordination in real time. He proposed a SAARC’s health ministers’ conference and development of regional mechanisms to share disease surveillance data in real time. Afghanistan: Afghan President Ashraf Ghani referred to challenges stemming from Afghanistan’s open border with Iran, where the outbreak has been severe, and suggested that the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) mechanism be used to help deal with the matter. He also proposed modelling diffusion patterns, creation of a common framework for telemedicine and greater cooperation. Maldives: Maldives President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih cited the economic downturn in Maldives owing to the drop in tourists and sought a South Asian response to the crisis. Solih thanked the Indian government for medical assistance and for evacuating nine Maldivians from Wuhan. Sri Lanka: The Sri Lankan President also referred to economic losses and mentioned steps taken by his government. Bangladesh: Sheikh Hasina thanked Prime Minister Modi for bringing 23 Bangladeshi students back from Wuhan. She proposed continuance of the dialogue at technical level through video conference by health ministers and secretaries. Bhutan: Prime Minister Lotay Tshering stated that the pandemic will affect the smaller and vulnerable economies disproportionately. The pandemic does-not follow geographical boundaries, hence it is all the more important for the nations to work together. Agreement between India and Brunei for Exchange of Information notified (Topic: India’s relation with other countries) The Agreement between the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of Brunei Darussalam for the exchange of information and assistance in collection with respect of taxes (hereinafter referred to as the Agreement), was signed. The Agreement enables exchange of information, including banking and ownership information, between the two countries for tax purposes.  It is based on international standards of tax transparency and exchange of information and enables sharing of information on request as well as automatic exchange of information. The Agreement also provides for representatives of one country to undertake tax examinations in the other country. Moreover, it provides for assistance in collection of tax claims. The Agreement will enhance mutual co-operation between India and Brunei Darussalam by providing an effective framework for exchange of information in tax matters which will help curb tax evasion and tax avoidance. Cabinet approves Scheme for Promotion of manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors: To offer financial incentive of 25% of capital expenditure for the manufacturing of goods that constitute the supply chain of an electronic product under the Scheme for Promotion of manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors (SPECS).The scheme will help offset the disability for domestic manufacturing of electronic components and semiconductors in order to strengthen the electronic manufacturing ecosystem in the country. The proposal when implemented will lead to the development of electronic components manufacturing ecosystem in the country. Following are the expected outputs/outcomes in terms of measurable indicators for the scheme: Development of electronic components manufacturing ecosystem in the country and deepening of Electronics value chain. New investments in Electronics Sector to the tune of at leastRs. 20,000 crore. Direct employment of approximately 1,50,000 is expected to be created in the manufacturing units supported under the scheme, including indirect employment of about three times of direct employment as per industry estimates. Thus, total employment potential of the scheme is approximately 6,00,000. Reducing dependence on import of components by large scale domestic manufacturing that will also enhance the digital security of the nation. Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme For development of world class infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities through Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs).  It is expected that these EMCs would aid the growth of the ESDM sector, help development of entrepreneurial ecosystem, drive innovation and catalyze the economic growth of the region by attracting investments in the sector, increasing employment opportunities and tax revenues. The Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme would support setting up of both Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs) and Common Facility Centers (CFCs).  For the purpose of this Scheme, an Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) would set up in geographical areas of certain minimum extent, preferably contiguous, where the focus is on development of basic infrastructure, amenities and other common facilities for the ESDM units. The Scheme will create a robust infrastructure base for electronic industry to attract flow of investment in ESDM sector and lead to greater employment opportunities.  Following are the expected outputs/outcomes for the Scheme: Availability of ready infrastructure and Plug & Play facility for attracting investment in electronics sector: New investment in electronics sector Jobs created by the manufacturing units; Revenue in the form of taxes paid by the manufacturing units Promotion of the Domestic Manufacturing of Medical Devices in country Promotion of Medical Device Parks Medical Device is a growing sector and its potential for growth is the highest among all sectors in the healthcare market. It is valued at Rs. 50,026 crore for 2018-19 and is expected to reach to Rs. 86,840 crore by 2021-22. India depends on imports up to an extent of 85% of total domestic demand of medical devices. The Scheme aims to promote Medical Device Parks in the country in partnership with the States. A maximum grant-in-aid of Rs.100 crore per park will be provided to the States. Production Linked Incentive Scheme The Medical Device sector suffers from a cost of manufacturing disability of around 12% to 15%, vis-a-vis competing economies, among other things, on account of lack of adequate infrastructure, domestic supply chain and logistics, high cost of finance, inadequate availability of quality power, limited design capabilities and low focus on R&D and skill development, etc. There is, thus, a need for a mechanism to compensate for the manufacturing disability. The Scheme aim to boost domestic manufacturing by attracting large investments in medical device sector. Under the Scheme, incentive @ 5% of incremental sales over base year 2019-20 will be provided on the segments of medical devices identified under the Scheme. Signing and ratifying of the Extradition Treaty between India and Belgium Obligation to Extradite: Each Party agrees to extradite to the other any person found in its territory, who is accused or convicted of an extraditable offence in the territory of the other Party. Extraditable Offences: An extraditable offence means an offence punishable under the laws of both the Parties with imprisonment for a period of one year or more severe punishment.  Where extradition is sought in respect of a convicted person, the duration of the sentence remaining to be served must be at least six months at the time of making the request.  Offences relating to taxation, or revenue or is one of a fiscal character also fall within the scope of this Treaty. Mandatory grounds for Refusal: Under the Treaty, extradition shall be refused if -  The offence involved is a political offence.  However, the Treaty specifies certain offences, which will not be considered as political offences. The offence for which extradition is requested is a military offence The request for prosecution has been made for the purpose of prosecuting or punishing the person on account of his race, sex, religion, nationality or political opinion. The prosecution of enforcement of sentence has become time barred. Extradition of Nationals: Extradition of nationals is discretionary.  The nationality will be determined at the time the offence was committed. GS-3 Impact of Climate Change on Farmers (Topic: Agriculture, Climate Change) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), one of the Missions under National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC), includes programmatic interventions like Soil Health Card (SHC), Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER), Rainfed Area Development (RAD), National Bamboo Mission (NBM) and Sub-mission on Agro Forestry (SMAF). These and other programmes including Prime Minister Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) are ensuring judicious use of natural resources. Under NMSA following ten deliverables are monitored: Area under organic farming Production of Bio-fertilizers, Precision Irrigation, SRI/ Direct Seeded Rice from Transplantation, Crop diversification, Additional Area under plantation in Arable land, Climate Resilient Varieties (CRV) Identified/ Released, Identification of genotypes of crops with enhanced CO2 fixation potential and less water consumption & Nutrients, Climate Resilient genotypes with greater adaptation to drought, flood, salinity and high temperature, Coverage of milch animals under ration balancing programme and Establishment of bypass protein feed making unit. Efforts to Boost Defence Sector (Topic: Defence) Industrial licensing: Industrial licensing regime for Indian manufacturers in Defence sector has been liberalized.  Defence Products list requiring Industrial Licences has been rationalised and manufacture of most of the parts and components does not require Industrial Licence. The total number of Defence licences issued has more than doubled from 215 as on 31st March, 2014 to 460 till 31st December, 2019 covering total of 275 Companies. FDI: FDI Policy has been revised and under the revised policy, foreign investment is allowed under automatic route up to 49% and above 49% through government route. Significant FDI inflows in Defence and Aerospace sectors have been witnessed. Global companies having high-end technologies can be encouraged to set up their manufacturing base in India in collaboration with Indian companies, thereby resulting in creation of employment opportunities, saving of foreign exchange and increasing indigenization.   FDI is one of the sources available for the industry to access some of the technologies required to indigenously design, develop and produce the equipments, weapon systems/platforms required for defence. It has been the endeavour of the Government to put in place an enabling and investor friendly FDI policy.  The intent is to make the FDI policy more investor friendly and remove the policy bottlenecks that have been hindering investment inflows into the country. Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP): Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) was revised in 2016 and specific provisions have been introduced for stimulating growth of the domestic defence industry.  A new category of procurement ‘Buy {Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured)}’ has been introduced in DPP-2016 to promote indigenous design and development of defence equipments.  This category has been accorded top most priority for procurement of Capital equipment.  Besides this, preference is being given to ‘Buy (Indian)’ and ‘Buy & Make (Indian)’ categories of capital acquisition over ‘Buy (Global)’ & ‘Buy & Make (Global)’ categories.  “Make” Procedure: To promote industry participation in indigenous development of defence items  ‘Strategic Partnership (SP)’ Model envisages establishment of long-term strategic partnerships with Indian entities through a transparent and competitive process, wherein they would tie up with global Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) to seek technology transfers to set up domestic manufacturing infrastructure and supply chains. iDEX: Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework was launched with the aim to achieve self-reliance and to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia. Indigenisation policy: Government has notified a Policy for indigenisation of components and spares used in Defence Platforms in March, 2019 with the objective to create an industry ecosystem which is able to indigenize the imported components (including alloys & special materials) and sub-assemblies for defence equipment and platforms manufactured in India. Defence Corridors: Government has decided to establish two defence industrial corridors to serve as engines of economic development and growth of defence industrial base in the country. They span across Chennai, Hosur, Coimbatore, Salem and Tiruchirappalli in Tamil Nadu and Aligarh, Agra, Jhansi, Kanpur, Chitrakoot and Luchnow in Uttar Pradesh. Testing facilities: The Test facilities/infrastructure available with various Government agencies have been made available to private sector with the objective to assist them in design and development of defence systems. An ‘SoP for allocation and utilization of Proof Ranges/Field Firing Ranges for Private Industry’ has also been notified. The Ministry has instituted a new framework titled ‘Mission Raksha Gyan Shakti’ which aims to provide boost to the IPR culture in indigenous defence industry. Defence Investor Cell has been created in the Ministry to provide all necessary information including addressing queries related to investment opportunities, procedures and regulatory requirements for investment in the sector. The process for export clearance has been streamlined and made transparent & online. Offset guidelines have been made flexible by allowing change of Indian Offset Partners (IOPs) and offset components, even in signed contracts. Government has signed Agreements on Defence Cooperation with Argentina, Russia, Serbia, Myanmar, Indonesia, Comoros, Jordan, Madagascar, Uganda, Zambia, Saudi Arabia and Finland. Coal Bed Methane Policy (Topic: Energy) The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has brought out following policies/notifications after Coal Bed Methane (CBM) Policy 1997: Policy for extension of exploration phases for exploration and production under CBM contracts in 2007. Guidelines for pricing and commercial utilization of CBM in 2011. Notification for grant of right to exploration and exploitation of Coal Bed Methane to Coal India Limited and its subsidiaries from all coal bearing areas for which they possess mining lease for coal in 2015. Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy was introduced in 2016 wherein all types of hydrocarbon resources, both conventional and unconventional can be explored and exploited. Policy framework for Early Monetisation of CBM in 2017. Notification for consolidated terms and conditions for grant of right to exploration and exploitation of Coal Bed Methane to Coal India Limited and its subsidiaries from all coal bearing areas for which they possess mining lease for coal in 2018. A policy framework for Exploration and exploitation of Unconventional hydrocarbons in existing acreages under existing Production Sharing Contracts, CBM contracts and Nomination fields was introduced in 2018. A policy framework to promote and incentivize enhanced recovery methods for Oil and Gas was notified by the Government in 2018. National Supercomputing Mission (Topic: Development of new technology) The mission was set up to provide the country with supercomputing infrastructure to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups by creating the capability design, manufacturing, of supercomputers indigenously in India. A first of its kind attempt to boost the country’s computing power, the National Super Computing Mission is steered jointly by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of Science and Technology (DST) and implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.  The target of the mission was set to establish a network of supercomputers ranging from a few Tera Flops (TF) to Hundreds of Tera Flops (TF) and three systems with greater than or equal to 3 Peta Flops (PF) in academic and research institutions of National importance across the country by 2022. This network of Supercomputers envisaging a total of 15-20 PF was approved in 2015 and was later revised to a total of 45 PF (45000 TFs), a jump of 6 times more compute power within the same cost and capable of solving large and complex computational problems.  With the revised plan in place, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, called Param Shivay, was installed in IIT (BHU) and was inaugurated by the Prime Minister. Similar systems Param Shakti and Param Brahma were installed at IIT-Kharagpur and IISER, Pune. They are equipped with applications from domains like Weather and Climate, Computational Fluid Dynamics, Bioinformatics, and Material science. Prelims oriented News: World Tuberculosis Day: 24th March Public Health and Hospitals: State subject MSME SAMADHAAN portal: To facilitate online registration of references related to delayed payments Pradhan Mantri YUVA (PM YUVA) Yojana: Towards creating an enabling ecosystem through entrepreneurship education, training, advocacy and easy access to entrepreneurship network.  The scheme focuses on students/trainees and alumni coming out from skilling ecosystem {i.e. Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Polytechnics, Pradhan Mantri Kuashal Kendras (PMKKs) and Jan Sikshan Sansthans (JSS)}.  Under the scheme, mobilisation campaigns are being organized to spread awareness about entrepreneurship as a career option among various potential target groups.  Further, orientation workshops are being conducted on entrepreneurship in the project institutes for aspiring/potential entrepreneurs. Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana: To provide the senior citizens, living below poverty line and suffering from any of the age related disability/ infirmity, with such assisted living devices which can restore near normalcy in their bodily functions, overcoming the disability/ infirmity manifested. National Entrepreneurship Awards Scheme (NEAS): Set up with an aim to promote a culture of entrepreneurship among India’s youth and inspire them to set-up their own enterprise and create employment opportunities for others. Under the scheme, awards are conferred to the aspiring first generation entrepreneurs including women and those individuals/ organizations who are working as eco-system builder in the field of entrepreneurship development. The awards also seek to highlight model of excellence for others to emulate and improve upon. Providing clean drinking water to people To enable every rural household in the country to have potable water at service level of 55 litre per capita per day (lpcd) through Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) by 2024, Government of India, in partnership with the States, has launched Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) with an estimated cost of Rs. 3.60 lakh Crore. Uranium Contamination in Ground Water There is prevalence of Uranium concentration above 30 micro-gram per litre (World Health Organization (WHO) provisional guidelines) in some of the localized pockets of few States/UTs in the country.  A report brought out by Duke University, USA in association with Central Ground Water Board and State Ground Water departments states that Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Jammu & Kashmir have localised occurrence of Uranium concentration. Elevated uranium level in drinking water may affect human health. Health studies carried out elsewhere in the world suggest that elevated uranium level in drinking water may be associated with kidney toxicity. The Indian Standard IS 10500: 2012 for Drinking Water specification has specified the maximum acceptable limits for radioactive residues as alpha and beta emitters, values in excess of which render the water not suitable. These requirements take into account all radioactive elements including uranium. No individual radioactive elements have been specifically identified. Further, as per information provided by Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS), they are working to incorporate maximum permissible limit of Uranium as 0.03 mg/l (as per WHO provisional guidelines) in all drinking water standards after following due process. Mission Solar Charkha By: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) To ensure inclusive growth by generation of employment, especially for women and youth and sustainable development through solar charkha cluster in rural areas. To boost rural economy and help in arresting migration from rural to urban areas. To leverage low-cost, innovative technologies and processes for substance. Till date, 10 projects have been approved under Mission Solar Charkha. One Solar Charkha cluster has been identified in Andhra Pradesh. The scheme envisages to generate direct employment to nearly one lakh persons. Steps to encourage BOT Road Projects NHAI has taken several steps to rekindle the interest of private investors and lenders in the Build-Operate- Transfer (BOT) projects which include: Policy of one-time fund infusion to complete the projects. Policy of deferment of premium for financial stressed projects not able to meet subsistence revenue requirements. Policy of harmonious substitution for substitution of Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) in consultation with lenders and concessionaire subject to certain conditions. Apart from above, a new mode “Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)” has been introduced where part construction cost is funded by NHAI and post construction, return of investor is assured through Annuities paid by Authority. Further, NHAI is also trying to revive the private investments in the highway projects by amending the Model Concession Agreement for BOT model. Bharatmala Pariyojana” Phase–I  Includes development of  About 9,000 km length of Economic corridors,  About 6,000 km length of Inter-corridor and feeder roads,  About 5,000 km length of National Corridors Efficiency improvements,  About 2,000 km length of Border and International connectivity roads,  About 2,000 km length of Coastal and port connectivity roads,  About 800 km length of Expressways Balance length of about 10,000 km of roads under National Highways Development Project (NHDP) The programme is targeted for completion in 2021-2022. Mission Raksha Gyanshakti: Mission Raksha Gyanshakti was launched with the objective of creating greater Intellectual Property in Defence Production Ecosystem. Artificial Intelligence in Defence: For greater thrust on Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Defence, formulation of an AI roadmap for each Defence PSU and OFB to develop AI-enable products and insertion of 3 percent points in MoU with Defence PSUs for AI products being developed. Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX): The objective of iDEX is bringing start-ups to innovate, develop technology and solve problems related to defence and aerospace.  Name of the Waterway and States   1.River Barak (NW-16) in Assam   2. River Gandak (NW-37) in Bihar Waterways in Goa 3.  NW-27-Cumberjua 4.  NW-68 – Mandovi 5.  NW-111 – Zuari   6. Alappuzha – Kottayam – Athirampuzha Canal (NW-9) in Kerala   7.  River Rupnarayan (NW-86) in West Bengal   8. Sunderbans Waterways (NW-97) in West Bengal   India has 38 World Heritage Sites S. No   Name of Site State     Agra Fort (1983) Uttar Pradesh   Ajanta Caves (1983) Maharashtra   Ellora Caves (1983) Maharashtra   Taj Mahal (1983) Uttar Pradesh   Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram (1984) Tamil Nadu   Sun Temple, Konarak (1984) Odisha   Churches and Convents of Goa (1986) Goa   Fatehpur Sikri (1986) Uttar Pradesh   Group of Monuments at Hampi (1986) Karnataka   Khajuraho, Group of Temples (1986) Madhya Pradesh   Elephanta Caves ( 1987) Maharashtra   Great Living Chola Temples at Thanjavur, Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram (1987 & 2004) Tamil Nadu   Group of Monuments at Pattadakal (1987) Karnataka   Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989) Madhya Pradesh   Humayun’s  Tomb, Delhi (1993) Delhi   Qutb Minar and its Monuments, Delhi (1993) Delhi   Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003) Madhya Pradesh   Champaner-Pavagarh Archaeological Park (2004) Gujarat   Red Fort Complex, Delhi (2007) Delhi   Hill Forts of Rajasthan  (Chittaurgarh, Kumbhalgarh, Jaisalmer and Ranthambhore, Amber and Gagron Forts)      (2013) (Amber and Gagron Forts are under protection of Rajasthan State Archaeology and Museums) Rajasthan   Rani-ki-Vav (The Queen’s Stepwell) at Patan (2014) Gujarat   Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara (Nalanda University) at Nalanda (2016) Bihar   Under Protection of Ministry of Railways (2) 23. Mountain Railways of India ( Darjeeling,1999), Nilgiri (2005), Kalka-Shimla(2008) West Bengal,  Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh 24. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus) (2004) Maharashtra   Under Protection of Bodhgaya Temple Management Committee (1) 25 Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya, (2002) Bihar   Under Protection of Rajasthan State Archaeology and Museums   (1)                                                                                             26. The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur (2010) Rajasthan   Under Protection of Chandigarh Administration (1) 27. The Architectural Work of Le Corbusier, an Outstanding Contribution to the Modern Movement (2016) Chandigarh   Under Protection of Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation  (1) 28. Historic City of Ahmedabad  (2017) Gujarat   Under Protection of Bombay Municipal Corporation (1) 29. Victorian and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai (2018) Govt of Maharashtra   Under Protection of Jaipur Municipal Corporation (1) 30. Jaipur City, Rajasthan (2019) Govt of Rajasthan NATURAL SITES: (7) Under Protection of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Changes 31.  Kaziranga National Park (1985) Assam 32. Keoladeo National Park (1985) Rajasthan 33. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985) Assam 34. Sunderbans National Park (1987) West Bengal 35. Nanda Devi  and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005) Uttarakhand 36. Western Ghats (2012) Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra,Tamil Nadu 37 Great Himalayan National Park (2014) Himachal Pradesh MIXED SITE: (1) Under Protection of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Changes 38. Khangchendzonga National Park (2016) Sikkim Person in News: Sheikh Mujibur Rahman Father of Nation in Bangladesh He served as the first President of Bangladesh and later as the Prime Minister of Bangladesh from 17 April 1971 until his assassination on 15 August 1975.  He is considered to be the driving force behind the independence of Bangladesh. He is popularly dubbed with the title of "Bangabandhu" (Bôngobondhu "Friend of Bengal") by the people of Bangladesh.  He became a leading figure in and eventually the leader of the Awami League, founded in 1949 as an East Pakistan-based political party in Pakistan.  Mujib is credited as an important figure in efforts to gain political autonomy for East Pakistan and later as the central figure behind the Bangladesh Liberation Movement and the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971. Thus, he is regarded "Jatir Janak" or "Jatir Pita" (Jatir Jônok or Jatir Pita, both meaning "Father of the Nation") of Bangladesh.  His daughter Sheikh Hasina is the current leader of the Awami League and also the Prime Minister of Bangladesh.