Mar 24, 2020 RSTV Video

Yes Bank Crisis – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

Yes Bank Crisis Archives Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. In News: Reserve Bank of India governor Shaktikanta Das said that the Yes Bank resolution will be done very swiftly and that 30 days is an outer limit.  Last week, the central bank put Yes Bank under moratorium and capped withdrawals at Rs 50,000 per account till further orders. The central bank had taken over the Mumbai-based bank’s board for 30 days amid a serious deterioration in India’s fifth-largest private sector lender’s financial position.  The governor said that the decision was at a “larger level” and not at individual entity level. The move is aimed at ensuring safety of the financial system. Das has assured a swift action from the central bank’s end so as to put in place a scheme to revive the Bank.  Yes Bank has been facing difficulties ever since new chief executive Ravneet Gill took charge last March and revealed massive stress in the loan book. Significantly, public sector lender SBI along with some other financial institutions has come forward to bail out the bank, according to media reports. PTI also reported that LIC has been asked to team up with the public sector bank for a stake buy. The First Red Flag Between 2004, when it was launched, and 2015, Yes Bank was one of the buzziest banks. In 2015, UBS, a global financial services company, raised the first red flag about its asset quality. The UBS report stated that Yes Bank had loaned more than its net worth to companies that were unlikely to pay back. However, Yes Bank continued to extend loans to several big firms and became the fifth-largest private sector lender. According to one estimate, as much as 25% of all Yes Bank loans were extended to Non-Banking Financial Companies, real estate firms, and the construction sector. These were the three sectors of the Indian economy that have struggled the most over the past few years. Yes Bank’s NPAs were not as alarmingly high as some of the other banks in the country. But what made it more susceptible to bankruptcy was its inability to honestly recognise its NPAs — on three different occasions, the last being in November 2019, the RBI pulled it up for under-reporting NPAs — and adequately provide for such bad loans. Yes Bank also fared poorly on provision coverage ratio, which essentially maps the ability of a bank to deal with NPAs. Nobody on Yes Bank’s side: While debtors failing to pay back was the central problem, what further compounded Yes Bank’s financial problems was the reaction of its depositors. As Yes Bank faltered on NPAs, its share price went down and public confidence in it fell. This reflected not only in depositors shying away from opening fresh accounts but also in massive withdrawals by existing depositors, who pulled out over Rs 18,000 crore between April and September last year. It is estimated that up to 20% more withdrawals could have happened between October and February. So essentially, Yes Bank lost out on capital (money) from both depositors and debtors. The contagion impact on other private banks: The banking system runs on trust. The Yes Bank episode could likely push depositors away from private sector banks. But private banks have become too big to fail.  And with the growth of non-bank lenders, the explosion in financial market activity and the interconnectedness of everybody, the stage is set for mass convulsions, if things are not quickly brought under control. The government now has a fantastic opportunity ahead of it in the next few years.  Crashing oil prices could boost fiscal gains Wariness over supply chain concentration in China can drive FDI inflows to India Structural reforms, low corporate tax and low interest rates can spur growth and drive the economy towards the $5-trillion target by 2024.  The opportunity should not be frittered away by lax regulation and delayed action in the banking and financial sector. Note:  If the account is frozen:A moratorium places a complete freeze on most activities of the bank. Section 45 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, empowers the RBI to place such a moratorium for up to six months at a time—and can be extended until a more permanent fix for the problem is found. This is intended to prevent a further deterioration in the bank’s finances. AT1 Bonds AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms. After a string of banks turned turtle in the global financial crisis, central banks got together and decided to formulate new rules (called the Basel-III norms) that would make them maintain stronger balance sheets. In India, one of the key new rules brought in was that banks must maintain capital at a minimum ratio of 11.5 per cent of their risk-weighted loans. Of this, 9.5 per cent needs to be in Tier-1 capital and 2 per cent in Tier-2. Tier-1 capital refers to equity and other forms of permanent capital that stays with the bank, as deposits and loans flow in and out. Why is it important? One, these bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years. But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.  Two, banks issuing AT-1 bonds can skip interest payouts for a particular year or even reduce the bonds’ face value without getting into hot water with their investors, provided their capital ratios fall below certain threshold levels. These thresholds are specified in their offer terms. Three, if the RBI feels that a bank needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors. This is what has happened to YES Bank’s AT-1 bond-holders who are said to have invested ₹10,800 crore.  Connecting the Dots: Was Yes Bank is another example of delayed action? Comment.

Mar 24, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan [Day - 20]- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 20 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Arrange the following in ascending order based on the annual yield of water in the river system.  Ganga Mahanadi Godavari Brahmaputra Choose the correct option:  2-3-4-1 2-3-1-4 3-2-4-1 3-2-1-4 Q.1) नदी प्रणाली में पानी की वार्षिक प्राप्ति (annual yield) के आधार पर निम्नलिखित को बढ़ते क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें। गंगा महानदी गोदावरी ब्रह्मपुत्र सही विकल्प चुनें: 2-3-4-1 2-3-1-4 3-2-4-1 3-2-1-4 Q.2) Consider the following statements.  The Himalayan rivers are examples of the antecedent drainage.  Over 90 percent of the water carried by the Indian rivers is housed into the Arabian sea.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.2) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। हिमालय की नदियाँ पूर्ववर्ती जल निकासी (antecedent drainage) का उदाहरण हैं। भारतीय नदियों द्वारा लाये गए पानी का 90 प्रतिशत से अधिक पानी अरब सागर में जाता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.3) “Singge Khabab” is the name of the following river?  Jhelum Beas.  Indus Ravi Q.3) "सेंगे खबब" (Singge Khabab) निम्नलिखित नदी का नाम है? झेलम ब्यास  सिंधु रावी Q.4) Arrange the following in ascending order based on their catchment areas.  Mahanadi Krishna Cauvery Godavari Choose the correct option:  3-1-2-4 3-1-4-2 1-3-2-4 1-3-4-2 Q.4) निम्नलिखित को उनके जलग्रहण क्षेत्रों (catchment areas) के आधार पर बढ़ते क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें। महानदी कृष्णा कावेरी गोदावरी सही विकल्प चुनें: 3-1-2-4 3-1-4-2 1-3-2-4 1-3-4-2 Q.5) Consider following statements with respect to the peninsular rivers.  The Narmada and Tapi flow in the valleys created by themselves.  The peninsular rivers which fall into the Arabian sea do not form deltas but only estuaries.  The peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan drainage.  Which of the above statements are correct?  1 and 3  2 and 3  1 and 2  1, 2 and 3.   Q.5) प्रायद्वीपीय नदियों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। नर्मदा और तापी स्वयं द्वारा बनाई गई घाटियों में बहती है। प्रायद्वीपीय नदियाँ, जो अरब सागर में गिरती हैं, डेल्टा नहीं बनाती हैं, बल्कि केवल ज्वारनदमुखी (estuaries) होती हैं। प्रायद्वीपीय जल निकासी प्रणाली हिमालयी जल निकासी से पुरानी है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? 1 और 3 2 और 3 1 और 2 1, 2 और 3 Q.6) Which among the following are the major features of Monsoon Winds in India?  Shifting of prevailing wind direction by 120 degree.  Frequency of prevailing winds exceeding 40 percent.  The wind velocity in one of the months exceeding 3 miles per second.  Choose the correct option:  1 only  1 and 2  1 and 3  1, 2 and 3  Q.6) भारत में मानसूनी पवनों की प्रमुख विशेषताएं निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी हैं? प्रचलित पवनों की दिशा 120 डिग्री तक स्थानांतरित होती हैं। प्रचलित पवनों की आवृत्ति 40 प्रतिशत से अधिक होती है। एक महीने में पवन का वेग 3 मील प्रति सेकंड से अधिक हो जाता है। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1  1 और 2 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.7) Consider the following statements.  Monsoonal rainfall in India is largely Orographic.  Indian rainfall is basically torrential in nature.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.7) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। भारत में मॉनसून वर्षा काफी हद तक पर्वतीय (Orographic) होती है। भारतीय वर्षा मूल रूप से प्रकृति में मूसलाधार (torrential) होती है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.8) The drainage of south Koel and subarnarekha are examples of which drainage pattern?  Dendritic  Trellised Centripetal Radial.  Q.8) दक्षिण कोइल और सुवर्णरेखा की जल निकासी, किस जल निकासी प्रारूप के उदाहरण हैं? वृक्षाकर (Dendritic) जालीदार (trellised) अभिकेंद्रीय (Centripetal) रेडियल (Radial) Q.9) Hiran, Banjar, Tawa  are tributaries of which of the following rivers?  Krishna.  Mahanadi.  Narmada.  Chambal.  Q.9) हिरन, बंजर, तवा निम्नलिखित में से किस नदी की सहायक नदियाँ हैं? कृष्णा महानदी नर्मदा चंबल Q.10) Consider the following statements with respect to winter weather in India.  The peninsular India has a distinct winter weather.  The intense cold conditions in the north during the months of december and January is the result of western disturbances originating in Mediterranean sea.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.10) भारत में शीत ऋतु के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। प्रायद्वीपीय भारत में शीत ऋतु भिन्न होती है। दिसंबर और जनवरी के महीनों के दौरान उत्तर में तीव्र ठंड की स्थिति भूमध्य सागर में उत्पन्न पश्चिमी विक्षोभ का परिणाम होता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Which among the following factors are related to the origin and onset of Monsoons in India?  Intense heating of Tibetan plateau.  Movement of westerly jet stream to south of Himalayas.  Presence of a high pressure area to the south of Madagascar.  Cyclonic formations in temperate zones.  Choose the correct option:  1 and 3  1, 2 and 3  1, 3 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 4  Q.11) भारत में मानसून की उत्पत्ति और शुरुआत निम्नलिखित कारकों में से किससे संबंधित है? तिब्बती पठार का तीव्र तापन। हिमालय के दक्षिण में पछुआ जेट स्ट्रीम का चलना। मेडागास्कर के दक्षिण में एक उच्च दाब क्षेत्र की उपस्थिति। समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में चक्रवातों का बनना। सही विकल्प चुनें: 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 1, 3 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.12) Which of the following are correctly matched?          River                    Origin Jhelum                  verinag  Chenab                 Near Rohtang pass.  Ravi                       Near Bara lacha la.  Satluj                     Manasarovar-rakas lakes.  Choose the correct option:  1 and 2  2 and 3  1 and 4  1, 2, 3, and 4  Q.12) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही ढंग से सुमेलित है?             नदी                             उद्गम झेलम                          वेरीनाग  चेनाब                        रोहतांग पास  रावी                      बारा लाचा ला के समीप सतलुज                  मानसरोवर-राकस झीलें सही विकल्प चुनें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 4 1, 2, 3, और 4 Q.13) Consider the following statements.  Brahmaputra has braided channels for most of its passage in Assam.  Brahmaputra has a steep slope while passing eastwards at the high altitudes in the Tibet region.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.13) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। ब्रह्मपुत्र के पास असम में इसके अधिकांश मार्ग के लिए लटकती हुई घाटियां (braided channels) हैं। ब्रह्मपुत्र की तिब्बत क्षेत्र में उच्च ऊंचाई पर पूर्व की ओर जाते समय एक खड़ी ढलान है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.14) What does the term “October Heat” refer to in Indian climatic context?  Increase in temperature in North India due to stubble burning in Haryana. Increase in temperature in North India due to hot winds from rajasthan.  Warm and humid conditions in North India during retreating monsoons.  Excessive heat due to Temperature inversion in north India.  Q.14) भारतीय जलवायु संदर्भ में, "अक्टूबर हीट" (October Heat) शब्द किससे संबद्ध है? हरियाणा में ठूंठ (stubble) जलने के कारण उत्तर भारत में तापमान में वृद्धि। राजस्थान में गर्म हवाओं के कारण उत्तर भारत में तापमान में वृद्धि। उत्तर भारत में मानसून की वापसी के दौरान गर्म और आर्द्र स्थिति। उत्तर भारत में तापमान व्युत्क्रमण के कारण अत्यधिक गर्मी। Q.15) Which of the following is the reason for the Breaks in the Indian Monsoons?  Southward shift of the Monsoon trough.  Northward shift of the Monsoon trough.  Disappearance of easterly jet stream from the peninsular plateau.  Appearance of a westerly jet stream in the Northern plains.  Q.15) निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारतीय मानसून में विराम का कारण है? मॉनसून गर्त (Monsoon trough) का दक्षिणवर्ती स्थानांतरण। मॉनसून गर्त (Monsoon trough) का उत्तरवर्ती स्थानांतरण। प्रायद्वीपीय पठार से पूर्वी जेट धारा का समाप्त होना। उत्तरी मैदानों में एक पछुआ जेट धारा की उपस्थिति। Q.16) Which of the following best describes the “Southern Oscillation”?  Fluctuation in pressure over northern and southern Indian Ocean.  Fluctuation in pressure over Northern and Southern Pacific Ocean.  Fluctuation in pressure over western and eastern Indian Ocean.  Fluctuation in pressure over equatorial Indian and pacific oceans.  Q.16) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा "दक्षिणी दोलन" (Southern Oscillation) का वर्णन करता है? उत्तरी और दक्षिणी हिंद महासागर पर दाब में उतार-चढ़ाव। उत्तरी और दक्षिणी प्रशांत महासागर पर दाब में उतार-चढ़ाव। पश्चिमी और पूर्वी हिंद महासागर पर दाब में उतार-चढ़ाव। भूमध्यरेखीय भारतीय और प्रशांत महासागरों पर दाब में उतार-चढ़ाव। Q.17) Which of the following are correctly matched?   Pre-Monsoon showers           Local names Kal baisakhi                               Assam Blossom Showers                 Karnataka Bordoisila                               West-Bengal.  Choose the correct option: 1 and 2  2 only  1 and 2  1, 2 and 3  Q.17) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही रूप से मेल खाता है?         मानसून-पूर्व वर्षा                                    स्थानीय नाम काल बैसाखी                                               असम ब्लॉसम वर्षा (Blossom Showers)            कर्नाटक बोर्डोसिला (Bordoisila)                            पश्चिम-बंगाल सही विकल्प चुनें: 1 और 2 केवल 2  1 और 2 1, 2 और 3 Q.18) With respect to the Easterly Jet Streams consider the following statements.  Easterly jet streams steer the tropical depressions into India.  Easterly Jet Streams shift southward during the south west monsoon season.  Choose the correct statement.  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.18) पूर्वी जेट धाराओं (Easterly Jet Streams) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। पूर्वी जेट धाराएं भारत में उष्णकटिबंधीय अवसाद (tropical depressions) को रोकती हैं। पूर्वी जेट धाराएं दक्षिण पश्चिम मानसून के मौसम के दौरान दक्षिण की ओर स्थानांतरित हो जाती है। सही कथन चुनें। केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.19) Which of the following rivers are west flowing in India?  Mandovi  Netravati Krishna Bedti  Choose the correct option.  1 and 2  1 and 4  1, 2 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 4  Q.19) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी नदी भारत में पश्चिम की ओर बह रही हैं? मांडोवी नेत्रवती कृष्णा बेदटी (Bedti) सही विकल्प चुनें। 1 और 2 1 और 4 1, 2 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.20) The chambal ravines have acquired geological significance in India. Which of the following kinds of topography is created by the chambal river?  Senile topography.  Badland topography.  Karst Topography.  Riverine topography.  Q.20) चंबल के बीहड़ों को भारत में भू-वैज्ञानिक महत्व प्राप्त है। निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार की स्थलाकृति चंबल नदी द्वारा बनाई गई है? जीर्ण स्थलाकृति (Senile topography) अनुर्वर भूमि स्थलाकृति (Badland topography) कार्स्ट स्थलाकृति नदीय स्थलाकृति Q.21) In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special and differential treatment (S&DT;)” mentioned in the news frequently? Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement Financial Action Task Force World Trade Organization Q.21) निम्नलिखित में से किस मामले के संदर्भ में, अक्सर समाचारों में वर्णित "विशेष और विभेदात्मक व्यवहार (S&DT;)" वाक्यांश आता है? क्षेत्रीय व्यापक आर्थिक भागीदारी दोहरे कराधान से बचाव हेतु समझौता वित्तीय कार्रवाई कार्य बल विश्व व्यापार संगठन Q.22) Shirui lily Festival is celebrated in the State of  Tripura Manipur Mizoram Meghalaya Q.22) शिरुई लिली महोत्सव (Shirui lily Festival) किस राज्य में मनाया जाता है त्रिपुरा मणिपुर मिजोरम मेघालय Q.23) Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information (GEMINI) device provides which of the following information to fisherman? Disaster warnings Forecasts on winds, waves, ocean currents, water temperature Probable locations on fish aggregation in the seas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.23) गगन सक्षम नेविगेशन और सूचना उपकरण हेतु नाविक उपकरण (GEMINI), निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जानकारी मछुआरे को प्रदान करता है? आपदा की चेतावनी हवाओं, लहरों, समुद्र की धाराओं, पानी के तापमान पर पूर्वानुमान समुद्रों में मछली एकत्रीकरण के संभावित स्थान नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.24) Recently seen in news ‘FASTER Principles for Successful Carbon Pricing’ is jointly developed by  World Bank and Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and UN Environment UN Environment and UNFCCC Secretariat  UNFCCC Secretariat and World Bank Q.24) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया 'सफल कार्बन मूल्य निर्धारण के लिए FASTER सिद्धांत' किसके द्वारा संयुक्त रूप से विकसित किया गया है विश्व बैंक तथा आर्थिक सहयोग और विकास संगठन (OECD) आर्थिक सहयोग और विकास संगठन (OECD) तथा संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण और UNFCCC सचिवालय UNFCCC सचिवालय और विश्व बैंक Q.25) Consider the following statements about Universal Postal Union (UPU): It is a specialized agency of UN (United Nation). It is the oldest international organization worldwide, established in 1874 by the Treaty of Bern. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only  Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) वैश्विक डाक संघ (Universal Postal Union- UPU) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र की एक विशेष एजेंसी है। यह विश्व भर में सबसे पुराना अंतरराष्ट्रीय संगठन है, जिसे 1874 में बर्न की संधि द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY): PM-JAY provides cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at the point of service. Entire family irrespective of its size is the beneficiary unit under the scheme. At the national level it is implemented by National Health Authority, an attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with full functional autonomy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.26) प्रधानमंत्री जन आरोग्य योजना (PM-JAY) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: PM-JAY सेवा के बिंदु पर लाभार्थी के लिए स्वास्थ्य देखभाल सेवाओं तक कैशलेस (नकदरहित) पहुंच प्रदान करती है। संपूर्ण परिवार अपने आकार के बावजूद योजना के तहत लाभार्थी इकाई है। राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर इसे राष्ट्रीय स्वास्थ्य प्राधिकरण, स्वास्थ्य और परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय के एक संबद्ध कार्यालय द्वारा पूर्ण कार्यात्मक स्वायत्तता के साथ लागू किया गया है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.27) The High Mountain Summit 2019 was organized by  World Meteorological Organization Mountain Research Initiative International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development Mountain Partnership Q.27) उच्च पर्वतीय शिखर सम्मलेन, 2019 (High Mountain Summit) का आयोजन किसके द्वारा किया गया था विश्व मौसम विज्ञान संगठन पर्वतीय अनुसंधान पहल एकीकृत पर्वतीय विकास के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय केंद्र माउंटेन पार्टनरशिप  Q.28) Moscow Declaration sometimes seen in news aims to end Neglected Tropical diseases Tuberculosis Cardiovascular diseases Mental disorders Q.28) मास्को घोषणा कभी-कभी समाचारों में दिखाई देती है, जिसका उद्देश्य किसको समाप्त करना है उष्णकटिबंधीय उपेक्षित रोगों (Neglected diseases) को तपेदिक  हृदय रोग मानसिक विकार Q.29) Which of the following are architectural heritage of Mamallapuram? Descent of the Ganges  Olakkanneshvara Temple Brihadeeswara Temple  Varaha Cave Pancha Rathas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 5 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.29) निम्न में से कौन सी ममल्लापुरम की स्थापत्य विरासत हैं? गंगा का अवतरण ओल्क्कन्नाश्वरा मंदिर बृहदेश्वर मंदिर वराह गुफा पंच रथ नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 5 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5 Q.30) A new trapdoor spider species has been discovered and named ‘Idiops nilagiri’ after Nilagiri town, is found in which of the following? Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Wayanad  Wildlife Sanctuary Kuldhia Wildlife Sanctuary Q.30) नीलागिरि शहर के नाम पर एक नई ट्रैपडोर मकड़ी प्रजाति (Idiops nilagiri) की खोज की गई है तथा इसका नाम 'ईडियॉप्स नीलगिरि' रखा गया है, निम्नलिखित में से कहाँ पाई जाती है? चिनार वन्यजीव अभयारण्य मुदुमलाई वन्यजीव अभयारण्य वायनाड वन्यजीव अभयारण्य कुलधिया वन्यजीव अभयारण्य DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 23, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Census and NPR exercise postponed Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity and Governance In News:  The Union government may postpone the house-listing Census and updating of the National Population Register (NPR) owing to the COVID-19 pandemic.  Both exercises were scheduled to kick off in certain States on April 1. Do you know? President Ram Nath Kovind was supposed to be the first Indian to be enumerated in the Census and NPR exercise. (as President is the first citizen of India) Difference between NPR and NRC? And NPR and Census?  Important value additions: About NPR It is a register of usual residents of the country being prepared at all levels – local, district, state and national.  A usual resident is defined, for the purposes of the NPR, as a person who has resided in a local area for the past six months or more, or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next six months.   It is conducted under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. The NPR exercise was to be carried out between April and September 2020 in all states and UTs, except Assam.  The objective of the NPR is to create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the country. The database would contain demographic as well as biometric particulars. About Census The decennial census is the largest single source of a variety of statistical information on different characteristics of the people of India. It is conducted on the basis of the Census Act enacted in 1948.  The census, 2021 will be done in two phases.   In the first phase, census will be conducted from April to September, 2020.   In the second phase, it will be done from February 9 to February 28, 2021.  Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897  Part of: GS-Prelims and Mains GS-II- Governance; GS-I- Modern History  About the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897   This law enables states to ban public gatherings, ask schools and large institutions to stop functioning, and issue advisories to companies to explore work-from-home models.   It also gives the state a right to penalise media organisations spreading misinformation.  Background: It was introduced by British government to tackle the epidemic of bubonic plague that had spread in the erstwhile Bombay Presidency in the 1890s. Key features of the Act: It empowers state governments/UTs to take special measures and formulate regulations for containing the outbreak, like inspection of persons travelling by railways, segregation in hospitals etc.  It empowers state to prescribe such temporary regulations to be observed by the public  It provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act.  It gives legal protection to the implementing officers acting under the Act. Do you know? In 1897, the year the law was enforced, freedom fighter Bal Gangadhar Tilak was punished with 18 months’ rigorous imprisonment after his newspapers Kesari and Mahratta admonished imperial authorities for their handling of the plague epidemic.  Health is a State subject. Biodiversity hotspot in danger due to proposed railway line Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III – Environment and Conservation In News:  The proposed Hubballi-Ankola railway line cleared by Karnataka state government, might pose danger to the biodiversity of the region. (Western Ghats) According to an expert committee,  More than 2 lakh trees could be felled. Might affect Western Ghats forests (especially the Bedthi Conservation Reserve, closer to Dandeli Hornbill Conservation Reserve and located in the buffer region of Anshi-Dandeli Tiger Reserve). The railway line could be a leading cause of wildlife mortality as it intersects with the elephant movement corridor. Do you know? The railway line passes through different types of forests, including evergreen, semi-evergreen, moist deciduous, and dry deciduous forests with a high canopy density. The forests along the proposed project zone are also rich in fauna. Majority of mammals belong to IUCN Red List and most of them are protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd March 2020 Image source: https://www.deccanherald.com/state/rly-minister-red-signals-710375.html Important Value Additions Bedthi Conservation Reserve   It spans over 59.07 sq.km and is situated in Uttar Kannada and functions as Hornbill habitats. Medicinal plant species like Coscinium fenestratum is also found here. Dandeli Hornbill Conservation Reserve Dandeli forests of Karnataka have received the status of Hornbill Conservation Reserve.  In the wildlife conservation history, this is the first time of its kind to have a special conservation reserve declared to protect single and endangered bird species i.e., Hornbills.  Dandeli forests are home to four types of hornbills i.e., Malabar Pied, Malabar Grey, Great Pied and Indian Grey. Do you know?  Difference between Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves? Rushikulya River: Over one lakh turtles have laid eggs along its coast  Part of: GS-Prelims and Mains GS-I- Geography  Key points: Rushikulya is one of the major rivers in the state of Odisha  It originates from Daringbadi hills of the Eastern Ghats range and flows into Bay of Bengal  After Gahirmatha in Kendrapara district of Odisha, the Rushikulya river mouth in Ganjam district has emerged as the second largest nesting site of the endangered olive ridley turtles. Carissa kopilii: A new Plant Species found in Assam  Part of: GS-Prelims and Mains GS-III- Environment  Key points: Carissa kopilii is a wilder variety of the more familiar Carissa carandas (also known as karonda in Hindi, kalakkai in Tamil, koromcha in Bengali and karja tenga in Assamese)  Carissa kopilii is distributed sparsely along the Kopili riverbed at altitudes ranging from 85-600 metres above sea level.  Kopili River is an interstate river that flows through the states of Meghalaya and Assam and is the largest south bank tributary of the Brahmaputra in Assam  The plant is threatened by a hydroelectric project on the river and water turned acidic because of coal mining in Meghalaya upstream.  Did You Know?   The Carissa carandas was among several thorny plants the British used for a 1,100-mile barrier – called Great Hedge of India-  apparently to enforce taxes and stop the smuggling of salt.   Carissa carandas has been used as a traditional herbal medicine for a number of ailments such as diarrhoea, anaemia, constipation, indigestion, skin infections and urinary disorders. India and France conduct joint patrols Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II – International Relations In News:  India and France have conducted joint patrols from the Reunion Island for the first time.  The patrol was conducted by a P-8I aircraft with French Navy personnel on board. The surveillance was done in the southern Indian Ocean off Mauritius. Do you know? Réunion Island is a French department in the Indian Ocean. It is known for its volcanic, rainforested interior, coral reefs and beaches.    Image source: https://www.pinterest.com/pin/5418462026656127/ Important Value Additions: France is the first country to deploy a liaison officer at the Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre (IFC-IOR) as part of efforts to improve maritime domain awareness (MDA). France has steadily emerged as a major strategic partner for India with defence deals and increased military-to-military engagement. The Indian Navy is currently inducting French Scorpene conventional submarines, being built in India under technology transfer.  The Indian Air Force will soon get the first batch of its 36 Rafale fighter jets. OTT platforms: Telecos ask OTTS to reduce video quality to reduce load on networks  Part of: GS-Prelims and Mains GS-III – Economy (Infrastructure)  What is OTT service? An over-the-top (OTT) media service is a streaming media service offered directly to viewers via the Internet i.e. they deliver content to customers on top of network infrastructure that is owned and maintained by internet service providers (ISPs)  OTT bypasses cable, broadcast, and satellite television platforms, the companies that traditionally act as a controller or distributor of such content.  OTT is commonly applied to video-on-demand platforms (NETFLIX, HOTSTAR), but also refers to audio streaming, messaging services or internet-based voice calling solutions (WHATSAPP). Bulk drug parks approved Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II Welfare Schemes; Health In News:  The Union Cabinet has approved a scheme for promotion of bulk drug parks with a financial assistance of Rs. 3,000 crore for the next five years. Key takeaways: Union Cabinet has also approved a Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for promotion of domestic manufacturing of critical drug intermediates and active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) with a financial assistance of Rs. 6,940 crore for the next eight years. Government will give grants-in-aid to States with a maximum limit of Rs. 1,000 crore per bulk drug park. The park will have common facilities such as solvent recovery plant, distillation plant, power and steam units, common effluent treatment plant etc. Do you know? The bulk drugs parks scheme is expected to reduce the manufacturing cost of bulk drugs in the country.  It will also bring down the dependency on other countries for such drugs. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme will lead to expected incremental sales of Rs. 46,400 crore. It will also lead to significant additional employment generation. Ayush Wellness Centre to come under NAM Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II – Welfare schemes; Health In News:  The Union Cabinet has approved the inclusion of the AYUSH Health and Wellness Centre (AYUSH HWC) component of Ayushman Bharat in the National AYUSH Mission (NAM). Key takeaways: The move is aimed at establishing a holistic wellness model based on AYUSH principles and practices. It focuses on preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative and palliative healthcare by integrating with the existing public health care system. The National Health Policy 2017 (NHP, 2017) has advocated mainstreaming the potential of AYUSH systems (Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Sowa-rigpa and Homoeopathy) within a pluralistic system of Integrative healthcare. NHP, 2017 also empowers masses for ‘self-care’ to reduce the disease burden and out of pocket expenditure and to provide informed choice to the needy public. Important Value Addition  National AYUSH Mission  Department of AYUSH, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the National Ayush Mission (NAM) in 2014.   It a centrally sponsored scheme.  It was launched with the basic objective of promoting Ayurveda, Yoga, Siddha & Unani and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) medical system through cost effective services, strengthening of educational systems, sustainable availability of ASU & H raw-materials and facilitate the enforcement of quality control of (ASU &H) drugs.  Ayushman Bharat   Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) is a flagship scheme of the Indian government's National Health Policy.  It aims to provide free health coverage at the secondary and tertiary level to its bottom 40% poor and vulnerable population.   PM-JAY is the world’s largest and fully state sponsored health assurance scheme. Enkasu card launched Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III – Science and Technology In News: Karur Vysya Bank has launched Enkasu, a pre-paid card, in Karur (Tamil Nadu) to reduce cash transactions. En-Kasu in Tamil means - “My Money” Key takeaways: Enkasu works on Near Field Communication Technology in a semi-closed loop.  The cardholder can make tap-and-go payment for all purchases, even as meagre as Rs. 1.  The Enkasu card will be beneficial to both merchants and customers alike.  They can be accepted online as well as offline. Internet access is not mandatory for usage. It can be recharged through multiple means – through KVB’s mobile App DLite, UPI, NEFT or through KVB branches in Karur.  Non-customers can also get an Enkasu card even if they do not have a bank account anywhere.  Most merchant establishments across Karur will accept the card. KVB is also planning to expand the usage of Enkasu to other districts in Tamil Nadu. Prelims Value Addition  Near Field Communication   Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless connectivity standard that uses magnetic field induction to enable communication between devices when they're touched together, or brought within a few centimetres of each other. (MAINS FOCUS) Science & Technology Topic: General Studies 3: Awareness in the fields of IT  Quantum Technology Context: India’s slow progress of research in Quantum technology whereby serious experimental work has been under way for only about five years, and in few locations.  In contrast countries like US, Europe & China have focused on the field since past two decades and are on the verge of major breakthroughs Constraints on India’s progress Lack of sufficient resources Inadequate high quality manpower Lack of timeliness and flexibility Slow Implementation: A programme called Quantum Enabled Science and Technology has been fully rolled out now, more than two years after the call for proposals. What is Quantum Technology? It is a class of technology that works by using the principles of quantum mechanics (the physics of sub-atomic particles), including quantum entanglement and quantum superposition. Quantum entanglement is when two atoms are connected, or entangled, despite being separated. Quantum superposition is the theory that sub-atomic particles exist in multiple states simultaneously. A timeline of Quantum Mechanics It was developed in the early 20th century to describe nature in the small — at the scale of atoms and elementary particles. It helped in understanding of the physical world, including the interaction of light and matter and on subjects such as gravity and black holes. It led to ubiquitous inventions such as lasers and semiconductor transistors A second revolution is currently under way with the goal of controlling and harnessing the properties of quantum mechanics. Quantum field has not yet matured for commercialization, due to the extreme scientific challenges involved some of which are: Technical Difficulties: The challenge lies in harnessing the properties of quantum superposition and entanglement in a highly controlled manner by building a system composed of carefully designed building blocks called quantum bits or qubits. Fragility of Qubits: A qubit or quantum bit is the basic unit of quantum information—the quantum version of the binary bit (0 and 1) in classical computing These qubits tend to be very fragile and lose their “quantumness” if not controlled properly, and a careful choice of materials, design and engineering is required to get them to work. Theoretical Challenges of creating the algorithms and applications for quantum computers Recent Developments: Google’s Sycamore demonstrated the quantum supremacy China demonstrated secure quantum communication links between terrestrial stations and satellites. About National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA) The mission will oversee the development of quantum technologies for communications, computing, materials development and cryptography. The mission addresses the constraints (listed above) that led to slow progression of country in quantum field, through adoption of holistic approach. Announced in Budget 2020 Period: Five years (2020-25) Total Funds: Rs 8000 years Implementing Body: Department of Science & Technology (DST) Significance of the mission: The mission may eventually lead to the creation of a super-secure communication network  It will help prepare next generation skilled manpower, boost translational research and also encourage entrepreneurship and start-up ecosystem development.  It will find utility in finding solution for complex problems in fields of computing, communications, sensing, chemistry, cryptography, imaging and mechanic The mission will enable India to emerge as Global leader in the field through increased investment & focus in Quantum Technologies Way Forward Increase private funding, both via industry and philanthropy, as they can play an outsized role even with much smaller amounts and compliment the efforts of government Institutional Autonomy as there is a need to create a vibrant intellectual environment to help attract top researchers. Industry- Academia Collaboration: Connections with Indian industry from the start would help quantum technologies become commercialised successfully. Connecting the dots: Cryptography- utility & challenges Artificial Intelligence – its utility and challenges Block Chain technology Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  COVID-19: The perils of an all-out lockdown Context: Impending health and economic crisis in the face of COVID-19 spreading in India. Staying at home (shutdown) has two motives: Self-protection motive, where a person acts out of fear of being infected A public-purpose motive, where a person participates in collective efforts to stop the spread of the virus. Unlike the health crisis, the economic crisis is not class-neutral but hurts poor people the most. Impact on Lockdown on Poor Informal Sector: India’s Informal sector employs approximately 85% of all workers (Source: Niti Aayog 's Strategy for New India at 75, released in 2018). This sector whose earnings is usually on daily basis will be severely hit due to economic standstill caused by the lock-down. Internal Migration: Mass-layoffs in informal sector & factories have forced migrant workers to head back home, some without being paid. Shut down of essential services like Public transport, administrative offices, court hearings and immunization drives to varying degrees in many states – has lead to aggravation of hardships faced by poor people who are heavily dependent on them. Transport Sector dislocated: Essential commodities like wheat & food grains which were transported by road transport are facing the brunt because of the disruption caused due to lack of private sector participation. Lack of Social Security to the poor in India: Unlike in developed countries, the insurance & pension coverage in India is meagre. This lack of social security will make poor man’s life difficult during these times of shutdown.  If the Poor are asked to stay at home, they will need help which can be offered by the government through the following ways: Public services that help poor people without creating a major health hazard should continue to function as far as possible. For example: PDS, administrative offices at district & local levels Utilizing Existing Social Schemes to support the poor:  Advance payment of pensions Enhanced PDS rations Immediate payment of MGNREGA wage arrears Expanded distribution of take-home rations at schools and anganwadis. Displaying creativity:  An explicit list of essential services and official guidelines on coronavirus readiness at the workplace needs to be drafted & advertised by the governments. For instance, anganwadis could play a vital role of public-health outreach at this time, even if children have to be kept away.  Many public spaces could be used, with due safeguards, to disseminate information or to impart good habits such as distancing and washing hands Increase resources and labs for testing along with enhanced awareness about the disease so that people don’t go for testing without solid grounds. For instance: The ‘Break the Chain’ campaign started by Kerala government advocates ideas of basic cleanliness and hygiene Conclusion If the poor must stay at home, they need income support and essential services. Government should hence come up with economic blueprint to tackle the economic challenges posed by the pandemic. The constitution of task force headed by the Union Finance Minister is a step in the right direction. Connecting the dots Universal Basic Income – its utility and challenges (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements: National Population Register will be prepared at national level Census is held after every 15 years. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Dandeli Hornbill Conservation Reserve is located in which of the following states? Andhra Pradesh Karnataka Telangana Kerala Q 3. India and France conducted joint patrols from which of the following islands recently? Reunion Island Maldives  Seychelles Rodrigues Q 4. Consider the following statements: Bulk drugs are known as active pharmaceutical ingredients (API). Bulk drugs parks scheme is expected to reduce the manufacturing cost. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Consider the following statements: National AYUSH Mission is a centrally sponsored scheme. Ayushman Bharat is the world’s largest health assurance scheme. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 6. Consider the following statements about The Great Hedge of India It was built by British during 19th Century It was a wall of thorny shrubs that ran from the Indus in the Punjab to the Mahanadi in Odisha, cutting across Northern India It was built to enforce taxes and stop the smuggling of salt.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q 7. Consider the following statements about Kopili River It is a tributary of Brahmaputra river It is an inter-state river between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 8. Consider the following statements about Rushikulya River It is one of the major rivers of Andhra Pradesh Its river mouth is one of the largest nesting site of the endangered olive ridley turtles. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 21 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 B Must Read About COVID-19 and China’s model The Hindu About India & SAARC The Indian Express About Impact of COVID-19 on the need for reform The Indian Express

Mar 23, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan [Day - 19]- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 19 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to the structure of the atmosphere:  The air temperature increases with height in the mesosphere.  Radio waves get reflected back to the earth in the mesosphere.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.1) वायुमंडलीय संरचना के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। मध्य मंडल (mesosphere) में ऊंचाई के साथ हवा का तापमान बढ़ता है। रेडियो तरंगें पृथ्वी पर मध्य मंडल से वापस परावर्तित हो जाती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Which of the following is the reason for jets to fly in the stratosphere? Ozone present in the stratosphere can be used as fuel in jets.  Stability of the stratosphere.  The minus degree temperature in the troposphere makes it impossible for jets to fly.  In stratosphere jets go undetected due to density variations.  Q.2) समताप मंडल में जेट उड़ने के निम्न में से कौन से कारण हैं? समताप मंडल में मौजूद ओजोन का उपयोग जेट में ईंधन के रूप में किया जा सकता है। समताप मंडल की स्थिरता। क्षोभमंडल में ऋणात्मक डिग्री तापमान जेट विमानों के लिए उड़ान भरना असंभव बनाता है। समताप मंडल में घनत्व भिन्नता के कारण जेट गुप्त रूप से चलते हैं। Q.3) With respect to the dust particles found in the atmosphere, consider the following statements.  Higher concentration of dust particles are found in subtropical and temperate regions.  Dust particles are found only in the lower atmosphere.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.3) वातावरण में पाए जाने वाले धूल कणों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। धूल कणों की उच्च सांद्रता उपोष्णकटिबंधीय और समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में पाई जाती है। धूल के कण केवल निचले समताप मंडल में पाए जाते हैं। सही कथन चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.4) Consider the following statements.  The insolation received by the earth is in long wave forms and the earth radiates energy to the atmosphere in the short wave form.  ‘Loo’ in northern India is the result of an advection process.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.4) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। पृथ्वी को प्राप्त होने वाली सूर्यविकिरण (insolation) दीर्घ तरंगों के रूप में होती है तथा पृथ्वी लघु तरंगों के रूप में वातावरण में ऊर्जा परावर्तित करती है। उत्तरी भारत में 'लू' एक अभिवहन (advection) प्रक्रिया का परिणाम है। सही कथन चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) ‘Albedo’ refers to the overall reflectivity of an object or surface. Arrange the following in descending order in terms of their “ALBEDO” value  Clouds Snow Forest Charcoal Deserts Choose the correct code:  4-3-5-1-2 4-3-5-2-1 2-1-5-3-4 2-1-5-4-3 Q.5) ‘अल्बेडो’ किसी वस्तु या सतह की समग्र परावर्तनता को दर्शाता है। इनके "अल्बेडो" मूल्य के संदर्भ में निम्न को क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें बादल हिम वन  चारकोल मरुस्थल सही कूट चुनें: 4-3-5-1-2 4-3-5-2-1 2-1-5-3-4 2-1-5-4-3 Q.6) With respect to the Coriolis Force, consider the following statements.  Coriolis force is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles.  The speed of an object increases due to the coriolis force effect.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.6) कोरिओलिस बल के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। कोरिओलिस बल भूमध्य रेखा पर अधिकतम और ध्रुवों पर न्यूनतम होता है। कोरिओलिस बल प्रभाव के कारण किसी वस्तु की गति बढ़ जाती है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.7) What does the term ‘Geostrophic Wind” refers to?  It is the wind blowing parallel to the isobar due to the balance between the pressure gradient force and the coriolis force.  It is the wind blowing perpendicular to the isobars due to the balance between the pressure gradient force and the coriolis force.  It is the wind blowing in higher altitudes of the equator.  It is the wind blowing in the higher altitudes of the sub-tropical regions.  Q.7) ‘भु-स्थिर पवन’ (Geostrophic Wind) शब्द संदर्भित करता है? यह दाब प्रवणता बल और कोरिओलिस बल के बीच संतुलन के कारण समदाब रेखा के समानांतर बहने वाली पवन है। यह दाब प्रवणता बल और कोरिओलिस बल के बीच संतुलन के कारण समदाब रेखा के लिए लंबवत बहने वाली पवन है। यह भूमध्य रेखा पर अधिक ऊंचाई पर बहने वाली पवन है। यह उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में अधिक ऊंचाई पर बहने वाली पवन है। Q.8) With respect to the local winds which among the following are correctly matched?  Local Winds            Country/region  Chinook                       America Khamsin                     Libya  Foehn                          Spain Loo                               India Choose the correct option. 1 and 2  1 and 3  1 and 4  All of the above Q.8) स्थानीय पवनों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही रूप से सुमेलित है?         स्थानीय पवनें         देश / क्षेत्र चिनूक              अमेरिका खमसिन             लीबिया फॉन                    स्पेन लू                       भारत सही विकल्प चुनें। 1 और 2 1 और 3 1 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Which of the following clouds are considered as high altitude clouds? Cirrostratus Altostratus Cirrocumulus.  Stratocumulus Cirrus.  Choose the correct option: 1, 4 and 5  1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 5  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.9) निम्न में से किस बादल को उच्च ऊंचाई वाला बादल माना जाता है? पक्षाभ स्तरी बादल (Cirrostratus) उच्च स्तरी बादल (Altostratus) पक्षाभ कपासी बादल (Cirrocumulus) स्तरी कपासी बादल (Stratocumulus) पक्षाभ बादल (Cirrus) सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 4 और 5 1, 2, 3 और 4 1, 3 और 5 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5 Q.10) With respect to the extra-tropical cyclones and tropical cyclones, consider the following statements. The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but the tropical cyclones move from east to west.  The extra tropical cyclones form over both land and sea whereas tropical cyclones form only over sea.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.10) अतिरिक्त उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवातों और उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवातों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अतिरिक्त उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर बढ़ते हैं लेकिन उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात पूर्व से पश्चिम की ओर बढ़ते हैं। अतिरिक्त उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात भूमि और समुद्र दोनों पर बनते हैं जबकि उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात केवल समुद्र के ऊपर बनते हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Consider the following conditions.  Their climate has a concentration of rainfall in winter with onshore westerlies. They have bright sunny weather with hot dry summers and wet mild winters.  Their climate assists orchard farming.  Which type of climate is described above?  Steppe climate.  Sudan climate.  Laurentian climate  Mediterranean climate.  Q.11) निम्नलिखित स्थितियों पर विचार करें। इनकी जलवायु में सर्दियों में तटवर्ती पछुआ पवनों के साथ वर्षा की एकाग्रता होती है। इनमें उष्ण शुष्क गर्मी और आद्र हल्की सर्दियों के साथ चमकदार धूप का मौसम होता है। उनकी जलवायु फलोद्यान खेती में सहायक होती है। ऊपर किस प्रकार की जलवायु का वर्णन किया गया है? स्टेपी जलवायु सूडान तुल्य जलवायु लॉरेंशियन जलवायु भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु Q.12) With respect to the cyclones and anticyclones, consider the following statements.  Cyclones have high pressure at the centre while anticyclones have low pressure at the centre.  Winds blow anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere in cyclones and clockwise in anticyclones.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  1 and 2  None Q.12) चक्रवातों और प्रति-चक्रवातों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। चक्रवातों में केंद्र में उच्च दाब होता है जबकि प्रति-चक्रवात में केंद्र में निम्न दाब होता है। उत्तरी गोलार्ध में पवनें चक्रवातों में वामावर्त और प्रति-चक्रवात में दक्षिणावर्त चलती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? कथन 1 कथन 2 1 और 2 कोई नहीं Q.13) With respect to the westerlies, consider the following statements.  They are much stronger in the Northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.  They bring much precipitation to the western coasts of the continents.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.13) पछुआ पवनों (westerlies) के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वे दक्षिणी गोलार्ध की तुलना में उत्तरी गोलार्ध में अधिक मजबूत होती हैं। वे महाद्वीपों के पश्चिमी तटों पर अधिक अधिक वर्षा लाती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.14) Consider the following statements with respect to tornados Tornadoes are the manifestations of the atmosphere’s adjustment to varying energy distribution.  Tornadoes only occur in the equatorial regions due to convectional rains.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.14) टॉरनेडो (tornados) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें टॉरनेडो ऊर्जा वितरण के लिए वायुमंडलीय समायोजन की अभिव्यक्तियाँ हैं। टॉरनेडो केवल संवहनीय वर्षा के कारण भूमध्यरेखीय क्षेत्रों में होता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Consider the following statements with respect to Climates of the world.  In the tropical climates, the mean monthly temperature throughout the year is over 18 degree centigrade. In the warm temperate climates, the mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18 degree centigrade to minus 3 degree centigrade.  Choose the correct option:  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.15) वैश्विक जलवायु के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। उष्णकटिबंधीय जलवायु में, पूरे वर्ष औसत मासिक तापमान 18 डिग्री सेंटीग्रेड से अधिक होता है। उष्ण समशीतोष्ण जलवायु में, सबसे ठंडे महीने का औसत तापमान 18 डिग्री सेंटीग्रेड से -3 डिग्री सेंटीग्रेड के बीच होता है। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.16) What does the term ‘Water Spouts’ in meteorology refer to?  Tornadoes over the land surfaces.  Tornadoes over the sea surfaces.  Tornadoes over the tropical regions.  Tornadoes over the temperate regions.  Q.16) मौसम विज्ञान में ‘जलस्तंभ’ (Water Spouts) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? भूमि सतहों पर टॉरनेडो। सागरीय सतहों पर टॉरनेडो। उष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों पर टॉरनेडो। समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों पर टॉरनेडो। Q.17) Higher temperature is experienced in the sub-tropical areas than the equatorial areas due to which of the following reasons?  Sub-tropics have high pressure.  Sub-tropics experience more influence of warm ocean currents than the equatorial regions.  Sub-tropical areas have less cloud cover than the equatorial regions.  Sub-tropics have more off-shore winds than the equatorial regions.  Q.17) उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में उच्च तापमान का अनुभव भूमध्यरेखीय क्षेत्रों की तुलना में निम्न कारणों से होता है? उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में उच्च दाब होता है। उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्र, भूमध्यरेखीय क्षेत्रों की तुलना में गर्म महासागरीय धाराओं के अधिक प्रभाव का अनुभव करते हैं। उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में भूमध्यरेखीय क्षेत्रों की तुलना में कम बादल आच्छादित होते हैं। उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में भूमध्यरेखीय क्षेत्रों की तुलना में अधिक तटवर्ती पवनें होती हैं। Q. 18) Stratocumulus clouds are responsible for many meteorological events. Consider the following statements with respect to the stratocumulus clouds.  Stratocumulus clouds keep the oceans warm during the night time.  Stratocumulus clouds are formed due to the evaporation of the sea water.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q. 18) स्तरी-कपासी बादल (Stratocumulus clouds) कई मौसम संबंधी घटनाओं के लिए उत्तरदायी हैं। स्तरी-कपासी बादलों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। स्तरी-कपासी बादल रात के समय में महासागरों को गर्म रखते हैं। स्तरी-कपासी बादल सामान्यतः समुद्री पानी के वाष्पीकरण के कारण बनते हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to the location of the hot deserts.  Hot deserts are the results of the offshore trade winds in the western margin of the continents.  Majority of the hot deserts are formed between 15 and 30 degree latitudes in both the hemispheres.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.19) उष्ण मरुस्थल के स्थान के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। उष्ण मरुस्थल महाद्वीपों के पश्चिमी किनारों पर अपतटीय व्यापारिक पवनों के परिणाम हैं। उष्ण मरुस्थल अधिकांशतः 15 और 30 डिग्री अक्षांशों के बीच दोनों गोलार्धों में बनते हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.20) Which of the following conditions are favourable for formation of temperature inversion?  Short nights.  Clear skies.  Calm and stable air.  Choose the correct option:  1 and 3  2 and 3  1 and 2  1, 2 and 3  Q.20) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी स्थिति तापमान व्युत्क्रमण (temperature inversion) के निर्माण के लिए अनुकूल है? छोटी रातें साफ आसमान शांत एवं स्थिर हवा सही विकल्प चुनें : 1 और 3 2 और 3 1 और 2 1, 2 और 3 Q.21) Consider the following statements about Eight Core Industries: These are main industries which has a multiplier effect on the economy. These industries comprise of more than 50% of the weight of items included in Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Among these industries, refinery products have highest weightage in IIP Index. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.21) आठ प्रमुख उद्योगों (Eight Core Industries) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: ये मुख्य उद्योग हैं जिनका अर्थव्यवस्था पर गुणक प्रभाव होता है। इन उद्योगों में औद्योगिक उत्पादन सूचकांक (IIP) में शामिल वस्तुओं के भारांश का 50% से अधिक शामिल है। इन उद्योगों में, रिफाइनरी उत्पादों का IIP सूचकांक में सबसे अधिक भारांश है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.22) In which of the following states, Govind Wildlife Sanctuary is located? Madhya Pradesh West Bengal Assam Uttarakhand Q.22) निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में, गोविंद वन्यजीव अभयारण्य स्थित है? मध्य प्रदेश पश्चिम बंगाल असम उत्तराखंड Q.23) With reference to Non-Aligned-Movement (NAM), consider the following statements: It was founded in the Asia-Africa Conference held in Bandung, Indonesia in 1955. Its recent Summit was held in Venezuela. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.23) गुटनिरपेक्ष आंदोलन (NAM) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसकी स्थापना 1955 में इंडोनेशिया के बांडुंग में आयोजित एशिया-अफ्रीका सम्मेलन में हुई थी। इसका हालिया शिखर सम्मेलन वेनेजुएला में आयोजित किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.24) Recently seen in news, MOSAiC Mission is an international research expedition to study Outermost part of the Sun's Atmosphere  Arctic Climate Submarine Hydrothermal Vents Potentially Habitable Exoplanets Q.24) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया, मोज़ैक (MOSAiC) मिशन किसके अध्ययन के लिए एक अंतरराष्ट्रीय शोध अभियान है सौर वायुमंडल के सबसे बाहरी हिस्से का आर्कटिक जलवायु पनडुब्बी जल-तापीय वेंट्स (Hydrothermal Vents) संभावित रूप से रहने योग्य बाह्य ग्रह (Exoplanets) Q.25) Section 124A of IPC (Indian Penal Code) often seen in news lays down punishment for   Defamation Election offences Sedition Blasphemy Q.25) IPC (भारतीय दंड संहिता) की धारा 124 A अक्सर समाचारों में किसके दंड के रूप में देखी जाती है मानहानि चुनाव अपराध राज - द्रोह ईश - निंदा Q.26) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding GOAL (Going Online as Leaders) Programme? It is a digital skill training programme for women members of local governing bodies. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Panchayat Raj and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन GOAL (नेताओं के रूप में ऑनलाइन जाना) कार्यक्रम के बारे में सही है? यह स्थानीय शासी निकायों की महिला सदस्यों के लिए एक डिजिटल कौशल प्रशिक्षण कार्यक्रम है। यह पंचायत राज मंत्रालय तथा इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय की संयुक्त पहल है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) World Economic Outlook Report is released by which of the following? World Bank World Economic Forum (WEF) International Monetary Fund (IMF) None of the above Q.27) विश्व आर्थिक आउटलुक (World Economic Outlook) रिपोर्ट निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा जारी की जाती है? विश्व बैंक (WB) विश्व आर्थिक मंच (WEF) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष (IMF) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.28) Consider the following statements about Guru Ravidas: He was a Dalit-poet saint from the Bhakti movement era. He was a Saguna saint. Muktabai was a disciple of Guru Ravidas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.28) गुरु रविदास के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: वे भक्ति आंदोलन के युग के एक दलित-कवि संत थे। वे सगुण संत थे। मुक्ताबाई गुरु रविदास की शिष्या थीं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 Q.29) Recently seen in news, Cape Town Agreement is related with which of the following? Safety of fishing vessels Wreck removal and Ship recycling Marine plastic removal Oil spills prevention measures Q.29) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया, केप टाउन समझौता (Cape Town Agreement) निम्नलिखित में से किसके साथ संबंधित है? मछली पकड़ने वाले जहाजों की सुरक्षा मलबे को हटाना और जहाज पुनर्चक्रण (Recycling) समुद्री प्लास्टिक हटाना तेल रिसाव (Oil spills) के रोकथाम के उपाय Q.30) In which of the following emerging computer technologies the data is analysed locally, closer to where it is stored, in real-time without latency, rather than sending it far away to a centralised data centre? Cloud Computing Cluster Computing Edge Computing Quantum Computing Q.30) निम्न में से किस कंप्यूटर प्रौद्योगिकी में, बिना विलंब के वास्तविक समय में, इसे एक केंद्रीकृत डेटा केंद्र में बहुत दूर भेजने के बजाय डेटा का स्थानीय स्तर पर विश्लेषण किया जाता है, जहां इसे संग्रहीत किया जाता है? क्लाउड कंप्यूटिंग क्लस्टर कम्प्यूटिंग एज कम्प्यूटिंग क्वांटम कम्प्यूटिंग DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 22, 2020 IASbaba's Monthly Current Affairs Magazine

IAS UPSC Current Affairs Magazine FEBRUARY 2020

IAS UPSC Current Affairs Magazine FEBRUARY 2020 ARCHIVES Hello Friends, This is the 57th edition of IASbaba’s Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation. An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it! This edition covers all important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of FEBRUARY 2020. CLICK HERE

Mar 22, 2020 Motivational Articles

MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times - Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours

MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times - Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours   Dear Students, There is an overall sense of anxiety around us. We all the know the reason- the deadly coronavirus. It is important that we take due measures in fighting a global threat that has hardly left any continent of the world unaffected. Though the COVD19 pandemic is global, the impact is local. Each one of us can get affected if we don’t take the necessary precautions. Needless to say, you must follow all the government instructions and practice social distancing. But is social distancing new to UPSC aspirants? You know the answer :) The majority of aspirants go in a self imposed lockdown for many months, limiting their social interaction, staying at home and focusing on their studies. Just take the current situation as an extension of the same social distancing, albeit an extreme one. So, now you are left with only one option- prepare for the Civil Services Examination (CSE). But that you have been doing already. What has changed then? Let us tell you- you have a golden opportunity to introspect and probe your thoughts. Most of us, while introspecting, ask questions in ‘what’ and ‘how’. What am I going to study in the next few weeks? What are my strengths and weaknesses? What are those subjects/ topics that need more preparation? How am I going to prepare those? How am I performing in the tests I am appearing for? How is UPSC going to judge my answers? Well, the list of questions can get really long. But do these questions help you in any way? Do these questions make you introspect better? Do getting to know the answers to these questions make you prepare more effectively? They hardly do. Let us try and understand this. We are all driven by certain desires or aspirations. This driving force has the ability to get us going despite the odds. This driving force helps us begin the journey and gain the initial momentum to further the journey. However, once we are midway in our respective journeys, we tend to get disconnected from the driving force. The disconnect from the driving force occurs simply because you never ask the simple question- ‘why’. In the middle of the journey, you know what you are doing and how you are doing. A simple analogy would be a bike ride to a hill station. You know you are riding a motorbike and that the motorbike is running at a certain speed. Similarly, presently you know that you are reading your textbooks/ notes and that you are finding some subjects/ topics more difficult than the others. Knowing these things is important but never sufficient. Let us come back to our analogy. What will happen if it starts raining heavily while you ride your bike towards the destination? Perhaps, you will stop at a shelter and come back home after the rain ceases. You might fear that the weather may get worse; and it is wiser to come back to the safety and comfort of your home. But, let us pause for a moment ask a simple question- why did you begin your journey at the first place? Maybe it was because you wanted to reach the highest motorable road of the world. Now that is a higher purpose that drove you to take a bike ride. If you remember this higher purpose or rather the ‘why’ of your journey, you will surely move ahead. It will change your emotions dramatically. Instead of worrying about the weather, you will now focus on the remainder of your journey. In all probability, you will reach your destination despite the weather. This is the ‘why’ we are asking you to get reminded of. Why did you start your preparation? What was the motive? Do you remember it? If yes, there is nothing that can stop you. You will always march ahead. Whenever you are faced with difficulties and you feel less determined, ask the ‘why’ question and you will reenergise yourself by the same driving force that made you begin your journey at the first place. That is the beauty of asking ‘why’. Now let us come to a specific point. Why did you decide to practice the ’60 Day’ questions? Perhaps to increase dramatically the probability of you getting through the Prelims stage. Do you still remember that? If yes, you need not worry. We know you are following the initiative religiously. You are posting your answers, engaging with peers and taking full advantage of a high value initiative. But if you don’t remember the very reason that led you start with the ’60 Day’ initiative, then you are in bit of a trouble. You are not taking it seriously, hardly posting your responses in fear of getting shamed by comparing your scores with others and thereby losing complete focus. Let us remind you that ’60 Day’ is not the battleground. It is the 'training ground' for knowing your weak spots and then working to address those. If you are not posting your responses, you will always be shy to face the world. By posting your responses you will be motivated to improve your scores. Even an incremental increase on a day to day basis will lead to sure shot success in Prelims. Moreover, it becomes much easier for us to calculate the cut off as we deal with a bigger sample space. Since most of the low scorers hesitate to put their responses, the cut off goes up naturally. ’60 Day’ is a peer-driven initiative and by participating actively, you are placed to get better with each passing day.   Here is the Feedback on '60 Day Plan' from the UPSC Topper -Muthu Somasundaram, Rank 23 IFOS, 2019. IFOS Prelims cut-off being higher than the Civil Services Exam (CSE) cut-off, this means a lot to us.  Since 2017 I have been an ardent follower of the 60 day plan before Prelims. The quality of the questions is very good and it's a good program to hone your question solving skills as well as brush up the basics. I want to sincerely thank IASbaba for continuing it as a free initiative and maintaining the quality of the program. There were times when after one attempt's interview the time for next prelims would be short and I used to solve 4-5 day questions together and make short notes or titbits of the key. You can never take prelims lightly even if you had cleared it earlier, and the 60 day plan was an important part of clearing prelims since 2017 for me, as I used to have sense of satisfaction and confidence if I had completed all the 60 days questions. Many like me are using this program in their own ways.  I have secured Rank 23 in Indian Forest Service exam this year and would like to thank IASbaba for their Free 60 day Prelims Initiative. Keep doing it with the same passion, like you do every year   Thank you IASbaba! Regards, Muthu S   Now a really IMPORTANT ANNOUNCEMENT - IASbaba’s Dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants !! We would like to apologise that we have not been able to meet you in person for past one week at our office. Due to Government orders, we had to close our offices at Delhi and Bangalore. In order to compensate for that and to make sure that your preparation goes on smoothly, we are starting a new communication channel. Yes, you read it correctly; you will be able to speak with the Founders and Core Team of IASbaba on telephone regarding 'any queries' related to Prelims preparation in general or subject specific doubts. In addition, to the thread opened on daily basis for our 60 Day plan, a communication line will be open for two hours daily (excluding Sunday) from 5 pm to 7 pm. We will try to make sure that with so much going around these days, you have at least one less thing to worry about. Also, use the thread opened on daily basis for our 60 Day plan - the 'Disqus Comment' section effectively and clarify your subject specific and general preparation related doubts/queries on daily basis. Make the best use of the channel (thread and calls) provided. We will make sure that, all your queries will be answered to. Please Note that, Contact details and modus of operandi of the communication channel with the Mentors will be announced soon. Stay tuned !!   On Prelims Postponing Rumours! Finally, we have been getting many emails asking whether Prelims 2020 is going to get postponed. We understand that the problem has been created by the rumour mongers. Out of nowhere, people are now speaking of cancellation of prelims examination. These type of rumours spread like wildfire, especially in places where there are established markets for UPSC coaching centres. First of all, no one knows whether the exam will be cancelled or not. UPSC hasn’t announced anything as such. If at all it happens, we will definitely let you know first. So please don't panic, instead use the time effectively in your prelims preparation. Moreover, as an aspirant should you be even concerned about that? You have control only over your preparation. Hence there is no need to pay any heed to such distractions. As mentioned above ask the ‘why’ question and you will reenergise yourself by the same driving force that made you begin your journey at the first place. For those who have got your Interview re-scheduled (for candidates appearing between 23rd March to 3rd April, 2020) please don't waste your time. Spend atleast 3-4 hours on your Prelims preparation on daily basis. Do follow our 60 day plan, use our communication channels effectively and revise your basics. Reading newspaper will help in both your prelims and interview preparation, so don't neglect it. The other half of the day can be spent on your interview preparation. For now, remember the keyword SHIP- stay Safe, stay Healthy, stay Informed and continue with your Preparation! We at IASbaba are always there to guide you to the best of our abilities.   MUST READ: Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba HOME MINISTRY GUIDELINES: 21 Days Lockdown (12 Am 25th March to 14th April, 2020) and list of Essential Services and Commodities available!   All the Best IASbaba Team

Mar 22, 2020 Motivational Articles

Creative Guidance – Embracing the change – Inspirational Educative Articles

Embracing the Change: Observe what is happening around you. Don’t bring in your accumulated knowledge, ideas and concepts. Just observe, as if you are looking at things for the first time. When you look at the tree, the sky, the sun, or the earth, don’t separate them. Just look and you will see the dreamlike quality of life. Reality is like a painting on water. The only thing real about the reality around you is its constantly changing nature. That itself should tell you that you are not in a fixed reality. If you are living in a fixed, physical, absolute, objective reality, there should at least be a few moments when things are not changing. If you’ll notice closely, things are changing all the time. You can never capture the same moment of life twice. Try this: Pick up your camera, go outside, and try to capture the same thing two-seconds apart. If you can do it, then you have found reality. Take a photo, give yourself a two-second gap, and then take a second photo. You will see that these two photographs are different. The clouds would have changed, a few leaves would have moved, a new bird might be sitting on that tree, or something else would have changed. This means that no two photographs are ever the same; no two moments of life are ever the same. There is nothing fixed in your reality - Nothing at all. Everything is constantly churning. Everything is moving and changing, and you are just a part of this change. To know this process of life in its entirety, you have to move away from all the concepts and ideas you have accumulated. You have to experientially grasp reality just the way it is presenting itself to you. Conceptually, what is the sun? It is an object at the center of the solar system. It is keeping the planets in orbit, and it produces light and heat which sustains life. Conceptually, that is all there is to the sun. But when looked at personally, the sun is a totally different phenomenon. “This article is a part of the creative endeavor of Meditation Farm and IASBABA.”

Mar 21, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health & Governance In News: All pneumonia patients must be notified to the IDSP so that they can be tested for COVID-19 IDSP is an initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs started in 2004 with the assistance of World Bank.  Objective: To strengthen/maintain decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic prone diseases to monitor disease trends  To detect and respond to outbreaks in early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Team (RRTs) Programme Components Integration and decentralization of surveillance activities through establishment of surveillance units at Centre, State and District level. Human Resource Development – Training of State and District Surveillance Officers, Rapid Response Team and other Medical & Paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance. Use of ICT for collection, collation, compilation, analysis and dissemination of data. Strengthening of public health laboratories. Inter sectoral Co-ordination for zoonotic diseases Huntington disease Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health Huntington disease (HD) is a progressive genetic disorder affecting the brain  It causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes How is the disease caused? A gene called HTT are involved in the production of a protein called huntingtin. When these genes mutate, they provide faulty instructions leading to production of abnormal huntingtin proteins and these form into clumps.  The clumps disrupt the normal functioning of the brain cells, which eventually leads to death of neurons in the brain, resulting in Huntington disease. Mahatma Gandhi Bunkar Bima Yojana (MGBBY)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance The scheme aims at providing social security benefits like life, accidental & disability insurance coverage to handloom weavers/workers. Age group: 51-59 years  Coverage: Across the country Implementing Body: Ministry of Textiles The claim benefits are provided by LIC directly into the bank account of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Tech for Tribal Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II-Governance It is an initiative of TRIFED supported by Ministry of MSME The project aims at capacity building and imparting entrepreneurship skills to tribal forest produce gatherers enrolled under the Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY).  The trainees will undergo a 30 days program over six weeks comprising 120 sessions. Partnering Institutions: IIT-Kanpur, IIT-Roorkee, IIM Indore, Kalinga Institute of Social Science, Bhubaneshwar and SRIJAN, Jaipur Prelims Value Addition About Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY).  It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED, launched in 2018, to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products. It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies It aims to set-up tribal community owned Minor Forest Produce (MFP)-centric multi-purpose Van Dhan Vikas Kendras. The Kendras would act as common facility centres for procurement cum value addition to locally available MFPs.  One typical Van Dhan Vikas Kendra comprises of 15 Self Help Groups, each consisting of 20 Tribal gatherers.  These SHGs will get training on sustainable harvesting/collection, primary processing & value addition and also provided with working capital to conduct their business. Colour Coded Weather Warning Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Geography In News: The Met department issued a fresh yellow weather warning for heavy rain and snowfall accompanied by thunderstorm and lightning in Himachal Pradesh  Colour-coded warnings are issued by Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)  Parent Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. Objective: To alert people ahead of severe or hazardous weather which has the potential to cause damage, widespread disruption or danger to life. IMD uses four colour codes to indicate various categories of alerts Green (All is well): No action is required and No advisory is issued. Yellow (Be Aware): It indicates severely bad weather panning across several days. It also suggests that the weather could change for the worse, causing disruption in day-to-day activities. Orange / Amber (Be prepared): It is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply.  The sounding of the orange alert is a sign for people to prepare for evacuation, keep food packets ready and protect themselves and their family from bad weather. Red (Take Action): When the extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power, and has significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. In this case, people must take all measures to protect their families and follow the instructions of local authorities and disaster-response teams Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Federalism In News: Assam State Election Commissioner has deferred the elections to the 40-seat BTC in view of the COVID-19 pandemic. About BTC BTC is an autonomous district council under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution It was formed as a result of the second Bodo accord, 2003  The area under the BTC jurisdiction is now officially called the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) comprising of 3,082 villages in four districts— Kokrajhar, Chirang, Udalguri and Baska. Prelims Value Addition The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides for decentralized self-governance and dispute resolution through local customary laws in parts of the North East which are mainly tribal areas. It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Institutes of Information Technology (IIIT) Laws Amendment Bill 2020 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Education & Governance The Bill seeks to declare five IIITs set up under the PPP mode in Surat, Bhopal, Bhagalpur, Agartala, and Raichur as institutions of national importance. The bill proposes to bring the above five institutes under the IIIT (Public-Private Partnership) Act, 2017, similar to the other 15 IIITs established under the scheme through public-private partnership Currently, these institutes are registered as Societies under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and do not have the power to grant degrees or diplomas. On being declared institutions of national importance, the five institutes will be granted the power to grant degrees and use the nomenclature B.Tech or M.Tech or Ph.D degrees.  Funding: The central government will contribute 50% towards the expenses of institutes functioning under the PPP mode. 35% will be borne by the states and 15% by the industries G7 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: US is scrapping 2020’s G7 summit at Camp David near Washington due to the COVID-19 crisis and will instead hold the event by videoconference. The Group of Seven (G7) is a forum of the world's seven largest developed economies whose government leaders meet annually to discuss international economic and monetary issues. G7 countries are— Britain, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the United States The G-7 has its roots in an informal meeting of the finance ministers of France, West Germany, the U.S, Great Britain, and Japan (the Group of Five) in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis.  In 2019, the 45th G7 summit was hosted by France As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more than 46% of the global GDP based on nominal values India VIX index Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III-Economy In News: The India VIX index, a barometer for volatility, fell a little over 7% Volatility is often described as the “rate and magnitude of changes in prices" and in finance often referred to as risk. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term. India VIX is the short name for the India Volatility Index, an index disseminated by the NSE (National Stock Exchange) It measures the degree of volatility or fluctuation that active traders expect in the Nifty50 over the next 30 days Miscellaneous  World Happiness Report In News: For the third year in a row, Finland (score of 7.8) has placed at the top of the list, with Denmark coming in second, followed by Switzerland It is an annual survey (originally launched in 2012) by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network for the United Nations. It looks at the state of global happiness in 156 countries, ranking countries based on six factors: levels of GDP, life expectancy, generosity, social support, freedom and corruption income. India has been ranked 144th with a score of 3.573(Pakistan, on the other hand, has been ranked 66 with a score of 5.693 ) (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  Capital Punishment Context: Four convicts in Nirbhaya gangrape and murder case were hanged to death at Tihar jail in Delhi. The last death sentence executed by the justice system in India was the 30 July 2015 hanging of terrorist Yakub Memon, who was convicted in the 1993 Mumbai blasts. In 2012, the government, post Nirbhaya incident, set up the Justice J.S. Verma Committee to look into rape laws. The report led to stringent changes through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 [caption id="attachment_58089" align="aligncenter" width="528"] FINAL DNA- 21 MARCH 2020[/caption] Pic Source On the imposition of the death penalty, the government went against what the Verma report had suggested — that seeking such a punishment “would be a regressive step in the field of sentencing and reformation”. However, several recommendations were simply not considered, some of which are Those Charged with Sexual Crimes cannot contest Polls Make Marital Rape an offence Bring Sexual Crimes by armed Forces under Criminal Law Now, repeat offenders in rape cases can be awarded the death sentence.  However, there has not been significant improvement over safety & security of women As per NCRB data a total of 3.78 lakh cases of crimes against women were recorded across India in 2018 compared to 3.59 lakh in 2017 and 3.38 lakh in 2016.  The total number of rape cases in 2018 was pegged at 33,356, of which Madhya Pradesh registered 5,450 rapes, the maximum in 2018.  The crime rate per one lakh women population was 58.8 in 2018 compared to 57.9 in 2017. At the end of 2018, 33.6% cases were pending police investigation. It is in this light that, Criminologists and Socialists have for long been demanding abolition of the death penalty on the grounds that it is inhumane and out of the purview of Social Contract. Arguments in Favour of Death Penalty: Deterrent effect: By executing convicted criminals, we would be able to deter would-be-criminals from committing heinous crimes in future. Retribution: One of the key principles of retribution is that people should get what they deserve in proportion to the severity of their crime. Thus death penalty needs to awarded to those who commit severe crimes Closure for Victim’s family: Death penalty is said to provide emotional closure for victims of crimes Arguments against the Death Penalty No Strong evidence to show that death penalty is an effective deterrent to crime. Death has been prescribed as a punishment for murder since 1860 (the year IPC was drafted), still, murders continue unabated.  Death has been prescribed in rape cases since 2013 (376A), still, rapes continue to happen and in fact, the brutality of rapes has increased manifold. Execution of the Innocent: The most common argument against capital punishment is that sooner or later, innocent people may get killed, because of mistakes or flaws in the justice system. Moral grounds: Human rights activists argue that death penalty is sanitised form of vengeance and takes away the scope of reform/rehabilitate in criminals Natural Rights: State is an institution created by Man whose primary purpose is to protect life. It is not within the purview of State to take away life which is given by God/Nature. Supreme Court on Death Penalty Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP 1973 case: According to Article 21 deprivation of life is constitutionally permissible if that is done according to the procedure established by law. Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP 1979 case: If the murderous operation of a die-hard criminal jeopardizes social security in a persistent, planned and perilous fashion then his enjoyment of fundamental rights may be rightly annihilated.  Bachan Singh v. the State of Punjab 1980 case: Death penalty is not to be awarded except in the ‘rarest of rare cases’ when the alternative option is unquestionably foreclosed. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab 1983 case: The Supreme Court laid down certain considerations for determining whether a case falls under the category of rarest of rare cases or not. Conclusion Deterrence is most effective when the punishment happens soon after the crime. The more the legal process distances the punishment from the crime - either in time, or certainty - the less effective a deterrent the punishment will probably be. It’s not the severity, but the certainty of punishment which can act as a deterrent. Connecting the dots: 35th Law Commission report on Death Penalty Capital Punishment in other countries Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.  COVID-19: Blunting the economic impact of a pandemic Context: Prime Minister Modi constituted the task force under Finance Minister to assess the economic impact of the pandemic and suggest palliative measures. The following are some suggestions for the task force  Cash transfers Casual Job workers like construction workers, cab drivers, restaurant waiters, mall workers, domestic help, itinerant retailers are either already without jobs & incomes or will soon find themselves in that position. Cash transfers of a fixed amount to these vulnerable sections would be useful. There are 33 crore accounts under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana that can be leveraged for this purpose.  There is also an efficient Public Distribution System prevalent in most States through which the beneficiaries can be identified for a cash handout. Cost Estimation: A transfer of ₹1,000 to a total of 23.53 crore ration card holders will cost the Centre over ₹23,500 crore Hong Kong announced a cash handout of HK$10,000 to every permanent resident as a supportive measure.  The United States is also weighing the option of a cash handout totalling $250 billion to its citizens. Loan guarantee Service industries such as airlines, hotels and restaurants and tourism have begun to feel the impact of COVID-19 and in course of time it will extend to the manufacturing sector as well. There will be revenue and profit issues to deal with later but the immediate crisis is one of cash flows. Banks are also not going to offer any accommodation to these businesses given their own issues with NPAs.  This is where the government can offer loan guarantees to affected businesses. For a start, government can provide guarantees to working capital loans and link it with assurances from the borrowers concerned that they will secure the jobs in their companies. Britain has pledged £330 billion of government-backed loans and guarantees, France and Spain have announced €300 billion and €100 billion aid, respectively. Mortgage holiday An equated monthly instalment (EMI) holiday can be a huge blessing for individuals and businesses when faced with a job loss, salary cut or loss of revenue.  A three-month mortgage holiday should be coaxed out of lenders by the government for businesses in obvious trouble and to those employed by such businesses. RBI should show regulatory forbearance in the matter of asset recognition for banks when it comes to these industries.  There are other helpful actions that the government can take such as  Promptly discharging its bills Refunding taxes without delay Promptly carrying out direct benefit transfers already budgeted for If necessary, even permitting affected businesses to temporarily delay payment of statutory dues such as provident fund and ESI. How to finance? Cooperative Federalism: The resources of the Centre and the States have to be pooled to develop a national response to economic challenge posed by COVID-19 pandemic Kerala, for example, has already announced a ₹20,000 crore package and other States may follow suit Leverage Private Expertise: The government will have to engage with the private sector while devising assistance measures. Bonds: A well-structured, tax-efficient bond issue can be an option to tap into the large pool of domestic savings. The large Indian diaspora can also be tapped into. Conclusion The government needs to come up with financial action plan involving all stakeholders (States & private sector) so as to tide over the crisis caused by the pandemic Did You Know? Resurgent India Bonds of 1998 post-Pokhran - SBI raised about $4 billion from NRIs against all odds to help India tide over the immediate impact of sanctions (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Sixth Schedule It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Which of the following countries are a part of G7 grouping? USA China Italy India Select the correct answer from the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 4 only 1,2,3 and 4 Q 3. Consider the following statements about TRIFED It is a statutory body established by TRIFED Act of 1987 The objective of TRIFED is to empower tribal people with necessary knowledge & tools which helps increase their income. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojaya It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Consider the following statements about Colour Coded Weather Warning System It is released weekly by ISRO in collaboration with Ministry of Science & Technology Its Objective is to alert people ahead of severe or hazardous weather which has the potential to cause damage, widespread disruption or danger to life Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 20 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 C Must Read About COVID-19  and SAARC The Indian Express About COVID-19 and Future challenges to India: The Indian Express

Mar 21, 2020 60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 18]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 18 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Which of the following is/are correct about Solid Wastes Treatment methodologies? Composting is a process where microorganisms decompose degradable waste into humus. Incineration is a process of combustion in absence of oxygen or the material burnt in controlled atmosphere of oxygen. Pyrolysis is a process where huge amount of wastes are burnt in blast furnaces at high temperature. Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.1) ठोस अपशिष्ट उपचार के तरीकों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? कंपोस्टिंग एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है, जहां सूक्ष्मजीव अपघटित अपशिष्ट को ह्यूमस (humus) में विघटित कर देते हैं। भस्मीकरण (Incineration) पदार्थ के ऑक्सीजन की अनुपस्थिति में या ऑक्सीजन के नियंत्रित वातावरण में दहन की प्रक्रिया है। ताप-अपघटन (Pyrolysis) एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है जिसमें उच्च तापमान पर वात्या भट्टी में भारी मात्रा में अपशिष्ट का दहन किया जाता है। नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) With reference to keystone species, consider the following statements: A keystone species exhibits disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. The Keystone species is always a predator. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) कीस्टोन प्रजातियों (मूल तत्व प्रजाति) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: एक कीस्टोन प्रजाति अपने बहुतायत के सापेक्ष अपने पर्यावरण पर काफी बड़े प्रभाव का प्रदर्शन करती है। कीस्टोन प्रजाति सदैव एक परभक्षी (predator) होती है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements about keystone mutualists: Keystone mutualists are two or more species that engage in mutually beneficial interactions A change in one species would not impact the other, and change the entire ecosystem Pollinators are often keystone mutualists Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.3) कीस्टोन सहभागियों (keystone mutualists) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कीस्टोन सहभागी दो या दो से अधिक प्रजातियां हैं जो पारस्परिक रूप से लाभकारी अंतःक्रिया में संलग्न हैं एक प्रजाति में परिवर्तन दूसरे को प्रभावित नहीं करेगा, तथा पूरे पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र को बदल देगा परागणकारी अक्सर कीस्टोन सहभागी होते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) What is meant by the term foundation species? It is a single species on which many other species depend It is a species that plays a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat It is the organism that is very sensitive to environmental changes in its ecosystem This are the species that acts as a symbol for an environmental habitat Q.4) आधारभूत प्रजाति (foundation species) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? यह एक एकल प्रजाति है जिस पर कई अन्य प्रजातियां निर्भर होती हैं यह एक प्रजाति है जो एक निवास स्थान बनाने या बनाए रखने में एक प्रमुख भूमिका निभाती है यह जीव है जो अपने पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में पर्यावरणीय परिवर्तनों के प्रति बहुत संवेदनशील है यह ऐसी प्रजातियां हैं जो पर्यावरणीय निवास के प्रतीक के रूप में कार्य करती हैं Q.5) Which of the following is/are known as criteria pollutants? Carbon dioxide Sulphur dioxide Ozone Nitrogen dioxide Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा / से मानदंड प्रदूषक के रूप में जाने जाते हैं? कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड ओजोन नाइट्रोजन डाइऑक्साइड नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Which of the following is/are part of MAB (Man and Biosphere) Project in India Pachmarhi Biosphere reserve Manas resrve Dibru-Saikhowa Nokrek Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 ony Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत में MAB (मैन एंड बायोस्फियर) प्रोजेक्ट का हिस्सा है पचमढ़ी जैवमंडल रिजर्व मानस रिज़र्व डिब्रू-सैखोवा  नोकरेक नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 Q.7) Consider the following in regard to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change NTCA has mandate within the ambit of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 ‘Project Tiger’ is a Central sector Scheme of the under ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.7) राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्राधिकरण (NTCA) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें: राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्राधिकरण पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय के तहत एक गैर-सांविधिक निकाय है एनटीसीए के पास प्राधिकार वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 के अंतर्गत है ‘प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर’ पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय के तहत एक केंद्रीय क्षेत्र की योजना है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Biodiversity includes all living beings at different levels. Consider the following statements about different levels of Biodiversity. Genetic diversity is all the different genes contained in all individual plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms Species diversity is s all the different habitats, biological communities, and ecological processes, as well as variation within individual ecosystems Ecosystem diversity is all the differences within and between populations of species, as well as between different species. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above. Q.8) जैव विविधता में विभिन्न स्तरों पर सभी जीवित प्राणी शामिल हैं। जैव विविधता के विभिन्न स्तरों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। आनुवंशिक विविधता सभी व्यक्तिगत पादपों, पशुओं, कवक और सूक्ष्मजीवों में निहित सभी विभिन्न जीन हैं प्रजाति विविधता सभी विभिन्न आवासों, जैविक समुदायों और पारिस्थितिक प्रक्रियाओं के साथ-साथ व्यक्तिगत पारिस्थितिकी प्रणालियों के भीतर भिन्नता है पारिस्थितिक तंत्र विविधता प्रजातियों की आबादी के भीतर तथा साथ ही, विभिन्न प्रजातियों के बीच सभी अंतर हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.9) Just as there are many different ways to define biodiversity, there are many different measures of biodiversity. Consider the following pairs: Alpha-diversity: Concerned with species richness and involves counting the number of individuals or even families – in a given area. Beta- diversity: Estimates the total biodiversity within an entire region. Gamma- diversity: Describing changes in biodiversity within or between ecosystems Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Q.9) जिस तरह जैव विविधता को परिभाषित करने के कई अलग-अलग तरीके हैं, वैसे ही जैव विविधता के कई अलग-अलग उपाय हैं। निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: अल्फा-विविधता: प्रजातियों की समृद्धि से संबंधित तथा इसमें किसी दिए गए क्षेत्र में व्यक्तिगत रूप से या परिवारों की संख्या की गिनती शामिल है। बीटा-विविधता: एक संपूर्ण क्षेत्र के भीतर कुल जैव विविधता का अनुमान। गामा-विविधता: पारिस्थितिक तंत्र के भीतर या बीच जैव विविधता में परिवर्तन का वर्णन उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.10) The loss of biodiversity is a significant issue for scientists and policy-makers. What are the threats to Biodiversity? Habitat loss and destruction Alterations in ecosystem composition Introduction of exotic (non-native) species pollution and contamination Global climate change Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.10) वैज्ञानिकों और नीति-निर्माताओं के लिए जैव विविधता का नुकसान एक महत्वपूर्ण मुद्दा है। जैव विविधता के लिए खतरे क्या हैं? पर्यावास हानि और विनाश पारिस्थितिक तंत्र रचना में परिवर्तन विदेशी (गैर-देशीय) प्रजातियों का परिचय प्रदूषण और संदूषण वैश्विक जलवायु परिवर्तन नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Conservation is the protection, preservation, management, or restoration of wildlife and natural resources. With respect to modes of conservation, consider the following pairs: In-situ Conservation: It is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species Ex-Situ Conservation: It is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats Which of the above pair is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.11) संरक्षण वन्यजीवों और प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संधारण, रक्षण, प्रबंधन या पुनर्स्थापन है। संरक्षण के तरीकों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: स्वस्थाने (In-situ) संरक्षण: यह स्थल पर ही संरक्षण है अथवा पौधे या पशु प्रजातियों की प्राकृतिक आबादी में आनुवंशिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण है बह्रर्स्थाने (Ex-Situ) संरक्षण: यह उनके प्राकृतिक आवासों के बाहर जैविक विविधता के घटकों का संरक्षण है उपरोक्त में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.12) Which of the following are protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? Tortoise  Snakes Elephants Tigers Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only All of the above. Q.12) वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम, 1972 की अनुसूची I के तहत निम्नलिखित में से कौन से संरक्षित हैं? कछुआ सांप हाथी बाघ  नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.13) Consider the following statements about different schedules under wildlife protection act-1972 (WPA) Animals under schedule-1 and 2 have absolute protection Schedule-3 and 4 animals are equally protected, but penalties are lower Animals in schedule-5 are called as vermin, but cannot be hunted Schedule-6 include protected plants and their derivatives Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 and 4only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only None of the above Q.13) वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम 1972 (WPA) के तहत विभिन्न अनुसूचियों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अनुसूची -1 और 2 के तहत पशुओं को पूर्ण सुरक्षा प्राप्त है अनुसूची -3 और 4 पशुओं को समान रूप से संरक्षित किया जाता है, लेकिन दंड कम है अनुसूची -5 में पशुओं को वर्मिन कहा जाता है, लेकिन उनका शिकार नहीं किया जा सकता अनुसूची -6 में संरक्षित पादप और उनके व्युत्पन्न शामिल हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.14) Which of the following statements is/ are correct about Biosphere Reserve? The entire Biosphere Reserve prohibits the entry of humans Neither existing National Park nor Wildlife Sanctuary can be part of Biosphere Reserve. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.14) जैवमंडल रिजर्व (Biosphere Reserve) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? संपूर्ण जैवमंडल रिजर्व मनुष्यों के प्रवेश पर प्रतिबंध लगाता है न तो मौजूदा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और न ही वन्यजीव अभयारण्य जैवमंडल रिजर्व का हिस्सा हो सकता है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Which of the following is/are correct regarding the radioactive wastes? Radioactive waste produces only two types of radiation i.e. alpha and beta rays Effects of radioactive pollutants depend upon half-life of the matter, energy releasing capacity and rate of diffusion. Alpha rays are the strongest rays and can be blocked only through thick concrete. Choose correct option from below: 1 only 2 only 1 and 4 only None of the above. Q.15) रेडियोधर्मी कचरे के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? रेडियोधर्मी कचरा केवल दो प्रकार के विकिरण यानी अल्फा और बीटा किरणों का उत्पादन करता है रेडियोधर्मी प्रदूषकों के प्रभाव पदार्थ की अर्ध आयु, ऊर्जा निर्मुक्त करने की क्षमता और प्रसार की दर पर निर्भर करते हैं। अल्फा किरणें सबसे मजबूत किरणें होती हैं और इन्हें मोटे कंक्रीट से ही रोका जा सकता है। नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2  केवल 1 और 4 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.16) Man-animal conflicts are increasing and leading to loss of animals at rapid pace. The causes for increased conflict are? Land use change Increased access in natural reserves Habitat fragmentation Livestock grazing and agri activities near conservation reserves Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only All of the above. Q.16) मानव-पशु संघर्ष तेजी से बढ़ रहा है तथा पशुओं की हानि तेज़ी से बढ़ रही है। इस बढ़ते संघर्ष के कारण हैं? भूमि उपयोग परिवर्तन प्राकृतिक संसाधनों में पहुंच का बढ़ना पर्यावास विखंडन संरक्षण रिज़र्व के पास पशुधन चराई और कृषि गतिविधियाँ नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) Consider the following statements about the newly notified Solid Waste Management Rules: The responsibility of segregation lies on the waste collector. These rules only apply to municipal areas and exclude SEZs and defence establishments Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) नव अधिसूचित ठोस अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन नियम के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अलगाव की जिम्मेदारी अपशिष्ट कलेक्टर पर है। ये नियम केवल नगर निगम क्षेत्रों पर लागू होते हैं तथा एसईजेड और रक्षा प्रतिष्ठानों को बाहर करते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Consider the following statements about protected area network (PAN) in India. In Sanctuary is Certain rights of people living inside the Sanctuary could be permitted In national parks, No rights of people are allowed The rights of people living inside a Conservation Reserve are affected. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above. Q.18) भारत में संरक्षित क्षेत्र नेटवर्क (PAN) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अभयारण्य में अभयारण्य के अंदर रहने वाले लोगों के कुछ अधिकारों की अनुमति दी जा सकती है राष्ट्रीय उद्यानों में, लोगों के किसी भी अधिकार की अनुमति नहीं है एक संरक्षण रिजर्व के अंदर रहने वाले लोगों के अधिकार प्रभावित होते हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.19) The ministry of Environment, forest and climate change is nodal agency of the following: International centre for integrated mountain development. Global environment facility Economic and social council for Asia and Pacific Choose correct option from below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 only All of the above. Q.19) पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय निम्नलिखित की नोडल एजेंसी है: एकीकृत पर्वतीय विकास के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय केंद्र। वैश्विक पर्यावरण सुविधा एशिया और प्रशांत के लिए आर्थिक और सामाजिक परिषद नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  उपरोक्त सभी। Q.20) India recently conducted elephant census. In this context consider the following statements: Project elephant was launched in 1991-92 to protect elephants, Habitats and corridors. India agreed on points of action for trans-boundary conservation of elephants with Bangladesh. Elephant population increased by 5% from census-2012 to census-2017 Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.20) भारत ने हाल ही में हाथी की जनगणना की। इस संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: हाथियों, आवासों और गलियारों की सुरक्षा के लिए 1991-92 में प्रोजेक्ट हाथी लॉन्च किया गया था। भारत बांग्लादेश के साथ हाथियों के सीमा-पारीय संरक्षण के लिए कार्रवाई के बिंदुओं पर सहमत हुआ है। जनगणना -2012 से लेकर जनगणना -2017 तक हाथी की आबादी 5% बढ़ी है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) Which of the following statement is/are correct about National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED)? NAFED is the national level marketing agency for agricultural products in the Cooperative Sector. NAFED was founded before the establishment of NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development). NAFED is registered as a society under The Societies Registration Act, 1860. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.21) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन भारत के राष्ट्रीय कृषि सहकारी विपणन संघ लिमिटेड (NAFED) के बारे में सही है / हैं? NAFED सहकारी क्षेत्र में कृषि उत्पादों के लिए राष्ट्रीय स्तर की विपणन एजेंसी है। NAFED की स्थापना नाबार्ड (राष्ट्रीय कृषि और ग्रामीण विकास बैंक) की स्थापना से पहले की गई थी। NAFED सोसाइटी पंजीकरण अधिनियम, 1860 के तहत एक सोसाइटी के रूप में पंजीकृत है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.22) With reference to ‘Forest-PLUS 2.0’, consider the following statements: It is a joint of programme of India and United States of America. It is a 2 year programme focused on forest landscape management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'वन-प्लस 2.0' (Forest-PLUS 2.0) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारत और संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका का एक संयुक्त कार्यक्रम है। यह वन परिदृश्य प्रबंधन पर केंद्रित 2 वर्ष का कार्यक्रम है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) Global Carbon Project is a research project of which of the following? World Meteorological Organization (WMO)  Centre for International Climate and Environmental Research Future Earth United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat Q.23) वैश्विक कार्बन प्रोजेक्ट (Global Carbon Project) निम्नलिखित में से किसकी एक शोध परियोजना है? विश्व मौसम विज्ञान संगठन (WMO) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय जलवायु और पर्यावरण अनुसंधान केंद्र फ्यूचर अर्थ जलवायु परिवर्तन पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र फ्रेमवर्क कन्वेंशन (UNFCCC) सचिवालय Q.24) With reference to Measles-Rubella, which of the following statement is NOT correct? Measles is a highly contagious (airborne) infectious disease caused by the measles virus. Rubella is also known as ‘German measles’ or ‘three-day measles’ is an infection caused by the rubella virus. Rubella has serious consequences if infection occurs in children below 5 years, causing Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine is covered under Universal Immunisation Programme of Ministry of Health. Q.24) खसरा-रूबेला (Measles-Rubella) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है? खसरा एक अत्यंत संक्रामक (वायुजनित) संक्रामक रोग है जो खसरे के वायरस के कारण होता है। रूबेला को ‘जर्मन खसरा’ या ‘तीन-दिवसीय खसरा’ के रूप में भी जाना जाता है, यह रूबेला वायरस के कारण होने वाला संक्रमण है। रूबेला के गंभीर परिणाम होते हैं यदि संक्रमण 5 वर्ष से कम उम्र के बच्चों में होता है, जिससे जन्मजात रूबेला सिंड्रोम (CRS) होता है। खसरा-रूबेला (MR) वैक्सीन स्वास्थ्य मंत्रालय के सार्वभौमिक टीकाकरण कार्यक्रम के अंतर्गत आती है। Q.25) The Stockholm Peace Agreement aims end the conflict in which of the following? Afghanistan Syria Palestine Yemen Q.25) स्टॉकहोम शांति समझौते का उद्देश्य निम्नलिखित में से किस संघर्ष को समाप्त करना है? अफ़ग़ानिस्तान सीरिया फिलिस्तीन यमन Q.26) The Munich Agreement was signed among which of the following countries? Germany Russia United States of America Great Britain Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 Q.26) म्यूनिख समझौते पर निम्नलिखित में से किस देश द्वारा हस्ताक्षर किए गए हैं? जर्मनी रूस संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका ग्रेट ब्रिटेन सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 4 3 और 4 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Interpol’. It is an intergovernmental organisation headquartered in Lyon, France. India joined the organisation in 2009. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'इंटरपोल' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह एक अंतर सरकारी संगठन है जिसका मुख्यालय ल्योन, फ्रांस में है। भारत 2009 में संगठन में शामिल हुआ। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Dadabhai Naoroji’ is/are correct? He helped found the London Indian Society and the East India Association. He first ran for the British Parliament in 1892. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) ‘दादाभाई नौरोजी’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? उन्होंने लंदन इंडियन सोसाइटी और ईस्ट इंडिया एसोसिएशन को स्थापित करने में सहायता की। वह पहली बार 1892 में ब्रिटिश संसद के लिए लड़े थे। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) The ‘Travel & Tourism Competitiveness’ Report is released by World Economic Forum Economist Intelliegnce Unit The Lonely Planet Airbnb Q.29) ‘यात्रा और पर्यटन प्रतिस्पर्धात्मकता रिपोर्ट’ किसके द्वारा जारी की गई है विश्व आर्थिक मंच इकोनॉमिस्ट इंटेलीजेन्स यूनिट लोनली प्लैनेट Airbnb Q.30) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?        Refineries State Numaligarh Refinery - Assam Barauni Refinery - Rajasthan Manali Refinery – Tamil Nadu Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.30) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है?              रिफाइनरी -          राज्य नुमालीगढ़ रिफाइनरी - असम बरौनी रिफाइनरी - राजस्थान मनाली रिफाइनरी - तमिलनाडु सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Mar 20, 2020 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force Part of: GS Prelims In News: To deal with the economic challenges caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, ‘COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force’ will be created It will be headed by Union Finance Minister. The Task Force will consult stakeholders, take feedback, on the basis of which decisions will be taken to meet the challenges. Electricity Production Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: As per the latest world energy statistics published by the IEA in 2019, India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India also ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017.  The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the OECD in 1974 Abel Prize Part of: GS Prelims In News: Abel prize was established by the Norwegian government in 2002 on the occasion of the 200th anniversary of Neil Henrick’s birth (Norwegian Mathematician) The purpose is to award the Abel Prize for outstanding scientific work in the field of mathematics. GreenCo Rating System Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment Conservation In News: GreenCo Rating, developed by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), has been acknowledged in India's Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) document, submitted UNFCCC in 2015 It is being used as a proactive voluntary action of Indian industry / private sector towards combating climate change. The GreenCo rating assesses the firms on their environmental performance and thus aligns them to national priorities towards environment such as energy efficiency, water conservation, renewable energy, waste management, etc Puri Jagannath Temple Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In News: The Jagannath Temple in Puri was called the “White Pagoda”. The temple is a part of Char Dham (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram) pilgrimages that a Hindu is expected to make in one’s lifetime. When most of the deities in the temples of India are made of stone or metal, the idol of Jagannatha is made of wood which is ceremoniously replaced in every twelve or nineteen years by using sacred trees. The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Jagannath Puri temple is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. New definition of MSMEs soon Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: The government would come out with a new definition of MSMEs, which are currently defined on the basis of investment in plant and machinery Government has accepted 39 suggestions by the U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI, including the setting up a “fund of funds” for MSME sector.  The MSME sector currently contributed 24% of the GDP growth and 48% of exports, with an annual turnover of ₹1 lakh crore in FY20. Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Bill, 2020 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The bill accords the Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda at Jamnagar, Gujarat, the status of ‘institution of national importance’ by clubbing the cluster of ayurveda institutes at the Gujarat Ayurveda University campus in Jamnagar. The three institutes (in Jamnagar) which would be a part of the proposed conglomeration are  The Institute of Post Graduate Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Gulabkunwerba Ayurveda Mahavidyalaya  The Institute of Ayurveda Pharmaceutical Sciences. The objective of the institute will be the promotion of quality and excellence in education, research and training in Ayurveda and allied disciplines LiDAR Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: In simple terms, LiDAR stands for light detection and ranging.  It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  These light pulses – when combined with other data, generate accurate, high-resolution three-dimensional information of the object. This technology is mostly used for ground-based surveys. LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Apart from aerial surveys, the LiDAR sensor is the most important component in self-driving cars. The LiDAR sensor provides continuous 360 degrees of visibility and accurate depth information. Challenges with LiDAR LiDAR can measure the distance to surrounding objects up to 5 meters away, but won’t fare well in identifying objects in the vicinity. Also, it can’t perform well in fog, rain, snow and dusty weather.  LiDAR also struggles to detect a glass wall or door, which is why smartphone manufacturers and self-driving cars makers use LiDAR along with secondary cameras and sensors. Do You Know? Sonar (short for sound navigation and ranging) relies on sound waves to detect objects and hence is usually used to detect objects underwater. Meanwhile, Radar (short for radio detection and ranging) uses radio waves to determine an object’s distance or range. Radio waves can work over a long distance and perform better in dusty conditions. Windrush Scandal Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: The British government apologised for Windrush scandal i.e. its treatment of Britons of Caribbean origin, who were wrongly detained or deported for being illegal immigrants Windrush generation refers to migrants from the Caribbean Commonwealth who had come to the U.K. at a time when they had the right to remain indefinitely in Britain, but had had their rights questioned under a toughened immigration regime. The Windrush generation is named after one of the many vessels that ferried some half a million people from the Caribbean islands to the U.K. in the late 1940s.  (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.  Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth Context: The Madras High Court is to decide on whether the recommendations made by such panels are binding upon the state A Brief Background In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.  The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.  Therefore, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States. These institutions can be considered as “fourth branch institutions” (similar to how other institutions like ECI, CAG, CIC which perform vital functions of Constitution) HRCs was established in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris (October, 1991) and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations on 20 December, 1993. Functions and Powers of NHRC/SHRC They are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative. While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.  Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government  to grant compensation to the victim  to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities,  to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps.  Furthermore, Section 18 of the Human Rights Act also obligates the concerned government to “forward its comments on the report, including the action taken or proposed to be taken thereon, to the Commission”, within a period of one month. Criticism of NHRC/SHRCs Politicisation of autonomous bodies The Human Rights Commissions are toothless: The word “recommend” in Section 18 of the act has been interpreted till now as only advisory in nature and not binding on the government. Thus, the government left free to disobey or even disregard their findings. If the state was left free to obey or disobey the findings of the Commission, then the constitutional role of NHRC/SHRC would be effectively pointless (effectively, the state judging itself) NHRC does not have any mechanism of investigation. In majority cases, it asks the concerned Central and State Governments to investigate the cases of the violation of Human Rights Inadequacy of funds hamper the working of these bodies. A large number of grievances go unaddressed because NHRC cannot investigate the complaint registered after one year of incident. National Human Rights Commission powers related to violations of human rights by the armed forces have been largely restricted. A case for making the recommendations & reports of HRCs binding on government In the past, courts have invoked constitutional purpose to determine the powers of various fourth branch institutions in cases of ambiguity The Supreme Court laid down detailed guidelines to ensure the independence of the Central Bureau of Investigation Various judgments have endorsed and strengthened the powers of the Election Commission to compulsorily obtain relevant details of candidates, despite having no express power to do so. Very recently, the Supreme Court held in the context of “opinions” rendered by the Foreigners Tribunals, held that these “opinions” were binding. The Human Rights Commission has the powers of a civil court, and proceedings before it are deemed to be judicial proceedings.  This provides strong reasons for its findings to be treated — at the very least — as quasi-judicial, and binding upon the state (unless challenged) Conclusion The requirement of state accountability in a democracy committed to a ‘culture of justification’ — strongly indicates that the Commission’s recommendations should be binding upon the state Connecting the dots: National Commission on Scheduled Castes (NCSC)/ National Commission on Scheduled Tribes/ National Commission on Backward Classes - are their recommendations binding? Tribunalisation of Judiciary Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Disqualification under Tenth Schedule Context: In a first, the Supreme Court removed Manipur Minister Thounaojam Shyamkumar Singh, against whom disqualification petitions were pending before the Speaker since 2017 Further, the court restrained him “from entering the Legislative Assembly till further orders”. Brief Background of the case The concerned person had become an MLA in 2017 on a Congress ticket before switching to the BJP to become Minister in Manipur State Government. A disqualification petition against the minister was pending before the Speaker since 2017 but the Speaker failed to take the decision within a reasonable time period.  On 21st January 2020, a three-judge Supreme Court Bench had asked the Speaker of Manipur Legislative Assembly to decide the disqualification (under Tenth Schedule) petitions of the concerned MLA within four weeks. It also gave other pronouncements (discussed below) Supreme Court invoked its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to remove the minister from the Cabinet. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution and was enacted by Parliament Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985.  Legislators used to change parties frequently bringing in Political Instability and was also considered as betraying the mandate of voters (who voted for the legislator considering his political party) The purpose of 10th Schedule is to curb political defection by the legislators.  There are two grounds on which a member of a legislature can be disqualified. One, if the member voluntarily gives up the membership of the party Second, if a legislator votes in the House against the direction of his party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days  However, there is an exception – if there is a merger between two political parties and two-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger, they will not be disqualified. The Presiding officer of the House (Speaker/Chairman) is the adjudicating authority with regard to disqualification of legislators under the Tenth Schedule. Criticism of the anti-defection Law Curbs the freedom of speech & expression of law makers Tyranny of Political Parties: Legislators have to abide by the line taken by Political parties even it is against their own stand or against the interest of her constituency Role of the Speaker is biased: Speaker who is a member of a political party is often not neutral and comes under the influence of his political party instead of deciding the cases on merit Delay in decision making: several presiding officers have allowed defectors to bolster the strength of ruling parties and even be sworn in Ministers by merely refraining from adjudicating on complaints against them Supreme Court Judgement in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) case:  Five Judge Bench of SC upheld the validity of the Constitution’s Tenth Schedule. It was also held in this case that a Speaker or a Chairman, acting Tenth Schedule, is a Tribunal and thus his discretionary powers were protected by Constitution. (Dissenting view by Justice JS Verma  questioned the fairness of speaker in adjudication) This verdict had also made the Speaker’s order subject to judicial review on limited grounds and that mere procedural infirmities could not prompt judicial intervention. It was also held that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman.  Supreme Court in its 21st Jan 2020 order gave the following pronouncements Reasonable Time period for deciding on Disqualification Unless there were “exceptional circumstances”, disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule should be decided by Speakers within three months  Failure to deliver decision by Speaker within a reasonable time period will entail the court to intervene in the disqualification matter (as has happened now in this case) Suggested an Independent Body  SC asked the Parliament to consider having an independent and permanent body to decide disqualification petition, which requires an amendment to the constitution. Given the fact that a Speaker belongs to a particular political party, the Court mooted this idea Also, Speaker wasn’t adjudicating election disputes or disqualification of members under Articles 103/ 192/ 329 for good reason, because their fairness could be suspected. Way Forward: The Constitution is called a living document because of its ability to grow and change with time and circumstances. Clearly, the Tenth Schedule has fallen short in fulfilling its objective of preventing defections and needs a relook. Parliament must fix this flaw and institute a tribunal recognising the significance of anti-defection provisions in upholding the sanctity of Parliament. Connecting the dots: Speakers role in deciding whether the bill is money bill or not Britain’s model of Speaker’s post (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements  India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about LiDAR It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI dealt with which of the following sector? Digital Payments Retail Payments MSME Sector None of the above Q 4. Windrush Scandal seen in news is related to which of the following country? United States of America Britain India Canada Q 5. Consider the following statements about Puri Jagannath Temple The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 19 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  and SAARC The Hindu President Ram Nath Kovind about COVID-19: The Hindu