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Chandra Shekhar Azad – Vishesh – RSTV IAS UPSC

Chandra Shekhar Azad Archives TOPIC: General Studies 1 Indian Freedom Movement Indian freedom fighters In News: Chandra Shekhar Azad died on 27th February, 1931. Chandrashekhar Azad was a great Indian freedom fighter. His fierce patriotism and courage inspired others of his generation to enter freedom struggle. He was the mentor of Bhagat Singh, another great freedom fighter, and along with Bhagat Singh he is considered as one of the greatest revolutionaries that India has produced. As a revolutionary ‘Azad’: In December 1921, when Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement, Chandra Shekhar, then a 15-year-old student, joined. As a result, he was arrested. On being presented before a magistrate, he gave his name as "Azad" (The Free), his father's name as "Swatantrata" (Independence) and his residence as "Jail". From that day he came to be known as Chandra Shekhar Azad among the people. Became famous for: Involved in the Kakori Train Robbery of 1925, in the attempt to blow up the Viceroy of India's train in 1926, and at last the shooting of J. P. Saunders at Lahore in 1928 to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat RaiThe Colt pistol of Chandra Shekhar Azad is displayed at the Prayagraj Museum What inspired him: The Jallianwala Bagh tragedy which took place in 1919 was when he decided to join the Non-Cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. Formed: He was the chief strategist of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He inspired: Bhagat Singh Chandrashekhar Azad was attracted towards more aggressive and revolutionary ideals. He committed himself to complete independence by any means. Azad and his compatriots would target British officials known for their oppressive actions against ordinary people and freedom fighters. A terror for British police: He was on their hit list and the British police badly wanted to capture him dead or alive. On February 27, 1931 Azad met two of his comrades at the Alfred Park Allahabad. He was betrayed by an informer who had informed the British police. The police surrounded the park and ordered Azad to surrender. Azad fought alone valiantly and killed three policemen. But finding himself surrounded and seeing no route for escape, he shot himself. Thus he kept his pledge of not being caught alive. Connecting the Dots: Azad lived only for 25 years, but inspired thousands of Indians to take part in freedom struggle!

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 8]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 8 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) With respect to the geological history of India consider the following statements.  Over two-thirds of the peninsular surface is covered by Archaean rock Gneiss.  Gondwana rocks contain about 98 percent of coal reserves of India.  Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.1) भारत के भू-वैज्ञानिक इतिहास के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। प्रायद्वीपीय सतह का दो-तिहाई से अधिक हिस्सा आर्कियन चट्टान नीस (Gneiss) द्वारा कवर किया गया है। गोंडवाना चट्टानों में भारत का लगभग 98 प्रतिशत कोयला भंडार है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Which of the following are categorised as glacial lakes in India?  Roopkund  Chandra tal  Surajkund  Tsongmo Wular.  Choose the correct option:  1, 2, 4 and 5  1, 2 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 5  All of the Above.  Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से किसे भारत में हिमनद झीलों (glacial lakes) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है? रूपकुंड चंद्र ताल सूरजकुंड सोंगमो (Tsongmo) वूलर सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2, 4 और 5 1, 2 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Which of the following evidence shows that the Himalayas are still rising? Fossil formations of the Shivalik hills are also found in Tibetan plateau.  Dessication of lakes of Tibet.  Frequent occurrence of earthquakes in Himalayas.  Terraces found at the valley sides in the valley regions of the Himalayas.  Choose the correct option:  1 and 3 only  1, 3 and 4 only  1, 2 and 3 only  All of the above.  Q.3) निम्न में से कौन सा प्रमाण दर्शाता है कि हिमालय की ऊंचाई अभी भी बढ़ रही है? शिवालिक पहाड़ियों की जीवाश्म संरचना का तिब्बती पठार में भी पाया जाना। तिब्बत की झीलों का जल-स्तर नीचे होना (Dessication)। हिमालय में भूकंपों की लगातार घटना हिमालय के तराई क्षेत्रों में घाटी के किनारों पर पाए जाने वाले सीढ़ीदार क्षेत्र (Terraces)। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.4) Consider the following statements.  Dafla, Miri, Abor and Mishmi hills in Arunachal Pradesh are part of the Shivalik range.  ‘Duns’ are the seasonal streams found on the Southern side of the Shivaliks.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  None of the above.  Q.4) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अरुणाचल प्रदेश में दाफला, मिरी, अबोर और मिश्मी पहाड़ियां शिवालिक श्रेणी का हिस्सा हैं। ‘दून’ (Duns) मौसमी धाराप्रवाह हैं, जो शिवालिकों के दक्षिणी ओर पाई जाती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.5) Which of the following is/are correctly matched with respect to the location of the passes of the Himalayas?                    Pass                                              State Aghil Pass                            Jammu and Kashmir  Chang la                               Himachal Pradesh.  Bom Di la                             Sikkim Shipki la                               Himachal Pradesh  Choose the correct option: 1 and 4 only  1 and 3 only  1, 3 and 4 only  All of the above.  Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से हिमालय के दर्रे के स्थान के संबंध में कौन सा / से सही ढंग से सुमेलित हैं?            दर्रे (Pass)                      राज्य  अघिल दर्रा           जम्मू और कश्मीर चांग ला                 हिमाचल प्रदेश बोमडी ला                  सिक्किम शिपकी ला               हिमाचल प्रदेश सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.6) What does the term ‘Tarai’ with respect to physiography of Northern plains of India refer to? Coarse pebble belt along the foothills of the Shivaliks.  A marshy tract south of the Bhabar region in the Northern plains.  Old alluvium belt north of Bhangar region in Northern plains.  Newer alluvium belt north of Bhangar region in Northern Plains.  Q.6) भारत के उत्तरी मैदानों के भौतिक विज्ञान के संबंध में 'तराई' (Tarai) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? शिवालिकों की तलहटी के साथ मोटे कंकड़ वाला क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भाबर क्षेत्र के दक्षिण में एक दलदली क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भांगर क्षेत्र के उत्तर में पुराना जलोढ़ क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भांगर क्षेत्र के उत्तर में नया जलोढ़ क्षेत्र। Q.7) With respect to the ‘Doabs’ of the Punjab Plains, which of the following are correctly matched?                 Doab                                                       Location Chaj Doab                         Between Chenab and Jhelum rivers.  Sind Sagar Doab              Between Jhelum-Chenab and the Indus rivers.  Rachna Doab                    Between Ravi and Chenab rivers.  Bari Boab                          Between Beas and the Ravi rivers.  Choose the correct option: 1 and 4 only  1 and 2 only  1, 2 and 3 only  All of the above.  Q.7) पंजाब मैदानों के ‘दोआब’ के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही रूप से सुमेलित है?             दोआब                                             स्थान चाज दोआब                    चिनाब और झेलम नदियों के बीच। सिंध सागर दोआब          झेलम-चिनाब और सिंधु नदियों के बीच । रचना दोआब                     रावी और चेनाब नदियों के बीच। बारी दोआब                       ब्यास और रावी नदियों के बीच। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following Himalayan Mountains.  Nandadevi Kamet Makalu Dhaulagiri Arrange the above from west to east direction.  2-1-4-3 2-1-3-4 1-2-4-3 1-2-3-4 Q.8) निम्नलिखित हिमालय पर्वतों पर विचार करें। नंदा देवी कामेट मकालू धौलागिरी उपरोक्त को पश्चिम से पूर्व दिशा में व्यवस्थित करें। 2-1-4-3 2-1-3-4 1-2-4-3 1-2-3-4 Q.9) Consider the following statements Karewas are thick deposits of glacial clay embedded with moraines.  Karewas are significant for the cultivation of Zafran.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only.  2 only.  Both 1 and 2.  Neither 1 nor 2.  Q.9) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें करेवा (Karewas), हिमोढ़ (moraines) के साथ संबद्ध ग्लेशियल क्ले की मोटी निक्षेप हैं। ज़ाफ़रान की खेती के लिए करेवा महत्वपूर्ण हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.10) What does the term ‘Dhrian’ with respect to Rajasthan deserts refer to? Shifting sand dunes.  Oasis in the middle of the desert.  Dried up lakes.  Small Underground streams.  Q.10) राजस्थान के मरुस्थलों के संबंध में 'धरियन' (Dhrian) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? रेत के टीलों का स्थानांतरण। मरुस्थलों के बीच में ओएसिस (Oasis)। सूखी हुई झीलें। छोटी भूमिगत जलधाराएँ। Q.11) Which of the following are categorised as saline lakes ? Sambhar lake.  Chilika lake.  Kolleru Lake. Pulicat Lake.  Loktak lake  Choose the correct option: 1, 2 and 4  1, 2 and 3  1, 2, 3 and 4  All of the above.  Q.11) निम्नलिखित में से किसे खारे पानी की झीलों (saline lakes) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है? सांभर झील चिलका झील कोलेरु झील पुलिकट झील लोकटक झील सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2 और 4 1, 2 और 3 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to the peninsular plateau of India.  ‘Malnad’ refers to the rolling plains with low granitic hills in southern India.  The topography of Ranchi Plateau in Chotanagpur division is marked by the rounded hills of massive granite.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.12) भारत के प्रायद्वीपीय पठार के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। ‘मलनाड’ (Malnad) का तात्पर्य दक्षिणी भारत में कम ग्रेनाइट वाली पहाड़ियों वाले रोलिंग मैदानों (rolling plains) से है। छोटानागपुर डिवीजन में रांची पठार की स्थलाकृति विशाल ग्रेनाइट की गोलाकार पहाड़ियों (rounded hills) द्वारा चिह्नित है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Consider the following statements.  The Nilgiris join the Sahyadris near Gudalur.  The western ghats is separated from the main Sahyadri range by the palghat gap.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.13) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। नीलगिरि गुडालुर के पास सहयाद्रियों में मिलती हैं। पालघाट गैप द्वारा पश्चिमी घाट मुख्य सहयाद्रि श्रेणी से अलग होता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.14) Brahmaputra is the longest river in North-eastern India. With reference to this river consider the following statements.  It originates in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasa Sarovar lake.  It enters India in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh where it is known as the Siang river.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.14) ब्रह्मपुत्र उत्तर-पूर्वी भारत की सबसे लंबी नदी है। इस नदी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह मान सरोवर झील के पास कैलाश श्रेणी के चेमायुंगडुंग हिमनद से उत्पन्न होती है। यह भारत में अरुणाचल प्रदेश राज्य से प्रवेश करती है, जहाँ इसे सियांग नदी के नाम से जाना जाता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Which of the following are the tributaries of the Godavari river?  Penganga Ib Wardha Wainganga Jonk Choose the correct option: 1, 2 and 4  1, 3 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 4  All of the Above.  Q.15) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी गोदावरी नदी की सहायक नदियाँ हैं? पेनगंगा इब वर्धा वेनगंगा जोंक सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2 और 4 1, 3 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.16) Which fault separates Chota Nagpur Plateau from North Eastern Himalayan Mountains?  Bhima fault Malda fault Meghalaya fault None of the above Q.16) छोटा नागपुर पठार को उत्तर पूर्वी हिमालय पर्वत से कौन सा भ्रंश (fault) अलग करता है? भीम भ्रंश मालदा भ्रंश मेघालय भ्रंश इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) With respect to the west flowing rivers of India consider the following statements.  Although only about 3 percent of the arial extent of the basins of India is drained by these rivers, they contain about 18 percent of the country’s water resources.  About six hundred small streams originate from the Western Ghats and flow into the Arabian sea.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.17) भारत की पश्चिमी ओर बहने वाली नदियों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। हालाँकि भारत के बेसिन की केवल 3 प्रतिशत क्षेत्रीय सीमा तक ये नदियों बहती हैं, लेकिन उनमें देश का लगभग 18 प्रतिशत जल संसाधन होता है। लगभग छह सौ छोटी धाराएँ पश्चिमी घाट से निकलती हैं तथा अरब सागर में प्रवाहित होती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Arrange the following rivers with decreasing order of the catchment area.  Ganga Brahmaputra Mahanadi Godavari Cauvery Choose the correct option: 1-2-3-4-5 1-2-3-5-4 1-2-4-3-5 1-4-2-3-5 Q.18) जलग्रहण क्षेत्र (catchment area) के घटते क्रम के साथ निम्नलिखित नदियों को व्यवस्थित करें। गंगा ब्रह्मपुत्र महानदी गोदावरी कावेरी सही विकल्प चुनें: 1-2-3-4-5 1-2-3-5-4 1-2-4-3-5 1-4-2-3-5 Q.19) With respect to Island groups in India consider the following statements.  The great Andaman group of Islands in the North is separated by Ten degree Channel from Nicobar group in the south.  Saddle peak in North Andaman is the highest peak in the Andaman and Nicobar.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.19) भारत में द्वीप समूहों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। उत्तर में द्वीपों के ग्रेट अंडमान समूह को दक्षिण के निकोबार समूह से दस डिग्री चैनल द्वारा अलग किया गया है। उत्तरी अंडमान में सैडल पीक, अंडमान और निकोबार में सबसे ऊंची चोटी है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.20) Which is the highest peak in the satpura range of peninsular India?  Dhupgarh Astamba Dongar Amarkantak Guru Shikhar Q.20) प्रायद्वीपीय भारत की सतपुड़ा श्रेणी की सबसे ऊँची चोटी कौन सी है। धुपगढ़ अस्तम्ब डोंगर अमरकंटक गुरु शिखर Q.21) Which of the following is the India’s first Development Finance Institution? Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) Industrial Investment Bank of India Ltd (IIBI) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) Q.21) निम्नलिखित में से भारत का पहला विकास वित्त संस्थान (Development Finance Institution) कौन सा है? भारतीय औद्योगिक ऋण और निवेश निगम (ICICI) भारतीय औद्योगिक निवेश बैंक लिमिटेड (IIBI) भारतीय औद्योगिक वित्त निगम (IFCI) भारतीय औद्योगिक विकास बैंक (IDBI) Q.22) Consider the following statements about Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019. With the passage of this order, all the provisions of Indian Constitution are applicable to earlier State of Jammu and Kashmir. It repealed Article 370 as well as Article 35A of Indian Constitution. It re-organised Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.22) संविधान (जम्मू और कश्मीर के लिए आवेदन) आदेश, 2019 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इस आदेश के पारित होने के साथ, भारतीय संविधान के सभी प्रावधान पहले के जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य पर लागू होते हैं। इसने भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 370 के साथ-साथ अनुच्छेद 35 ए को भी निरस्त कर दिया। इसने जम्मू और कश्मीर को दो केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों, जम्मू और कश्मीर तथा लद्दाख में फिर से संगठित किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.23) To which of the following, India is a member? Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) ASEAN Regional Forum East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.23) निम्नलिखित में से किसका भारत एक सदस्य है? दक्षिण पूर्व एशियाई देशों का संगठन (आसियान) आसियान क्षेत्रीय मंच पूर्वी एशिया शिखर सम्मेलन (East Asia Summit) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.24) ‘Innovating for Clean Air’ is a joint initiative between India and Netherland United Kingdom Switzerland France Q.24) ‘स्वच्छ वायु के लिए नवाचार’ भारत और किसके बीच एक संयुक्त पहल है नीदरलैंड यूनाइटेड किंगडमa स्विट्जरलैंड फ्रांस Q.25) With reference to recently launched Commando unit “CORAS”, consider the following statements: It is launched by Ministry of Home Affairs to fight against Left Wing Extremism. It’s first deployment will be in naxal-hit Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) हाल ही में शुरू की गई कमांडो यूनिट "कोरास" (CORAS) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे वामपंथी अतिवाद के विरुद्ध लड़ने के लिए गृह मंत्रालय द्वारा आरंभ किया गया है। इसकी नक्सल प्रभावित छत्तीसगढ़ में पहली तैनाती होगी। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Delimitation Commission of India’ Delimitation commissions have been set up six times in the past. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be called in question before any court. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'भारत के परिसीमन आयोग' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। परिसीमन आयोगों की स्थापना पूर्व में छह बार की गई है। परिसीमन आयोग के आदेशों पर किसी भी न्यायालय के समक्ष प्रश्न नहीं कहा जा सकता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Bharat Bill Payment Operating Unit (BBPOU)’ It can handle payment and aggregation of payment services relating to bills under the scope of Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS). BBPOU can be a Bank or a Non-Bank entity. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'भारत बिल भुगतान परिचालन इकाई (BBPOU)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह भारत बिल भुगतान प्रणाली (BBPS) के दायरे में बिलों से संबंधित भुगतान और एकत्रीकरण सेवाओं को संभाल सकता है। BBPOU एक बैंक या एक गैर-बैंक इकाई हो सकती है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?     Places in News – Country Idlib – Syria Rojava – Jordan Okjokull – Norway Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 All of the above Q.28) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं?        समाचारों में स्थान - देश इदलिब - सीरिया रोजवा - जॉर्डन ओक्जोकुल - नॉर्वे सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1  1 और 2 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.29) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the U.S. when China manipulates its currency? U.S. exports to China becomes more expensive China’s exports to the U.S. have an unearned competitive advantage U.S. exports to all countries become less competitive Select the correct statements 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन अमेरिका के संबंध में सही है / हैं,  जब चीन अपनी मुद्रा में हेरफेर (manipulates) करता है? चीन को अमेरिकी निर्यात अधिक महंगा हो जाएगा चीन के निर्यात को अमेरिका में एक अनपेक्षित प्रतिस्पर्धी लाभ होगा अमेरिकी निर्यात सभी देशों को कम प्रतिस्पर्धी हो जाते हैं सही कथनों का चयन करें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) ‘Jaduguda Uranium Mine’ is located in Andhra Pradesh Jharkhand Meghalaya Odisha Q.30) ‘जादुगुडा यूरेनियम खान’ कहाँ स्थित है आंध्र प्रदेश झारखंड मेघालय ओडिशा DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba

PIB

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 1st March to 7th March – 2020

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 1st to 7th March, 2020 ARCHIVES GS-2 Steps taken by the Government for the rehabilitation of Kashmiri migrants (Topic: Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure) It has been the endeavour of the Government of India to ensure the safe return of Kashmiri migrants by providing various rehabilitation facilities and to create an environment conducive for their return to the Valley. Under the Prime Minister’s Development Package, 2015 (PMDP- 2015): Creation of 3,000 State Government jobs for the Kashmiri migrants at an outlay of Rs. 1,080 crores.     Construction of 6,000 transit accommodations at an outlay of Rs. 920 crores for accommodating 3000 Kashmiri migrants employed under PMRP- 2008 and for 3000 additional migrants under PMDP-2015. 849 flats are available for accommodation and 560 flats are under construction. In addition to the above, the Government of India reimburses monthly cash relief to the eligible Kashmiri migrants settled in Jammu.  Since the year 2014, the monthly cash relief has been enhanced twice i.e. from Rs. 6600/- per family to Rs. 10,000/- per family in 2015 and to Rs. 13,000/- per family in 2018.  In addition, dry ration is also provided to these Kashmiri migrants. In case of Kashmiri migrants settled in Delhi, the Government of India reimburses the expenditure incurred by the Government of NCT of Delhi (GNCTD) on the monthly cash relief of Rs.3250/- per person out of which the share of GNCTD is Rs. 1000/- per person. Schemes for the welfare and upliftment of every section of the society (Topic: Government policies for vulnerable sections of the society) The Government is implementing various schemes for the welfare and upliftment of every section of the society including minorities especially economically weaker & downtrodden sections all over the country. The Ministry in particular implements programmes/schemes for the six (6) centrally notified minority communities namely, Buddhists, Christians, Jains, Muslims, Parsis and Sikhs as under:-  Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Merit-cum-Means based Scholarship Scheme - For educational empowerment of students. Maulana Azad National Fellowship Scheme - Provide fellowships in the form of financial assistance. Naya Savera - Free Coaching and Allied Scheme - The Scheme aims to provide free coaching to students/candidates belonging to minority communities for qualifying in entrance examinations of technical/ professional courses and Competitive examinations.    Padho Pardesh - Scheme of interest subsidy to students of minority communities on educational loans for overseas higher studies.  Nai Udaan - Support for students clearing Prelims conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), State Public Service Commission (PSC) Staff Selection Commission (SSC) etc. Nai Roshni - Leadership development of women belonging to minority communities.. Seekho Aur Kamao - Skill development scheme for youth of 14 - 35 years age group and aiming at improving the employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc. Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) restructured in May 2018 earlier known as MsDP – Implemented for the benefit of the people from all sections of the society  in identified Minority Concentration Areas for creation of assets in education, skill and health sectors.  Jiyo Parsi - Scheme for containing population decline of Parsis in India. USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) launched  Nai Manzil - A scheme for formal school education & skilling of school dropouts  Hamari Dharohar- A scheme to preserve rich heritage of minority communities of India under the overall concept of Indian culture implemented since 2014-15. Maulana Azad Education Foundation (MAEF) implements education and skill related schemes as follows:-  Begum Hazrat Mahal National Scholarship for Meritorious Girls belonging to the Minorities Gharib Nawaz Employment Scheme started in 2017-18. for providing short term job oriented skill development courses to youth belonging to minority communities Bridge Course for madarsa students & school dropouts by Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh and Jamia Millia Islamia, New Delhi under Nai Manzil scheme Swachh Vidyalaya Equity to National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC) for providing concessional loans to minorities for self-employment and income generating ventures.   Schemes for strengthening State Waqf Boards and coordinates arrangements for annual Haj pilgrimage  Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK): In identified Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs) of the country with the objective of developing socio-economic assets and basic amenities in these areas to bring them at par with other parts of the country. The thrust of the PMJVK programme is to allocate at least 80% of the resources for education, health and skill development and at least 33-40% of the resources for women centric projects.   Ministry of Culture - Updates Sahitya Akademi, an autonomous organization under Ministry of Culture, encourages the preservation and promotion of languages, especially the unrecognized and tribal languages. Nomination dossiers of ‘Dholavira: A Harappan City’ and ‘Monuments and Forts of Deccan Sultanate’ have been submitted for inclusion in the World Heritage List for the year 2020 (Read up on: Group of Monuments at Mandu + Bhedaghat (Narmada Valley))       3. Scheme of Scholarship and Fellowship for Promotion of Art and Culture (i) ‘Award of Scholarships to Young Artists in Different Cultural Fields’: Up to 400 scholarships (in a Batch Year) are awarded to persons of outstanding promise in the age group of 18-25 years. An amount of Rs. 5,000/- p.m. is given for 2 years for advanced training within India. (ii) ‘Award of Senior/Junior Fellowships to Outstanding Persons in the Fields of Culture’: Up to 400 Senior/Junior Fellowships (in a Batch Year) are awarded to outstanding persons in the age group above 40 years (Sr.) and 25 to 40 years (Jr.) respectively. An amount of 20,000/-p.m. and Rs. 10,000/- p.m. is given to Senior/Junior Fellows respectively for 2 years for cultural research. (iii) ‘Tagore National Fellowship for Cultural Research: Up to 25 Scholarships and 15 Fellowships (in a Batch Year) are awarded to outstanding personsin order to invigorate and revitalise the various institutions under the Ministry of Culture (MoC) and other identified cultural institutions in the country, by encouraging scholars/ academicians to affiliate themselves with these institutions to work on projects of mutual interest. An honorarium of Rs. 80,000/- p.m. plus contingencies and Rs. 50,000/-p.m.plus contingencies is given to Fellows and Scholars respectively for 2 years.       4. Octave:  To promote and propagate the rich cultural heritage of North East region comprising of eight States namely Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Sikkim, Nagaland,  Manipur and Tripura to the rest of India.       5. Government has taken various measures to promote Sanskrit language Providing financial assistance to Adarsh Sanskrit Mahavidyalayas / Shodha Sansthans. Award of merit scholarships to students of Sanskrit Pathasala to College level. Financial assistance to NGOs / Higher Educational Institutions of Sanskrit for various Research Projects / Programmes. Retired eminent Sanskrit scholars are engaged under the Shastra Chudamani scheme for teaching.  Sanskrit is also taught through Non-formal Sanskrit Education (NFSE) programme, by setting up Non-Formal Sanskrit learning centres, in reputed institutions like Indian Institutes Technology, Ayurveda institutions, Modern Colleges and Universities. Presidential awards for Sanskrit Language are awarded annually to 16 senior scholars and to 5 young scholars. Financial Assistance for Publication, Reprint of rare Sanskrit books. Ashtaadashi containing eighteen Projects for sustaining the growth of Sanskrit has been implemented. Development of Sanskrit Dictionary to school students. Development of E-content in Sanskrit language for online professional development programme for teachers at secondary stage. 21-day refresher course for Sanskrit teachers of Andaman and Nicobar Islands at Upper primary stage. Development of Sanskrit workbook “Abhyasavan Bhava” at Secondary stage. Development of various e-contents for teachers and students Ongoing project: Development of compendium of ancient Indian education thoughts in Sanskrit. Cabinet approves  MoU between India and Côte d’lvoire for cooperation in the field of Health Exchange & training of medical doctors, officials, other health professionals and experts in the field of advanced medical technology, nuclear medicine, renal transplantation, cardiac surgery, nephrology, hemodialysis and medical research; Regulation of drugs and pharmaceutical products; Assistance in development of human resources and setting up of health care facilities; Medical and health research development; Management of healthcare sector and public health services including medical evacuations; Procurement of generic and essential drugs and assistance in sourcing of drug supplies; Collaboration and research in the field of HIV/AIDS; Development and improving the techniques and strategies for epidemiological surveillance; Exchange of best practices in the field of primary health care; Sharing of know-how on management of hospitals and community healthcare centers; The promotion of public health and sharing of experiences in medical waste management; Health promotion and disease prevention; Non-Communicable Diseases; Occupational and Environmental Health; Medical Research Foreign Direct Investment policy on Civil Aviation: The proposed changes in FDI Policy will enable foreign investment by NRIs into M/s Air India Ltd. up to 100%, under automatic route. Above amendment to the FDI Policy are meant to liberalise and simplify the FDI policy to provide ease of doing business in the country.  Leading to largest FDI inflows and thereby contributing to growth of investment, income and employment. Companies (Second Amendment) Bill, 2019: The Bill would remove criminality under the Act in case of defaults which can be determined objectively and which, otherwise, lack the element of fraud or do not involve larger public interest.  This would also lead to further de-clogging of the criminal justice system in the country. The Bill would also further ease of living for law abiding corporates. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Signs MoU with Amazon for E-Marketing of Products Made by Self Help Groups across the Country (Topic: Government policies for vulnerable sections of the society) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) under Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs today signed MoU with Amazon for e marketing of products made by Self Help Groups (SHGs) across the country in urban areas.   With an underlying narrative of women empowerment, the collaboration aims to provide access to wider customer base for products made by SHGs and strengthening the mission of creating sustainable livelihoods in urban areas. The Government of India is focused on building sustainable public-private partnerships that positively impact every section of society. This collaboration will be instrumental in unleashing the innate entrepreneurial potential of urban women. About DAY-NULM A Flagship programme of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to reduce poverty and vulnerability of the urban poor households by enabling them to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities, resulting in an appreciable improvement in their livelihoods on a sustainable basis, through building strong grassroots level institutions of the poor. GS-3 Black carbon from agricultural burning & forest fire may influence melting of Gangotri Glacier (Topic: Environment and Climate change) Black carbon concentration in the region increases by 400 times during summer, according to a study. The study suggests agricultural burning and forest fire as the reason behind this seasonal increase. This can trigger glacial melt because of the light-absorbing nature of black carbon. Study: By Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology, (WIHG), an autonomous institution under Department of Science & Technology Glacier in discussion: Conducted at Chirbasa station near Gangotri Glacier The seasonal cycle of increase was significantly influenced by the emissions resulting from agriculture burning (in western part of the country), forest fires (along the Himalayan slopes) in summer, and to some extent by the contribution from long-range transport of pollutants in winter, depending the prevailing meteorological conditions. The Equivalent Black Carbon (EBC) aerosols contribute significantly towards global warming due to its light-absorbing nature. Their presence in the eco-sensitive zone, such as the Himalayan glacier valleys, is a matter of serious concern and needs to be meticulously monitored. However, baseline data on BC is rarely available from most of the glaciated Himalayan region. Biomethanation of rice straw to solve stubble burning (Topic: Environment and Climate change) Efforts are on to produce bio-gas for kitchen use and quality manure for fields using bio-methanation of rice straw by anaerobic digestion method. Six domestic level paddy straw based bio-gas plants have been installed in Punjab for field trials and further study is in progress. R&D project has been supported on refinement and demonstration of an integrated process technology for conversion of crop residues into ethanol and methane for use as transport fuels. A major focus on agriculture waste/stubble management (waste to wealth), alternative to burning, has been taken up under waste management technologies programme and proposals are being considered. Flow Diverter Stents Technology for the treatment of Aneurysms of brain (Topic: New Technology - Medicine) Flow diverters stents when deployed in the artery in the brain bearing the aneurysms, divert blood flow away from the aneurysm, thus reducing the chances of its rupture from the pressure of blood flow. Intracranial aneurysm is a localized ballooning, bulging or dilation of arteries in the brain caused by progressive weakening of the inner muscles of the wall of the blood vessels. Spontaneous rupture of the aneurysm can result in bleeding into the space around the brain resulting condition called a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Subarachnoid hemorrhage can lead to paralysis, coma or death. The Surgical treatment of an aneurysm involves opening the skull and a clip on the neck of aneurysm, so that it is cut off from the path of blood flow. Flow diverters have the advantages of being flexible and adaptable to the shape and course of the vessel Flow diverters also promote healing of the vessel wall by removing the constant stress of blood flow on it The Chitra flow diverter is designed to have better grip on the walls of arteries of complex shapes in order to reduce the risk of migration of the device. The unique design is in its weave also makes this stent resistant to kinking or twisting, when it is placed in tortuous arteries and those with complex shapes. Even a 180 degrees bend does not occlude the lumen of the stent. Portion of the wires is made radio opaque for better visibility in X –Rays and fluoroscopy thus aiding accurate delivery of the diverter in the blood vessel. Nitinol, a super elastic alloy with shape memory was acquired from National Aero Space Laboratories, Bengaluru (CSIR-NAL). When the device is deployed at the site, it is released from its crimped locked position and assumes the desired and originally designed shape because of the shape memory property of Nitinol. The flow diverter is delivered to the aneurysm in the brain using a delivery system. The delivery system has also been developed by the team ‘GenomeIndia: Cataloguing the Genetic Variation in Indians’ project (Topic: New Technology - Medicine) Sanctioned by: Department of Biotechnology (DBT) Purpose: To do it for total 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population in 3 years.  Will facilitate future human genetics research in the country with greater precision Help to design a genome wide association array for the Indian population to develop precision healthcare and diagnostics for major diseases at affordable costs. The data security and sharing measures for this project will be governed by the rules and regulations formulated by Government of India. The personal information of all individuals consenting to participate in the study is stripped off from any further records in this project. This process of de-identification ensures that the personal information of the participants is not compromised. Additionally, ethical measures are strictly adhered to in order to maintain data security and protection. Development of new explosive detection device (Topic: New Technology - Security) Developed by: DRDO & IISc Bangalore Device: RaIDer-X Has the capability to detect explosives from a stand-off distance.  The data library can be built in the system to expand its capability to detect a number of explosives in pure form as well as with the contaminants.  Bulk explosive in concealed condition can also be detected by the device. The need: Detection of explosives is a compelling need of the hour. Security agencies are continuously monitoring vulnerable targets with the help of intelligence agencies to thwart the attempts of anti-social elements.  New and Innovative Measures by the Ministry of Defence (Topic: Defence and security) To improve work culture, bring more transparency and accountability and also enhance result orientation which are as under:- Measures for promoting Probity, Public Accountability and Transparency in defence capital procurements: Execution of Pre Contract Integrity Pact (PCIP) for all cases above Rs. 20 crore is being done to ensure integrity in procurement process.  Guidelines for Handling of Complaints provide for time bound disposal of complaints and are aligned to CVC/DoP&T guidelines.  Instructions have been issued for ascertaining vigilance status of L-1 vendor before seeking approval of the Competent Financial Authority.   Guidelines for Penalties in Business Dealings with Entities and Capacity Assessment for Shipbuilding Entities have been notified.     2. Measures undertaken by Services to improve work culture, transparency: The Organizations follow a fair and transparent policy in distribution of work, posting, grant of leave, honours and award etc. through constant monitoring of cases on weekly and monthly basis and ensuring timelines and accountability.  IT resources are being exploited to the optimum to ensure monitoring of work flow, pendency of cases and achievement of results.   Online tests for selection of personnel through examination web portal have been started which increased IAF’s testing capability by 8 to 10 times and facilitated candidates to appear for exams in their nearby locations.   IAF has successfully implemented Project e-MMS (e-Maintenance Management System) which is a versatile maintenance management tool.  Non-classified communications have been moved towards paperless office using software developed by IAF.   An Automation Cell have been set up by IAF to digitize, automate and reengineer various operational, maintenance and administrative tasks of IAF with an aim to bring transparency and accountability.  IHQ MoD (Navy) has also commenced centralized online recruitment of Naval Civilians to lead a fair and transparent recruitment process.      3. Installation of biometric attendance system      4. Implementation of IT to monitor workflow, pendency of cases and achievements of results      5. Performance Management System (PMS) to improve individual performance A surge in start-ups dealing with defence production and indigenisation of imported equipment Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework: Launched for achieving self-reliance and to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, startups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia. Under iDEX, the projects or problem statements are identified based on the requirements projected by the Armed Forces, OFB & DPSUs. Government has notified a ‘Policy for indigenisation of components and spares used in Defence Platforms’ in March, 2019 with the objective to create a domestic industry ecosystem. Industrial licensing regime for Indian manufacturers in Defence sector has been liberalized. This has reduced entry barriers for new entrants in defence sector, particularly SMEs. FDI Policy has been revised and under the revised policy, Foreign Investment up to 49 % is allowed through automatic route and above 49 % under the Government route. Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has evolved a new industry friendly ToT policy for transfer of DRDO developed technologies to industries. DRDO has also promulgated new patent policy to facilitate Indian industries to get free access to use DRDO patents. DRDO has launched a program termed as Technology Development Fund (TDF) for meeting the requirements of Tri-Services, Defence Production and DRDO. The scheme has been established to promote self-reliance in Defence Technology as a part of the 'Make in India' initiative by encouraging participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs. Third Party Inspection (TPI) of Defence Stores: To align with the Government of India initiative to promote Ease of Doing Business for MSMEs and private sector and achieve national vision of “Make in India”, the Department has formulated Policy Document on ‘Utilisation of Third Party Inspection Services’ for effective administration of inspection function of out-sourced work with involvement of third parties for inspection services. Mission Raksha Gyanshakti: This Mission was launched with the objective to encourage IPR for self-reliance in defence. IPR is the key enabler for developing an ecosystem of innovation and indigenization. As part of Mission Raksha Gyanshakti, an IPR Division has been constituted in DDP. Steps to curb Maoists (Topic: Defence and security) No Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) are being withdrawn from Left Wing Extremism theatre. However, depending on dynamic security scenario CAPFs are redeployed from one area to another.  As per Seventh schedule of Constitution of India, ‘Police’ and ‘Public Order’ are State subjects. However, the Central Government supplements the efforts of the State Governments over a wide range of measures including security, development and ensuring rights & entitlements of local communities. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is supporting the State Governments extensively by deployment of CAPF Battalions, provision of helicopters, sanction of India Reserve Battalions (IRBs)/ Special India Reserve Battalions (SIRBs) etc. Funds are provided under Modernization of Police Force (MPF) Scheme, Security Related Expenditure (SRE) Scheme and Special Infrastructure Scheme (SIS) for modernization and training of State Police. On development front, apart from flagship schemes of the Central Government, several initiatives have been taken for development of roads, installation of mobile towers, skill development, improving network of banks and post offices, besides strengthening of  health and education facilities. Steadfast implementation of the National Policy and Action Plan-2015 has resulted in consistent decline in both LWE violence and geographical spread of LWE influence Prelims oriented News: Gender Parity Index (GPI): Reflect equitable participation of girls in the School system To bring gender parity in School Education, various interventions  have been targeted for girls under Samagra Shiksha which include opening of schools in the neighbourhood as defined by the State, provision of free text-books to girls up to Class VIII, uniforms to all girls up to class VIII, provision of gender segregated toilets in all schools, teachers’ sensitization programmes to promote girls’ participation,  provision for Self-Defence training for the girls from classes VI to XII, stipend to CWSN girls from class I to Class XII, construction of residential quarters for teachers in remote/hilly areas/in areas with difficult terrain.    In addition to this, to reduce gender gaps at all levels of school education and for providing quality education to girls from disadvantaged groups, Kasturba Gandhi BalikaVidyalayas (KGBVs) have been sanctioned in Educationally Backward Blocks (EBBs) under SamagraShiksha.  KGBVs are residential schools from class VI to XII for girls belonging to disadvantaged groups such as SC, ST, OBC, Minority and Below Poverty Line (BPL).A total of 5930 KGBVs have been sanctioned under SamagraShiksha as on 30.09.2019. Out of it, 4881 are operational enrolling 6.18 lakh girls. Nationwide “AYUSH Grid”: Ministry of AYUSH has conceptualized AYUSH GRID Project for digitalization of the entire AYUSH Sector. Aims to bring onboard all AYUSH facilities including hospitals and laboratories and to promote traditional systems of healthcare The Ministry of AYUSH has developed National Ayurveda Morbidity Codes (NAMC), a comprehensive classification of diseases described in Ayurveda as well as Standardized Ayurveda Terminologies. Under this project, some common disease condition have been identified and accordingly the Proforma and manual of selected disease conditions is being drafted and validated through scientific methods in  phased manner. Jan aushadhi Diwas: 7th March Kishori Health Cards: For Adolescent Girls in Angawadi Centres (AWCs) to record the information about the weight, height, Body Mass Index (BMI) along with other services provided under the scheme. Elephant deaths by train accidents showing a declining trend: A number of measures taken by Zonal Railways in coordination with Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change have resulted in saving of elephants - Imposition of permanent and temporary speed restrictions in identified elephant corridors. Provision of signage board to warn loco pilots about identified elephant corridors. Sensitization of train crew and Station Masters on a regular basis. Need based clearance of vegetation on the sides of track within railway land. Construction of underpasses and ramps for movement of elephants at identified locations.  Work is in progress at one more location in East Central Railway. Installation of Honey Bee sound system to scare away the elephants from coming near the track. Provision of fencing at isolated locations both by Railway and Forest Department. Deputing Forest Department staff in Railway control offices to liaison with Railway and engagement of elephant trackers by Forest Department for timely action by alerting Station Masters and Loco Pilots. Frequent coordination meetings between State Forest Department and Railway department. Approval for Automated Facial Recognition System by National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):  Will use police records and will be accessible only to Law Enforcement Agencies Will facilitate better identification of criminals, unidentified dead bodies and missing/found children and persons Will not violate privacy Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) LPG coverage has increased from 55% to 97.4%.the scheme has acted as one of the biggest catalyst of socio-economic change in the status of women in the country. Household pollution has been a reason of health hazard, which has been curbed with the availability of safe and environment friendly LPG fuel to poor women of the society. Way forward: Behavioral change, further strengthening of supply chain, shift towards cleaner energy, innovative ways to increase refills, sustain adoption Women in Defence Forces: Indian Navy (except Medical, Dental and MNS branch): 527 (5.12%) Indian Air Forces: 1601 (13.81%) The commanding posts in the Indian Air Force (IAF) are decided purely on merit basis. SC has granted permanent commission to the women officers as per their qualification, professional experience, specialization, if any and organization requirement. India’s rank has gone up from 142 to 63 in 2019 in Ease of doing Business Since 2014, India’s rank has gone up from 142 to 63 in 2019. The State Reforms Action Plan prepared by Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) requires States and UTs to have a Single Window System across various Departments with the following features: Allow online submission of application without the need to submit physical copies of the application Eliminate physical touch-point for document submission and verification Allow applicant to track status of application online Ensure the applicant receives an SMS/e-mail notification as and when the application is submitted and/or query israised and/or application is approved/rejected Mandate that all queries/clarifications related to investors' application are sought in one go and within 7 days ofreceipt of the application Jal Shakti Abhiyan Time bound campaign with a mission mode approach intended to improve water availability including ground water conditions in the water stressed blocks of 256 districts in India Water conservation & rainwater harvesting Renovation of traditional & other water-bodies/tanks Reuse and recharge of bore-wells Watershed development Intensive afforestation  Law for Rain Water Harvesting: Model Building Bye Laws, 2016, has been issued for guidance of the States/UTs which has a chapter on ‘Rainwater Harvesting’. 33 States/UTs have adopted the rainwater harvesting provisions. The implementation of the rainwater harvesting policy comes within the purview of the State Government/Urban Local Body / Urban Development Authority.  As per Model Building Bye Laws- 2016, provision of rainwater harvesting is applicable to all residential plots above 100 sq.m. In order to regulate the over-exploitation and consequent depletion of ground water, the Ministry has circulated a Model Bill to all the States/UTs to enable them to enact suitable ground water legislation for regulation of its development, which includes provision of rain water harvesting. So far, 15 States/UTs have adopted and implemented the ground water legislation on the lines of Model Bill. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3(3) of the ‘Environment (Protection) Act, 1986’ for the purpose of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the Country. CGWA is regulating ground water withdrawal by industries / infrastructure/ mining projects in the country for which guidelines/ criteria have been framed which includes rainwater harvesting as one of the provisions while issuing No Objection Certificate. Water being a State subject, initiatives on water management including conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility Scientists identify bacteria that can replace fertilizers & fungicides in tea plants Researchers at Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) Guwahati, an autonomous institute under Department of Science & Technology, have found significant plant-growth-promoting and antifungal activities of endophyticactino bacteria associated with Tea plant and related genera, Eurya to find potent plant growth-promoting strains. Application of endophytic Actinobacteria could reduce chemical inputs in Tea plantation. The team led by Dr. Debajit Thakur from IASST isolated 46 endophyticactino bacteria (predominantly free-living microorganisms) found in diverse environments that lives within a plant for at least part of its life cycle without causing apparent disease associated with Tea plants and characterized through molecular techniques.  Out of 46 isolates, 21 isolates inhibited the growth of at least one test fungal phytopathogens and strains SA25 and SA29 exhibited broad-spectrum antifungal activity. Most of the endophyticactino bacteria isolates having antifungal activity showed presence of chitinase, NRPS (Nonribosomal peptides synthetase) or PKS-1 (Polyketide Synthase) gene, suggesting the presence of distinctive mechanisms to inhibit the growth of pathogenic plant fungi.  Actinobacterial strain SA1, T1LA3, and SA14 were further tested for their efficacy in promoting the growth of commercial tea clones namely, TV1, TV9, TV18, and TV22 in nursery conditions.  All the endophytic isolates tested showed significant differences in terms of plant growth-promoting parameters in the treated plants compared to untreated control. This research finding confirms that endophyticactino bacteria have the potential to exhibit multiple growth-promoting traits such as IAA production, phosphate solubilization, siderophore production and so on that positively influence tea growth and production and can hence be used in the management and sustainability of Teacrop.  Tea (Camellia sinensis) plays an important role in the Indian economy as a major portion of the tea produced is exported. However, in the recent years, due to higher demand of chemical residue-free made tea by the importing countries has led to a decline in the export of tea. The present study attempts the use of endophyticactino bacteria having plant beneficial characteristics to reduce and replace the use of chemical inputs in the tea industry. Per Capita Availability of Water: Water availability per person is dependent on population of the country and for India, per capita water availability in the country is reducing due to increase in population.  As per Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, 135 litre per capita per day (lpcd) has been suggested as the benchmark for urban water supply.  For rural areas, a minimum service delivery of 55 lpcd has been fixed under Jal Jeevan Mission, which may be enhanced to higher level by states. As mentioned in the report of National Commission for Integrated Water Resources Development (NCIWRD), the percentage of water used for irrigation out of the total water use for the year 1997-98 was 83.30%.  Further, as per NCIWRD report, the percentage of water used for irrigation out of the total water use for the year 2025 under high demand scenario was estimated as 72.48%. Jeevan Kaushal Curriculum: To upgrade life skills of undergraduate students; covers the courses on communication skills, professional skills, leadership & management skills and universal human values. Enhance one’s ability to be fully self-aware by helping oneself to overcome all fears and insecurities and to grow fully from inside out and outside in Increase one’s knowledge and awareness of emotional competency and emotional intelligence at place of study/work Provide opportunity for realising one’s potential through practical experience Develop interpersonal skills and adopt good leadership behaviour for empowerment of self and others Set appropriate goals, manage stress and time effectively Manage competency-mix at all levels for achieving excellence with ethics Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): Envisages creation of critical fisheries infrastructure and cold chain facilities in all States/Union Territories to preserve shelf life of fish and reduce its wastage and spoilage. This include construction of cold storages, ice plants, creation of whole sale and retail fish markets, support for acquisition of refrigerated and insulated trucks and live fish vending centres, two and three wheelers vehicles with ice boxes. Ministry of Jal Shakti has drafted bills namely National Water Framework Bill, River Basin Management (RBM) Bill and Model Bill to ‘Regulate and Control the Development and Management of Ground Water’ for bringing reforms in water sector The draft RBM Bill proposes optimum development of inter-State rivers by facilitating inter-State coordination ensuring scientific planning of land and water resources taking basin/sub-basin as unit with unified perspectives of water in all its forms (including soil moisture, ground and surface water). The draft RBM Bill has been circulated to all States/Union Territories, concerned Central Government’s Ministries/Departments for pre-legislative consultations. The National Water Framework Bill provides an overarching national legal framework based on principles for protection, conservation, regulation and management of water as a vital and stressed natural resource, under which legislation and executive action on water can take place at all levels of governance. The draft National Water Framework Bill has been circulated to States/UTs and the concerned Central Ministries for obtaining their views/comments. National Policy on Biofuels 2018  Envisages increase usage of biofuels in the energy and transportation sectors of the country. The policy aims to utilize, develop and promote domestic feedstock and its utilization for production of biofuels thereby increasingly substituting fossil fuels.  National Policy on Biofuels 2018 envisages an indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.  Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) are also promoting cleaner fuels in the country Ekam (Entrepreneurship, Knowledge, Awareness, Marketing) Fest: Promote Craftsmanship & Products of Divyang Artisans And Entrepreneurs An effort for promoting entrepreneurship and knowledge among Divyangjan community, Generating awareness among society about potentialities of PwDs Providing a major marketing opportunity to PwDs entrepreneurs The word Ekam also represents the inclusiveness, oneness and unity which appropriately describe the efforts being put in by NHFDC to develop the marketing platform and aggregation of the products through promotion of entrepreneurship, knowledge sharing, Awareness creation and marketing initiatives amongst the Divyangjan.   Subsidy to Artisans under Solar Charkha Mission The scheme Mission Solar Charkha is enterprise driven scheme and envisages setting up of ‘Solar Charkha Clusters’ which will have 200 to 2042 beneficiaries (Spinners, Weavers, Stitchers and other skilled artisans).   Each spinner will be given two charkhas of 10 spindles each. As part of the scheme no subsidy is given, however subsidy to the tune of Rs.9.60 crore is provided for procurement of charkha and looms to the Implementing or Promoting Agency for a full-scale Solar Charkha Cluster involving a total investment of about Rs.38.625 crore. These solar charkhas are to be operated using solar power which is a renewable energy source. It will help in development of Green Economy as it is an environment friendly programme. It will also generate sustainable employment for the artisans. Memorandum of Understanding between Indian Air Force and Savitribai Phule Pune University: As a unique initiative of Indian Air Force, the IAF and Savitribai Phule Pune University entered into an academic collaboration by signing a Memorandum of Understanding to establish a 'Chair of Excellence' at Department of Defence & Strategic Studies. To pay tribute to the legend and commemorate the centenary birth year of the MIAF, the IAF has named it as "Marshal of the Air Force Arjan Singh Chair of Excellence". The Chair will Enable IAF officers to pursue Doctoral Research and higher studies in Defence & Strategic Studies and allied fields. Facilitate research and higher studies in the area of National Defence and allied fields of Air Force officers.  Inculcate a strategic outlook and build a pool of strategic thinkers. Think about it: ‘Since child labour is a result of socio-economic conditions, a definite timeline for elimination of child labour cannot be ascertained.’ What are your views on this statement by the Ministry? Investing in women is not just a social expenditure but it is an investment in the economy. Do you agree? Substantiate

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) International Women's day(IWD)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society; GS-II- Polity In News: It is celebrated on the 8th of March every year to help forge a gender equal world, celebrate women's achievements and increasing visibility.  The theme of 2020 was “I am Generation Equality: Realizing Women’s Rights". IWD has occurred for well over a century, with the first​ ​IWD gathering in 1911 supported by over a million people in Austria, Denmark, Germany and Switzerland. The day is not country, group or organization specific - and belongs to all groups collectively everywhere Do You Know? Beti Bachao Beti Padhao initiative was launched in 2015 to ensure survival, protection and empowerment of the girl child. The objectives of this initiative are to prevent of gender biased sex selective elimination, and to ensure survival and protection of the girl child. After the launch of the scheme, the sex ratio at birth has improved from 923 to 931 Red Panda Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment In News: Hunting of Red Panda has decreased as per study by wildlife trade monitoring network TRAFFIC, indicative of the success of awareness campaigns. Red panda is endemic to the temperate forests of the Himalayas. Native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China. It is arboreal, feeds mainly on bamboo, but also eats eggs, birds, and insects Habitat: Sikkim, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal and northern Arunachal Pradesh. Threat: Hunted for meat and fur, besides illegal capture for the pet trade.  IUCN Status: Endangered  Significance: Red panda’s survival is crucial for the eastern and north-eastern Himalayan subalpine conifer forests and the eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests Estimated Population: 14,500 animals in the wild across Nepal, Bhutan, India, China and Myanmar. It is the state animal of Sikkim Protected areas Kanchendzonga National Park (NP) — Sikkim Neora Valley NP – West Bengal Namdapha National Park – Arunachal Pradesh Singalila National Park – West Bengal SAWEN (South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs; GS-III- Environment In News: It is a Regional network comprised of eight countries in South Asia: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.  It aims at working as a strong regional inter¬governmental body for combating wildlife crime by attempting common goals and approaches for combating illegal trade in the region. New Space India Ltd. Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: It is the Department of Space’s second commercial arm (after Antrix) that was announced in Budget 2019. Its objective is to use research and development carried out by ISRO over the years for commercial purposes through Indian industry partners. One of the mandates of NSIL aims to mass-produce and manufacture the SSLV and the more powerful PSLV in partnership with the private sector in India through technology transfers. It differs from ISRO’s existing commercial arm Antrix Corporation: Antrix will handle ISRO’s commercial deals for satellites and launch vehicles with foreign customers. NSIL will deal with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Women Transforming India Awards (WTI) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I-Society; GS-II- Polity In News: The fourth edition of WTI Awards was organised by NITI Aayog Objective of Awards: To highlight the commendable and ground-breaking endeavours of India’s women leaders and changemakers. Since 2018, the Awards have been hosted under the aegis of NITI Aayog’s Women Entrepreneurship Platform (NAWEP) with a special focus on entrepreneurship. NAWEP has become a forum dedicated to educating, enabling and empowering women entrepreneurs.  Nari Shakti Puraskar Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society In News: This award is instituted by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, are "National Award in recognition of exceptional work for women empowerment." The National Award is given annually on March 8th to individuals, groups, institutions in recognition of their exceptional work towards the cause of women empowerment, especially for vulnerable and marginalized women. Namda- Traditional craft of Kashmir Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In News: Achievements of Arifa Jaan from Jammu and Kashmir- who revived the traditional Namda craft of carpet weaving- were shared on Social media by PM Modi under #SheInspiresUs. Namda is a form of matting.  They are made from wool by practice of felting the wool rather than weaving it. The Felted carpets are predominantly made of pure wool Namda is usually a sandwich of many layers of wool flattened over each other. After a layer is spread, it is sprinkled homogenously with water and pressed with a tool known as ‘pinjra’(woven willow wicker) It is said to have originated in the 11th century when Akbar ordered for asuitable coverage for his horse who was affected by biting cold Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th March 2020 Pic Source: Hindustan Times (MAINS FOCUS) Economy Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.  Yes Bank Crisis Story so far: The government has put private sector lender Yes Bank under moratorium till April 3rd 2020 and capped deposit withdrawal at ₹50,000/month Subsequently, the RBI superseded the Yes Banks board and appointed Prashant Kumar (Dy. MD of SBI) as an administrator.  The RBI has also proposed a reconstruction scheme under which SBI could take a maximum 49% stake in the restructured capital of the bank. Why was the moratorium imposed? Decline in Yes Bank’s financial position mainly due to the lender’s inability to raise adequate capital to make provisions for potential non-performing assets. This failing resulted in downgrades by credit rating agencies, which in turn made capital raising even more difficult — a vicious cycle that further worsened its financials. Also, there were serious lapses in corporate governance. RBI’s even tried to facilitate a regulatory restructuring process and gave adequate opportunity to the bank’s management to draw up a credible revival plan, which did not materialise. When did it all start? Bank Loans Deposit 31st March 2014 ₹55,633 crore ₹74,192 crore. 30th Sep 2019 ₹2.24 Lakh crore ₹2.09 Lakh crore The above table indicates that Bank loans increased without substantial increase in Bank deposits. Asset quality also worsened during the period with gross non-performing assets sharply rising from 0.31% as on March 31, 2014, to 7.39% at the end of September 2019. Seeing the rapid rise in bank’s exposure to troubled borrowers, RBI had refused to grant its then MD and CEO Rana Kapoor (also Banks’s co-founder) another three-year term after his tenure ended in August 2018.  RBI did not make the decision public but finally agreed to give extension till end-January 2019. The tipping point probably came earlier this year when one of the bank’s independent directors and chairman of the board’s audit committee, Uttam Prakash Agarwal, resigned from the board in January citing governance issues. What will be the likely impact on depositors? While deposit withdrawals have been capped at ₹50,000, there are exceptions (like medical emergency, marriages) under which a higher amount can be withdrawn, with the permission of the RBI. While the deposit insurance cover was ₹1 lakh till recently, this was increased to ₹5 lakh in the aftermath of the crisis at the PMC Bank crisis Confidence in the banking system will take a hit especially with previous Nirav Modi fiasco and PMC Bank crisis Will the developments at Yes Bank pose a systemic risk? Ratings agency Fitch Ratings said the latest developments spotlight the governance risks in India’s banking sector. However, the government and the regulator have asserted that the problem is solely related to this particular bank. Way Forward: Depositors: RBI has come up with a draft reconstruction plan for Yes Bank which proposes that depositors’ funds would be protected.  Employees – They would have the same service conditions, including remuneration, at least for one year.  Key managerial personnel - the new board would be empowered to take a call. Restructuring: The SBI, which has received board approval to invest in Yes Bank, will have to pick up to 49% stake, according to the scheme, at a price that is not less than ₹10 for each share having a face value of ₹2. Conditions: The investor bank (SBI) also cannot reduce its holding below 26% before the completion of three years from the date of infusion of the capital. Connecting the dots PMC Bank Crisis 2008 US Financial Crisis Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation Sex-Selective Abortion Context: Recent case of infanticide in Tamil Nadu’s Usilampatti, historically notorious for its crude methods of killing female babies.  The killing of one-month child took place through inhuman practice of feeding female infants with the toxic milk of a local herb Sex-selective abortion is the practice of terminating a pregnancy based upon the predicted sex of the infant. It usually happens when a female child is detected during pregnancy. Present Scenario  Data on sex ratio at birth (SRB) culled from the Civil Registration System, show an alarming fall over the years. From 903 girls for every 1,000 boys in 2007, it dropped to 877 in 2016. Four States have an SRB equal to or below 840: Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan (806), Bihar (837), Uttarakhand (825) and Tamil Nadu (840).  While infanticide may have come down, sex selective abortion at scan centres continues as the preferred vehicle for parents obsessed with son preference. Some of the reasons attributed to sex-selective abortion & female infanticide:  Preference for Boys: In a Patriarchal society girls are generally considered liability until they are married off. Availability of latest technology Lack of effective implementation of existing laws designed against such crimes Absence of family planning tools Absence of Women in decision making Impact of female foeticide: Decline in Sex ratio Early marriages of women often at the cost of their educational empowerment Trafficking of women for sexual work and marriage.  Increased crimes against women like sexual harassment, lewd remarks against women, and instances of eve teasing. Increased fragmentation of land due to increase in male members in household Decline in moral & ethical standards of the society as a whole Perpetuation of Patriarchy and gender inequality Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act The act was enacted in 1994 in response to the decline in Sex ratio in India, which deteriorated from 972 in 1901 to 927 in 1991 The main purpose of the act is ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective abortion. Salient features of the act: It regulates the use of pre-natal diagnostic techniques, like ultrasound and amniocentesis by allowing them their use only to detect few cases. No laboratory or centre or clinic will conduct any test including ultrasonography for the purpose of determining the sex of the foetus. No person, including the one who is conducting the procedure as per the law, will communicate the sex of the foetus to the pregnant woman or her relatives by words, signs or any other method. Advertisement for pre-natal and pre-conception sex determination facilities will attract fine of Rs 10000 and imprisonment upto 3 years. The Act mandates compulsory registration of all diagnostic laboratories, all genetic counselling centres, genetic laboratories, genetic clinics and ultrasound clinics The Act was amended to bring the technique of pre conception sex selection and ultrasound technique within the ambit of the act.  The 2003 amendment also empowered the central supervisory board and state level supervisory board was constituted. Other measure taken by government to improve condition of females: ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ campaign  The objectives of this initiative are to prevent of gender biased sex selective elimination, and to ensure survival and protection of the girl child. The strategies involved in this scheme are: Implement a sustained Social Mobilization and Communication Campaign to create equal value for the girl child & promote her education. Place the issue of decline in CSR/SRB in public discourse, improvement of which would be a indicator for good governance. Focus on Gender Critical Districts and Cities low on CSR for intensive & integrated action. Mobilize & Train Panchayati Raj Institutions/Urban local bodies/ Grassroot workers as catalysts for social change, in partnership with local community/women’s/youth groups. Legislations for creating a safe and secure environment for females. POCSO Act (Prevention of Children from Sexual offences) Sexual Harassment at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act  Changes in the Criminal Law on the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee Enhanced Focus on Health & Education of Child Provision of better nutrition through ICDS, MDM,  Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram  Scholarship schemes like Pragati   Special girl’s school like Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas  Political Empowerment: Reservation of seats for women in Panchayats and Urban Local bodies are provided to enhance the decision making powers of women which leads to increased awareness among women about their rights especially reproductive rights Way Forward: Need to ramp up awareness building exercises  Use technology to monitor every single pregnant woman right down to taluk levels until at least one year after birth. Stricter enforcement of the PCNDT act Reservation for women in State Legislative Assemblies and Parliament Conclusion While punitive aspects might offer a measure of deterrence, true change can only be brought about by a change in attitude.  Connecting the dots Reproductive rights of women Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act and its recent amendments  (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about suspension of MP The Speaker of Lok Sabha is empowered to place a Member under suspension, however, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Nari Shakti Puraskar is instituted by which Union Ministry/Body? NITI Aayog Ministry of Finance Ministry of Women & Child Development President’s Office Q 3. Namda is a traditional craft of which region of the country? Andaman & Nicobar Islands Arunachal Pradesh Kashmir None of the above Q 4. Which of the following are the member countries of SAWEN (South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network)? India Afghanistan Myanmar Sri Lanka Bhutan Select the correct answer from the codes given below 1,2 and 3 Only 1,2,3 and 4 Only 1,2,4 and 5 Only  1,2,3,4 and 5 Q 5. Consider the following statements about New Space India Limited (NSIL) It is the Department of Space’s second commercial arm. NSIL will deal with capacity building of local industry for space manufacturing. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 07 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C Must Read About Adivasi Struggle: The Hindu About Indian Economy: The Hindu About Women Empowerment: The Indian Express

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 7]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 7 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) With respect to the seismic waves consider the following statements: Primary waves travel to and fro in the line of propagation and travel only in liquid medium  Secondary waves travel perpendicular to the line of propagation and they travel both in solid and liquid medium.  Which amongst the above statements is /are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.1) भूकंपीय तरंगों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्राथमिक तरंगें प्रसार रेखा (to and fro) में भ्रमण करती हैं तथा केवल तरल माध्यम में ही यात्रा करती हैं माध्यमिक तरंगें प्रसार रेखा से लंबवत यात्रा करती हैं तथा वे ठोस और तरल दोनों माध्यमों में यात्रा करती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Various sources of energy (Heat) act as force for the movement of plates in the earth’s lithosphere. Which among the following are the sources of such energy? Radioactive decay Tidal forces generated due to attraction between SUN and MOON. Residual heat from earth’s formation.  Choose the correct option.  1 only  1 and 3  1 and 2  1, 2 and 3  Q.2) ऊर्जा (ऊष्मा) के विभिन्न स्रोत पृथ्वी की क्रस्ट में प्लेटों की गति के लिए बल के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन ऐसी ऊर्जा के स्रोत हैं? रेडियोधर्मी क्षय   सूर्य और चंद्रमा के मध्य आकर्षण के कारण उत्पन्न ज्वारीय बल। पृथ्वी के गठन से अवशिष्ट ऊष्मा। सही विकल्प चुनें। केवल 1 1 और 3  1 और 2  1, 2 और 3 Q.3)  Which among the following is the evidence of Continental Drift theory proposed by Alfred Wegener?  Presence of Volcanic ridges along the mid-Atlantic seabed.  Evidence of paleomagnetism along the Atlantic seabed.  Evidence of Carboniferous glaciation of Brazil, South Africa and peninsular India.  Evidence of earthquakes along the coasts of the Atlantic Ocean.  Q.3) अल्फ्रेड वेगनर द्वारा प्रस्तावित महाद्वीपीय विस्थापन सिद्धांत (Continental Drift theory) के निम्नलिखित में से कौन से प्रमाण हैं? मध्य-अटलांटिक समुद्रतल के किनारे ज्वालामुखी श्रृंखलाओं की उपस्थिति।      अटलांटिक समुद्रतल के साथ पुराचुम्बकत्व के साक्ष्य।      ब्राजील, दक्षिण अफ्रीका और प्रायद्वीपीय भारत के कार्बनीकृत हिमाच्छादन (Carboniferous glaciation)  के साक्ष्य।   अटलांटिक महासागर के तटों पर भूकंप के साक्ष्य। Q.4) What does the term ‘Isostasy’ refer to? Mechanical stability between the upstanding relief features and low lying basins on a rotating earth.  Line joining similar relief features on the earth’s surface.  Line joining similar relief features on ocean bed.  Energy equilibrium attained in the earth’s interior due heat transfer between various layers within the earth.  Q.4) 'भूसंतुलन’ (Isostasy)  शब्द किससे संबंधित है? एक घूर्णन करती पृथ्वी पर ऊपर उठने वाली पर्वतीय संरचनाओं और नीचे झुके गहरे बेसिनों के बीच यांत्रिक स्थिरता। पृथ्वी की सतह पर समान पर्वतीय संरचनाओं को जोड़ने रेखा। समुद्र तल पर समान पर्वतीय संरचनाओं को जोड़ने वाली रेखा। पृथ्वी के आंतरिक भाग में पृथ्वी के विभिन्न परतों के बीच ऊष्मा हस्तांतरण के कारण ऊर्जा संतुलन प्राप्त करना। Q.5) Which of the following landforms are formed by wind? Yardang  Loess Sand Spit Arete Zeugen Choose the correct option.  1, 2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 5 only  1, 2, 3 and 5 only  All of the above  Q.5)  निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा भू-भाग पवन द्वारा निर्मित होता है? यारडांग  लोयस  रेत का टीला (Sand spit) एरिट (arete) ज्युगन (Zeugen) सही विकल्प चुनें। केवल 1, 2 और 3     केवल 1, 2 और 5  केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5      उपरोक्त सभी       Q.6) Which among the following are active volcanoes? Mt. Cameroon.  Mt. Vesuvius.  Mt. Chimborazo.  Mt. Etna.  Mt Stromboli.  Choose the correct option 2, 4 and 5 only  1, 2, 4 and 5 only  2, 3, 4 and 5 only  All of the above   Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन से सक्रिय ज्वालामुखी हैं? माउंट कैमरून माउंट विसुवियस माउंट चिम्बोरज़ो माउंट एटना माउंट स्ट्रोमबोली सही विकल्प चुनें केवल 2, 4 और 5      केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5      केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी     Q.7) “Gutenberg Discontinuity” in the earth’s interior is found between which layers? Between mantle and core.  Between upper and lower crust. Between upper mantle and lower mantle.  Between crust and mantle.  Q.7) पृथ्वी के आंतरिक भाग में "गुटेनबर्ग असम्बद्धता” (Gutenberg Discontinuity) किन परतों के मध्य पाई जाती है? मेंटल और कोर के मध्य ऊपरी और निचली क्रस्ट के मध्य ऊपरी मेंटल और निचली मेंटल के मध्य क्रस्ट और मेंटल के मध्य Q.8) The drainage pattern of an area depends on various factors. Which among the following are the factors controlling the drainage pattern? Rock type.  Geologic Structure.  Denudational history.  Climatic Conditions.  Choose the correct option 1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 2 only  1, 2 and 3 only  All of the above   Q.8) किसी क्षेत्र का ड्रेनेज पैटर्न विभिन्न कारकों पर निर्भर करता है। जल निकासी पैटर्न को नियंत्रित करने वाले कारक निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं? चट्टानों के प्रकार भूगर्भिक संरचना अनाच्छादन इतिहास (Denudational history) वातावरण की परिस्थितियाँ सही विकल्प चुनें केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 1 और 2      केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Which among the following is the major difference between the ‘Geysers’ and ‘Hot Springs’?  Geysers spout hot water without any explosion while Hot springs spout hot water explosively.  Geysers are found in any part of the world while hot springs are specific to volcanic areas.  Geysers spout hot water explosively while hot springs spout hot water without any explosion.  Geysers spout hot water continuously while hot springs spout water intermittently.  Q.9) निम्नलिखित में से 'गीजर' (Geysers) और 'उष्ण झरने' (Hot Springs) के बीच प्रमुख अंतर कौन सा है? गीजर गर्म पानी को बिना किसी विस्फोट के लाते हैं जबकि हॉट स्प्रिंग्स विस्फोटक रूप से गर्म पानी को लाते हैं। गीजर विश्व के सभी हिस्से में पाए जाते हैं जबकि हॉट स्प्रिंग्स ज्वालामुखी क्षेत्रों के लिए विशिष्ट हैं। गीजर गर्म पानी को विस्फोटक तरीके से लाते हैं जबकि हॉट स्प्रिंग्स बिना किसी विस्फोट के गर्म पानी को बहाते हैं। गीजर गर्म पानी लगातार लाते रहते हैं, जबकि हॉट स्प्रिंग्स रुक-रुक कर गर्म पानी लाते हैं। Q.10) Which among the following landforms are associated with the mature stage of development? Gorges Wide river valleys Oxbow lakes.  Waterfalls Meanders Choose the correct option 2, 3 and 5 only  1, 2, 3 and 4 only  1, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above  Q.10) निम्नलिखित में से कौन से भू-आकृति विकास के परिपक्व चरण से जुड़े हैं? गोर्ज (Gorges) चौड़ी नदी घाटियाँ (Wide river valleys) गोखुर झील (Oxbow lakes) झरने  मैंडेर्स (Meanders) सही विकल्प चुनें केवल 2, 3 और 5 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी     Q.11) What does the term ‘Knickpoint’ in landform development refer to? An elevated platform from which glacier descends.  Sharp bend in the river flow.  Part of a river where there is a sharp change in channel slope.  A landform associated with the old stage of development in denudational chronology.  Q.11) भू-आकृति विकास में 'निकपॉइंट' () शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? एक ऊंचा स्तर, जिससे ग्लेशियर नीचे उतरता है। नदी के बहाव में तीव्र मोड़। एक नदी का हिस्सा, जहां धारा प्रवाह ढलान में तीव्र परिवर्तन होता है। एक कालानुक्रमिक विकास के जीर्ण चरण से संबंधित है, जिसमें आच्छादन कालक्रम (denudational chronology) होता है। Q.12) With respect to the Igneous rocks consider the following statements.  They are crystalline in structure.  They contain fossils.  They are resistant.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 3 only  1 and 2 only  All three.  Q.12) आग्नेय चट्टानों (Igneous rocks) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वे संरचना में क्रिस्टलीय (crystalline) होती हैं। इनमें जीवाश्म होते हैं। वे प्रतिरोधी (resistant) होती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1 और 2 सभी तीनों Q.13) With respect to the metamorphic rocks consider the following pairs: Parent rock        Metamorphic rock Clay                          Slate.  Sandstone              Marble. Granite                   Gneiss. Shale                        Schist.  Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only  2, 3 and 4 only  1, 3 and 4 only  1, 2 and 3 only  Q.13) रूपांतरित चट्टानों (metamorphic rocks) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:             मूल चट्टानें                        रूपांतरित चट्टानें             क्ले (Clay)                               स्लेट                            बलुआ पत्थर                         संगमरमर     ग्रेनाइट                              नीस (Gneiss) शेल                                   सिष्ट (Schist)                            उपरोक्त में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2       केवल 2, 3 और 4       केवल 1, 3 और 4      केवल 1, 2 और 3     Q.14) Which one of the following statements is the correct definition of Exorheic drainage basins? These are inland drainage basins which do not drain into the ocean.  These are drainage basins that ultimately drain into the ocean.  These are drainage basins having features of erosional surfaces.  These are drainage basins in the karst Cuesta Topography.  Q.14) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन निर्जल ड्रेनेज बेसिन (Exorheic drainage basins) की सही परिभाषा है? ये अंतर्देशीय ड्रेनेज बेसिन हैं जो समुद्र में नहीं जाते हैं। ये ऐसे ड्रेनेज बेसिन हैं, जो अंततः महासागर में निकलते हैं। ये ड्रेनेज बेसिन हैं, जिनमें अपरदनकारी सतहों की विशेषताएं होती हैं। ये कार्स्ट क्यूस्टा टोपोग्राफी में ड्रेनेज बेसिन हैं। Q.15) Landforms produced by the chemical weathering of carbonate rocks are called Karst Topography. Which among the following are necessary conditions for the formation of Karst topography? Presence of massive limestones.  Carbonate rocks should be non-porous.  Carbonate rocks should be highly folded and faulted.  Substantial rainfall in the area.  Choose the correct option 1, 3 and 4  1, 2 and 4  1, 2 and 3  All of the above Q.15) कार्बोनेट चट्टानों के रासायनिक अपक्षय द्वारा उत्पन्न भू-आकृतियों को कार्स्ट स्थलाकृति कहा जाता है। कार्स्ट स्थलाकृति के गठन के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी आवश्यक शर्तें हैं? बड़े पैमाने पर चूना पत्थर (limestones) की उपस्थिति। कार्बोनेट चट्टानों को गैर-छिद्रपूर्ण (non-porous) होना चाहिए। कार्बोनेट चट्टानों को अत्यधिक वलित और भ्रंशित होना चाहिए। क्षेत्र में पर्याप्त वर्षा। सही विकल्प चुनें 1, 3 और 4 1, 2 और 4 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) With respect to the hypothesis of Sea-Floor spreading, consider the following statements.  Occurrence of shallow-foci earthquakes along mid-oceanic ridges.  Similar magnetic properties of rocks equidistant on either side of the crest of the mid-oceanic ridges.  Which amongst the above statements is/are correct evidences for sea floor spreading?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.16) सागरीय-तल प्रसार (Sea-Floor spreading) की परिकल्पना के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। मध्य-महासागरीय कटकों के साथ उथली-मध्य भूकंपीय (shallow-foci earthquakes) घटना। मध्य-महासागरीय कटकों के दोनों ओर चट्टानों में चुंबकीय गुण की समानता। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1                                                                                                             केवल 2                                                                                                             1 और 2 दोनों                                                                                                            न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) With respect to the intrusive landforms consider the following  Sills: Horizontal intrusion of magma.  Phacolith: Dome-shaped mass of igneous rocks.  Laccolith: lens shaped mass of igneous rocks. Lopolith: Saucer shape intrusion of magma.  Which of the above landforms are correctly defined?  1 only  1 and 4 only  2 and 3 only  All of the above  Q.17) अंतर्वेधी भू-आकृतियों (intrusive landforms) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें सिल (Sills): मैग्मा का क्षैतिज अंतर्वेधन। फैकोलिथ (Phacolith): आग्नेय चट्टानों का गुंबद के आकार का द्रव्यमान। लैकोलिथ (Laccolith): आग्नेय चट्टानों का लेंस के आकार का द्रव्यमान। लोपोलिथ (Lopolith): तश्तरी आकार में मेग्मा का अंतर्वेधन। उपरोक्त में से कौन सी भू-आकृति सही ढंग से परिभाषित की गई है? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 4 केवल 2 और 3 सभी चारों Q.18) What does the term ‘Nappe’ refer to? A recumbent fold with one of its limbs perpendicular to the other.  A monoclinal fold with both limbs at gentle slope.  A symmetrical  fold with both limbs inclined to each other.  Sheet of rock that has been moved a distance of about 2 km or more from its original position by faulting or folding.  Q.18) 'आवरण' (Nappe) शब्द किससे संबंधित है? एक-दूसरे के लंबवत उसके एक अंग (limbs) के साथ एक झुका वलन (recumbent fold)। कोमल ढलान पर दोनों अंगों के साथ एक एकनतिक वलन (monoclinal fold)। दोनों अंगों के साथ एक सममित वलन (symmetrical fold) एक दूसरे की ओर झुका हुआ। चट्टानी स्तर, जो वलन या भ्रंशन द्वारा अपनी मूल स्थिति से लगभग 2 किमी या अधिक की दूरी पर स्थानांतरित किया गया हो। Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to fold mountains.  They are the youngest mountains on the earth’s surface.  These are formed due to the folding of the igneous rocks only.  Which among the above statement is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.19) वलित पर्वत (fold mountains) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वे पृथ्वी की सतह पर सबसे युवा पर्वत हैं ये केवल आग्नेय चट्टानों के वलन के कारण बनते हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.20) ‘Exfoliation’ is a type of  Mechanical weathering caused by fluvial processes.  Chemical weathering caused by glacial processes.  Mechanical weathering caused by unloading and expansion.  Chemical weathering caused due to acid rain.  Q.20) 'अपपर्णन' (Exfoliation) किसका एक प्रकार का है फ़्लूवियल (जल धाराप्रवाह) प्रक्रियाओं के कारण यांत्रिक अपक्षय (Mechanical weathering)। हिमनदीय प्रक्रियाओं के कारण रासायनिक अपक्षय (Chemical weathering)। अनलोडिंग और विस्तार के कारण यांत्रिक अपक्षय (Mechanical weathering)। अम्लीय वर्षा के कारण रासायनिक अपक्षय (Chemical weathering)। Q.21) The Shillong Declaration, recently seen in the news is associated with which of the following? Protection of Biodiversity of North East India E-governance Artificial Intelligence North East Insurgency Q.21) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखी गयी ‘शिलॉन्ग घोषणा’ निम्नलिखित में से किसके साथ संबद्ध है? उत्तर पूर्व भारत की जैव विविधता का संरक्षण ई-शासन कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता उत्तर पूर्व उग्रवाद Q.22) In which of the following States is ‘Gandhamardhan Hills’ located? Maharashtra Himachal Pradesh Sikkim Odisha Q.22) ‘गंधमर्धन पहाड़ियां’ (Gandhamardhan Hills) निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में स्थित हैं? महाराष्ट्र हिमाचल प्रदेश सिक्किम ओडिशा Q.23) Consider the following statements about BPaL Regimen: It is a combination of four drugs for treating drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB). This regimen reduces the total time of treatment with increase in per day dosage or pills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.23) बीपीएएल रेजिमेन (BPaL Regimen) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह दवा-प्रतिरोधी तपेदिक (टीबी) के इलाज के लिए चार दवाओं का एक संयोजन है। यह रेजिमेन प्रति दिन की खुराक या गोलियों में वृद्धि के साथ उपचार के कुल समय को कम करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.24) ‘Loki's Castle’ is a field of active hydrothermal vents in the Atlantic Ocean Pacific Ocean Indian Ocean Southern Ocean Q.24) ‘लोकी महल' (Loki's Castle) जोकि सक्रिय जल-तापीय प्रवाह (active hydrothermal vents) का एक क्षेत्र है, कहाँ स्थित है अटलांटिक महासागर प्रशांत महासागर हिंद महासागर दक्षिणी महासागर Q.25) Consider the following pairs:                     Craft Heritage of Kandangi saree Kerala Kondapalli Toys Tamil Nadu Tawlhlohpuan  Mizoram   Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.25) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                           शिल्प                       धरोहर स्थल कंदंगी साड़ी (Kandangi saree) केरल कोंडापल्ली खिलौने तमिलनाडु तवलोहपुआन (Tawlhlohpuan) मिजोरम   ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से मेल खाती है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Equalisation Levy’. It is aimed at taxing business-to-business transactions in the digital advertising space i.e. the income accruing to foreign ecommerce companies from within India. It is an indirect tax which is withheld at the time of payment by the recipient of the services. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'समानीकरण शुल्क' (Equalisation Levy) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका उद्देश्य डिजिटल विज्ञापन क्षेत्र में व्यापार-से-व्यापार लेनदेन पर कर लगाना है यानी भारत के भीतर से विदेशी ई-कॉमर्स कंपनियों को प्राप्त होने वाली आय पर कर। यह एक अप्रत्यक्ष कर है, जो सेवाओं के प्राप्तकर्ता द्वारा भुगतान के समय किया जाता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 originally provided for a maximum of 10 judges including the Chief Justice of India (CJI) At present, the Supreme Court is working with its full sanctioned strength of 31, including the CJI. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? सर्वोच्च न्यायालय (न्यायाधीशों की संख्या) अधिनियम, 1956 में मूल रूप से भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश (CJI) सहित अधिकतम 10 न्यायाधीशों का प्रावधान प्रदान किया गया था। वर्तमान में, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय, मुख्य न्यायाधीश सहित 31 की अपनी पूर्ण स्वीकृत संख्या के साथ कार्य कर रहा है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) European Union’s ‘AMLD 5’ regime deals with  Money Laundering Illegal Immigrants Data Protection Regulation Brexit Q.28) यूरोपीय संघ का 'AMLD 5' शासन (‘AMLD 5’ regime) किसके साथ संबंधित है मनी लॉन्ड्रिंग अवैध अप्रवासी डेटा सुरक्षा विनियमन ब्रेक्सिट (Brexit) Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Goldilocks Zone’ It is the area around a star where it is not too hot and not too cold for liquid water to exist on the surface of surrounding planets. Earth is the only planet in the Sun's Goldilocks Zone. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) 'गोल्डीलॉक्स ज़ोन' (Goldilocks Zone) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह एक तारे के आस-पास का क्षेत्र है, जहाँ आसपास के ग्रहों की सतह तरल पानी के लिए बहुत गर्म और बहुत ठंडी नहीं होती है। सूर्य के गोल्डीलॉक्स ज़ोन में पृथ्वी एकमात्र ग्रह है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?             Lake         Place Kajin Sara – Nepal Tilicho Lake – Chile Gogabeel – Assam Select the correct code: 1 Only 2 and 3 1 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Q.30) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं?             झील   -    स्थान काजीन सारा - नेपाल तिलिचो झील - चिली गोगाबील - असम सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1  2 और 3 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba  

Motivational Articles

Creative Guidance – What is the Ego? – Inspirational Educative Articles

What is the Ego? What is the ego? Is it something real? You need to understand the nature of the ego. Your thoughts, your mind and your body are real. Ego is not real; it is a false attachment to the body and the mind. The wall you have built around yourself is the ego. The imaginary wall that gives you a sense of false comfort that you are safe is the ego. Your name, fame and wealth are all part of your ego. Meditation is just a way of breaking these walls. Many people are confused and are afraid to try meditation, because they fear that they will lose their mind in the process. The language that is used to describe the process of meditation can be a little confusing. When you hear "Drop your mind and drop your body" you’re probably thinking, “I don’t want to drop my mind. Why would I want to drop my mind? That’s the only thing that I have, and don’t even come near my body. What do you mean drop the body?” Any sane person would say, “Are you mad? This is my life… this is my body… this is my mind. I love my life. Teach me something that can help me to relax, and I’ll practice it. But what do you mean, drop the body?” Even if you go to the deepest layers in meditation, you will not drop your body, or your mind. You will drop the false association, that false identification with your body. You will also drop the false identification with the mind. You will realize there is a third entity to your reality apart from the mind and the body. You are not the mind, the body, or the ego - you are something different. “This article is a part of the creative endeavor of Meditation Farm and IASBABA.”

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Suspension of Members of Lok Sabha Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: Seven Congress members were suspended, for the remainder of the Budget Session, which ends on April 3, for unruly behaviour in the Lok Sabha. Rules under which MPs in Lok Sabha can be suspended Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business – Here Speaker may direct the member of House to withdraw from proceeding for the remainder of day’s sittings Rule 374 – Member named by speaker for suspension and the same needs to be passed by motion of the House. The member will thence be suspended from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. Rule 374A - It is invoked by Speaker for automatic suspension of member of the House – for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less in the event of grave disorder occasioned by a Member  While the Speaker is empowered to place a Member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires, to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension SC order on Land Acquisition Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: SC upheld Section 24 (2) of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act of 2013 (LARR-2013) The 2013 Act replaced the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and provides for higher compensation to those deprived of land by the government for both public and private sector projects. It also mandates consent of a majority of land-owners and contains provisions for rehabilitation and resettlement. What did the section 24(2) of LARR-2013 deal with? It dealt with land acquisition compensation awards made five years “prior or more” to the coming of existence of the 2013 Act The provision said that in such cases, if the physical possession has not been taken “or” the compensation is not paid, the acquisition proceeding is “deemed to have lapsed”.  The government, if it so wishes, would have to initiate fresh acquisition proceedings under the new Act of 2013, which provides for fair compensation What did SC rule? The land acquisition proceeding under Section 24(2) would only lapse if the authorities have neither taken physical possession nor paid the compensation due to the landowner for five or more years prior to January 1, 2014.  In Other words, an “or” in the Section was “interpreted” as an “and”. Thus, there is no lapse if possession has been taken and compensation has not been paid. Similarly, there is no lapse if compensation has been paid and possession not taken of the land. Indian Ocean Commission (OC) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: India joined IOC as an Observer State  IOC is five-nation grouping in the Western Indian Ocean, which includes Madagascar, Comoros, Seychelles, Mauritius and French Reunion. Significance of IOC: For its geographical location, as the islands sit around a “key choke-point” in the Indian Ocean — the Mozambique Channel This channel is being watched more closely as the U.S.-Iran tensions threaten the Strait of Hormuz.  Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2020  Pic Source Did You Know? In December 2019, the Ministry of External Affairs decided to include Madagascar, Comoros and Reunion as part of the IOR (Indian Ocean Region) desk along with Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius and Seychelles China was made an observer of IOC in 2016  International Organisation of the Francophonie (the 54-nation French-speaking collective), the European Union (EU) and Malta became observers of IOC in 2017 Solar Charkha Mission Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity & Governance In News: It was launched by Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) in 2018. Solar Charkha units is an innovative way of cotton production by using solar energy. They have been classified as Village Industries.  The mission will oversee the implementation of 50 Solar Charkha Clusters across the country with a budget of Rs.550 crore for the year 2018-19 and 2019-20. The scheme is envisaged to generate direct employment nearly to one lakh persons in the approved clusters. Objectives of the scheme To create awareness about Khadi by bringing up the sales from Rs. 26,000 crores to Rs. 1 lakh crores. To have an eco-friendly environment. To revitalize the cotton industry. To extend self-employment in rural and urban areas. To make cotton generation a reliable and profitable business. Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2020 Pic Source: India.Com Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity & Governance In News: INCOIS is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It is located in Hyderabad & was established in 1999. It is mandated to provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvement through systematic and focused research. It is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO), New Delhi. ESSO operates as an executive arm of MoES (MAINS FOCUS) Science and Technology Topic: General Studies 2 & 3: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation
 Awareness in the field of IT Cryptocurrencies, Blockchain and Regulations Context: SC lifts Ban on virtual currencies that was imposed by RBI Virtual Currency There is no globally accepted definition of what exactly is virtual currency.  Basically, virtual currency is the larger umbrella term for all forms of non-fiat currency being traded online. Virtual Currencies are mostly created, distributed and accepted in local virtual networks. Virtual currency also includes Cryptocurrencies that have an extra layer of security, in the form of encryption algorithms CryptoCurrency It is a digital asset designed to work as a medium of exchange that uses strong cryptography to control the creation of additional units, to secure financial transactions and verify the transfer of assets These transactions are verified by network nodes and recorded in public distributed ledger called blockchain  They are being transferred, stored or traded electronically. Thus, Crypto Currencies are type of unregulated digital money.  They are neither issued by central bank/public authority, nor is necessarily attached to fiat currency, but is used and accepted among the members of a specific virtual community  Blockchain Technology: Block chain is a decentralised digital ledger  It was invented by Satoshi Nakamoto in 2008 for use in the cryptocurrency bitcoin  Blockchains achieve consensus among distributed nodes, allowing the transfer of digital goods without the need for centralized authorisation of transactions. Its working can be represented through the below diagram.  Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th March 2020 The Internet allows computers to exchange information; Blockchain allows computers to record information. Both use a lot of computers (nodes). The technology thus allows transactions to be simultaneously anonymous and secure, peer-to-peer, instant and frictionless.  Dinesh Sharma Committee It was an inter-disciplinary committee set up in April 2017 by Finance Ministry to look into cryptocurrency legitimacy. The committee recommended a total ban on cryptocurrency in India  Subhash Chandra Garg committee It was formed in Nov 2017 to draft regulations for cryptocurrencies. It also recommended banning cryptocurrencies in India, citing risks and volatility in prices It recommended heavy penalties of up to Rs 25 crore and a jail term up to 10 years for anyone who mines, generates, holds, sells, transfers or issues cryptocurrency. Criticism of Crypto Currencies: Highly speculative nature of assessing their value. For ex: the cryptocurrency traded at a peak of $20,000 in mid-2018 before crashing to $3,000 by the end of the year. It is not backed by any central institution but derives trust from its intricate blockchain ledger system.  Bitcoins, with their assured anonymity is used in illicit transactions over the “dark web”. Merits of cryptocurrencies  Cryptocurrencies have now been adopted by international trading firms for use in lending, raising funds for other cryptoprojects  It facilitates easier cross-border payments European Union has not out rightly banned the instrument but have sought to regulate its functioning.  The 2019 Bill on Cryptocurrency even proposed the creation of a “digital rupee” as official currency.  Arguments made by Petitioners in SC against RBI ban The ban choked the agencies that sought to provide a platform to facilitate trading in cryptocurrencies by cutting them off from banks.  This had a chilling effect on the fledgling cryptocurrency exchanges industry in India and went against their entrepreneurial right to operate a business enshrined in Article 19(1)(g). Article 19(1)(g) states that all citizens of the country will have the right to practise any profession, or carry on any occupation or trade and business. Key Highlights of the Supreme Court Judgement The court found the ban did not pass the “proportionality” test as mentioned in Article 19(2)  Besides, RBI had not considered the availability of alternatives before issuing the order i.e. achieving the same objective by imposing a less drastic restraint. Till date, the RBI has not come out with a stand that any of the entities regulated by it have suffered any loss or adverse effect directly or indirectly, on account of VC exchanges. Conclusion It is now imperative on authorities to find the right “regulatory balance” on cryptocurrencies, task that is easier thought than done, considering their ever-evolving nature due to technological innovation. Connecting the dots Applications of Block Chain Technology in other sectors (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about suspension of MP The Speaker of Lok Sabha is empowered to place a Member under suspension, however, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) INCOIS is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It is located in Hyderabad & was established in 1999 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Solar Charka Mission is a scheme by which Ministry ? Ministry of Textiles Ministry of Power Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Q 4. Which of the following are the member countries of Indian Ocean Commission? Madagascar Reunion Island Mauritius India Seychelles Select the correct answer from the codes given below 1,2 and 3 Only 1,2,3 and 4 Only 1,2,3 and 5 Only  1,2,3,4 and 5 ANSWERS FOR 06 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 C 6 B Must Read About Judiciary: The Hindu About Delhi Violence: The Hindu About Bailout of Yes Bank: The Hindu

RSTV Video

India - Myanmar Ties – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

India - Myanmar Ties Archives TOPIC:  General Studies 2 Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests In News: India and Myanmar exchanged 10 agreements in a number of fields ranging from infrastructure, energy, communication and health. The agreements and Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) were signed and exchanged after talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and visiting Myanmar President at Hyderabad House. The two leaders held discussions on a wide range of bilateral issues.  In line with its Act East and Neighbourhood First policies, India has laid emphasis on boosting its cooperation with Myanmar.  India is the fifth largest trading partner of Myanmar and the current bilateral trade stands at US $ 1.7 billion. Myanmar is the only ASEAN country bordering India which provides a gateway to South East Asia.  India-Myanmar relations are rooted in shared historical, ethnic, cultural and religious ties. Myanmar is seen as a crucial partner in the fight to end insurgency in India’s north-east, as a gateway to South-East Asia and a key component of Modi’s vision for South and South-East Asian regional cooperation. It is also a neighbour that is increasingly being wooed by China. A large population of Indian origin (according to some estimates about 2.5 million) lives in Myanmar. MoUs inked during the current visit between India & Myanmar Bilateral relations Emphasized that regular high level interactions have added momentum to the bilateral relations Welcomed the synergies between Myanmar’s independent, active and non-aligned foreign policy and India’s ‘Act East’ and ‘Neighbourhood First’ policies Reaffirmed their commitments to further strengthen partnership, explore new avenues of cooperation in order to expand bilateral relations for the mutual benefit of the two countries and peoples. Boundary issues Demarcation: Both sides reiterated their mutual respect for the already- demarcated portion of the boundary between the two countries and affirmed their commitments to settle pending issues through the existing bilateral mechanisms, such as the Joint Boundary Working Group Meeting. Projects: The two sides emphasized the centrality of connectivity in their relationship and reaffirmed their commitments to expedite the completion of the various India-funded projects presently underway in Myanmar, with Myanmar’s continued support and facilitation towards their execution. Welcoming the opening of the two land border crossing points at Tamu-Moreh and Rihkhawdar-Zowkhawthar as international border gates, they noted the need to further facilitate the easy movement of passenger and cargo traffic by streamlining procedures and expeditiously developing infrastructure.  Both sides agreed to work together for the earliest commencement of the project. The two sides committed to the early conclusion of discussions on the pending bilateral Motor Vehicles Agreement to facilitate cross border movement of vehicles. Both sides welcomed the MoU between their respective private operators to launch a Coordinated Bus Service between Imphal and Mandalay. Well-being of people: Both sides agreed to commence the establishment of the border haats, with a priority to carry out a pilot project, which was previously agreed by both sides in accordance with the MoU signed in 2012.  Development Programmes: Both sides also expressed satisfaction at the success of the Myanmar-India Border Area Development Programmes in providing infrastructure and socio-economic development in Chin State and Naga Self-Administered Region through the Indian grant-in-aid projects. Under this, 43 schools, 18 health centres and 51 bridges and roads have been constructed in the above areas over the last three years. Both sides acknowledged with satisfaction that 29 additional projects under the 4th year’s tranche of assistance of US$ 5 million, will be implemented in 2020-21. Transportation Both leaders took note of the positive developments related to the Sittwe Port and the Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project. Once operational, this port will contribute to the economic development of the region and benefit the local people.  Both sides also reaffirmed their commitment to the early completion of the Paletwa-Zorinpui road – the final leg of the Kaladan project. Once completed, the road will connect Sittwe Port to North-East India, generating more traffic for the Port.  India appreciated Myanmar’s cooperation and efforts in facilitating the movement of project personnel, construction material and equipment for the construction of the road component of Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project across the Mizoram border through Zorinpui southwards towards Paletwa. The two leaders took positive note of the progress of work on Kalewa - Yargyi road section of the Trilateral Highway, the work on which is expected to be completed by 2021. India reiterated its commitment to the early upgradation of the 69 bridges on the trilateral highway, with Myanmar agreeing to facilitate this. Education & Capacity Building Myanmar appreciated India’s assistance in the area of capacity building and training. Both sides agreed to jointly make flagship projects, such as Myanmar Institute of Information and Technology (MIIT) and Advanced Centre for Agricultural Research and Education (ACARE), sustainable on a long-term basis.  Both leaders looked forward to the earliest upgradation of the Women’s Police Training Centre at Yamethin after finalization of modalities of the project.  Both sides acknowledged the role which the Myanmar-India Industrial Training Centres at Pakokku and Myingyan, established with Indian grant assistance, are playing in imparting skills to Myanmar youth to enhance their employability. They noted efforts to build two new Centres at Monywa and Thaton which are progressing well. Displacement India reiterated its commitment to support Myanmar’s efforts for promoting peace, stability and the socioeconomic development in Rakhine State through the Rakhine State Development Programme.  Myanmar appreciated India’s provision of 250 pre-fabricated houses and relief materials for displaced persons in northern Rakhine in 2019.  Both sides agreed to expedite the implementation of a set of 12 projects under the second phase of the Rakhine State Development Programme and to further strengthen their development cooperation within the framework of High Impact Community Development Projects and Quick Impact Projects under the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation mechanism. In this regard, they welcomed the signing of the Agreement on Indian Grant Assistance for Implementation of Quick Impact Projects (QIP) during the State Visit. India reaffirmed its support for the recent steps taken by the Government of Myanmar to address the challenges in Northern Rakhine.  India also expressed its support for the bilateral agreements signed between Myanmar and Bangladesh for the repatriation of the displaced persons from Rakhine State and hoped that Myanmar and Bangladesh would continue to work together for voluntary, sustainable and speedy repatriation of displaced people currently in the Cox Bazar area of Bangladesh to Myanmar in accordance with their bilateral agreements Bilateral trade and economic engagement The two sides noted the need to make efforts to enhance bilateral trade and economic engagement to their full potential. They noted that steps such as improving connectivity, market access, easing financial transactions, facilitating business-to-business connect and enabling bilateral and regional trading agreements would contribute to socio-economic development of both sides. Both sides agreed to work together to enable the launch of India’s RuPay Card in Myanmar at the earliest, noting that National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) needs to adhere to Myanmar laws and regulations and that the launch of RuPay Card would stimulate the economy of Myanmar and facilitate tourism and business from India. Agreed to explore the creation of an India-Myanmar digital payment gateway which would help expand options for cross border remittance between the two countries. Expressed interest in exploring a bilateral mechanism for settlement in local currency with the aim to boost cross border trade. In this regard, the two sides agreed to expeditiously convene the existing mechanism of India-Myanmar Joint Trade Committee meetings. Energy Both sides recognized the mutual benefit of greater integration in the energy sector between the two countries. India and Myanmar agreed to cooperate in the field of petroleum products, inter alia, for cooperation in refining, stockpiling, blending and retail through a Government-to-Government Memorandum of Understanding.  Both sides agreed to encourage and facilitate cooperation among oil and gas companies of India and Myanmar for development of petroleum products, including enhancing trade and investments in this area.  Both sides welcomed investments by Indian oil and gas Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in Myanmar’s upstream sector and agreed that efforts would be made to explore opportunities to export to India a portion of the output from such projects where investments have been made by Indian oil and gas PSUs. Defence and security Both sides reiterated that defence and security cooperation remains one of the key pillars of Myanmar-India bilateral relations. They commended the positive momentum in exchanging visits of defence personnel.  MoU on Defence Cooperation, signed in July 2019, had set the path for closer cooperation. The Indian side reiterated its commitment to assist Myanmar in the capacity building of the Myanmar Defence Services and enhance cooperation to address mutual security concerns.  Both sides reiterated their commitment to peace and stability along the border areas in order to promote the prosperity of the local people, the two countries and the region. They reiterated their commitment of not allowing any negative elements to use their respective soil for hostile activities against the other side. Welcomed the enhanced maritime cooperation between the two countries. They also recognized the importance of addressing maritime challenges and strengthening maritime security. Both leaders acknowledged the signing of an MoU on Maritime Security Cooperation (MSC), conduct of a first meeting of the Joint Working Group (JWG) in September 2019 and commencement of exchange of white shipping data, as important steps in the area. Emphasizing the importance of building a comprehensive legal framework for addressing mutual concerns on matters related to security, the two sides agreed to continue negotiations on various pending treaties such as a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty on Civil and Commercial Matters and the Extradition Treaty. They reiterated their commitment for an early conclusion of these. India welcomed the decision by Myanmar to extend Tourist Visa on Arrival for Indian citizens in Myanmar till December 2020. Healthcare The Myanmar side appreciated India's offer of providing medical radiation equipment "Bhabhatron-2" for treatment of cancer patients. Both sides agreed to further strengthen cooperation in healthcare sector. Peace and stability India reaffirmed its support for Myanmar’s efforts towards national reconciliation, peace process and democratic transition to establish a democratic federal union.  The two sides expressed satisfaction over the various ongoing trainings , capacity building programmes, exposure visits and lecture series offered by India for Myanmar civil servants, sportsmen, parliamentarians, judicial and electoral officers and security personnel. India announced the extension of its National Knowledge Network (NKN) to Myanmar Universities.  The Indian side also reiterated its readiness to support Myanmar in the establishment of the Myanmar Diplomatic Academy. Myanmar also noted with thanks India’s offer of providing technical assistance to the national ID project of Myanmar, based on India’s "Aadhar” project. Political ideology India also reaffirmed its support for Myanmar’s efforts toward national reconciliation and democratic transition to establish a democratic federal union. The Prime Minister of India expressed full support for Myanmar’s peace process, which is being pursued through a dialogue between the Government, Military and Ethnic Armed Groups under the Nationwide Ceasefire Agreement framework. Both leaders underlined the importance of stability and peace in pursuing the shared national goal of development in the region. Terrorism Recognizing the threat posed by terrorism, both sides agreed to cooperate in countering terrorist groups and their actions.  Condemned terrorism in all its forms and manifestations and emphasized the need for stronger international partnership in countering terrorism and violent extremism, including through increased sharing of information and intelligence. They agreed to enhance bilateral cooperation in this regard. International Relations Further, the two sides agreed to  Continue their close cooperation at international fora such as the United Nations (UN) and other international organizations Cooperate within other regional frameworks such as ASEAN, BIMSTEC, Mekong-Ganga Cooperation.  Myanmar supported India’s efforts for becoming a permanent member in an expanded and reformed UNSC.  The two sides reaffirmed their commitments to maintain a peaceful border and to promote the principles of openness, inclusiveness, transparency, respect for international law and ASEAN centrality in the Indo-Pacific region, which embraces all in a common pursuit of progress and prosperity.  Myanmar committed to take necessary steps to ratify the amendment to the Framework Agreement of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) at an early date, as part of an effort to enable all UN Member States to join the ISA and advance cooperation in the field of solar energy.  Further, India reiterated the relevance of the Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) for disaster prone countries like India and Myanmar and encouraged Myanmar to consider joining the CDRI. India welcomed the inclusion of Bagan in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The two sides welcomed the commencement of a first phase of work by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to restore and conserve 12 pagodas under the first phase of a project to restore and conserve 92 earthquake-damaged pagodas in Bagan. Myanmar agreed to extend all necessary support to the ASI team, for undertaking this preservation work. Connecting the Dots: A stable Myanmar is very crucial in order to realize the potential of act east policy of India. Discuss. Analyse the security challenges associated with Indo-Myanmar border What is the Rohingya Muslims issue? How is it affecting India’s interests and relations with Myanmar? Examine.

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 6]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 6 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) An ecosystem consists of both biotic and abiotic factors. Which of the below are abiotic factors? Protists  Light Water Soil or substrates Choose the correct option from below 1 only 1, 2 and 4only  2 , 3 and 4 only 1 ,3 and 4 only Q.1) एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में जैविक और अजैविक दोनों कारक शामिल होते हैं। नीचे दिए गए अजैविक कारक कौन से हैं? प्रजीव (Protists) प्रकाश  जल  मृदा या अधःस्तर (substrates) नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें केवल 1  केवल 1, 2 और 4  केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 3 और 4 Q.2) Ecology focuses on the larger scales in biology, from the individual organism through populations, communities, ecosystems, and the Biosphere. Match the levels with their properties given below 1. Population Inter - breeding groups of individuals of the same species, generally living in the same contiguous habitat. 2. Communities Interacting populations of different species. 3. Ecosystem They contain both the broad biological community and all the physical processes 4. Biosphere Includes all the biological and physical processes that allow for and influence life on Earth. Which of the above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1, 2 and 4only  1, 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.2) पारिस्थितिकी, जीव विज्ञान में, जनसँख्या, समुदायों, पारिस्थितिक तंत्र और जैवमंडल के माध्यम से व्यक्तिगत जीव से बड़े पैमाने पर केंद्रित है। नीचे दिए गए उनके गुणों के साथ स्तरों का मिलान करें 1. जनसंख्या (Population) एक ही प्रजाति के जीवों के अंतर-प्रजनन समूह, जो आमतौर पर एक ही सन्निहित निवास में रहते हैं। 2. समुदाय (Communities) विभिन्न प्रजातियों के जीवों के मध्य अंतःक्रिया। 3. पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र (Ecosystem) इनमें व्यापक जैविक समुदाय एवं सभी भौतिक प्रक्रियाएं शामिल होती हैं 4. जैवमंडल (Biosphere) पृथ्वी पर जीवन के लिए अनुमति देने और प्रभावित करने वाली सभी जैविक और भौतिक प्रक्रियाएं शामिल होती हैं। उपरोक्त में से कौन सा सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1, 2 और 4  केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Natural selection is the driving force of adaptation and evolution, Consider the following statements: Natural selection occurs only on the scale of the individual organism Natural selection means that those heritable traits that increase the fitness of an individual organism have a greater probability of being present in future generations within the population Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.3) प्राकृतिक चयन (Natural selection), अनुकूलन और विकास की प्रेरक शक्ति है, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्राकृतिक चयन केवल व्यक्तिगत जीव के स्तर पर होता है प्राकृतिक चयन का अर्थ है कि वे गुणात्मक लक्षण, जो किसी व्यक्तिगत जीव की अनुकूलता को बढ़ाते हैं, जनसँख्या में भविष्य की पीढ़ियों में मौजूद होने की अधिक संभावना होती है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.4) Level of organisation is important in study of ecosystem, Arrange the following in increasing order in organisation of ecosystem Individual Community Population Biome Ecosystem Biosphere Choose correct option from below: 1-2-3-4-5-6 1-3-2-4-5-6 1-3-2-5-4-6 1-2-3-4-5-6 Q.4) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के अध्ययन में संगठन का स्तर महत्वपूर्ण है, पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के संगठन में बढ़ते क्रम में निम्नलिखित को व्यवस्थित करें व्यक्तिगत (Individual) समुदाय जनसँख्या (Population) बायोम (Biome) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र जैवमंडल (Biosphere) नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: 1-2-3-4-5-6 1-3-2-4-5-6 1-3-2-5-4-6 1-2-3-4-5-6 Q.5) Consider the following statement about Ecotone: Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems It is non-linear as it shows progressive decrease in species of incoming community from the outgoing species Some organisms in ecotone may be totally different from the adjoining communities Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.5) इकोटोन (Ecotone) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथन पर विचार करें: इकोटोन दो या अधिक विविध पारिस्थितिक तंत्रों के बीच संयोजन का एक क्षेत्र है यह गैर-रैखिक (non-linear) है क्योंकि यह आने वाले समुदाय की प्रजातियों में, बाहर जाने वाली प्रजातियों से प्रगतिशील कमी दर्शाता है इकोटोन में कुछ जीव समीपवर्ती समुदायों से बिलकुल भिन्न हो सकते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 ऊपर के सभी Q.6) Natural ecosystems have been misused by the human being as a result of which the biodiversity and wild life has been threatened. Consider the methods that can be used to protect natural ecosystems Humans should move towards sustainable utilisation of resources Introduction of the species from the other parts of the world and the human interference should be reduced to minimum into natural ecosystems. Making buffer zones or transitional zones around the protected area. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.6) प्राकृतिक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र का मानव द्वारा दुरुपयोग किया गया है जिसके परिणामस्वरूप जैव विविधता और वन्य जीवन को खतरा पैदा हो गया है। उन तरीकों पर विचार करें, जिनका उपयोग प्राकृतिक पारिस्थितिक तंत्र की रक्षा के लिए किया जा सकता है मनुष्य को संसाधनों के सतत उपयोग की ओर बढ़ना चाहिए विश्व के अन्य हिस्सों से प्रजातियों का परिचय तथा प्राकृतिक पारिस्थितिक तंत्र में मानवीय हस्तक्षेप को कम से कम किया जाना चाहिए। संरक्षित क्षेत्र के आसपास बफर जोन या संक्रमणकालीन क्षेत्र बनाना। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.7) Ecosystem services are the direct and indirect contributions of ecosystems to human well-being, Consider the following pairs: 1. Provisioning services   Benefits obtained from the ecosystem processes such as water purification and waste management, pollination or pest control. 2. Regulating services    Products obtained from ecosystems such as food, fresh water, wood, fiber, genetic resources and medicines 3. Habitat services       Highlight the importance of ecosystems to provide habitat for migratory species and to maintain the viability of gene-pools. 4. Cultural services       Include non-material benefits that people obtain from ecosystems such as spiritual enrichment, intellectual development, recreation and aesthetic values. Which of the above pair is/are incorrect? 1 and 2only 2 and 3only 1 2, and 3 only 1,2, 3 and 4 Q.7) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र सेवाएं मानव कल्याण के लिए पारिस्थितिकी प्रणालियों का प्रत्यक्ष और अप्रत्यक्ष योगदान हैं, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: 1. व्यवस्थिकरण सेवाएं  पारिस्थितिक तंत्र प्रक्रियाओं से प्राप्त लाभ जैसे कि जल शोधन और अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन, परागण या कीट नियंत्रण। 2. विनियमन सेवाएं पारिस्थितिक तंत्र से प्राप्त उत्पाद जैसे भोजन, ताजा जल, लकड़ी, फाइबर, आनुवंशिक संसाधन और दवाएं 3. आवासीय सेवाएँ प्रवासी प्रजातियों के लिए आवास प्रदान करना तथा जीन-पूल की व्यवहार्यता बनाए रखने के लिए पारिस्थितिक तंत्र के महत्व पर प्रकाश डालना। 4. सांस्कृतिक सेवाएं गैर-भौतिक लाभों को शामिल करना जो लोग पारिस्थितिक तंत्र से प्राप्त करते हैं जैसे कि आध्यात्मिक संवर्धन, बौद्धिक विकास, मनोरंजन और सौंदर्य मूल्य। उपरोक्त युग्मों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 2, और 3 1,2, 3 और 4 Q.8) Food chain and food web play crucial roles in functions of ecosystem, Consider the following statements about them. The distinction between Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain is the source of energy at the first level Grazing and detritus food chains are not interlinked. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.8) खाद्य श्रृंखला और खाद्य जाल, पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के कार्यों में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं, उनके बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। चराई (Grazing) खाद्य श्रृंखला और अपरद (Detritus) खाद्य श्रृंखला के मध्य का अंतर पहले स्तर पर ऊर्जा का स्रोत है चराई और अपरद खाद्य श्रृंखला अंतर्संबंधित नहीं हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.9) Consider the following statements with respect to flows in ecosystem: Energy flow in decomposition is bi-directional, where energy is recycled by decomposers The number and energy of organisms gradually decrease with each trophic level in grassland ecosystem. Pyramid of biomass is always upright  Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.9) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में प्रवाह के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अपघटन में ऊर्जा का प्रवाह द्वि-दिशात्मक (bi-directional) होता है, जहां ऊर्जा का पुन:उपयोग अपघटकों द्वारा किया जाता है चरागाह पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में प्रत्येक पोषण स्तर के साथ जीवों की संख्या और ऊर्जा धीरे-धीरे कम हो जाती है। जैवभार (biomass) का पिरामिड सदैव सीधा होता है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन गलत है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.10) Consider the following statements about ecological succession: Ecological succession is the observed process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time Climate change may impact the ecological succession process The climax community represents a stable end product of the successional sequence Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.10) पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण (ecological succession) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण समय के साथ एक पारिस्थितिक समुदाय की प्रजाति संरचना में देखी गयी परिवर्तन प्रक्रिया है जलवायु परिवर्तन पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण प्रक्रिया को प्रभावित कर सकता है चरमोत्कर्ष समुदाय, अनुक्रमण क्रम के एक स्थिर अंतिम उत्पाद का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Biotic interactions have marked effect on survival of organisms. Consider the following pairs: Mutualism: positive interaction, both species are benefitted Commensalism: positive interspecies interaction Predation: negative interaction Ammensalism: antagonistic interspecies interaction Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.11) जीवों की पारस्परिक क्रियाओं ने जीवों के अस्तित्व पर प्रभाव डाला है। निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: पारस्परिकता (Mutualism): सकारात्मक अंतःक्रिया, दोनों प्रजातियों को लाभ मिलता है सहभोजिता Commensalism: प्रजातियों के मध्य सकारात्मक अंतःक्रिया परभक्षण (Predation): नकारात्मक अंतःक्रिया अ-सहभोजिता (Ammensalism): प्रजातियों के मध्य प्रतिरोधी अंतर्क्रियाएं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements: Bioaccumulation is concentration of degradable pollutant in the first organism of trophic level In Biomagnification pollutants increase from one trophic level to other In order to biomagnify, pollutant must be long-lived, soluble in fats and biologically active Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.12) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: जैव संचयन (Bioaccumulation) पोषक स्तर के पहले जीव में निम्नीकृत प्रदूषक की एकाग्रता है जैव आवर्धन (Biomagnification) में प्रदूषक एक पोषक स्तर से दूसरे तक बढ़ जाते हैं जैव आवर्धन क्रिया करने के लिए, प्रदूषक को लंबे समय तक जीवित रहना चाहिए तथा वसा में घुलनशील और जैविक रूप से सक्रिय होना चाहिए उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) Which of the bio-geochemical cycle is majorly driven by solar energy? Nitrogen cycle Water cycle Sulphur cycle Phosphorus cycle Q.13) निम्न में से कौन सा प्रमुख रूप से जैव-भू-रासायनिक चक्र (bio-geochemical cycle) सौर ऊर्जा से संचालित होता है? नाइट्रोजन चक्र जल चक्र सल्फर चक्र फास्फोरस चक्र Q.14) Nitrogen is essential constituent of protein and is basic building block of all living tissues. Nitrogen has to be converted in to ammonia, nitrites and nitrates before it can be taken by plants Nitrsomonas bacteria promote transformation of ammonia into nitrates Upon decomposition nitrogen is returned to the soil as nitrogen gas.  Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Q.14) नाइट्रोजन प्रोटीन का आवश्यक घटक है तथा सभी जीवित ऊतकों का बुनियादी निर्माण खंड है। पौधों द्वारा लिए जाने से पहले नाइट्रोजन को अमोनिया, नाइट्राइट और नाइट्रेट्स में परिवर्तित होना पड़ता है नाइट्रसोमोनास बैक्टीरिया अमोनिया से नाइट्रेट में परिवर्तन को बढ़ावा देते हैं अपघटन पर नाइट्रोजन, नाइट्रोजन गैस के रूप में मिट्टी में वापस मिल जाती है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.15) The rate of biomass production in an ecosystem is called productivity. Which of the following statements are correct? Net primary productivity (NPP) is less than Gross primary productivity (GPP). Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs Ecological succession is characterised by increased productivity Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में जैवभार (biomass) उत्पादन की दर को उत्पादकता कहा जाता है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? शुद्ध प्राथमिक उत्पादकता (NPP) सकल प्राथमिक उत्पादकता (GPP) से कम होती है। शुद्ध प्राथमिक उत्पादकता (NPP) परपोषी के उपभोग के लिए उपलब्ध जैवभार है पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण की विशेषता उत्पादकता में वृद्धि है नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements about the process of secondary succession? Secondary succession is much slower than the primary succession. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural vegetation has been destroyed. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.16) द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण की प्रक्रिया के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? प्राथमिक अनुक्रमण की तुलना में द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण बहुत धीमा होता है। द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण उन क्षेत्रों में आरंभ होता है, जहां प्राकृतिक वनस्पति नष्ट हो गई हो। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) Consider the following pairs: Autogenic succession: succession in which green plants dominate Allogenic succession: change brought by outside forces Autotrophic succession: succession brought by living inhabitants of community itself Heterotrophic succession: heterotrophs are greater in quantity Which of the above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4only  2 and 3 only None of the above Q.17) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: स्वत:जनित अनुक्रमण (Autogenic succession): अनुक्रमण जिसमें हरित पादप प्रभावी हैं अपर-जनिक अनुक्रमण (Allogenic succession): बाहरी शक्तियों द्वारा लाया गया परिवर्तन स्वपोषी अनुक्रमण (Autotrophic succession): समुदाय के जीवित निवासियों द्वारा लाया गया अनुक्रमण परपोषी अनुक्रमण (Heterotrophic succession): परपोषी मात्रा में अधिक होते हैं उपरोक्त में से कौन सा सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 4  केवल 2 और 3  इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.18) Consider the following statements: Niche is the unique functional role of a species in ecosystem. Niche plays an important role in the conservation of organisms Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.18) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में आला (Niche) की एक प्रजाति के लिए अद्वितीय कार्यात्मक भूमिका है। जीवों के संरक्षण में आला (Niche) महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाता है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.19) Dispersal, colonization and recruitment, establishment, facilitation and inhibition are terms related to: Primary succession Secondary succession Climax community All of the above Q.19) प्रसार (Dispersal), उपनिवेशीकरण (colonization) और नवरोहण (recruitment), स्थापना (establishment), सुविधा और निषेध (inhibition) शब्द किससे संबंधित हैं: प्राथमिक अनुक्रमण (Primary succession) द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण (Secondary succession) चरमोत्कर्ष समुदाय (Climax community) उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Consider the following about Tundra Biome: It is devoid of trees except stunted shrubs It is found in near northern and southern poles Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 None of the above Q.20) टुंड्रा बायोम (Tundra Biome) के बारे में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें: यह वृक्ष रहित है तथा केवल छोटी झाड़ियां पायी जाती हैं  यह उत्तरी और दक्षिणी ध्रुवों के पास पाया जाता है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘International Development Association (IDA)’ It aims to reduce poverty by providing loans and grants for programs that boost economic growth, reduce inequalities, and improve people’s living conditions. It is a member of the World Bank Group. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.21) ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय विकास संघ (IDA)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका उद्देश्य आर्थिक विकास को बढ़ावा देने, असमानताओं को कम करने और लोगों के रहने की स्थिति में सुधार करने वाले कार्यक्रमों के लिए ऋण एवं अनुदान प्रदान करके गरीबी को कम करना है। यह विश्व बैंक समूह का सदस्य है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.22) Which of the following is/are associated with ‘BRICS’? Asian Development Bank Contingent Reserve Arrangement Fortaleza Declaration Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.22) ‘ब्रिक्स’ (BRICS) से निम्नलिखित में से कौन संबंधित है? एशियाई विकास बैंक आकस्मिक रिजर्व व्यवस्था फोर्टालेजा घोषणा सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.23) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Rohingyas – Myanmar Uighurs – Nepal Yazidis – Libya Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Q.23) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? रोहिंग्या - म्यांमार उइगर - नेपाल यज़ीदी - लीबिया सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 2 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Goods and Service Tax Council’. It is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) 'वस्तु एवं सेवा कर परिषद' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह वस्तु एवं सेवा कर से संबंधित मुद्दों पर केंद्र और राज्य सरकार को सिफारिश करने के लिए एक संवैधानिक निकाय है। इसकी अध्यक्षता केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री करते हैं। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Which of the following Tiger Reserves was the best managed according to the ‘4th cycle of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves (MEETR)’? Pench Tiger Reserve Bandipur Tiger Reserve Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Corbett Tiger Reserve Q.25) निम्न में से कौन सा टाइगर रिज़र्व, टाइगर रिज़र्व के प्रबंधन की प्रभावशीलता मूल्यांकन (MEETR) के चौथे चक्र के अनुसार सबसे अच्छा प्रबंधित था? पेंच टाइगर रिजर्व बांदीपुर टाइगर रिजर्व तादोबा-अंधारी टाइगर रिजर्व कॉर्बेट टाइगर रिजर्व Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘River Yamuna’. It flows through three states only. Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'यमुना नदी' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह केवल तीन राज्यों से होकर बहती है। टोंस (Tons) यमुना की सबसे बड़ी सहायक नदी है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Which of the following rivers are ‘Antecedent Rivers’? Subansiri Kosi Sutlej Select the correct statements 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.27) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी नदी ‘पूर्ववर्ती नदी’ (Antecedent River) है? सुबानसिरी कोसी सतलज सही कथनों का चयन करें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.28) ‘Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary’ is located in Assam West Bengal Bihar Uttar Pradesh Q.28) 'विक्रमशिला गंगा डॉल्फिन अभयारण्य' कहाँ स्थित है असम पश्चिम बंगाल बिहार उत्तर प्रदेश Q.29) ‘Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS)’ is associated with which of the following countries? United States of America Japan Russia  Australia Q.29) ‘पारस्परिक लॉजिस्टिक सहायता पर समझौता (ARLS)’ निम्नलिखित देशों में से किसके साथ संबद्ध है? संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका जापान रूस ऑस्ट्रेलिया Q.30) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘International Seabed Authority (ISA)’ All Parties to theUnited Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) are members of ISA. The headquarters of the ISA is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Select the correct code: 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समुद्रतल प्राधिकरण (ISA)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। समुद्री कानून पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र सम्मेलन (UNCLOS) के सभी पक्ष आईएसए के सदस्य हैं। आईएसए का मुख्यालय स्विट्जरलैंड के जिनेवा में स्थित है। सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 केवल  2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 5]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 5 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Hyspectral Imaging Satellite (HysIS) of ISRO – HysIS is an Earth observation satellite. It observes Earth in 3 different ranges including visible, infrared and X-rays.  It is launched in the geo-stationary orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the them Q.1) इसरो के हिस्पेक्ट्रल इमेजिंग सैटेलाइट (Hyspectral Imaging Satellite- HysIS) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - HysIS एक पृथ्वी अवलोकन उपग्रह है। यह पृथ्वी का 3 अलग-अलग श्रेणियों में अवलोकन करता है, जिसमें दृश्यमान, अवरक्त और एक्स-रे शामिल हैं। इसे भू-स्थिर कक्षा (geo-stationary) में प्रक्षेपित किया गया है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) Consider the following statements with regard to LOx Methane Engine: It is less toxic and does not leave a residue upon combustion. It will be installed in the upper stage of GSLV MK-III vehicle. Gaganyaan mission will do technology demonstration for the engine.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the them Q.2) ‘LOx मीथेन इंजन’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह कम विषाक्त (toxic) है तथा दहन पर कोई अवशेष नहीं छोड़ता है। इसे जीएसएलवी एमके- III वाहन के उच्च चरण में स्थापित किया जाएगा। गगनयान मिशन में इंजन प्रौद्योगिकी का उपयोग किया जायेगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Consider the following pairs -   Satellite Area of Deployment EMISAT Defence GiSAT Communication CHEOPS Exoplanets Which of the above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only  1 and 3 only 1 only  All of the above Q.3) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें -                             उपग्रह                             तैनाती के क्षेत्र 1. EMISAT रक्षा 2. GiSAT संचार 3. CHEOPS बाह्य ग्रह (exoplanets) उपरोक्त में से कौन सा सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1 ऊपर के सभी Q.4) New Frontiers Program of NASA is aimed at which of the following? Discovery of new Exo-planets. Unravelling the mystery of black hole Exploration of our solar system Discovering new habitable zones outside our solar system. Q.4) नासा का ‘न्यू फ्रंटियर्स प्रोग्राम’ (New Frontiers Program) निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्देश्य से है? नए बाह्य-ग्रहों (Exo-planets) की खोज। ब्लैक होल (black hole) के रहस्य को उजागर करना हमारे सौर मंडल की खोज हमारे सौर मंडल के बाहर नए रहने योग्य क्षेत्रों की खोज। Q.5) Consider the following statements with regard to various Space Missions: Discovery Program is a solar system exploration mission. Dawn Mission aims at studying the solar corona. JUICE mission is to explore Jupiter and its icy moons. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  1 and 3 only 3 only  All of the above Q.5) विभिन्न अंतरिक्ष अभियानों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: डिस्कवरी प्रोग्राम (Discovery Program) एक सौर मंडल अन्वेषण मिशन है। डॉन मिशन (Dawn Mission) का उद्देश्य सौर कोरोना का अध्ययन करना है। जूस मिशन (JUICE mission) बृहस्पति और इसकी बर्फीले चंद्रमाओं का पता लगाने के लिए है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Recently Japan has launched BIRDS Project. What is the purpose of this project? To support non-spacefaring countries to build their first satellite. To launch drones monitored global avian survey. Electric planes that can be used for commercial purposes Nano technology related project to make miniature flying Q.6) हाल ही में जापान ने बर्ड्स प्रोजेक्ट (BIRDS project) लॉन्च किया है। इस परियोजना का उद्देश्य क्या है? अपना पहला उपग्रह बनाने के लिए गैर-अंतरिक्ष यात्री देशों का समर्थन करना। ड्रोन की निगरानी के लिए वैश्विक एवियन सर्वेक्षण की निगरानी करना। इलेक्ट्रिक प्लेन जिनका उपयोग व्यावसायिक उद्देश्यों के लिए किया जा सकता है कृत्रिम परागण करने के लिए सूक्ष्म उड़ने वाली वस्तुओं को बनाने के लिए नैनो प्रौद्योगिकी संबंधी परियोजना। Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to Gaganyaan? It will carry astronauts to low earth orbit. India will become 3rd country to conduct manned space mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.7) गगनयान (Gaganyaan) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? यह अंतरिक्ष यात्रियों को निचली पृथ्वी की कक्षा (low earth orbit) में ले जाएगा। मानवयुक्त अंतरिक्ष मिशन का संचालन करने वाला भारत तीसरा देश बन जाएगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.8) Consider the following pairs: Solar Missions Area of exploration ADITYA-L1 Solar Poles Parker Probe Corona, Chromosphere, Photosphere Solar Orbiter Mission Corona only Select the correct answer based on codes given below – 1-A; 2-B; 3-C  1-B; 2-C; 3-A 1-C; 2-A; 3-B  1-C; 2-B; 3-A Q.8) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: सौर मिशन अन्वेषण का क्षेत्र 1. आदित्य-एल1 (ADITYA-L1) A. सौर ध्रुव 2. पार्कर प्रोब (Parker Probe) B. कोरोना, क्रोमोस्फीयर, फोटोस्फीयर 3. सौर ऑर्बिटर मिशन (Solar Orbiter Mission) C. केवल कोरोना नीचे दिए गए कूट के आधार पर सही उत्तर का चयन करें - 1-A; 2-B; 3-C  1-B; 2-C; 3-A 1-C; 2-A; 3-B  1-C; 2-B; 3-A Q.9) Which of the following services can be provided by Cartosat-3 satellite? Creation of land use maps Monsoon prediction Resource exploration Cloud computing  Space based internet  Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  1 and 3 only 1, 2, 3  and 5 only  All of the above Q.9) कार्टोसैट -3 (Cartosat-3) उपग्रह द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी सेवाएं प्रदान की जा सकती है? भूमि उपयोग के मानचित्र का निर्माण मानसून की भविष्यवाणी संसाधन की खोज क्लाउड कंप्यूटिंग अंतरिक्ष आधारित इंटरनेट नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1  केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.10) What is TRAPPIST-1 that was in News recently? Telescope  Star Exo Planet  Electric Vehicle Q.10) ट्रैपिस्ट-1 (TRAPPIST-1) क्या है, जो हाल ही में समाचारों में था? टेलीस्कोप तारा बाह्य ग्रह (Exo Planet) विद्युत् वाहन Q.11) 2019 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded for the discovery of the first exoplanet around a Sun-like star. Why discovery of exoplanet is so significant? It will help us find whether life could exist outside our solar system We can have better understanding on formation of planetary systems.  Mineral extraction and our energy security.  Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.11) भौतिकी में नोबेल पुरस्कार, 2019 सूर्य जैसे तारे के आसपास पहले बाह्य ग्रह (exoplanet) की खोज के लिए प्रदान किया गया था। एक्सोप्लैनेट की खोज इतनी महत्वपूर्ण क्यों है? यह हमें यह पता लगाने में मदद करेगा कि क्या हमारे सौर मंडल के बाहर जीवन मौजूद हो सकता है ब्रह्मांडीय प्रणालियों (planetary systems) के निर्माण पर हमारी बेहतर समझ हो सकती है। खनिज निष्कर्षण और हमारी ऊर्जा सुरक्षा। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation is the direct evidence of which of the following? Existence of ‘god particle’ Expansion of the universe Presence of gravitational waves Theory of relativity Q.12) कॉस्मिक माइक्रोवेव बैकग्राउंड (Cosmic Microwave Background- CMB) विकिरण निम्नलिखित में से किसका प्रत्यक्ष प्रमाण है? 'गॉड पार्टिकल' का अस्तित्व ब्रह्मांड का विस्तार गुरुत्वाकर्षण तरंगों की उपस्थिति सापेक्षता का सिद्धांत (Theory of relativity) Q.13) Consider the following statements about the Starlink Satellite Constellation: It has been planned and launched by Russian Space Agency. It aims to provide space based internet services to the world. Satellites will be deployed in the Low Earth Orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only  2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only  1, 2 and 3 Q.13) स्टारलिंक उपग्रह समूह (Starlink Satellite Constellation) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे रूसी अंतरिक्ष एजेंसी द्वारा योजना और लॉन्च किया गया है। इसका उद्देश्य विश्व को अंतरिक्ष आधारित इंटरनेट सेवाएं प्रदान करना है। सैटेलाइट को पृथ्वी की निचली कक्षा (Low Earth Orbit) में तैनात किया जाएगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 2 1, 2 और 3 Q.14) Consider the following statements about the Project NETRA: It is an early warning system in the space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites. The project will involve launch of a satellite with telescopes and radars on board into geostationary orbit.   Initially there will be monitoring of satellites in low-earth orbits only.  It works in tandem with Remove DEBRIS project of NASA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only  None of the above Q.14) प्रोजेक्ट नेत्र (Project NETRA) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारतीय उपग्रहों को मलबे और अन्य खतरों का पता लगाने के लिए अंतरिक्ष में एक प्रारंभिक चेतावनी प्रणाली है। परियोजना में टेलीस्कोप और रडार के साथ एक उपग्रह का प्रक्षेपण शामिल होगा, जो भू-स्थिर कक्षा में प्रवेश करेगा। आरंभ में केवल पृथ्वी की निचली कक्षाओं में उपग्रहों की निगरानी होगी। यह नासा के रिमूव डेब्रिस प्रोजेक्ट (Remove DEBRIS project) के साथ मिलकर काम करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.15) Consider the following pairs: Mission/spacecraft/satellite  Purpose MAVEN  Composition of Mar’s crust        2. Lucy  To study the Trojans asteroids       3. MODIS Monitoring large-scale changes in the biosphere       4. ICON  To detect dynamic zone of Sun’s photosphere       5. Psyche To examine an object made not of rock and ice, but metal Which of the above have been correctly matched? 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 only All of the above  Q.15) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: मिशन / अंतरिक्ष यान / उपग्रह उद्देश्य 1. MAVEN मंगल के क्रस्ट की संरचना का अध्ययन करने के लिए 2. Lucy ट्रोजन क्षुद्रग्रहों का अध्ययन करने के लिए 3. MODIS बायोस्फीयर में बड़े पैमाने पर बदलाव की निगरानी करने के लिए 4. ICON सूर्य के फोटोस्फेयर (photosphere) के गतिशील क्षेत्र का पता लगाने के लिए 5. Psyche चट्टान और बर्फ की नहीं बल्कि धातु की बनी किसी वस्तु के परीक्षण के लिए उपरोक्त में से कौन सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 2, और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements regarding Aditya-L1: It is India’s 1st solar mission in collaboration with the European Space Agency. Its main objective is to study the solar corona. Aditya L1 will study Corona using X-rays based instruments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only  2 only 2 and 3 only  All of the above Q.16) आदित्य-एल1 (Aditya-L1) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह यूरोपीय अंतरिक्ष एजेंसी के सहयोग से भारत का पहला सौर मिशन है। इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य सौर कोरोना का अध्ययन करना है। नासा का पार्कर प्रोब भी आदित्य-एल1 के समान समय में ही कार्य-संचालन आरंभ करेगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational Lensing: It is a phenomenon of distortion and magnification of light coming from distant galaxies. It helps to map the distribution of dark energy in the space. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) गुरुत्वाकर्षण लेंसिंग (Gravitational lensing) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह दूरस्थ आकाशगंगाओं से आने वाले प्रकाश की विकृति और आवर्धन की घटना है यह अंतरिक्ष में डार्क एनर्जी के वितरण को मैप करने में मदद करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Consider the following statements about the LIGO India project: It is collaboration among India, NASA and European Union. It is a part of the global network gravitational waves interferometers. Gravitational Waves were predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 Q.18) लीगो इंडिया प्रोजेक्ट (LIGO India project) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारत, नासा और यूरोपीय संघ के बीच सहयोग पर आधारित है। यह गुरुत्वाकर्षण तरंग इंटरफेरोमीटर के वैश्विक नेटवर्क का एक हिस्सा है। गुरुत्वाकर्षण तरंगों का अनुमान आइंस्टीन के सामान्य सापेक्षता के सिद्धांत द्वारा किया गया है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.19) Which of the following can be used to investigate black hole? Astrosat GROWTH-India Thirty Meter Telescope Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 only All of the above Q.19) ब्लैक होल की जांच के लिए निम्न में से किसका उपयोग किया जा सकता है? एस्ट्रोसैट (Astrosat) ग्रोथ-इंडिया (GROWTH-India) थर्टी मीटर टेलीस्कोप नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1  केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Consider the following matches  Fundamental Particle  Characteristics   1. Neutrinos It moves nearly at the speed of light; completely massless; no electric charge; not affected by electric or nuclear forces.  2. Higgs boson It is the particle that gives all matter its mass including neutrinos.   3. Antimatter Every known matter has antimatter which has the different mass and volume. It has an opposite charge when compared to its matter.  Which of the above have been correctly matched? 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above  Q.20) निम्नलिखित मैचों पर विचार करें मौलिक कण विशेषताएँ 1. न्यूट्रिनो (Neutrinos) ये लगभग प्रकाश की गति से चलते हैं; पूरी तरह से द्रव्यमान रहित; कोई विद्युत् आवेश नहीं; विद्युत् या परमाणु बलों से प्रभावित नहीं। 2. हिग्स बोसॉन (Higgs boson) ये वे कण हैं जो न्यूट्रिनो सहित सभी पदार्थों को उनका द्रव्यमान देते है। 3.एंटीमैटर (Antimatter) प्रत्येक ज्ञात पदार्थ में एंटीमैटर होता है, जिसमें समान द्रव्यमान और आयतन होता है। इसके पदार्थ की तुलना करने पर इसका विपरीत आवेश होता है। उपरोक्त में से कौन सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) ‘Surjit Bhalla Committee’ which was in news recently, is associated with which of the following? Net Metering Elephant Bonds Naxalism Prison Reforms Q.21) ‘सुरजीत भल्ला समिति’ जो हाल ही में समाचारों में थी, निम्नलिखित में से किसके साथ संबद्ध है? नेट मीटरिंग एलीफैंट बांड्स नक्सलवाद जेल सुधार Q.22) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘Vallam Kali’? It is a traditional boat race in Kerala. It is an art form in which patterns are created on the floor or the ground using materials such as colored rice, dry flour, colored sand or flower petals in West Bengal. It refers to a floral embroidery from Tamil Nadu. It is a drum made out of the wood of the jackfruit tree. Q.22) ‘वल्लम काली’ (Vallam Kali) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? यह केरल में एक पारंपरिक नौका दौड़ है। यह एक कला रूप है, जिसमें पश्चिम बंगाल में रंगीन चावल, सूखा आटा, रंगीन रेत या फूलों की पंखुड़ियों जैसी सामग्रियों का उपयोग करके फर्श या जमीन पर पैटर्न बनाए जाते हैं। यह तमिलनाडु से एक पुष्प कढ़ाई (floral embroidery) को संदर्भित करता है। यह कटहल के पेड़ की लकड़ी से बना एक ड्रम है। Q.23) The ‘Joint Security Area (JSA)’ refer to which of the following countries? Israel and Palestine South Korea and North Korea Ethiopia and Eretria Sudan and South Sudan Q.23) ‘संयुक्त सुरक्षा क्षेत्र (Joint Security Area- JSA)’ निम्न में से किस देश का उल्लेख करता है? इज़राइल और फिलिस्तीन दक्षिण कोरिया और उत्तर कोरिया इथियोपिया और एरिट्रिया सूडान और दक्षिण सूडान Q.24) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Distributed Ledger Technologies (DLT)’ is/are correct? It uses independent computers to record, share and synchronize transactions in their respective electronic ledgers. All Blockchain is considered to be a form of DLT. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) ‘वितरित लेजर प्रौद्योगिकी (Distributed Ledger Technologies- DLT)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? यह अपने संबंधित इलेक्ट्रॉनिक लेजर में लेनदेन को रिकॉर्ड करने, साझा करने और सिंक्रनाइज़ करने के लिए स्वतंत्र कंप्यूटर का उपयोग करता है। सभी ब्लॉकचेन को डीएलटी का एक रूप माना जाता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Pilibhit Tiger Reserve – Uttarakhand Tadoba-Andhari Tiger reserve – Maharashtra Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary – Telangana Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.25) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? पीलीभीत टाइगर रिजर्व - उत्तराखंड तादोबा-अंधारी टाइगर रिजर्व - महाराष्ट्र कवल वन्यजीव अभयारण्य - तेलंगाना सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.26) ‘Bimal Jalan Committee’ is concerned with which of the following? Corporate Governance Economic Capital Framework for the RBI Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code Code on Wages Q.26) ‘बिमल जालान समिति’ निम्नलिखित में से किस से संबंधित है? कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस RBI के लिए आर्थिक पूंजी ढांचा दिवाला और दिवालियापन संहिता मजदूरी पर संहिता Q.27) 'विश्व खाद्य सुरक्षा एवं पोषण स्थिति' (State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World) रिपोर्ट, किसके द्वारा प्रकाशित की गई है संयुक्त राष्ट्र के खाद्य एवं कृषि संगठन (FAO) विश्व आर्थिक मंच (WEF) द इकोनॉमिस्ट इंटेलिजेंस यूनिट (EIU) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.27) The ‘State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World’ report is published by Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) World Economic Forum (WEF) The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) None of the above Q.27) 'विश्व खाद्य सुरक्षा एवं पोषण स्थिति' (State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World) रिपोर्ट, किसके द्वारा प्रकाशित की गई है संयुक्त राष्ट्र के खाद्य एवं कृषि संगठन (FAO) विश्व आर्थिक मंच (WEF) द इकोनॉमिस्ट इंटेलिजेंस यूनिट (EIU) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘The Coalition of the Willing on Pollinators’. It was founded at the 14th session of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD 14) in 2018. The Coalition is initiated by the Government of India. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) 'परागणों पर इच्छुक गठबंधन' (Coalition of the Willing on Pollinators) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह 2018 में जैविक विविधता पर सम्मेलन (सीबीडी 14) के लिए पार्टियों के सम्मेलन के 14 वें सत्र में स्थापित किया गया था। गठबंधन भारत सरकार द्वारा आरंभ किया गया है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Kharchi Puja – West Bengal Ashadhi Beej – Gujarat Vat Pournima – Maharashtra Select the correct statements 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं? खर्ची पूजा - पश्चिम बंगाल आषाढ़ी बीज - गुजरात वट पूर्णिमा - महाराष्ट्र सही कथनों का चयन करें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) ‘Godawan’ is a state bird of  Rajasthan Odisha Telangana Chhattisgarh Q.30) 'गोडावन' (Godawan) किसका एक राज्य पक्षी है राजस्थान ओडिशा तेलंगाना छत्तीसगढ़ DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba