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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
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Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Medieval India:
System of paying salaries by grants of revenue increased in the medieval period
Raziya was the first and the last woman ruler of the Sultanate Period.
Muhammad Ghori was the patron of Persian poet Firdausi
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
During the Gupta period some of the officers were not paid their salaries in cash but in grants of revenue. The officer did not have any rights of ownership over the land. But during medieval times officers began to claim that they owned the land as well. The system of paying salaries by grants also increased. Persons who received such grants came to be called by titles like Thakur.
Raziya was the first and the last woman ruler of medieval India. She assumed the title of ‘Sultan’ and did her best to play the part of a man. She discarded Purdah and began to adorn the attire of the male. Raziya tried to concentrate power in her own hands and succeeded. This provoked serious opposition that took the shape of a protest against her.
Mahmud Ghazni was the patron of Firdausi, who wrote the epic poem Shah Namah.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
During the Gupta period some of the officers were not paid their salaries in cash but in grants of revenue. The officer did not have any rights of ownership over the land. But during medieval times officers began to claim that they owned the land as well. The system of paying salaries by grants also increased. Persons who received such grants came to be called by titles like Thakur.
Raziya was the first and the last woman ruler of medieval India. She assumed the title of ‘Sultan’ and did her best to play the part of a man. She discarded Purdah and began to adorn the attire of the male. Raziya tried to concentrate power in her own hands and succeeded. This provoked serious opposition that took the shape of a protest against her.
Mahmud Ghazni was the patron of Firdausi, who wrote the epic poem Shah Namah.
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
What factors facilitated the Turkish invasion of Delhi in the 11th -12th century?
Better organization skill of the Turkish army
Artillery Supremacy of invaders
Internal conflicts of Indian rulers
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Turkish army was better organized and well-led by able leaders. The superior organization skills and speed of movement of the Turkish cavalry and their mounted archers dominated the numerically strong and equally equipped Indian forces.
The speed of movement of the Turkish cavalry and their mounted archers dominated the Indians but the Indian forces were equally equipped.
Politically, India was divided into many kingdoms which constantly fought against each other. Because of their internal conflicts, none of them could utilize its complete resources, nor could they unite themselves against foreign invasions.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Turkish army was better organized and well-led by able leaders. The superior organization skills and speed of movement of the Turkish cavalry and their mounted archers dominated the numerically strong and equally equipped Indian forces.
The speed of movement of the Turkish cavalry and their mounted archers dominated the Indians but the Indian forces were equally equipped.
Politically, India was divided into many kingdoms which constantly fought against each other. Because of their internal conflicts, none of them could utilize its complete resources, nor could they unite themselves against foreign invasions.
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakutas kingdom.
Pratihara dynasty was founded by Harichandra in 6th century AD.
Pala Dynasty was founded by Gopala in 750 AD and controlled most of Bengal and Bihar.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
According to one scholar Rashtrakutas belonged to the dynasty of the Rathors while the other says that they were the ancestors’ of the Marathas.
Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakutas kingdom.
The Pratiharas were a section of the large tribe called Gurjara who immigrated into
India. Probably they are also called Gurjara-Prathiharas.
The dynasty of Gurjara-Pratiharas was founded by Harichandra in 6th century AD. They remained influential till the 11th century AD. It is said that they originated from
Ujjain or Mandsaur.
Pala Dynasty was founded by Gopala in 750 AD, who was a chieftain earlier but later became the king of Bengal.
The Palas controlled most of Bengal and Bihar.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
According to one scholar Rashtrakutas belonged to the dynasty of the Rathors while the other says that they were the ancestors’ of the Marathas.
Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakutas kingdom.
The Pratiharas were a section of the large tribe called Gurjara who immigrated into
India. Probably they are also called Gurjara-Prathiharas.
The dynasty of Gurjara-Pratiharas was founded by Harichandra in 6th century AD. They remained influential till the 11th century AD. It is said that they originated from
Ujjain or Mandsaur.
Pala Dynasty was founded by Gopala in 750 AD, who was a chieftain earlier but later became the king of Bengal.
The Palas controlled most of Bengal and Bihar.
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
The first battle of Tarain was fought between Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand.
Muhammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the battle of Chandwar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Muhammad Ghori’s possession of Punjab and his attempt to advance into the Gangetic Doab brought him into direct conflict with the Rajput ruler Prithivaraj Chauhan which resulted in the first battle of Tarain between them.
In AD 1194 Muhammad Ghori again returned to India. He crossed Yamuna with 50,000 cavalry and moved towards Kanauj. He gave a crushing defeat to Jai Chand at Chandwar near Kanauj. Thus the battle of Tarain and Chandwar laid the foundations of Turkish rule in Northern India.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Muhammad Ghori’s possession of Punjab and his attempt to advance into the Gangetic Doab brought him into direct conflict with the Rajput ruler Prithivaraj Chauhan which resulted in the first battle of Tarain between them.
In AD 1194 Muhammad Ghori again returned to India. He crossed Yamuna with 50,000 cavalry and moved towards Kanauj. He gave a crushing defeat to Jai Chand at Chandwar near Kanauj. Thus the battle of Tarain and Chandwar laid the foundations of Turkish rule in Northern India.
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the social conditions during the Sultanate period
Women did not enjoy any property rights.
Forced religious conversion to Islam was widespread.
There was a complete ban on the construction of temples.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
As per the records of Ibn Battuta, widows were given the right to the property of a sonless husband, provided the property was not joint i.e., had been divided.
Despite the significant influence of orthodox theologians, a policy of broad religious toleration was maintained. Conversion to Islam was not effected by the strength of the sword. The Chaitanya guru converted a number of Muslims as a part of the reformation. Conversion to Islam was due to the hopes of political or economic gains or to improve one/s social position.
In the early phase of the Delhi sultanate, a number of Hindu temples were sacked and converted to
mosques. The policy towards temples and places of worship of the Hindus, Jains etc. rested on the Sharia
Law which forbade the new places of worship being built in opposition to Islam. There was no ban on
erecting temples in villages since there were no practices of Islam there. Similarly, temples could be built
within the private space of homes.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
As per the records of Ibn Battuta, widows were given the right to the property of a sonless husband, provided the property was not joint i.e., had been divided.
Despite the significant influence of orthodox theologians, a policy of broad religious toleration was maintained. Conversion to Islam was not effected by the strength of the sword. The Chaitanya guru converted a number of Muslims as a part of the reformation. Conversion to Islam was due to the hopes of political or economic gains or to improve one/s social position.
In the early phase of the Delhi sultanate, a number of Hindu temples were sacked and converted to
mosques. The policy towards temples and places of worship of the Hindus, Jains etc. rested on the Sharia
Law which forbade the new places of worship being built in opposition to Islam. There was no ban on
erecting temples in villages since there were no practices of Islam there. Similarly, temples could be built
within the private space of homes.
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
Tenali Rama was one of the Ashtadiggajas at the court of Krishnadevaraya.
The Battle of Talikota marked the end of the Vijayanagar Empire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Tenali Rama was one of the Ashtadiggajas at the court of Krishnadevaraya. He was a Telugu poet who hailed from a village called Tenali located at what is now the Andhra Pradesh region, generally known for the folk tales which focus on his wit.
Ramakrishna held an important position in Krishnadevaraya’s court. He was one of the Ashtadiggajas and chief adviser appointed by the emperor.
During the reign of Rama Raya, the combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Golkonda and Bidar defeated him at the Battle of Talikota (or the Battle of Rakshasa Tangadi), in 1565, which marked the end of the Vijayanagar empire. The last ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire was Sri Ranga III.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Tenali Rama was one of the Ashtadiggajas at the court of Krishnadevaraya. He was a Telugu poet who hailed from a village called Tenali located at what is now the Andhra Pradesh region, generally known for the folk tales which focus on his wit.
Ramakrishna held an important position in Krishnadevaraya’s court. He was one of the Ashtadiggajas and chief adviser appointed by the emperor.
During the reign of Rama Raya, the combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Golkonda and Bidar defeated him at the Battle of Talikota (or the Battle of Rakshasa Tangadi), in 1565, which marked the end of the Vijayanagar empire. The last ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire was Sri Ranga III.
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements about Nayakas in the Vijayanagar Empire:
Nayakas enjoyed both military and revenue powers.
The rise of Nayakas led to the considerable rise of village autonomy and administration.
The Nayakship was not hereditary and rather based on merit.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Incorrect
They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons, and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
The Chola traditions of village self-government were considerably weakened under the Vijayanagar rule.
The Nayakship was hereditary in nature.The growth of hereditary Nayakships during the Vijaynangara rule tended to curb their freedom and initiatives.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Incorrect
They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons, and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
The Chola traditions of village self-government were considerably weakened under the Vijayanagar rule.
The Nayakship was hereditary in nature.The growth of hereditary Nayakships during the Vijaynangara rule tended to curb their freedom and initiatives.
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Jinaprabha Suri:
Jinaprabha Suri was contemporary of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
He composed the Jain text ‘Vividha Tirtha Kalpa’
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Jinaprabha Suri lived during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. He traveled widely and has left a record of contemporary events as well as oral traditions. He was born in Mohilvadi, Gujarat in the Tambi clan of the Shrimal Jain community. He was initiated at the age of 8 and became an Acharya in Kharatara Gaccha at 23.
He composed the Jain text ‘Vividha Tirtha Kalpa’. It is a compilation of about 60 Kalpas (sections), most of them giving the accounts of major Jain Tirthas.
Vividha Tirtha Kalpa is an example of the tirtha-mala texts that are compilations about Jain Tirthas throughout India, ranging from Nirvana Kanda of Kundakunda to modern publications.
Jinaprabha Suri is said to have written three Jain prayers in Persian.
Some of the Kalpas contain the date of compositions, although most are undated. The dates range from Samvat 1364 (Vaibhargiri Kalpa) to Samvat 1389. The last section of the book was written in 1332 CE in Delhi during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
The description suggests that at that time, while the Svetambara-Digambara division had become distinct, the tirtha were visited by Jains of both sects. He describes the building and destruction of many temples in recent period.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Jinaprabha Suri lived during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. He traveled widely and has left a record of contemporary events as well as oral traditions. He was born in Mohilvadi, Gujarat in the Tambi clan of the Shrimal Jain community. He was initiated at the age of 8 and became an Acharya in Kharatara Gaccha at 23.
He composed the Jain text ‘Vividha Tirtha Kalpa’. It is a compilation of about 60 Kalpas (sections), most of them giving the accounts of major Jain Tirthas.
Vividha Tirtha Kalpa is an example of the tirtha-mala texts that are compilations about Jain Tirthas throughout India, ranging from Nirvana Kanda of Kundakunda to modern publications.
Jinaprabha Suri is said to have written three Jain prayers in Persian.
Some of the Kalpas contain the date of compositions, although most are undated. The dates range from Samvat 1364 (Vaibhargiri Kalpa) to Samvat 1389. The last section of the book was written in 1332 CE in Delhi during the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
The description suggests that at that time, while the Svetambara-Digambara division had become distinct, the tirtha were visited by Jains of both sects. He describes the building and destruction of many temples in recent period.
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
With reference to the religious freedom under the Sultanate period, consider the following statements:
Universal freedom was allotted to all the religions to build religious structures.
Conversion to Islamic religion was mandatory to serve in the army.
Ruling dynasties used existing religious structures to build mosques.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
In the early phase of the Sultanate, many cities were sacked, temples being a special target partly to justify the conquest and partly to seize the fabulous treasures they were supposed to contain.
All religious denominations were used to fight in the wars and thus allowed to enroll in army without discrimination. No forced conversion was allowed in this regard.
During this period, a number of Hindu temples were converted into mosques. The most notable example of this is the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque near the Qutab Minar in Delhi.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
In the early phase of the Sultanate, many cities were sacked, temples being a special target partly to justify the conquest and partly to seize the fabulous treasures they were supposed to contain.
All religious denominations were used to fight in the wars and thus allowed to enroll in army without discrimination. No forced conversion was allowed in this regard.
During this period, a number of Hindu temples were converted into mosques. The most notable example of this is the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque near the Qutab Minar in Delhi.
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Qutbuddin Aibak:
He patronized the scholar Hasan Nizami.
He started the construction of Qutub Minar after the name of famous Sufi Saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami.
He also started the construction of Qutb Minar after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish. Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.
Note:
Qutbuddin Aibak (1206-1210)
Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions.
He set up his military headquarters at Indraprasta, near Delhi. He raised a standing army and established his hold over north India even during the lifetime of Ghori.
After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence. He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate.
He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital.
His rule lasted for a short period of four years. Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to them.
Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami.
He also started the construction of Qutub Minar after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish.
Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami.
He also started the construction of Qutb Minar after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish. Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.
Note:
Qutbuddin Aibak (1206-1210)
Qutbuddin Aibak was a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian possessions.
He set up his military headquarters at Indraprasta, near Delhi. He raised a standing army and established his hold over north India even during the lifetime of Ghori.
After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared his independence. He severed all connections with the kingdom of Ghori and thus founded the Slave dynasty as well as the Delhi Sultanate.
He assumed the title Sultan and made Lahore his capital.
His rule lasted for a short period of four years. Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to them.
Aibak patronized the great scholar Hasan Nizami.
He also started the construction of Qutub Minar after the name of a famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakthiyar. It was later completed by Iltutmish.
Aibak died suddenly while playing chaugan (horse polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by his son Aram Baksh, who was replaced by Iltutmish after eight months.
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
The book ‘Tuti Nama’ (Book of the Parrot) was written in the time of which of the following rulers?
a) Alauddin Khilji
b) Sikandar Lodi
c) Jahangir
d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Correct
Solution (d)
Tuti Nama:
Sanskrit and Persian functioned as link languages in the country in politics, religion and philosophy, as well as being the means of literary productions.
At first, there was little interchange between the two.
Zia Nakhshabi was the first to translate into Persian the Sanskrit stories which were narrated by a parrot to a woman whose husband had gone on a journey.
This book, Tuti Nama (Book of the Parrot), written in the time of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, proved very popular and was translated from Persian into Turkish and into many European languages as well.
It is said that the text of the Tuti Nama was written in Nastaliq calligraphy style. But each of the paintings seen in various libraries across the world focus on a single topic or episode of the stories.
The straightforwardness of expressions seen in the paintings is attributed to the influence of pre-Mughal paintings. Several portfolios of Tuti Nama are also stated to be similar to the Malwa manuscripts with illustrations (dated to 1439 AD) but with distinct perfection. The difference is traced to the tasteful colors in Tuti Nama paintings, which make it rich in colors with graded quality.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Tuti Nama:
Sanskrit and Persian functioned as link languages in the country in politics, religion and philosophy, as well as being the means of literary productions.
At first, there was little interchange between the two.
Zia Nakhshabi was the first to translate into Persian the Sanskrit stories which were narrated by a parrot to a woman whose husband had gone on a journey.
This book, Tuti Nama (Book of the Parrot), written in the time of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, proved very popular and was translated from Persian into Turkish and into many European languages as well.
It is said that the text of the Tuti Nama was written in Nastaliq calligraphy style. But each of the paintings seen in various libraries across the world focus on a single topic or episode of the stories.
The straightforwardness of expressions seen in the paintings is attributed to the influence of pre-Mughal paintings. Several portfolios of Tuti Nama are also stated to be similar to the Malwa manuscripts with illustrations (dated to 1439 AD) but with distinct perfection. The difference is traced to the tasteful colors in Tuti Nama paintings, which make it rich in colors with graded quality.
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Consider the following statements about Portuguese trade in India during the Vijayanagar Empire:
Indian exports by the traders mainly included saltpeter, sugar, rice, spices, and textiles.
Traders helped in transmitting potato, tobacco, maize, cocoa, and peanuts from Central America to India.
Trade in pepper, arms, ammunition and war horses in India was a royal monopoly and no private traders were allowed to engage in the trade of these goods.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Indian exports by the traders mainly included saltpeter, sugar, rice, spices, and textiles. The Portuguese engaged themselves in trade in these items through the sea route. They also tried to control sea routes and provided safeguards to other nationals against sea pirates.
Portuguese traders also helped in transmitting potato, tobacco, maize, cocoa, and peanuts from Central America to India. But the Portuguese were hardly able to change the established pattern of Asian trade networks. The Gujarati and Arab traders continued to dominate the most lucrative Asian trade like gold and horses from West Asia, and silk and porcelain from China.
As a policy measure, trade in pepper, arms, and ammunition and war horses in India was a royal monopoly and no private traders were allowed to engage in the trade of these goods.
Even though the Portuguese tried to change this but due to the presence of a strong Vijayanagar empire, they failed to achieve success.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Indian exports by the traders mainly included saltpeter, sugar, rice, spices, and textiles. The Portuguese engaged themselves in trade in these items through the sea route. They also tried to control sea routes and provided safeguards to other nationals against sea pirates.
Portuguese traders also helped in transmitting potato, tobacco, maize, cocoa, and peanuts from Central America to India. But the Portuguese were hardly able to change the established pattern of Asian trade networks. The Gujarati and Arab traders continued to dominate the most lucrative Asian trade like gold and horses from West Asia, and silk and porcelain from China.
As a policy measure, trade in pepper, arms, and ammunition and war horses in India was a royal monopoly and no private traders were allowed to engage in the trade of these goods.
Even though the Portuguese tried to change this but due to the presence of a strong Vijayanagar empire, they failed to achieve success.
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Consider the following statements:
Mortar began to be used prominently in all the constructions as a cementing agent in Khilji Dynasty.
The architecture in Delhi Sultanate reached its climax during the Tughlaq dynasty
Tombs are largely commissioned during the Lodi dynasty
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Khilji dynasty ruled from 1290 A.D. to 1320 A.D. and established the Seljuk style of architecture. The constructions of this period are marked by the use of red sandstone. Also, the prominence of Arcade style began from this period. Mortar began to be used prominently in all the constructions as a cementing agent.
Example: Alai Darwaza by Alauddin Khilji, Siri fort, etc.
Tughlaq dynasty was the crisis period for architecture during the Delhi Sultanate period. However, some construction works were still undertaken, which used grey sandstone. During this period, the focus was more on the strength of the building and so, there was less emphasis on decoration. The constructions combined both arch and lintel method of entrance design. They also introduced a style of construction known as ‘batter’ which was characterized by sloping walls to give more strength to the building.
Under the Lodi dynasty, architecture continued to take a back seat. Only tombs were commissioned during this period. However, one important feature of architecture during this period was the introduction of double domes. It consisted of a hollow dome inside the top dome.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Khilji dynasty ruled from 1290 A.D. to 1320 A.D. and established the Seljuk style of architecture. The constructions of this period are marked by the use of red sandstone. Also, the prominence of Arcade style began from this period. Mortar began to be used prominently in all the constructions as a cementing agent.
Example: Alai Darwaza by Alauddin Khilji, Siri fort, etc.
Tughlaq dynasty was the crisis period for architecture during the Delhi Sultanate period. However, some construction works were still undertaken, which used grey sandstone. During this period, the focus was more on the strength of the building and so, there was less emphasis on decoration. The constructions combined both arch and lintel method of entrance design. They also introduced a style of construction known as ‘batter’ which was characterized by sloping walls to give more strength to the building.
Under the Lodi dynasty, architecture continued to take a back seat. Only tombs were commissioned during this period. However, one important feature of architecture during this period was the introduction of double domes. It consisted of a hollow dome inside the top dome.
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Consider the following statements about Shah Jahan:
Shah Jahan came to the conclusion that there could be no peace for the Mughals in the Deccan as long as Ahmednagar continued as an independent state.
He was not keen to extend the Mughal territories in the Deccan beyond what was absolutely necessary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Shah Jahan’s first concern as a ruler was to recover the territories in the Deccan which had been lost to the Nizam Shahi ruler. For this purpose, he deputed an old and experienced noble, Khan-i-Jahan Lodi. However, Khan-i-Jahan Lodi failed in the enterprise and was recalled to the court. Shortly afterwards, he rebelled and joined the Nizam Shah who deputed him to expel the Mughals from the remaining portions of Berar and Balaghat. Giving asylum to a leading Mughal noble in this manner was a challenge which Shah Jahan could not ignore. It was clear that even after Malik Ambar’s death, his policy of refusing to recognize the Mughal position in Berar and Balaghat was being continued by the Nizam Shahi ruler. Shah Jahan, therefore, came to the conclusion that there could be no peace for the Mughals in the Deccan as long as Ahmednagar continued as an independent state.
This was a major departure from the policy which had been followed by Akbar and Jahangir. However, Shah Jahan was not keen to extend the Mughal territories in the Deccan beyond what was absolutely necessary.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Shah Jahan’s first concern as a ruler was to recover the territories in the Deccan which had been lost to the Nizam Shahi ruler. For this purpose, he deputed an old and experienced noble, Khan-i-Jahan Lodi. However, Khan-i-Jahan Lodi failed in the enterprise and was recalled to the court. Shortly afterwards, he rebelled and joined the Nizam Shah who deputed him to expel the Mughals from the remaining portions of Berar and Balaghat. Giving asylum to a leading Mughal noble in this manner was a challenge which Shah Jahan could not ignore. It was clear that even after Malik Ambar’s death, his policy of refusing to recognize the Mughal position in Berar and Balaghat was being continued by the Nizam Shahi ruler. Shah Jahan, therefore, came to the conclusion that there could be no peace for the Mughals in the Deccan as long as Ahmednagar continued as an independent state.
This was a major departure from the policy which had been followed by Akbar and Jahangir. However, Shah Jahan was not keen to extend the Mughal territories in the Deccan beyond what was absolutely necessary.
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Sikh rule:
A section of Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur revolted against Aurangzeb and was defeated.
Kapur Singh Faizullapuria organized the Sikhs under Dal Khalsa, with the objective of uniting followers of Sikhism, politically, culturally and economically.
The Sikhs consolidated in Misls which were military brotherhoods with a democratic set-up.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
After the murder of the last Sikh guru, Guru Govind Singh, a section of Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur revolted against the Mughals during the rule of Bahadur Shah. In 1715, Banda Bahadur was defeated by Farrukhsiyar and put to death in 1716.
Due to death of Banda Bahadur, the Sikh polity, once again, became leaderless and later got divided into two groups—Bandai (liberal) and Tat Khalsa (Orthodox). This rift among the followers ended in 1721 under the influence of Bhai Mani Singh. Later in 1784 Kapur Singh Faizullapuria organized the Sikhs under Dal Khalsa, with the objective of uniting followers of Sikhism, politically, culturally and economically.
The whole body of the Khalsa was formed into two sections – Budha Dal, the army of the veterans, and Taruna Dal, the army of the young.
The weakness of the Mughals and invasions of Ahmad Shah Abdali created a general confusion and anarchy in Punjab. These political conditions helped the organized Dal Khalsa to consolidate further. The Sikhs consolidated in Misls which were military brotherhoods with a democratic set-up. Misl is an Arabic word which means equal or alike. Another meaning of Misl is State. During the period, 1763 to 1773, many Misls started to rule the Punjab region under Sikh chieftains, from Saharanpur in the east to Attock in the west, from the mountainous regions of the north to Multan in the south.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
After the murder of the last Sikh guru, Guru Govind Singh, a section of Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur revolted against the Mughals during the rule of Bahadur Shah. In 1715, Banda Bahadur was defeated by Farrukhsiyar and put to death in 1716.
Due to death of Banda Bahadur, the Sikh polity, once again, became leaderless and later got divided into two groups—Bandai (liberal) and Tat Khalsa (Orthodox). This rift among the followers ended in 1721 under the influence of Bhai Mani Singh. Later in 1784 Kapur Singh Faizullapuria organized the Sikhs under Dal Khalsa, with the objective of uniting followers of Sikhism, politically, culturally and economically.
The whole body of the Khalsa was formed into two sections – Budha Dal, the army of the veterans, and Taruna Dal, the army of the young.
The weakness of the Mughals and invasions of Ahmad Shah Abdali created a general confusion and anarchy in Punjab. These political conditions helped the organized Dal Khalsa to consolidate further. The Sikhs consolidated in Misls which were military brotherhoods with a democratic set-up. Misl is an Arabic word which means equal or alike. Another meaning of Misl is State. During the period, 1763 to 1773, many Misls started to rule the Punjab region under Sikh chieftains, from Saharanpur in the east to Attock in the west, from the mountainous regions of the north to Multan in the south.
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
Aurangzeb had granted Shivaji’s Swarajya and the right of Sardeshmukhi over the Deccan to Shahu.
Aurangzeb imprisoned Shah Alam for daring to negotiate with the Deccani rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
In 1689, Sambhaji was surprised at his secret hide-out at Sangameshwar by a Mughal force. He was paraded before Aurangzeb and executed as a rebel and an infidel.
In 1703, Aurangzeb opened negotiations with the Marathas. He was prepared to release Shahu, the son of Sambhaji, who had been captured at Satara along with his mother. Shahu had been treated well. He had been given the title of raja and the mansab of 7000.
Aurangzeb was prepared to grant to Shahu, Shivaji’s swarajya and the right of sardeshmukhi over the Deccan, thus recognising his special position. Over 70 Maratha sardars were actually assembled to receive Shahu.
But Aurangzeb canceled the arrangements at the last minute, being uncertain about the intentions of the Marathas.
Some of the nobles were of the opinion that Aurangzeb should return to north India, leaving to others the task of mopping-up operations against the Marathas. Earlier, there was an opinion which, it appears, had the support of the heirapparent, Shah Alam, that the task of ruling over Karnataka should be left to the vassal rulers of Bijapur and Golconda.
Aurangzeb rejected all these suggestions, and imprisoned Shah Alam for daring to negotiate with the Deccani rulers. Convinced that the Maratha power had been crushed after 1690, Aurangzeb concentrated on annexing to the empire the rich and extensive Karnataka tract.
He unduly extended his lines of communications which became vulnerable to Maratha attacks.
This resulted in his failure to provide a sound administration to Bijapur which was the hub of Maratha activities.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
In 1689, Sambhaji was surprised at his secret hide-out at Sangameshwar by a Mughal force. He was paraded before Aurangzeb and executed as a rebel and an infidel.
In 1703, Aurangzeb opened negotiations with the Marathas. He was prepared to release Shahu, the son of Sambhaji, who had been captured at Satara along with his mother. Shahu had been treated well. He had been given the title of raja and the mansab of 7000.
Aurangzeb was prepared to grant to Shahu, Shivaji’s swarajya and the right of sardeshmukhi over the Deccan, thus recognising his special position. Over 70 Maratha sardars were actually assembled to receive Shahu.
But Aurangzeb canceled the arrangements at the last minute, being uncertain about the intentions of the Marathas.
Some of the nobles were of the opinion that Aurangzeb should return to north India, leaving to others the task of mopping-up operations against the Marathas. Earlier, there was an opinion which, it appears, had the support of the heirapparent, Shah Alam, that the task of ruling over Karnataka should be left to the vassal rulers of Bijapur and Golconda.
Aurangzeb rejected all these suggestions, and imprisoned Shah Alam for daring to negotiate with the Deccani rulers. Convinced that the Maratha power had been crushed after 1690, Aurangzeb concentrated on annexing to the empire the rich and extensive Karnataka tract.
He unduly extended his lines of communications which became vulnerable to Maratha attacks.
This resulted in his failure to provide a sound administration to Bijapur which was the hub of Maratha activities.
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Which of the following were the items of import during the Mughal periods?
Raw silk and silk fabrics
Saltpetre
Pepper
Coffee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
From Persian Gulf Region— pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water;
Saltpetre was not the item of import during the Mughal periods
From Europe— woolen cloth, copper, iron, lead and pepper.
From Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs, and honey;
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
From Persian Gulf Region— pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water;
Saltpetre was not the item of import during the Mughal periods
From Europe— woolen cloth, copper, iron, lead and pepper.
From Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs, and honey;
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding:
Bajirao I had started a confederacy of prominent Maratha chiefs to manage the rapidly expanding Maratha power.
Under the arrangement of the Maratha confederacy, each prominent family under a chief was assigned a sphere of influence which he was supposed to conquer and rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Bajirao I (1720-40), considered greatest of all the Peshwas, had started a confederacy of prominent Maratha chiefs to manage the rapidly expanding Maratha power, and to some extent appease the kshatriya section of the Marathas (Peshwas were brahmins) led by the senapati Dabodi.
Under the arrangement of the Maratha confederacy, each prominent family under a chief was assigned a sphere of influence which he was supposed to conquer and rule, but in the name of the then Maratha king, Shahu.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Bajirao I (1720-40), considered greatest of all the Peshwas, had started a confederacy of prominent Maratha chiefs to manage the rapidly expanding Maratha power, and to some extent appease the kshatriya section of the Marathas (Peshwas were brahmins) led by the senapati Dabodi.
Under the arrangement of the Maratha confederacy, each prominent family under a chief was assigned a sphere of influence which he was supposed to conquer and rule, but in the name of the then Maratha king, Shahu.
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
During the period of which Portuguese Viceroy, the Mughal ruler Akbar visited Cambay in Gujarat?
a) Albuquerque
b) Nino da Cunha
c) Antonio de Noronha
d) Francisco d’ Almeida
Correct
Solution (c)
Akbar’s conquest of Gujarat:
The last two Gujarat Sultans, Ahmad Shah III and Mahmud Shah III, were raised to throne when they were young so the nobles were ruling the Sultanate.
The nobles divided territories between themselves but soon started fighting between themselves for supremacy.
One noble invited the Mughal emperor Akbar to intervene in 1572 which resulted in the conquest of Gujarat by 1573 and Gujarat becoming the province of the Mughal Empire.
During the period of Antonio de Noronha (1571) the Mughal ruler Akbar visited Cambay in Gujarat and the first contacts between the Portuguese and the Mughal emperor were established.
Muzaffar Shah III escaped from captivity and took asylum under Jam Sataji of Nawanagar in Kathiawar region. The battle to save him was fought in July 1591 (Vikram Samvat 1648).
The Kathiawar army included the armies of Junagadh and Kundla who betrayed Nawanagar and joined the Mughal army at last. The battle led to a large number of casualties on both sides.
The battle resulted in the decisive victory of the Mughal army and Gujarat finally and completely fell under the Mughal empire.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Akbar’s conquest of Gujarat:
The last two Gujarat Sultans, Ahmad Shah III and Mahmud Shah III, were raised to throne when they were young so the nobles were ruling the Sultanate.
The nobles divided territories between themselves but soon started fighting between themselves for supremacy.
One noble invited the Mughal emperor Akbar to intervene in 1572 which resulted in the conquest of Gujarat by 1573 and Gujarat becoming the province of the Mughal Empire.
During the period of Antonio de Noronha (1571) the Mughal ruler Akbar visited Cambay in Gujarat and the first contacts between the Portuguese and the Mughal emperor were established.
Muzaffar Shah III escaped from captivity and took asylum under Jam Sataji of Nawanagar in Kathiawar region. The battle to save him was fought in July 1591 (Vikram Samvat 1648).
The Kathiawar army included the armies of Junagadh and Kundla who betrayed Nawanagar and joined the Mughal army at last. The battle led to a large number of casualties on both sides.
The battle resulted in the decisive victory of the Mughal army and Gujarat finally and completely fell under the Mughal empire.
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following statements:
The Jats of the Mathura region broke out in rebellion under the leadership of a local zamindar, Gokla, against Aurangzeb.
During the reign of Shah Jahan there was no conflict with the Afghan tribesmen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
In 1669, the Jats of the Mathura region broke out in rebellion under the leadership of a local zamindar, Gokla. The rebellion spread rapidly among the peasants of the area, and Aurangzeb decided to march in person from Delhi to quell it. In a stiff battle the Jats were defeated. Gokla was captured and executed.
In 1685, there was a second uprising of the Jats under the leadership of Rajaram. The Jats were better organized this time and adopted the methods of guerrilla warfare, combining it with plunder.
Conflict with the Afghan tribesmen had taken place during the reign of Shah Jahan also. These conflicts were partly economic and partly political and religious.
With little means of livelihood in the rugged mountains, the Afghans had no option but to prey on the caravans or to enroll in the Mughal armies. Their fierce love of freedom made service in the Mughal armies difficult.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
In 1669, the Jats of the Mathura region broke out in rebellion under the leadership of a local zamindar, Gokla. The rebellion spread rapidly among the peasants of the area, and Aurangzeb decided to march in person from Delhi to quell it. In a stiff battle the Jats were defeated. Gokla was captured and executed.
In 1685, there was a second uprising of the Jats under the leadership of Rajaram. The Jats were better organized this time and adopted the methods of guerrilla warfare, combining it with plunder.
Conflict with the Afghan tribesmen had taken place during the reign of Shah Jahan also. These conflicts were partly economic and partly political and religious.
With little means of livelihood in the rugged mountains, the Afghans had no option but to prey on the caravans or to enroll in the Mughal armies. Their fierce love of freedom made service in the Mughal armies difficult.
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Island
Country
Reunion Island
France
Agalega Island
Mauritius
Diego Garcia
China
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Island
Country
Reunion Island
France
Agalega Island
Mauritius
Diego Garcia
United Kingdom
Hence option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Island
Country
Reunion Island
France
Agalega Island
Mauritius
Diego Garcia
United Kingdom
Hence option b is correct.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Yars Missile:
It is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads.
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle ICBM.
It has a range of 10,500 km and a launch weight capability of 49600 kg.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
The Yars Missile is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle ICBM. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It can manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
It is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
It has a range of 10,500 km and a launch weight capability of 49600 kg. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Yars Missile is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle ICBM. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It can manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
It is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
It has a range of 10,500 km and a launch weight capability of 49600 kg. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Burkina Faso:
It is a landlocked country in the Western Africa.
It shares its borders with Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast.
Its official language is Moore, which is used in government and education.
It is a republic with a presidential system of government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (c)
Burkina Faso is a landlocked country in the Western Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus, and low mountains in the southwest.
The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
It shares its borders with Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast. Hence statement 2 is correct.
In the south, it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
Burkina Faso, previously known as Upper Volta, was once part of French West Africa since 1896. It gained independence from France in 1960 and changed its name to Burkina Faso in 1984.
Its official language is French, which is used in government and education. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
There are many indigenous languages spoken throughout the country, with Moore (Mossi) being one of the most widely spoken.
The economy is largely based on agriculture, which employs over 80% of the workforce. It is one of the world’s poorest countries.
It is a republic with a presidential system of government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Burkina Faso is a landlocked country in the Western Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus, and low mountains in the southwest.
The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
It shares its borders with Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east, and Benin to the southeast. Hence statement 2 is correct.
In the south, it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
Burkina Faso, previously known as Upper Volta, was once part of French West Africa since 1896. It gained independence from France in 1960 and changed its name to Burkina Faso in 1984.
Its official language is French, which is used in government and education. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
There are many indigenous languages spoken throughout the country, with Moore (Mossi) being one of the most widely spoken.
The economy is largely based on agriculture, which employs over 80% of the workforce. It is one of the world’s poorest countries.
It is a republic with a presidential system of government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
It has been constituted under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012 and the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009.
It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Its members are appointed by the central government for a term of 3 years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms align with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015, and the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It has a chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children
It has six members, out of which at least two are women, from the following fields, appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability, integrity, standing, and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare, or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children.
Its members are appointed by the central government for a term of 3 years. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms align with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015, and the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act of 2009. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It has a chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children
It has six members, out of which at least two are women, from the following fields, appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability, integrity, standing, and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare, or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children.
Its members are appointed by the central government for a term of 3 years. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954:
It aims to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies.
The term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction.
It applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954 aims to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
The term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The definition of “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines, or both.
For a subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, a fine, or both.
The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organizations.
It applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers. Hence statement 4 is correct.
It can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove a lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954 aims to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
The term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The definition of “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction. Hence statement 3 is correct.
If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines, or both.
For a subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, a fine, or both.
The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organizations.
It applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers. Hence statement 4 is correct.
It can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove a lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Recently in the news, the Quartet Road Map is related to?
a) Israel-Iran
b) Iran-Saudia Arabia
c) Iran-United States
d) Israel-Palestine
Correct
Solution (d)
The Quartet Road Map, set up in 2002, was a plan to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict proposed by the Quartet on the Middle East: the United States, the European Union, Russia, and the United Nations. Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Quartet Road Map, set up in 2002, was a plan to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict proposed by the Quartet on the Middle East: the United States, the European Union, Russia, and the United Nations. Hence option d is correct.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Dying Declaration:
It is dealt with in section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872.
It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer.
It cannot serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence.
It can be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (c)
The Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead.
It is dealt with in section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It relates to the cause of death of the declarant.
It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer. Hence statement 2 is correct.
There is no specific format required for a dying declaration.
It can serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
It carries significant weight in legal proceedings. However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or a result of imagination.
It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe and identify the assailants.
It can be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized. Hence statement 4 is correct.
The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a dying statement.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead.
It is dealt with in section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It relates to the cause of death of the declarant.
It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer. Hence statement 2 is correct.
There is no specific format required for a dying declaration.
It can serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
It carries significant weight in legal proceedings. However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or a result of imagination.
It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe and identify the assailants.
It can be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized. Hence statement 4 is correct.
The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a dying statement.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements:
An asylum seeker is an individual who asserts refugee status but has yet to undergo a formal assessment, transitioning to refugee status upon a successful evaluation of their claim.
Refugee Status Determination (RSD) is a legal procedure employed by governments or the UNHCR to ascertain an asylum seeker’s refugee status under international, national, or regional legislation.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
An asylum seeker is an individual who asserts refugee status but has yet to undergo a formal assessment, transitioning to refugee status upon a successful evaluation of their claim. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Refugee Status Determination (RSD) is a legal procedure employed by governments or the UNHCR to ascertain an asylum seeker’s refugee status under international, national, or regional legislation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
An asylum seeker is an individual who asserts refugee status but has yet to undergo a formal assessment, transitioning to refugee status upon a successful evaluation of their claim. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Refugee Status Determination (RSD) is a legal procedure employed by governments or the UNHCR to ascertain an asylum seeker’s refugee status under international, national, or regional legislation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements:
Fourier’s law describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through gaseous materials.
Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighbouring atoms or molecules.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Fourier’s law describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through solid materials. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object to the colder end.
It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
It is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighbouring atoms or molecules. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together than in gases, where particles are further apart.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Fourier’s law describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through solid materials. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object to the colder end.
It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
It is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighbouring atoms or molecules. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together than in gases, where particles are further apart.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967:
It assigns absolute power to state governments, by way of which if the state deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
It applies to both Indian and foreign nationals.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the center deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It applies to both Indian and foreign nationals, charging them similarly even if the crime is committed outside India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the center deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It applies to both Indian and foreign nationals, charging them similarly even if the crime is committed outside India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Find the missing term: 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?
a) 375
b) 390
c) 420
d) 435
Correct
Solution (d)
Each number of the series is 15 multiplied by a prime number i.e., 15 × 11, 15 × 13, 15 × 17, 15 × 19, 15 × 23,…………..
So, missing term = 15 × 29 = 435
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Each number of the series is 15 multiplied by a prime number i.e., 15 × 11, 15 × 13, 15 × 17, 15 × 19, 15 × 23,…………..
So, missing term = 15 × 29 = 435
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
A number when divided by 729 given a remainder of 56. What will we get as remainder if the same number is divided by 27?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1
Correct
Solution (b)
If first number (729) is completely divide by second number (27) then we divide remainder from second number then remaining remainder will be answer.
(729/27) = 27 times
Now, (56/27) = 2
Incorrect
Solution (b)
If first number (729) is completely divide by second number (27) then we divide remainder from second number then remaining remainder will be answer.
(729/27) = 27 times
Now, (56/27) = 2
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Vinay and Versha run a race with their speed in the ratio of 5:3. They prefer to run on a circular track of circumference 1.5 km. What is the distance covered by Vinay when he passes Versha for the seventh time?
a) 26.25 km
b) 25.25 km
c) 14.5 km
d) 13.2 km
Correct
Solution (a)
Since, the speeds of Vinay and Versha are in the ratio 5 : 3 i.e. when Vinay covers 5 rounds, then Versa covers 3 rounds, but first time Vinay and Versha meet when Vinay completes {2(1/2) = 2.5} round and Versha completes 1/2 round.
For Vinay to pass Versha seventh time, Vinay would have completed,
= 7 × 2.5 rounds
Since, each round is 1.5 km, the distance covered by Vinay is,
= 7 × 2.5 × 1.5
= 26.25 km.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Since, the speeds of Vinay and Versha are in the ratio 5 : 3 i.e. when Vinay covers 5 rounds, then Versa covers 3 rounds, but first time Vinay and Versha meet when Vinay completes {2(1/2) = 2.5} round and Versha completes 1/2 round.
For Vinay to pass Versha seventh time, Vinay would have completed,
= 7 × 2.5 rounds
Since, each round is 1.5 km, the distance covered by Vinay is,
= 7 × 2.5 × 1.5
= 26.25 km.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
The calendar of year 1939 is same as which year?
a) 1943
b) 1964
c) 1950
d) 1956
Correct
Solution (c)
Given year 1939, when divided by 4 leaves a remainder of 3.
NOTE: When remainder is 3, 11 is added to the given year to get the result.
So, 1939 + 11 = 1950
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Given year 1939, when divided by 4 leaves a remainder of 3.
NOTE: When remainder is 3, 11 is added to the given year to get the result.
So, 1939 + 11 = 1950
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man gets Rs. 2.40 per hour for regular work and Rs. 3.20 per hours for overtime. If he earns Rs. 432 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for?
a) 175
b) 160
c) 195
d) 180
Correct
Solution (a)
Suppose the man works overtime for x hours.
Now, working hours in 4 weeks = (5 * 8 * 4) = 160.
∴ 160 * 2.40 + x * 3.20 = 432
⇒ 3.20x = 432 – 384 = 48
⇒ x = 15.
Hence, total hours of work = (160 + 15) = 175
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Suppose the man works overtime for x hours.
Now, working hours in 4 weeks = (5 * 8 * 4) = 160.
∴ 160 * 2.40 + x * 3.20 = 432
⇒ 3.20x = 432 – 384 = 48
⇒ x = 15.
Hence, total hours of work = (160 + 15) = 175
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