Archives
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Important Note
Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
You can post your comments in the given format
(1) Your Score
(2) Matrix Meter
(3) New Learning from the Test
Time limit: 0
Test-summary
0 of 35 questions completed
Questions:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
Solve Questions
Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 35 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score
Your score
Categories
Not categorized
0%
Your result has been entered into leaderboard
Loading
Name:
E-Mail:
Captcha:
maximum of 70 points
Pos.
Name
Entered on
Points
Result
Table is loading
No data available
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 35
1. Question
‘Florianopolis Declaration’ is related to which of the following?
a) Promoting commercial whaling as a necessary economic activity
b) Allowing the indefinite protection of the world's whale population
c) Encouraging pro-whaling states to increase their activities
d) Providing binding regulations on commercial whaling activities
Correct
Solution (b)
Florianopolis Declaration of 2018 reaffirms that the moratorium on commercial whaling, which has been in effect since 1986, has contributed to the recovery of some whale populations, and aware of cumulative effects of multiple, existing and emerging threats to whale populations such as entanglement, bycatch, underwater noise, ship strikes, marine debris and climate change. (Hence option b is correct)
It Agrees that the role of the International Whaling Commission in the 21st Century includes inter alia its responsibility to ensure the recovery of whale populations to their pre-industrial levels, and in this context reaffirms the importance in maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Florianopolis Declaration of 2018 reaffirms that the moratorium on commercial whaling, which has been in effect since 1986, has contributed to the recovery of some whale populations, and aware of cumulative effects of multiple, existing and emerging threats to whale populations such as entanglement, bycatch, underwater noise, ship strikes, marine debris and climate change. (Hence option b is correct)
It Agrees that the role of the International Whaling Commission in the 21st Century includes inter alia its responsibility to ensure the recovery of whale populations to their pre-industrial levels, and in this context reaffirms the importance in maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling.
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Eco bridges and Eco ducts were in news recently, consider following statements:
It aims to enhance wildlife connectivity and create contiguous look to landscape.
Uttarakhand has Eco bridge for reptiles and small animals.
Tiger, leopard used Eco bridge in Pench tiger reserve.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Eco-ducts or eco-bridges aim to enhance wildlife connectivity that can be disrupted because of highways or logging. These include canopy bridges (usually for monkeys, squirrels and other arboreal species); concrete underpasses or overpass tunnels or viaducts (usually for larger animals); and amphibian tunnels or culverts. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Usually these bridges are overlaid with planting from the area to give it a contiguous look with the landscape.
Ramnagar Forest Division in Nainital district, Uttarakhand, recently built its first eco-bridge for reptiles and smaller mammals. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
A 2020 study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) noted that nearly 50,000 km of road projects have been identified for construction in India over the next five to six years, while many highways are being upgraded to four lanes.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority, New Delhi, had identified three major sites that were cutting across animal corridors, including National Highway 37 through the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong landscape in Assam, and State Highway 33 through the Nagarhole Tiger Reserve in Karnataka.
Cameras captured nearly 18 species that used these underpasses, including tiger, leopard, and golden jackal. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Eco-ducts or eco-bridges aim to enhance wildlife connectivity that can be disrupted because of highways or logging. These include canopy bridges (usually for monkeys, squirrels and other arboreal species); concrete underpasses or overpass tunnels or viaducts (usually for larger animals); and amphibian tunnels or culverts. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Usually these bridges are overlaid with planting from the area to give it a contiguous look with the landscape.
Ramnagar Forest Division in Nainital district, Uttarakhand, recently built its first eco-bridge for reptiles and smaller mammals. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
A 2020 study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) noted that nearly 50,000 km of road projects have been identified for construction in India over the next five to six years, while many highways are being upgraded to four lanes.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority, New Delhi, had identified three major sites that were cutting across animal corridors, including National Highway 37 through the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong landscape in Assam, and State Highway 33 through the Nagarhole Tiger Reserve in Karnataka.
Cameras captured nearly 18 species that used these underpasses, including tiger, leopard, and golden jackal. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following statements about IPCC’s AR6 Synthesis Report:
Over 3 billion people in highly vulnerable areas being 15 times more likely to die from climate-related events compared to least vulnerable.
Existing adaptation gaps that will continue to grow due to limited resources, low climate literacy, and a lack of political commitment.
It stresses need for climate-resilient development, reducing fossil fuel use, climate investments and low-carbon lifestyles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Vulnerable communities, historically less responsible for climate change, are disproportionately affected. It states that over three billion people in highly vulnerable areas are 15 times more likely to die from climate-related events. (Hence statement 1 is correct.)
Despite some progress in curtailing greenhouse gas emissions, there are existing adaptation gaps. These gaps are attributed to factors such as limited resources, low climate literacy, and a lack of political commitment. (Hence statement 2 is correct.)
It stresses need climate-resilient development, reducing fossil fuel use, increasing finance for climate investments, and facilitating low-carbon lifestyles. (Hence statement 3 is correct.)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Vulnerable communities, historically less responsible for climate change, are disproportionately affected. It states that over three billion people in highly vulnerable areas are 15 times more likely to die from climate-related events. (Hence statement 1 is correct.)
Despite some progress in curtailing greenhouse gas emissions, there are existing adaptation gaps. These gaps are attributed to factors such as limited resources, low climate literacy, and a lack of political commitment. (Hence statement 2 is correct.)
It stresses need climate-resilient development, reducing fossil fuel use, increasing finance for climate investments, and facilitating low-carbon lifestyles. (Hence statement 3 is correct.)
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Ecomark Scheme’:
It provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products.
It will motivate manufacturers to shift towards environmentally friendly production.
The Central Pollution Control Board administers the scheme in partnership with Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
The Ecomark Scheme provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet specific environmental criteria while maintaining quality standards as per Indian norms. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Products accredited under the Ecomark Scheme will adhere to specific environmental criteria, ensuring minimal environmental impact. It will build consumer awareness of environmental issues and encourage eco-conscious choices.
It will also motivate manufacturers to shift towards environmentally friendly production. The scheme seeks to ensure accurate labelling and prevent misleading information about products. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
The Central Pollution Control Board administers the Ecomark Scheme in partnership with Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which is the national body for standards and certification. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Ecomark Scheme provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet specific environmental criteria while maintaining quality standards as per Indian norms. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Products accredited under the Ecomark Scheme will adhere to specific environmental criteria, ensuring minimal environmental impact. It will build consumer awareness of environmental issues and encourage eco-conscious choices.
It will also motivate manufacturers to shift towards environmentally friendly production. The scheme seeks to ensure accurate labelling and prevent misleading information about products. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
The Central Pollution Control Board administers the Ecomark Scheme in partnership with Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which is the national body for standards and certification. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements in context of Indian Forest Act 1927:
All activities are prohibited unless permitted in Protected Forests
All activities are permitted unless it is prohibited in Reserve Forests
State government can assign to any village community the rights of government over any land constituted as reserved forest.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
State government may constitute any forest land or waste land as reserved forest which is the property of Government & may sell the produce from these forest.
Before issuing official notification state government needs to appoint a Forest Settlement Officer (has power of Civil Courts) to inquire & to provide settlements to persons belonging to that area.
All activities are prohibited unless permitted in reserve forests. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Any land not included in Reserve Forest is considered as Protected Forest. Protected forests are of 2 kinds: Demarcated protected forests and Undemarcated protected forests
In protected forests, all activities are permitted unless it is prohibited. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
State government can assign to any village community the rights of government (to or over) any land which has been constituted as reserved forest. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
State government may make rules for regulating the management of village forest, prescribing conditions under which the community may be provided with timber or other forest produce or pasture.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
State government may constitute any forest land or waste land as reserved forest which is the property of Government & may sell the produce from these forest.
Before issuing official notification state government needs to appoint a Forest Settlement Officer (has power of Civil Courts) to inquire & to provide settlements to persons belonging to that area.
All activities are prohibited unless permitted in reserve forests. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Any land not included in Reserve Forest is considered as Protected Forest. Protected forests are of 2 kinds: Demarcated protected forests and Undemarcated protected forests
In protected forests, all activities are permitted unless it is prohibited. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
State government can assign to any village community the rights of government (to or over) any land which has been constituted as reserved forest. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
State government may make rules for regulating the management of village forest, prescribing conditions under which the community may be provided with timber or other forest produce or pasture.
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements in context of “Assessment Report on Invasive Alien Species and their Control’’:
It is released by IPCC-Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
Not all alien species establish and spread with negative impacts on biodiversity.
Highest percentage of alien invertebrates are known to be invasive as per report amongst alien plants, alien microbes, alien vertebrates.
Many invasive alien species have been intentionally introduced for their perceived benefits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
In the most extensive study on invasive species carried out till date, the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) in its new publication – the “Assessment Report on Invasive Alien Species and their Control’’ – has found that there are 37,000 alien species, including plants and animals, that have been introduced by many human activities to regions and biomes around the world, including more than 3,500 invasive alien species and that invasive alien species have played a key role in 60% of global plant and animal extinctions recorded.(Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Not all alien species establish and spread with negative impacts on biodiversity, local ecosystems and species, but a significant proportion do – then becoming known as invasive alien species. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
About 6% of alien plants; 22% of alien invertebrates; 14% of alien vertebrates; and 11% of alien microbes are known to be invasive, posing major risks to nature and to people. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Many invasive alien species have been intentionally introduced for their perceived benefits, without consideration or knowledge of their negative impacts in forestry, agriculture, horticulture, aquaculture, or as pets. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
In the most extensive study on invasive species carried out till date, the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) in its new publication – the “Assessment Report on Invasive Alien Species and their Control’’ – has found that there are 37,000 alien species, including plants and animals, that have been introduced by many human activities to regions and biomes around the world, including more than 3,500 invasive alien species and that invasive alien species have played a key role in 60% of global plant and animal extinctions recorded.(Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Not all alien species establish and spread with negative impacts on biodiversity, local ecosystems and species, but a significant proportion do – then becoming known as invasive alien species. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
About 6% of alien plants; 22% of alien invertebrates; 14% of alien vertebrates; and 11% of alien microbes are known to be invasive, posing major risks to nature and to people. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Many invasive alien species have been intentionally introduced for their perceived benefits, without consideration or knowledge of their negative impacts in forestry, agriculture, horticulture, aquaculture, or as pets. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements about illegal wildlife trade of ‘Sturgeon fish’:
Sturgeon a fish native to Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia and Ukraine, produces caviar.
Volga is the last river body with functional populations of beluga, Russian, stellate and sterlet sturgeons.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in listed the species as endangered.
IUCN imposed an international labelling system for all caviar products to curb illegal trade.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
Sturgeon, a fish native to countries such as Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia and Ukraine that produces caviar, has been fished illegally, the researchers found. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Danube is the last river body with functional populations of beluga (Huso huso), Russian (Acipenser gueldenstaedtii), stellate (Acipenser stellatus) and sterlet (Acipenser ruthenus) sturgeons, according to the authors of the study. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1998 listed the species as endangered and put restrictions on fishing of sturgeons from the Danube and Black Sea. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
In 2000, CITES even imposed an international labelling system for all caviar products to curb illegal trade. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Sturgeon, a fish native to countries such as Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia and Ukraine that produces caviar, has been fished illegally, the researchers found. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Danube is the last river body with functional populations of beluga (Huso huso), Russian (Acipenser gueldenstaedtii), stellate (Acipenser stellatus) and sterlet (Acipenser ruthenus) sturgeons, according to the authors of the study. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1998 listed the species as endangered and put restrictions on fishing of sturgeons from the Danube and Black Sea. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
In 2000, CITES even imposed an international labelling system for all caviar products to curb illegal trade. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Hope Spot Network’:
It is a joint initiative of Conservation International and IUCN.
A hope spot is an area of high species richness at least 1500 species of vascular plants and high degree of species endemism in terrestrial region.
Hope spots can only be Marine Protected Areas (MPAs).
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Hope Spot Network is a joint initiative of Mission Blue & IUCN. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife & significant underwater habitats. They are chosen for their contributions to biodiversity, the carbon sink, and important habitat. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
They can be Marine Protected Area’s (MPA – defined by IUCN) that need attention or any new sites. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Hope Spot Network is a joint initiative of Mission Blue & IUCN. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife & significant underwater habitats. They are chosen for their contributions to biodiversity, the carbon sink, and important habitat. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
They can be Marine Protected Area’s (MPA – defined by IUCN) that need attention or any new sites. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Composite Index of Agricultural Sustainability (CIAS)’:
NITI Aayog has prepared a Composite Index of Agricultural Sustainability (CIAS).
It shows that Indian agriculture practices are moderately sustainable.
At present, most sustainable agriculture is practiced in Mizoram.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Indian Council for Agricultural Research have prepared a Composite Index of Agricultural Sustainability (CIAS). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Index shows that Indian agriculture practices are moderately sustainable. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
At present, the most sustainable agriculture is practised in Mizoram, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal while agriculture in arid Rajasthan is the least sustainable. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Indian Council for Agricultural Research have prepared a Composite Index of Agricultural Sustainability (CIAS). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Index shows that Indian agriculture practices are moderately sustainable. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
At present, the most sustainable agriculture is practised in Mizoram, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal while agriculture in arid Rajasthan is the least sustainable. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements in context of ‘Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI)’:
The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international, inter-governmental organization.
It is headquartered in Seoul, South Korea.
It is dedicated to promoting green growth with its Green Growth Index.
Global Green Growth Institute and Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) will collaborate to implement the Asia Low Carbon Buildings Transition (ALCBT) project.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international, inter-governmental organization dedicated to supporting and promoting strong, inclusive and sustainable economic growth in developing countries and emerging economies. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
It is based in Seoul, South Korea. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
GGGI aims for global transition toward a model of green growth While this will be differentiated at the country level, at its core will be strategies that simultaneously achieve poverty reduction, social inclusion, environmental sustainability, and economic growth.
Ensuring the world’s progress towards a green transformation requires comprehensive measurement and tracking systems. With this report, GGGI is presenting a new platform for measuring and tracking the green growth performance of countries worldwide through the Green Growth Index. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) in collaboration with the Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI), an international intergovernmental organization, announced the launch of the Asia Low Carbon Buildings Transition (ALCBT) Project in India. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international, inter-governmental organization dedicated to supporting and promoting strong, inclusive and sustainable economic growth in developing countries and emerging economies. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
It is based in Seoul, South Korea. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
GGGI aims for global transition toward a model of green growth While this will be differentiated at the country level, at its core will be strategies that simultaneously achieve poverty reduction, social inclusion, environmental sustainability, and economic growth.
Ensuring the world’s progress towards a green transformation requires comprehensive measurement and tracking systems. With this report, GGGI is presenting a new platform for measuring and tracking the green growth performance of countries worldwide through the Green Growth Index. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) in collaboration with the Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI), an international intergovernmental organization, announced the launch of the Asia Low Carbon Buildings Transition (ALCBT) Project in India. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements related to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Seas (UNCLOS):
UNCLOS exclusively governs the management of maritime territories and exclusive economic zones of individual countries.
The international ocean floor is not subject to UNCLOS unless a country has signed or ratified the convention.
The “common heritage of mankind” principle applies to the seabed and its mineral resources as per UNCLOS.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Countries manage their own maritime territory and exclusive economic zones, while the high seas and the international ocean floor are governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Seas. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)
It is considered to apply to states regardless of whether or not they have signed or ratified it. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
Under the treaty, the seabed and its mineral resources are considered the “common heritage of mankind” that must be managed in a way that protects the interests of humanity through the sharing of economic benefits, support for marine scientific research, and protecting marine environments. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Countries manage their own maritime territory and exclusive economic zones, while the high seas and the international ocean floor are governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Seas. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)
It is considered to apply to states regardless of whether or not they have signed or ratified it. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
Under the treaty, the seabed and its mineral resources are considered the “common heritage of mankind” that must be managed in a way that protects the interests of humanity through the sharing of economic benefits, support for marine scientific research, and protecting marine environments. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
With reference to The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC), consider the following statements:
Its mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
It is a collaborative effort of Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) and World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
Choose the correct code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
TRAFFIC aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
It is a leading non-governmental organisation working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
TRAFFIC is a joint conservation programme of WWF and IUCN.
It was established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, principally as a response to the entry into force during the previous year of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Note:
The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC):
The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a leading non-governmental organisation working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
It is a joint program of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions.
Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom
Illegal wildlife trade is one of the main reasons that many species are endangered.
The TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Its staff includes experts from a plethora of backgrounds: biologists, conservationists, academics, researchers, communicators or investigators, etc.
Since its establishment, it has helped in the evolution of the international wildlife trade treaties.
It focuses on leveraging resources, expertise and awareness of the latest globally urgent species trade issues such as tiger parts, elephant ivory and rhino horn.
Large scale commercial trade in commodities like timber and fisheries products are also addressed and linked to work on developing rapid results and policy improvements.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
TRAFFIC aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
It is a leading non-governmental organisation working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
TRAFFIC is a joint conservation programme of WWF and IUCN.
It was established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, principally as a response to the entry into force during the previous year of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Note:
The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC):
The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a leading non-governmental organisation working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
It is a joint program of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions.
Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom
Illegal wildlife trade is one of the main reasons that many species are endangered.
The TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Its staff includes experts from a plethora of backgrounds: biologists, conservationists, academics, researchers, communicators or investigators, etc.
Since its establishment, it has helped in the evolution of the international wildlife trade treaties.
It focuses on leveraging resources, expertise and awareness of the latest globally urgent species trade issues such as tiger parts, elephant ivory and rhino horn.
Large scale commercial trade in commodities like timber and fisheries products are also addressed and linked to work on developing rapid results and policy improvements.
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
With respect to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), consider the following statements:
It aims to restore 50% degraded ecosystems globally by 2050.
Conserve and manage 30% areas by 2050.
Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Restore 30% degraded ecosystems globally (on land and sea) by 2030.
Conserve and manage 30% areas (terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine) by 2030.
Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
Note:
At the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity ‘Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework’ (GBF) was adopted.
Key Targets of the GBF:
30×30 Deal:
Restore 30% degraded ecosystems globally (on land and sea) by 2030.
Conserve and manage 30% areas (terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine) by 2030.
Stop the extinction of known species, and by 2050 reduce tenfold the extinction risk and rate of all species (including unknown).
Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce pollution risks and negative impacts of pollution from all sources by 2030 to levels that are not harmful to biodiversity and ecosystem functions.
Reduce global footprint of consumption by 2030, including through significantly reducing overconsumption and waste generation and halving food waste.
Sustainably manage areas under agriculture, aquaculture, fisheries, and forestry and substantially increase agroecology and other biodiversity-friendly practices.
Tackle climate change through nature-based solutions.
Reduce the rate of introduction and establishment of invasive alien species by at least 50% by 2030.
Secure the safe, legal and sustainable use and trade of wild species by 2030.
Green up urban spaces.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Restore 30% degraded ecosystems globally (on land and sea) by 2030.
Conserve and manage 30% areas (terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine) by 2030.
Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
Note:
At the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity ‘Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework’ (GBF) was adopted.
Key Targets of the GBF:
30×30 Deal:
Restore 30% degraded ecosystems globally (on land and sea) by 2030.
Conserve and manage 30% areas (terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine) by 2030.
Stop the extinction of known species, and by 2050 reduce tenfold the extinction risk and rate of all species (including unknown).
Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
Reduce pollution risks and negative impacts of pollution from all sources by 2030 to levels that are not harmful to biodiversity and ecosystem functions.
Reduce global footprint of consumption by 2030, including through significantly reducing overconsumption and waste generation and halving food waste.
Sustainably manage areas under agriculture, aquaculture, fisheries, and forestry and substantially increase agroecology and other biodiversity-friendly practices.
Tackle climate change through nature-based solutions.
Reduce the rate of introduction and establishment of invasive alien species by at least 50% by 2030.
Secure the safe, legal and sustainable use and trade of wild species by 2030.
Green up urban spaces.
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to the Green Climate Fund (GCF)?
It was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
It is being managed by the World Bank.
It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010.
It is not managed by the World Bank.
The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea.
It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
Note:
Green Climate Fund (GCF):
The GCF was set up in 2010 under the UNFCCC’s financial mechanism to channel funding from developed countries to developing countries to allow them to mitigate climate change and also adapt to disruptions arising from a changing climate.
The Green Climate Fund will support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.
It is intended to be the centerpiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of $100 billion a year by 2020.
It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
The Fund will promote the paradigm shift towards low-emission and climate-resilient development pathways by providing support to developing countries to limit or reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and to adapt to the impacts of climate change, taking into account the needs of those developing countries particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
The Fund will strive to maximize the impact of its funding for adaptation and mitigation, and seek a balance between the two, while promoting environmental, social, economic and development co-benefits and taking a gender-sensitive approach.
The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the Conference of Parties (COP).
The Fund is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010.
It is not managed by the World Bank.
The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea.
It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
Note:
Green Climate Fund (GCF):
The GCF was set up in 2010 under the UNFCCC’s financial mechanism to channel funding from developed countries to developing countries to allow them to mitigate climate change and also adapt to disruptions arising from a changing climate.
The Green Climate Fund will support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.
It is intended to be the centerpiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of $100 billion a year by 2020.
It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
The Fund will promote the paradigm shift towards low-emission and climate-resilient development pathways by providing support to developing countries to limit or reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and to adapt to the impacts of climate change, taking into account the needs of those developing countries particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
The Fund will strive to maximize the impact of its funding for adaptation and mitigation, and seek a balance between the two, while promoting environmental, social, economic and development co-benefits and taking a gender-sensitive approach.
The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the Conference of Parties (COP).
The Fund is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea.
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature:
WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization.
It publishes ‘The living planet report’ every three years.
It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961.
It publishes ‘The Living Planet Report’ every two years.
It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
Note:
World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature:
The World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature was founded on 29th April 1961.
Its precursor organisation was the Conservation Foundation.
Its original name was World Wildlife Fund.
WWF Headquarters – Gland, Switzerland.
It is an international non-profit organization dedicated to the preservation and conservation of nature and its different species.
It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
It is the world’s biggest conservation organization.
It supports more than 1000 projects all over the world.
WWF works in the areas of climate, food, forests, freshwater, oceans and wildlife primarily.
It runs several projects in various fields in partnership with people, bodies and governments worldwide.
In species conservation, they focus on tigers, elephants, gorillas, giant pandas, sea turtles, polar bears, rhinos and whales.
Through its various projects, the organisation aims to check the degradation of the earth’s natural environment and create a future in which human beings live in harmony with nature.
Campaigns launched by WWF include Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap.
The famous ‘Living Planet Report’ (started in 1998) is published by the WWF every two years in which the health of the planet and the impact of human activities on nature are talked about. It is based on the Living Planet Index and the calculations of ecological footprints.
What is the living planet index- It is a measure of the state of the world’s biological diversity based on population trends of vertebrate species in terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
WWF for Nature is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1961.
It publishes ‘The Living Planet Report’ every two years.
It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
Note:
World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature:
The World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature was founded on 29th April 1961.
Its precursor organisation was the Conservation Foundation.
Its original name was World Wildlife Fund.
WWF Headquarters – Gland, Switzerland.
It is an international non-profit organization dedicated to the preservation and conservation of nature and its different species.
It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
It is the world’s biggest conservation organization.
It supports more than 1000 projects all over the world.
WWF works in the areas of climate, food, forests, freshwater, oceans and wildlife primarily.
It runs several projects in various fields in partnership with people, bodies and governments worldwide.
In species conservation, they focus on tigers, elephants, gorillas, giant pandas, sea turtles, polar bears, rhinos and whales.
Through its various projects, the organisation aims to check the degradation of the earth’s natural environment and create a future in which human beings live in harmony with nature.
Campaigns launched by WWF include Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap.
The famous ‘Living Planet Report’ (started in 1998) is published by the WWF every two years in which the health of the planet and the impact of human activities on nature are talked about. It is based on the Living Planet Index and the calculations of ecological footprints.
What is the living planet index- It is a measure of the state of the world’s biological diversity based on population trends of vertebrate species in terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements about Man and Biosphere Programme:
It was launched by IUCN and WWF.
It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Man and Biosphere Programme was launched by UNESCO.
It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Man and Biosphere Programme was launched by UNESCO.
It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government for inclusion in the world network of Biosphere Reserves.
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
With reference to the Cartagena Protocol, consider the following statements:
It was adopted as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity at the Rio Summit, 1992.
It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory.
It is a legally binding protocol even altering the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
As a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, it was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003.
It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory.
Although it is a legally binding protocol, the agreement does not alter the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization (WTO) or other existing international agreements.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
As a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, it was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003.
It seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by the transboundary movements of the living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory.
Although it is a legally binding protocol, the agreement does not alter the rights and obligations of governments under the World Trade Organization (WTO) or other existing international agreements.
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
With reference to Earth Summit, consider the following statements:
It is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro.
Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Earth Summit is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro.
Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit.
Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the newer Agenda 2030.
Note:
Earth Summit:
The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, Rio Summit, Rio Conference, and Earth Summit, was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) from 3 to 14 June 1992.
This summit led to the development of the following documents:
Rio Declaration on Environment and Development-
Rio Declaration, in short, contained 27 principles that were supposed to guide countries in future sustainable development.
Agenda 21-
Agenda 21 is an action plan concerning sustainable development, but it is non-binding.
Forest Principles-
The Forest Principles is formally called ‘Non-Legally Binding Authoritative Statement of Principles for a Global Consensus on the Management, Conservation and Sustainable Development of All Types of Forests’. It makes many recommendations for conservation and sustainable development forestry and is non-binding.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Earth Summit is the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development that took place in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro.
Agenda 21, a non-binding action plan, was an outcome of this summit.
Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the newer Agenda 2030.
Note:
Earth Summit:
The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, Rio Summit, Rio Conference, and Earth Summit, was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) from 3 to 14 June 1992.
This summit led to the development of the following documents:
Rio Declaration on Environment and Development-
Rio Declaration, in short, contained 27 principles that were supposed to guide countries in future sustainable development.
Agenda 21-
Agenda 21 is an action plan concerning sustainable development, but it is non-binding.
Forest Principles-
The Forest Principles is formally called ‘Non-Legally Binding Authoritative Statement of Principles for a Global Consensus on the Management, Conservation and Sustainable Development of All Types of Forests’. It makes many recommendations for conservation and sustainable development forestry and is non-binding.
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘World Water Council’:
It is an inter-governmental organization under the aegis of United Nations.
The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
The World Water Council is a non-profit international multi-stakeholder platform. It was established in 1996.
The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Note:
World Water Council:
The World Water Council (WWC) is an international think tank.
It was founded in 1996, with its headquarters in Marseille, France.
It has 358 members (as of February 2020) which encompass organisations from the UN and intergovernmental organizations, the private sector (construction, engineering and manufacturing companies), governments and ministries, academic institutions, international organizations, local governments and civil society groups.
Its stated mission is “to promote awareness, build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levels, including the highest decision-making level, to facilitate the efficient conservation, protection, development, planning, management, and use of water in all its dimensions on an environmentally sustainable basis for the benefit of all life on earth.”
The Council also focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
The World Water Council is a non-profit international multi-stakeholder platform. It was established in 1996.
The Council focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Note:
World Water Council:
The World Water Council (WWC) is an international think tank.
It was founded in 1996, with its headquarters in Marseille, France.
It has 358 members (as of February 2020) which encompass organisations from the UN and intergovernmental organizations, the private sector (construction, engineering and manufacturing companies), governments and ministries, academic institutions, international organizations, local governments and civil society groups.
Its stated mission is “to promote awareness, build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levels, including the highest decision-making level, to facilitate the efficient conservation, protection, development, planning, management, and use of water in all its dimensions on an environmentally sustainable basis for the benefit of all life on earth.”
The Council also focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bonn Convention:
It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species.
It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes.
It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP.
Note:
Bonn Convention:
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as CMS or the Bonn Convention, not to be confused with the Bonn Agreement) aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
It is an intergovernmental treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, associated with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.
Since the Convention’s entry into force, its membership has grown steadily to include over 100 Parties from Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Europe and Oceania.
The Convention was signed in 1979 in Bonn (hence the name) and entered into force in 1983.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
It is the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes.
It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of UNEP.
Note:
Bonn Convention:
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as CMS or the Bonn Convention, not to be confused with the Bonn Agreement) aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
It is an intergovernmental treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, associated with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.
Since the Convention’s entry into force, its membership has grown steadily to include over 100 Parties from Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Europe and Oceania.
The Convention was signed in 1979 in Bonn (hence the name) and entered into force in 1983.
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Which of the following statements about Down syndrome is true?
a) It is caused by a mutation in the X chromosome.
b) It is typically inherited from one's parents.
c) It can only be diagnosed after birth through physical characteristics.
d) It is a genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.
Correct
Solution (d)
Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Hence option d is correct.
This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome.
It is not caused by a mutation in the X chromosome. While Down syndrome is a genetic disorder, it is not typically inherited from one’s parents, as it is usually the result of a random error in cell division during the formation of either the sperm or the egg.
Down syndrome can be diagnosed before birth through prenatal screening tests such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling, and through genetic testing.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Hence option d is correct.
This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome.
It is not caused by a mutation in the X chromosome. While Down syndrome is a genetic disorder, it is not typically inherited from one’s parents, as it is usually the result of a random error in cell division during the formation of either the sperm or the egg.
Down syndrome can be diagnosed before birth through prenatal screening tests such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling, and through genetic testing.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Which of the following can be the advantages of Genome Mapping of a country?
Identifying the genetic basis for various diseases.
Understanding of population health trends
Accurate prediction of individual life events.
Targeted treatment of rare diseases arising from genetic anomalies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (c)
Studying the Genetic makeup of a country can help in:
It can identify the genetic basis or genetic risk factors for various diseases. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It can provide insights into health trends and patterns within that population. It can be a useful tool in public health planning, preventive measures, and the allocation of resources. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Genome mapping cannot accurately predict individual life events. Accurate prediction of an individual’s life events is influenced by various factors beyond genetics. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In providing targeted treatments, especially for rare diseases that usually arise from genetic anomalies. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Studying the Genetic makeup of a country can help in:
It can identify the genetic basis or genetic risk factors for various diseases. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It can provide insights into health trends and patterns within that population. It can be a useful tool in public health planning, preventive measures, and the allocation of resources. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Genome mapping cannot accurately predict individual life events. Accurate prediction of an individual’s life events is influenced by various factors beyond genetics. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
In providing targeted treatments, especially for rare diseases that usually arise from genetic anomalies. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the World Trade Organisation (WTO):
It is the outcome of the Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994.
It is a UN specialised agency dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the outcome of the Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994 marked the culmination of the 8-year-long Uruguay Round and established the World Trade Organization (WTO), which officially came into being on January 1, 1995.
It is not a UN specialised agency dealing with the rules of trade between nations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
However, it has maintained strong relations with the United Nations and its agencies since its establishment.
The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Ministerial Conference usually meets every two years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions.
The Ministerial Conference can make decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the outcome of the Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994 marked the culmination of the 8-year-long Uruguay Round and established the World Trade Organization (WTO), which officially came into being on January 1, 1995.
It is not a UN specialised agency dealing with the rules of trade between nations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
However, it has maintained strong relations with the United Nations and its agencies since its establishment.
The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Ministerial Conference usually meets every two years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions.
The Ministerial Conference can make decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Which of the following are covered under the adjudicating power of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
Members of the defence forces
Officers and servants of the Supreme Court
All-India services
Civilian employees of defence services
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
The original Constitution did not contain provisions concerning tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. The Central Administrative Tribunal is established under the Tribunals Act 1985 following Article 323-A of the constitution. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction concerning recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the
All-India services
The Central Civil Service,
Civilian employees of defence services
Civil posts under the Centre and State governments.
The members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it. Hence option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The original Constitution did not contain provisions concerning tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. The Central Administrative Tribunal is established under the Tribunals Act 1985 following Article 323-A of the constitution. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction concerning recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the
All-India services
The Central Civil Service,
Civilian employees of defence services
Civil posts under the Centre and State governments.
The members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it. Hence option b is correct.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha Mandir:
It is built in the traditional Dravida style of architecture.
It has been built by using fly ash instead of cement.
It is surrounded by ‘Dome of Harmony’ and ‘Dome of Peace.’
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha Mandir is built in the traditional Nagara style of architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It has been built by using fly ash instead of cement which helps to reduce its carbon footprint. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Nano tiles have been installed with designs to keep visitors comfortable even in extreme heat. It has not used any ferrous material.
The temple houses seven shrines, each dedicated to different deities hailing from the North, East, West, and South parts of India.
It is surrounded by ‘Dome of Harmony’ and ‘Dome of Peace.’ Hence statement 3 is correct.
It symbolizes unity and coexistence among different religions and cultures.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha Mandir is built in the traditional Nagara style of architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It has been built by using fly ash instead of cement which helps to reduce its carbon footprint. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Nano tiles have been installed with designs to keep visitors comfortable even in extreme heat. It has not used any ferrous material.
The temple houses seven shrines, each dedicated to different deities hailing from the North, East, West, and South parts of India.
It is surrounded by ‘Dome of Harmony’ and ‘Dome of Peace.’ Hence statement 3 is correct.
It symbolizes unity and coexistence among different religions and cultures.
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements:
H. Marigowda is considered the Father of Indian Horticulture.
India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter of fruits and vegetables.
The productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to the productivity of food grains.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Horticulture is the branch of agriculture concerned with intensively cultured plants directly used by humansfor food, medicinal purposes, and aesthetic gratification.
It is the cultivation, production, and sale of vegetables, fruits, flowers, herbs, ornamental or exotic plants.
H. Bailey is considered the Father of American Horticulture.
H. Marigowdais considered the Father of Indian Horticulture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
India is the 2nd largest producerof fruits and vegetables.
In terms of exports, India is ranked 14th in vegetables and 23rd in fruits, and its share in the global horticultural market is a mere 1%. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to the productivity of food grains. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Horticulture is the branch of agriculture concerned with intensively cultured plants directly used by humansfor food, medicinal purposes, and aesthetic gratification.
It is the cultivation, production, and sale of vegetables, fruits, flowers, herbs, ornamental or exotic plants.
H. Bailey is considered the Father of American Horticulture.
H. Marigowdais considered the Father of Indian Horticulture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
India is the 2nd largest producerof fruits and vegetables.
In terms of exports, India is ranked 14th in vegetables and 23rd in fruits, and its share in the global horticultural market is a mere 1%. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to the productivity of food grains. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is based on the recommendations of the CACP.
It is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Minimum Support Price (MSP)is the guaranteed amount paid to farmers when the government buys their produce.
MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers various factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It recommends MSP based on the A2+FL formula,which considers only paid-out costs and the imputed value of family labour.
CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.Hence statement 2 is correct.
It came into existence in January 1965.
The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated cropsand fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Minimum Support Price (MSP)is the guaranteed amount paid to farmers when the government buys their produce.
MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers various factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It recommends MSP based on the A2+FL formula,which considers only paid-out costs and the imputed value of family labour.
CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.Hence statement 2 is correct.
It came into existence in January 1965.
The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated cropsand fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI):
India became the first country to develop all three foundational DPIs: Digital identity (Aadhar), Real-time fast payment (UPI), and Account Aggregator built on the Data Empowerment Protection Architecture (DEPA).
The Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture (DEPA) establishes a digital framework enabling users to share their data solely under the terms defined by a third-party entity.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to blocks or platforms such as digital identification, payment infrastructure, and data exchange solutions that help countries deliver essential services to their people, empowering citizens and improving lives by enabling digital inclusion.
DPIs mediate the flow of people, money, and information. These three sets become the foundation for developing an effective DPI ecosystem:
First, the flow of people through a digital ID System.
Second, the flow of money through a real-time fast payment system.
And third, the flow of personal information through a consent-based data-sharing system to actualise the benefits of DPIs and to empower the citizen with a real ability to control data.
IndiaStack is a set of APIs (Application programming interfaces) that allows governments, businesses, startups, and developers to utilise a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery.
India, through India Stack, became the first country to develop all three foundational DPIs, Digital identity (Aadhar), Real-time fast payment (UPI), and Account Aggregator built on the Data Empowerment Protection Architecture (DEPA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
DEPA creates a digital framework that allows users to share their data on their terms through a third-party entity, known as Consent Manager. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to blocks or platforms such as digital identification, payment infrastructure, and data exchange solutions that help countries deliver essential services to their people, empowering citizens and improving lives by enabling digital inclusion.
DPIs mediate the flow of people, money, and information. These three sets become the foundation for developing an effective DPI ecosystem:
First, the flow of people through a digital ID System.
Second, the flow of money through a real-time fast payment system.
And third, the flow of personal information through a consent-based data-sharing system to actualise the benefits of DPIs and to empower the citizen with a real ability to control data.
IndiaStack is a set of APIs (Application programming interfaces) that allows governments, businesses, startups, and developers to utilise a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery.
India, through India Stack, became the first country to develop all three foundational DPIs, Digital identity (Aadhar), Real-time fast payment (UPI), and Account Aggregator built on the Data Empowerment Protection Architecture (DEPA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
DEPA creates a digital framework that allows users to share their data on their terms through a third-party entity, known as Consent Manager. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Pulses Conference 2024:
It was organized by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare and NITI Aayog.
It is the industry’s largest global event, bringing together key players from more than 50 countries.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Global Pulses Conference 2024 is an annual gatheringof pulses producers, processors, and traders, which was recently jointly organized by the Global Pulse Confederation and the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India is the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27% of world consumption), and importer (14%)of pulses in the world.
Pulses account for around 20% of the area under food grains and contribute around 7-10% of the total food grain production in the country.
The Global Pulses Conference is the industry’s largest global event, bringing together key players from more than 50 countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
India is aiming toachieve self-sufficiency in pulses by 2027, focusing on expanding cultivation and supplying new varieties of seeds.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Global Pulses Conference 2024 is an annual gatheringof pulses producers, processors, and traders, which was recently jointly organized by the Global Pulse Confederation and the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India is the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27% of world consumption), and importer (14%)of pulses in the world.
Pulses account for around 20% of the area under food grains and contribute around 7-10% of the total food grain production in the country.
The Global Pulses Conference is the industry’s largest global event, bringing together key players from more than 50 countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
India is aiming toachieve self-sufficiency in pulses by 2027, focusing on expanding cultivation and supplying new varieties of seeds.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements about Purple Fest 2024:
It aims to raise awareness about different disabilities and their impact on people’s lives.
It is organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Purple Fest 2024 aims to raise awareness about different disabilities and their impact on people’s lives. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Purple Fest 2024 was organized at Rashtrapati Bhawan, celebrating diversity and unity.
It promotes understanding, acceptance, and inclusion of persons with disabilities within society.
It is organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Purple Fest 2024 aims to raise awareness about different disabilities and their impact on people’s lives. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Purple Fest 2024 was organized at Rashtrapati Bhawan, celebrating diversity and unity.
It promotes understanding, acceptance, and inclusion of persons with disabilities within society.
It is organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
From a group of 9 men and 6 women, eight persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 5 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
a) 5064
b) 4650
c) 4005
d) 5004
Correct
Solution (c)
We may have (5 men and 3 women) or (6 men and 2 women) or (7 men or 1 women) or (8 men only)
Required number of ways = ( 9C5 * 6C3) + ( 9C6 * 6C2 ) + ( 9C7 * 6C1 ) + ( 9C8)
Hence nCr = nCn-r
= 9C4 * 6C3 + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= [ 9 * 8 * 7 * 6/ 4 * 3 * 2 * 1] * [ 6 * 5 * 4 / 3 * 2 * 1] + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= 2520 + [ (9 * 8 * 7 / 3 * 2 * 1) * (6 * 5/ 2 * 1) + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= 2520 + 1260 + [ (9 * 8 / 2 * 1) * (6 * 1)) + 9C1
= 2520 + 1260 + 216 + 9
= 4005
Incorrect
Solution (c)
We may have (5 men and 3 women) or (6 men and 2 women) or (7 men or 1 women) or (8 men only)
Required number of ways = ( 9C5 * 6C3) + ( 9C6 * 6C2 ) + ( 9C7 * 6C1 ) + ( 9C8)
Hence nCr = nCn-r
= 9C4 * 6C3 + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= [ 9 * 8 * 7 * 6/ 4 * 3 * 2 * 1] * [ 6 * 5 * 4 / 3 * 2 * 1] + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= 2520 + [ (9 * 8 * 7 / 3 * 2 * 1) * (6 * 5/ 2 * 1) + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1
= 2520 + 1260 + [ (9 * 8 / 2 * 1) * (6 * 1)) + 9C1
= 2520 + 1260 + 216 + 9
= 4005
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
If “PAVNPA” is the code for MUMBAI then the code for DELHI is
a) GHOKL
b) GNMKL
c) GHUTL
d) GKUTX
Correct
Solution (d)
According to the same pattern, DELHI is written as
4
5
12
8
9
D
E
L
H
I
7
11
21
20
24
G
K
U
T
X
Incorrect
Solution (d)
According to the same pattern, DELHI is written as
4
5
12
8
9
D
E
L
H
I
7
11
21
20
24
G
K
U
T
X
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Let N be the greatest number that will divide 6360, 7420 and 9540, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
Correct
Solution (a)
N = H.C.F. of (9540 – 6360), (9540 – 7420) and (7420 – 6360)
H.C.F. of 3180, 2120 and 1060 = 1060.
Sum of digits in N = (1 + 0 + 6 + 0) = 7.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
N = H.C.F. of (9540 – 6360), (9540 – 7420) and (7420 – 6360)
H.C.F. of 3180, 2120 and 1060 = 1060.
Sum of digits in N = (1 + 0 + 6 + 0) = 7.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
If we listed all numbers from 100 to 10,000, how many times would the digit 5 is printed?
a) 3980
b) 3700
c) 3840
d) 3780
Correct
Solution (a)
We need to consider all three digit and all 4-digit numbers.
Three-digit numbers: A B C. 5 can be printed in the 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.
=> 100’s place: 5 B C.
B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 100 times
=> 10’s place: A 5 C. A can take values 1 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 90 times
=> Unit’s place: A B 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 90 times So, 5 gets printed 280 times in 3-digit numbers
Four-digit numbers: A B C D. 5 can be printed in the 1000’s place, 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.
=> 1000’s place: 5 B C D. B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9, D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 get printed in the 100’s place 1000 times.
=> 100’s place: A 5 C D. A can take values 1 to 9, C & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 900 times.
=> 10’s place: A B 5 D. A can take values 1 to 9, B & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 900 times.
=> Unit’s place: A B C 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B & C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 900 times.
5 get printed 3700 times in 4-digit numbers.
So, there are totally 3700 + 280 = 3980 numbers.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
We need to consider all three digit and all 4-digit numbers.
Three-digit numbers: A B C. 5 can be printed in the 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.
=> 100’s place: 5 B C.
B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 100 times
=> 10’s place: A 5 C. A can take values 1 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 90 times
=> Unit’s place: A B 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 90 times So, 5 gets printed 280 times in 3-digit numbers
Four-digit numbers: A B C D. 5 can be printed in the 1000’s place, 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.
=> 1000’s place: 5 B C D. B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9, D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 get printed in the 100’s place 1000 times.
=> 100’s place: A 5 C D. A can take values 1 to 9, C & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 900 times.
=> 10’s place: A B 5 D. A can take values 1 to 9, B & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 900 times.
=> Unit’s place: A B C 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B & C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 900 times.
5 get printed 3700 times in 4-digit numbers.
So, there are totally 3700 + 280 = 3980 numbers.
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
A cube has all its faces painted in different colors. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with none of the sides painted is:
a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) Not even one
Correct
Solution (b)
Total number of cubes after cutting = n^3 = (4)^3 = 64 (n = number of pieces)
Cube with 3-sides painted = 8 (for a proper cube number of the cube at corner is always 8)
Cube with 2-sides painted = 12(n − 2) = 12(4 − 2) = 24
Cube with 1 side painted = 6(n − 2) 2 = 6(4 − 2) 2 = 24
Cube with no side painted = (Total number of smaller cubes − cubes with at least one side painted)
[64− (8 + 24+ 24)] = 8
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Total number of cubes after cutting = n^3 = (4)^3 = 64 (n = number of pieces)
Cube with 3-sides painted = 8 (for a proper cube number of the cube at corner is always 8)
Cube with 2-sides painted = 12(n − 2) = 12(4 − 2) = 24
Cube with 1 side painted = 6(n − 2) 2 = 6(4 − 2) 2 = 24
Cube with no side painted = (Total number of smaller cubes − cubes with at least one side painted)
[64− (8 + 24+ 24)] = 8
window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || [];
window.wpProQuizInitList.push({
id: '#wpProQuiz_3685',
init: {
quizId: 3685,
mode: 1,
globalPoints: 70,
timelimit: 1800,
resultsGrade: [0],
bo: 704,
qpp: 0,
catPoints: [70],
formPos: 0,
lbn: "Test-summary",
json: {"33104":{"type":"single","id":33104,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33105":{"type":"single","id":33105,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33108":{"type":"single","id":33108,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33111":{"type":"single","id":33111,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33113":{"type":"single","id":33113,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33116":{"type":"single","id":33116,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33119":{"type":"single","id":33119,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33120":{"type":"single","id":33120,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33121":{"type":"single","id":33121,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33123":{"type":"single","id":33123,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33125":{"type":"single","id":33125,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33127":{"type":"single","id":33127,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33130":{"type":"single","id":33130,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33131":{"type":"single","id":33131,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33132":{"type":"single","id":33132,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33134":{"type":"single","id":33134,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33137":{"type":"single","id":33137,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33138":{"type":"single","id":33138,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33140":{"type":"single","id":33140,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33142":{"type":"single","id":33142,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33144":{"type":"single","id":33144,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33147":{"type":"single","id":33147,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33150":{"type":"single","id":33150,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33151":{"type":"single","id":33151,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33153":{"type":"single","id":33153,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33156":{"type":"single","id":33156,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33157":{"type":"single","id":33157,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33159":{"type":"single","id":33159,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33162":{"type":"single","id":33162,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33164":{"type":"single","id":33164,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33165":{"type":"single","id":33165,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33167":{"type":"single","id":33167,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33170":{"type":"single","id":33170,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33171":{"type":"single","id":33171,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33172":{"type":"single","id":33172,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} }
});
All the Best
IASbaba
