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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Agroforestry Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Agriculture Context: Uptake of agroforestry remains restricted to farmers with medium or large landholdings.Small scale farmers are yet to adapt agroforestry.The adoption of agroforestry at scale in India must include smallholders, who hold most of India’s agricultural land. Background:- Agriculture in India has historically been a diversified land-use practice, integrating crops, trees, and livestock. This technique, broadly called agroforestry, can enhance farmer livelihoods and the environment and is slowly gaining in popularity after decades of the modus operandus of monocropping inspired by the Green Revolution. Small scale farmers and Agroforestry India’s efforts to promote agroforestry received an impetus nearly 10 years ago with the establishment of the National Agroforestry Policy (2014).Yet the uptake of agroforestry remains restricted to farmers with medium or large landholdings. This pattern is unsurprising since smallholder farmers seldom grow trees because of their long gestation, a lack of incentive or investment-based capital, and weak market linkages. Challenges: The Ministry of Agriculture recognised water availability as a challenge when it drafted the National Agroforestry Policy in 2014. Yet the problem remains relevant and is especially acute for smallholders, who need additional funding to secure water and/or who incur additional debt in doing so. Moreover, water availability is critical during the sapling stage but remains a constant concern if the trees compete with crops for water in water-constrained environments. Choosing the right species for the right place and the right reason is elemental for agroforestry to enhance the sustainability of livelihoods. Farmers, however, are drawn to tree species that are fast-growing and repel herbivores, but such species are also generally non-native and threaten soil health and human well-being. New and existing government policies and schemes that can facilitate transition to agroforestry are standardised, accounting neither for land-holding size nor, importantly, regional biophysical variabilities. As a result, these schemes inherently exclude smallholders. For example, the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme 2023, which certifies agroforestry and wood-based products as sustainable, has an exhaustive list of eligibility criteria for farmers and industries.But it remains to be seen if its array of socio-economic and environmental parameters will place certification costs beyond the reach of smallholders. Source: Hindu Dubai floods and Cloud Seeding Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: Following the floods, questions were raised whether cloud seeding, a process that the UAE frequently conducts, could have caused the heavy rains. Background: A storm hit the United Arab Emirates and Oman this week bringing record rainfall that flooded highways, inundated houses, grid-locked traffic and trapped people in their homes. Did cloud seeding cause the storm? Rainfall is rare in the UAE and elsewhere on the Arabian Peninsula, that is typically known for its dry desert climate. Summer air temperatures can soar above 50 degrees Celsius. Following Tuesday’s events, questions were raised whether cloud seeding, a process that the UAE frequently conducts, could have caused the heavy rains. Cloud seeding is a process in which chemicals are implanted into clouds to increase rainfall in an environment where water scarcity is a concern. The UAE, located in one of the hottest and driest regions on earth, has been leading the effort to seed clouds and increase precipitation. But the UAE’s meteorology agency said thatthere were no such operations before the storm. The huge rainfall was instead likely due to a normal weather system that was exacerbated by climate change, experts say. Climate scientists say that rising global temperatures, caused by human-led climate change, is leading to more extreme weather events around the world, including intense rainfall. Rainfall from thunderstorms, like the ones seen in UAE in recent days, sees a particular strong increase with warming. This is because convection, which is the strong updraft in thunderstorms, strengthens in a warmer world. Rainfall was becoming much heavier around the world as the climate warms because a warmer atmosphere can hold more moisture. It was misleading to talk about cloud seeding as the cause of the heavy rainfall, experts say. Source: The Hindu IMPORTED INFLATION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Economy Context: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has recently issued a cautionary note regarding India’s vulnerability to imported inflation. Background: The ADB’s warning underscores the need for vigilance in managing currency fluctuations and interest rate dynamics to mitigate the potential impact of imported inflation on India’s economy. About IMPORTED INFLATION Imported inflation refers to a situation where the general price level in a country rises due to an increase in the costs of imported products. The factors behind the Imported Inflation: Exchange Rates: Fluctuations in exchange rates play a significant role. When a country’s currency depreciates against foreign currencies, the cost of imports rises. Essentially, more money is needed to purchase goods and services from abroad. Commodity Prices: Many countries heavily rely on imported commodities such as oil, metals, and agricultural products. When global commodity prices increase, it directly impacts the cost of imports, potentially leading to higher inflation within the importing nation. Trade Policies and Global Supply Chains: Changes in trade policies (such as tariffs and quotas) can influence the cost of imported goods. Additionally, disruptions in global supply chains affect transportation costs, which, in turn, impact the final cost of imported products. Impact on Production Costs: Imported inflation affects companies’ production costs. These companies often pass on the increased costs to consumers by raising prices, leading to general inflation across the economy. Recent Scenario in India: The weakening of the Indian rupee in recent months has raised concerns about imported inflation. Factors such as growing risk aversion among investors, geopolitical tensions, and changes in monetary policy have contributed to the rupee’s depreciation. India’s reliance on imports of crude oil and gold makes it susceptible to price fluctuations in these commodities. Rising prices of these products can directly impact the country’s import bill and overall inflation. Source: Hindu TIGER TRIUMPH-24 EXERCISE Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Tiger Triumph-24 exercise has concluded recently. Background: This exercise reinforces the robust strategic partnership between India and the United States in humanitarian assistance and disaster relief efforts. About TIGER TRIUMPH-24 EXERCISE: The TIGER TRIUMPH-24 is a bilateral tri-Service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise conducted between India and the United States. The exercise aimed to develop interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries. The exercise included activities such as amphibious landings, setting up field hospitals, and establishing camps for displaced persons. It represents the strategic partnership between both nations and their commitment to sharing best practices in multinational HADR operations. Participating units included the Indian Navy, Army, and Air Force, as well as the US Navy and Marine Corps. Source: Hindustan Times ATHLETICS FEDERATION OF INDIA (AFI) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) recently took an unprecedented step by disaffiliating 16 district associations across the country. Background: These districts failed to send teams for the National inter-district junior athletics meet held in Ahmedabad in February. About ATHLETICS FEDERATION OF INDIA (AFI): The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the apex body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. The AFI was formed in 1946 and has since played a crucial role in promoting and managing athletics across the country. It is affiliated with World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association. The AFI has 32 affiliated state units and institutional units. The AFI’s efforts contribute significantly to the development and success of Indian athletes on both national and international stages Responsibilities: National Championships: The AFI organizes the National Championships. Training and Selection: It trains Indian Athletics National Campers and selects Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics, Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, World Championships, and other international meets. Promotion and Development: The AFI conducts international and national championships, as well as various meets, to promote the sport and make athletics commercially attractive for further growth. Grassroots Promotion: It supervises and assists state units, plans coaching camps, and initiates development programs for grassroots promotion of athletics in India. Source: The Hindu Illegal Migration Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: The Gujarat Crime Investigation Department (CID) is probing the case of possible illegal immigration related to the Nicaragua-bound plane carrying Indians, which was grounded in France. Background: Days after the statements of passengers in the infamous Nicaragua-bound flight were recorded, theGujarat Police filed a First Information Report (FIR) against 14 immigration agents for reportedly being involved in human trafficking. The Police have discovered an international network of agents engaged in this operation, offering illegal immigration through the U.S.-Mexico border and the help of attorneys in the U.S. thereon. Illegal Migration: It refers to the transboundary migration of people from one country to another without valid documents, using illegal means. In the Indian context, as per the Citizenship Act, of 1955, an illegal migrant is defined as, a foreigner who enters India, without a valid passport or other prescribed travel documents, or with a valid passport or other prescribed travel documents but remains in India beyond the permitted time period. Reasons for Illegal Migration: Economic factors include poverty, lack of economic opportunities, stagnation of income, etc., that may force an individual or a group to look beyond their home country for better economic opportunities. Real or Perceived promise of better opportunities in destination countries. For, the promise of ‘The American Dream’ still attracts a lot of migrants both legal and illegal to the U.S.A. Smuggling of migrants is a highly profitable illicit activity with a relatively low risk of detection. As of October 2023, 2925 illegal agents have been notified in India through the e-Migrate portal. Political and religious persecution has led to refugees and illegal immigrants from Tibet, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Pakistan, and Bangladesh finding shelter in India. Overpopulation may lead to a crisis of living space. E.g. In countries like Bangladesh where high population density has led to illegal migration in Northeastern States of India. Natural disasters may force people to migrate for survival and better living conditions. E.g., Illegal migration from the Sahel region of Africa due to frequent droughts. Social networks established by previous migrants attract more migrants from similar communities, often resulting in migration through illegal routes in the absence of other options. Impacts of Illegal Migration: Illegal and undocumented migrants lack legal safeguards and thus are prone to informal, temporary, or unprotected jobs and even forced labour. Illegal migrants are vulnerable to multiple inhumane conditions and criminal offences like assault, rape, or extortion during their arduous journeys or at the destination region. Illegal migrants face constant fear of being deported by the authorities and may also be mistreated during detention. E.g., Detention centers in the US for illegal migrants, are often alleged to have poor living conditions impacting the physical, mental, and social health of detainees including children. Large-scale illegal migration may distort existing demography and pose a threat to existing socio-cultural identity. The threat to Assamese identity due to illegal migration from Bangladesh has given rise to various socio-political tensions in Assam. Often organized criminal groups are involved in smuggling migrants across borders. E.g., US-Mexico Border. Issues/Challenges in Tackling Illegal Migration: Centre in an affidavit filed in SC held that the ‘clandestine and surreptitious’ manner of entry of illegal migrants makes it difficult to have an accurate data collection. Porous borders facilitate the flow of illegal migrants across multiple countries using Donkey routes/flights. Poor regulation of travel agencies has led to the cropping up of unscrupulous travel and placement agents running illegal operations, particularly in regions where demand for moving abroad is high. Lack of coordination due to cross country dimension of international human trafficking networks requires extensive international cooperation of law enforcement agencies. Organized criminals have established professional networks that transcend borders and encompass all regions. Absence or inadequacy of national legislation to address the smuggling of migrants in many parts of the world. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), consider the following statements: The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the apex body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. It is affiliated with the Indian Olympic Association. It selects Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) With reference to the Tiger Triumph-24 exercise, consider the following statements: It is a bilateral exercise conducted between India and the United States. The exercise aimed to develop interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following: Depreciation of Indian rupee Increase in global commodity prices Changes in trade policies How many of the above causes the imported inflation in India? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

[DAY 40] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following pairs: Temple            Dynasty/ Rule 1.     Kailashnath Temple Rashtrakutas 2.     Ajanta Caves Hoysalas 3.     Elephanta Caves Kalachuris 4.     Airavateshwara Temple Pallavas How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kailashnath temple at the Ellora caves is one of the largest rock-cut temples in India. The construction of the temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. Ajanta caves are a group of Buddhist cave monuments. The temples are believed to be constructed during the period of 400 to 650 AD. The construction of these temples is believed to have been started by the Satavahanas. However, most of the caves have been constructed under the patronage of the Vakatakas. Elephanta caves are rock cut caves. They are devoted to Hinduism. The famous sculpture of Sadashiva is located here. They are believed to be constructed by the Kalachuris. Airavateshwara temple is a temple located in the town of Darasuram in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. This temple was built by Rajaraja Chola II. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kailashnath temple at the Ellora caves is one of the largest rock-cut temples in India. The construction of the temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. Ajanta caves are a group of Buddhist cave monuments. The temples are believed to be constructed during the period of 400 to 650 AD. The construction of these temples is believed to have been started by the Satavahanas. However, most of the caves have been constructed under the patronage of the Vakatakas. Elephanta caves are rock cut caves. They are devoted to Hinduism. The famous sculpture of Sadashiva is located here. They are believed to be constructed by the Kalachuris. Airavateshwara temple is a temple located in the town of Darasuram in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. This temple was built by Rajaraja Chola II. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Pallavas: Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. Perundevanar translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. This style of Pallava temples are seen at places like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirappalli, Vallam, Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram. Perundevanar was patronized by Nandivarman II and he translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Mahendravaraman I composed the Sanskrit play Mattavilasaprahasanam. Tamil literature had also developed.  The Nayanmars and Alwars composed religious hymns in Tamil. The Devaram composed by Nayanmars and the Nalayradivyaprabandam composed by Alwars represent the religious literature of the Pallava period. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. This style of Pallava temples are seen at places like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirappalli, Vallam, Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram. Perundevanar was patronized by Nandivarman II and he translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Mahendravaraman I composed the Sanskrit play Mattavilasaprahasanam. Tamil literature had also developed.  The Nayanmars and Alwars composed religious hymns in Tamil. The Devaram composed by Nayanmars and the Nalayradivyaprabandam composed by Alwars represent the religious literature of the Pallava period. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Shikharas under Nagara temples: The shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekha-Prasada type of shikara. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Valabhi type are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the Shikhara. The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekhaprasada type of shikara. The second major type of architectural form in the Nagara order is the Phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the center of the building, unlike the Latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline. The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the Valabhi type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually called ‘wagon vaulted buildings’. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the Shikhara. The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekhaprasada type of shikara. The second major type of architectural form in the Nagara order is the Phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the center of the building, unlike the Latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline. The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the Valabhi type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually called ‘wagon vaulted buildings’. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which of the following temples is/are located in Kanchipuram? Ulagalanda Perumal Temple Varadharaja Perumal temple Ekambaresvara Temple Kailasanathar Temple Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Ulagalanda Perumal Temple: This temple has a unique feature of having four Divya Desams in the same complex, which is not seen anywhere. Varadharaja Perumal temple: Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, it is one of the 108 Divya Desams visited by all the 12 Alwar saints. It has a ‘hundred pillar’ Mandapam built by the Vijayanagara kings. Ekambaresvara Temple: It is one of the five major Shiva temples of Pancha Bootha Sthalams (each representing a natural element) representing the element – Earth; The temple’s Raja Gopuram is one of the tallest (57m) in south India and was built by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya; One notable feature is the Aayiram Kaal Mandapam, or the ‘hallway with a thousand pillars’. Kailasanathar Temple: Built by the Pallava king Rajasimha I (Narasimhavarman II), it is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram. The temple’s sanctum sanctorum contains a unique 16- sided Shivalinga carved out of black granite   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Ulagalanda Perumal Temple: This temple has a unique feature of having four Divya Desams in the same complex, which is not seen anywhere. Varadharaja Perumal temple: Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, it is one of the 108 Divya Desams visited by all the 12 Alwar saints. It has a ‘hundred pillar’ Mandapam built by the Vijayanagara kings. Ekambaresvara Temple: It is one of the five major Shiva temples of Pancha Bootha Sthalams (each representing a natural element) representing the element – Earth; The temple’s Raja Gopuram is one of the tallest (57m) in south India and was built by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya; One notable feature is the Aayiram Kaal Mandapam, or the ‘hallway with a thousand pillars’. Kailasanathar Temple: Built by the Pallava king Rajasimha I (Narasimhavarman II), it is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram. The temple’s sanctum sanctorum contains a unique 16- sided Shivalinga carved out of black granite   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Odisha School of architecture: The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. The mandapa was known as Jagmohan. The interior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings, but exterior walls were plain. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct sub-style within the nagara order. In general, here the shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. In general, the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning Mastaka. This makes the spire nearly cylindrical in appearance in its length. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.   Compartments and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples are lavishly carved, their interiors generally quite bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct sub-style within the nagara order. In general, here the shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. In general, the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning Mastaka. This makes the spire nearly cylindrical in appearance in its length. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.   Compartments and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples are lavishly carved, their interiors generally quite bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Who among the following authored ‘The Mattavilasa Prahasana’? a) Ravikirti b) Pulikesin II c) Mahendravarman I d) Rajendra Chola Correct Solution (c) The Mattavilasa Prahasana: Mattavilasa Prahasana, is a short one-act Sanskrit play. It is one of the two great one act plays written by Pallava King Mahendravarman I in the beginning of the seventh century in Tamil Nadu. Mattavilasa Prahasana is a satire that pokes fun at the peculiar aspects of the heretic Kapalika and Pasupata Saivite sects, Buddhists and Jainism. The setting of the play is Kanchipuram, the capital city of the Pallava kingdom in the seventh century. The play revolves around the drunken antics of a Kapalika mendicant, Satyasoma, his woman, Devasoma, and the loss and recovery of their skull-bowl. The act describes a dispute between a drunken Kapali and the Buddhist monk. The inebriated Kapali suspects the Buddhist monk of stealing his begging bowl made from a skull, but after a drawn-out argument it is found to have been taken away by a dog. Incorrect Solution (c) The Mattavilasa Prahasana: Mattavilasa Prahasana, is a short one-act Sanskrit play. It is one of the two great one act plays written by Pallava King Mahendravarman I in the beginning of the seventh century in Tamil Nadu. Mattavilasa Prahasana is a satire that pokes fun at the peculiar aspects of the heretic Kapalika and Pasupata Saivite sects, Buddhists and Jainism. The setting of the play is Kanchipuram, the capital city of the Pallava kingdom in the seventh century. The play revolves around the drunken antics of a Kapalika mendicant, Satyasoma, his woman, Devasoma, and the loss and recovery of their skull-bowl. The act describes a dispute between a drunken Kapali and the Buddhist monk. The inebriated Kapali suspects the Buddhist monk of stealing his begging bowl made from a skull, but after a drawn-out argument it is found to have been taken away by a dog. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the cultural history of the Chola Empire, consider the following pairs: Term Description Tirumurai Writings of the Saivite saints Variyam Village committees for local governance Valangai Type of caste division in Tamil land   How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) None of the above pairs d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A number of popular saints, called the Nayanmars and the Alvars, who were the devotees of Siva and Vishnu, respectively, flourished in the Tamil kingdoms between the sixth and the ninth centuries. They composed their works in Tamil. The writings of the Saivite saints, which were collected into 11 volumes under the name Tirumurai in the early part of the twelfth century, are considered sacred and are looked upon as the fifth Veda. Village committees under the Chola rule were called as Variyam. They were divided into 6 types, such as Samvatsara Variyam, Eri Variyam, Thotta Variyam, Pancha Variyam, Pon Variyam and Puravuvari Variyam, to take up 6 different functions of the village administration. The committee members were called the Variyapperumakkal. The inscriptions of the later period of the Chola rule mention two major divisions among the castes – Valangai and Idangai castes. However, there was cooperation among various castes and subcastes in the social and religious life. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A number of popular saints, called the Nayanmars and the Alvars, who were the devotees of Siva and Vishnu, respectively, flourished in the Tamil kingdoms between the sixth and the ninth centuries. They composed their works in Tamil. The writings of the Saivite saints, which were collected into 11 volumes under the name Tirumurai in the early part of the twelfth century, are considered sacred and are looked upon as the fifth Veda. Village committees under the Chola rule were called as Variyam. They were divided into 6 types, such as Samvatsara Variyam, Eri Variyam, Thotta Variyam, Pancha Variyam, Pon Variyam and Puravuvari Variyam, to take up 6 different functions of the village administration. The committee members were called the Variyapperumakkal. The inscriptions of the later period of the Chola rule mention two major divisions among the castes – Valangai and Idangai castes. However, there was cooperation among various castes and subcastes in the social and religious life. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta: Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Vakataka kingdom were the important patrons at Ajanta. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The most famous cave site Ajanta is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State. It has large chaitya-viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. The caves at Ajanta as well as in western Deccan in general have no precise chronology because of the lack of known dated inscriptions. Paintings have a lot of typological variations. Outward projections are used in the Ajanta paintings of the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Lines are clearly defined and are very rhythmic. Body color gets merged with the outer line creating the effect of volume. The figures are heavy like the sculptures of western India. Among the important patrons at Ajanta were Varahadeva (patron of Cave No. 16), the prime minister of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Upendragupta (patron of Cave Nos. 17–20) the local king of the region and feudatory of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Buddhabhadra (patron of Cave No. 26); and Mathuradasa (patron of Cave No. 4). Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The most famous cave site Ajanta is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State. It has large chaitya-viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. The caves at Ajanta as well as in western Deccan in general have no precise chronology because of the lack of known dated inscriptions. Paintings have a lot of typological variations. Outward projections are used in the Ajanta paintings of the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Lines are clearly defined and are very rhythmic. Body color gets merged with the outer line creating the effect of volume. The figures are heavy like the sculptures of western India. Among the important patrons at Ajanta were Varahadeva (patron of Cave No. 16), the prime minister of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Upendragupta (patron of Cave Nos. 17–20) the local king of the region and feudatory of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Buddhabhadra (patron of Cave No. 26); and Mathuradasa (patron of Cave No. 4). Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements regarding Kalinga school of temple architecture: Large gopurams and water tanks are present in temple premises. It is characterized by ‘mandaps’ or dance pavilions. It is a sub-style of Dravidian style of temple architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gopurams and Large water tanks in temple premises are features of Dravidian style of temple architecture. In this, Shikhara (called Deul in Odisha) is almost vertical before it curves near the top. Shikhara is preceded by a mandapa (called Jagmohan or ‘dance pavilion’ in Odisha).   Kaḷinga architectural style is a sub-style of Nagara architecture, flourished in the ancient Kalinga region – present state of Odisha, West Bengal and northern Andhra Pradesh. The style consists of three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula. The Rekha Deula and Khakhara Deula house the sanctum sanctorum, while the Pidha Deula constitutes outer dancing and offering halls. Examples of Kalinga architecture are Rajarani temple (Bhubaneshwar); Jagannath Temple, Puri. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gopurams and Large water tanks in temple premises are features of Dravidian style of temple architecture. In this, Shikhara (called Deul in Odisha) is almost vertical before it curves near the top. Shikhara is preceded by a mandapa (called Jagmohan or ‘dance pavilion’ in Odisha).   Kaḷinga architectural style is a sub-style of Nagara architecture, flourished in the ancient Kalinga region – present state of Odisha, West Bengal and northern Andhra Pradesh. The style consists of three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula. The Rekha Deula and Khakhara Deula house the sanctum sanctorum, while the Pidha Deula constitutes outer dancing and offering halls. Examples of Kalinga architecture are Rajarani temple (Bhubaneshwar); Jagannath Temple, Puri. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the temple architecture styles are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings? a) Vijayanagara temples b) Pallavas temples c) Chalukyan temples d) Hoysala temples Correct Solution (d) Hoysala temples: The Hoysaleswara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in dark schist stone by the Hoysala king in 1150. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or Vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings. Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja, the Halebid temple is a double building with a large hall for the mandapa to facilitate music and dance. A Nandi pavilion precedes each building. The tower of the temple here and at nearby Belur fell long ago, and an idea of the temples’ appearance can now only be gleaned from their detailed miniature versions flanking the entrances. From the central square plan cut-out angular projections create the star effect decorated with the most profuse carvings of animals and deities. So intricate is the carving that it is said, for instance, in the bottom-most frieze featuring a continuous procession of hundreds of elephants with their mahouts, no two elephants are in the same pose. Incorrect Solution (d) Hoysala temples: The Hoysaleswara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in dark schist stone by the Hoysala king in 1150. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or Vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings. Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja, the Halebid temple is a double building with a large hall for the mandapa to facilitate music and dance. A Nandi pavilion precedes each building. The tower of the temple here and at nearby Belur fell long ago, and an idea of the temples’ appearance can now only be gleaned from their detailed miniature versions flanking the entrances. From the central square plan cut-out angular projections create the star effect decorated with the most profuse carvings of animals and deities. So intricate is the carving that it is said, for instance, in the bottom-most frieze featuring a continuous procession of hundreds of elephants with their mahouts, no two elephants are in the same pose. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following elements are associated with the Dravida style of temples? Water tank Multiple Shikharas Pyramidal Vimana River goddesses at the entrance of the Garbhagriha Tall gateways Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex. The north Indian idea of multiple Shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in south India. Stepped pyramid shaped Shikhara, which rises up geometrically. At the entrance to the north Indian temple’s Garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images, such as the Mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, whereas in the south you will generally find sculptures of the fierce Dwarapala or the door-keepers guarding the temple. Dravida temples are enclosed within a compound wall. The enclosure wall has a tall entrance gateway, called the Gopuram. There can be multiple Gopurams also. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex. The north Indian idea of multiple Shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in south India. Stepped pyramid shaped Shikhara, which rises up geometrically. At the entrance to the north Indian temple’s Garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images, such as the Mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, whereas in the south you will generally find sculptures of the fierce Dwarapala or the door-keepers guarding the temple. Dravida temples are enclosed within a compound wall. The enclosure wall has a tall entrance gateway, called the Gopuram. There can be multiple Gopurams also. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about the Pala School of Architecture They built temples in the vanga style. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism only Buddhist art was encouraged. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct In the Pala School of Architecture, temples were built in the vanga style. These included Mahavihar, Chaityas, Temples, Terracottas, and Stupas. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism, Buddhist art was encouraged but they were tolerant towards Hindus and encouraged temple architecture too. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. The curved Shikhara and lancet window of the brick-built medieval Siva temple in Bihar was built by Narayan pala. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct In the Pala School of Architecture, temples were built in the vanga style. These included Mahavihar, Chaityas, Temples, Terracottas, and Stupas. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism, Buddhist art was encouraged but they were tolerant towards Hindus and encouraged temple architecture too. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. The curved Shikhara and lancet window of the brick-built medieval Siva temple in Bihar was built by Narayan pala. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Cholas. Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram is one of the finest examples of Provida style of architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. It had a depiction of animals like horses and elephants on the walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire.   Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram and Vithalswami and Hazara temples at Hampi are examples of Provida style of architecture. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. It had a depiction of animals like horses and elephants on the walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire.   Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram and Vithalswami and Hazara temples at Hampi are examples of Provida style of architecture. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following Unao Kumbakonam Arasavalli Which of the above places are famous for Sun Temples in India? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) The famous Sun Temples in India are – Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha Martand Sun temple, Kashmir Katarmal Sun Temple, Uttarakhand Dakshinarkaa temple Gaya, Bihar Bhramanya temple, Unao, Madhya Pradesh Surya Prahaar temple, Assam Suryanar Kovil Temple at Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu Suryanarayana temple at Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh Incorrect Solution (d) The famous Sun Temples in India are – Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha Martand Sun temple, Kashmir Katarmal Sun Temple, Uttarakhand Dakshinarkaa temple Gaya, Bihar Bhramanya temple, Unao, Madhya Pradesh Surya Prahaar temple, Assam Suryanar Kovil Temple at Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu Suryanarayana temple at Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements about the Panch Rathas temples They are classified as the Mahendra group of Chola architecture. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas. They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Pancha Rathas is a monument complex at Mahabalipuram, on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, in the Kancheepuram district of the state of Tamil Nadu, India. Pancha Rathas is an example of monolithic Indian rock-cut architecture. The complex was initially thought to have carved during the reign of King Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE.) However, historians such as Nagaswamy attributed all of monuments in Mahabalipuram to Narasimhavarman II (c. 690–725 CE) with the discovery of new inscriptions. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas.   They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The monoliths are named after the Pandavas – Arjuna, Bhima, Yudhishthira (“Dharmaraja”), Nakula and Sahadeva – and Draupadi. These names are considered to be a misrepresentation as the structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic. They have no religious significance either, as they remained unfinished and unconsecrated; the uncut rock parts at the base and top of the rathas are still visible. The ASI confirmed the unfinished nature of the structures and suggested that they instead be referred to as vimanas. However, the Pandava names have become permanent. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Pancha Rathas is a monument complex at Mahabalipuram, on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, in the Kancheepuram district of the state of Tamil Nadu, India. Pancha Rathas is an example of monolithic Indian rock-cut architecture. The complex was initially thought to have carved during the reign of King Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE.) However, historians such as Nagaswamy attributed all of monuments in Mahabalipuram to Narasimhavarman II (c. 690–725 CE) with the discovery of new inscriptions. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas.   They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The monoliths are named after the Pandavas – Arjuna, Bhima, Yudhishthira (“Dharmaraja”), Nakula and Sahadeva – and Draupadi. These names are considered to be a misrepresentation as the structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic. They have no religious significance either, as they remained unfinished and unconsecrated; the uncut rock parts at the base and top of the rathas are still visible. The ASI confirmed the unfinished nature of the structures and suggested that they instead be referred to as vimanas. However, the Pandava names have become permanent. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Regarding Indian Classical Music, consider the following statements Raga is the basis of rhythm and Tala is the basis of melody. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Raga is the basis of melody and Tala is the basis of rhythm. The term ‘raga’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Ranj,’ which means to delight, make happy, and satisfy someone. The ragas serve as the foundation for the melody, while the tala serves as the foundation for the rhythm. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Each raga’s melodic structure has something in common with the subject’s distinct personality and the mood evoked by the sounds. The basic elements required for the operation of a raga is the note on which it is based. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Ex: Hindol Raga is used during the morning. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Raga is the basis of melody and Tala is the basis of rhythm. The term ‘raga’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Ranj,’ which means to delight, make happy, and satisfy someone. The ragas serve as the foundation for the melody, while the tala serves as the foundation for the rhythm. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Each raga’s melodic structure has something in common with the subject’s distinct personality and the mood evoked by the sounds. The basic elements required for the operation of a raga is the note on which it is based. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Ex: Hindol Raga is used during the morning. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist text ‘Digha Nikaya’ It is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct ‘Digha Nikaya’ is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It is a Buddhist scripture, the first of the five nikayas, or collections, in the Sutta Pitaka.   It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. It points out that in the earliest stage, human beings lived happily. Gradually they began to own private property and set up houses with their wives, and this led to quarrels over property and women. To put an end to such quarrels, they elected a chief who would maintain law and order and protect the people. In return for protection, the people promised to give the chief a part of the paddy. The chief came to be called king, and that is how kingship or the state originated. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct ‘Digha Nikaya’ is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It is a Buddhist scripture, the first of the five nikayas, or collections, in the Sutta Pitaka.   It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. It points out that in the earliest stage, human beings lived happily. Gradually they began to own private property and set up houses with their wives, and this led to quarrels over property and women. To put an end to such quarrels, they elected a chief who would maintain law and order and protect the people. In return for protection, the people promised to give the chief a part of the paddy. The chief came to be called king, and that is how kingship or the state originated. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Samaveda. Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Rigveda.   Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. It is present in the 3rd Mandala. Rigveda is the oldest among the four Vedas and is arranged in 10 mandalas. The first mandala of Rigveda is dedicated to Indra and Agni. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Rigveda.   Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. It is present in the 3rd Mandala. Rigveda is the oldest among the four Vedas and is arranged in 10 mandalas. The first mandala of Rigveda is dedicated to Indra and Agni. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements about ‘Amuktamalyada’ It is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Amuktamalyada is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It was composed in the early 16th century. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Amuktamalyada is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It was composed in the early 16th century. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements Natyashastra is a ancient treatise which covers only Indian music and is written by the sage Bharata Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Natyashastra is a treatise on ancient Indian music, dance, and drama written by the sage Bharata around the 2nd century BCE. It is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts. Natyashastra is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts and has 36 chapters The 13th century Sanskrit text Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions..   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Natyashastra is a treatise on ancient Indian music, dance, and drama written by the sage Bharata around the 2nd century BCE. It is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts. Natyashastra is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts and has 36 chapters The 13th century Sanskrit text Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions..   Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT): It is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act of 1986. Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. It deals with civil cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991 and the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment). Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence statement 2 is correct. It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four. It deals with civil cases under the seven laws – Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act of 1977, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, and the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment). Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence statement 2 is correct. It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four. It deals with civil cases under the seven laws – Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act of 1977, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, and the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget. It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorization for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures. A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. Hence statement 2 is correct. During election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be granted for a period exceeding two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget. It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorization for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures. A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. Hence statement 2 is correct. During election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be granted for a period exceeding two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Which of the following are the criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language? High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 150-200 years. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence statement 3 is correct. The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language: Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages. A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up. The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared. Note: Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Incorrect Solution (b) Criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence statement 3 is correct. The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language: Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages. A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up. The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared. Note: Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Tibetan Brown Bear: It is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Context: A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.   The Tibetan Brown Bear is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears. It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream-to-cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest. It has small ears covered with long black fur. It has a lifespan of around 20 to 30 years. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and Appendix I of the CITES. Incorrect Solution (c) Context: A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.   The Tibetan Brown Bear is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears. It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream-to-cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest. It has small ears covered with long black fur. It has a lifespan of around 20 to 30 years. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and Appendix I of the CITES. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the FASTags: It is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. It is not vehicle-specific and it can be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The FASTags is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments. The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct. If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/topped up as per the usage of the customer. It is vehicle-specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The FASTags is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments. The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct. If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/topped up as per the usage of the customer. It is vehicle-specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the Bhitarkanika National Park: It is the largest mangrove ecosystem in India located in the state of Odisha. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India after Sunderbans, located in the state of Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It houses various species of mangroves spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Hence statement 2 is correct. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India. Incorrect Solution (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India after Sunderbans, located in the state of Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It houses various species of mangroves spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Hence statement 2 is correct. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Panama Canal: It is a natural waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It was built by the United States and is owned and administered by the United States. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 80 kilometers long. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal. The canal was built by the United Statesbetween 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914. It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panamasince the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 80 kilometers long. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal. The canal was built by the United Statesbetween 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914. It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panamasince the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic bacteria. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Hence statement 2 is correct. Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei. Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually. Incorrect Solution (b) Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Hence statement 2 is correct. Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei. Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about Guru Gobind Singh: He founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani and the Battle of Anandpur. His famous literary works are Jaap Sahib and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Guru Gobind Singh founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. Hence statement 1 is correct. He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches. He was the 10th and last human Guru of the Sikhs. Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur. He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana. Hence statement 2 is correct. His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas. His famous literary works are the Benti Chaupai, Jaap Sahib, and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. Hence statement 3 is correct. He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”). Incorrect Solution (c) Guru Gobind Singh founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. Hence statement 1 is correct. He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches. He was the 10th and last human Guru of the Sikhs. Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur. He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana. Hence statement 2 is correct. His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas. His famous literary works are the Benti Chaupai, Jaap Sahib, and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. Hence statement 3 is correct. He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”). Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the Jagannath Temple: It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Jagannath Temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located in Puri, Odisha. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. Kaḷinga architecture is a style that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present-day eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples – Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. Hence statement 3 is correct. It commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri. The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days. Incorrect Solution (c) The Jagannath Temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located in Puri, Odisha. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. Kaḷinga architecture is a style that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present-day eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples – Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. Hence statement 3 is correct. It commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri. The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days. Question 31 of 35 31. Question The ratio of the number of Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins that Ajay has is 6:11. If the number of Rs. 5 coins is halved than he will have an amount of Rs. 790. How many Rs. 2 coins does Ajay have? a) 84 b) 108 c) 120 d) 220 Correct Solution (c) Let Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins be 6x and 11x respectively Then, 6x * 2 + (11x/2) * 5 = 790 24x + 55x = 790 * 2 79x = 790 * 2 X = 20 Thus, Rs. 2 coins = 6 * 20 = Rs. 120   Incorrect Solution (c) Let Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins be 6x and 11x respectively Then, 6x * 2 + (11x/2) * 5 = 790 24x + 55x = 790 * 2 79x = 790 * 2 X = 20 Thus, Rs. 2 coins = 6 * 20 = Rs. 120   Question 32 of 35 32. Question A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container? a) 36 litres b) 32.4 litres c) 29.16 litres d) 28 litres Correct Solution (c) It is given in the question that a container contains 40 litres of milk. Then, it is said that 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated two more times which means that a total of three times the process was done. Now, after the third time, we have to find out how much milk is remaining in the container. So, let us find the amount of milk remaining step by step, so after every process we will find out the milk to water ratio.   After the first process, that is after replacing 4 litres of milk with 4 litres of water, we get (40 – 4) = 36 litres of milk and 4 litres of water in the container. So, the milk to water ratio is 36:4 that is 9:1.   For the second process, we have a mixture of milk and water, so we will take out 4 litres of the mixture which has the ratio 9:1, that is it has 9 parts of milk and 1 part of water. So, 4 litres of the mixture contains 3.6 litres of milk and 0.4 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and replacing it with 4 litres of water, the remaining amount of milk is (36 – 3.6) = 32.4 litres and the amount of water is (3.6 + 4) = 7.6 litres. So, the milk to water ratio is 32.4:7.6 in the container.   Now for the third process, 4 litres of the mixture is taken out which has the ratio 32.4:7.6, so it contains 3.24 litres of milk and 0.76 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and adding 4 litres of water, the amount of milk = (32.4 – 3.24) = 29.16 litres. Therefore, we get the amount of milk remaining in the container as 29.16 litres. Incorrect Solution (c) It is given in the question that a container contains 40 litres of milk. Then, it is said that 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated two more times which means that a total of three times the process was done. Now, after the third time, we have to find out how much milk is remaining in the container. So, let us find the amount of milk remaining step by step, so after every process we will find out the milk to water ratio.   After the first process, that is after replacing 4 litres of milk with 4 litres of water, we get (40 – 4) = 36 litres of milk and 4 litres of water in the container. So, the milk to water ratio is 36:4 that is 9:1.   For the second process, we have a mixture of milk and water, so we will take out 4 litres of the mixture which has the ratio 9:1, that is it has 9 parts of milk and 1 part of water. So, 4 litres of the mixture contains 3.6 litres of milk and 0.4 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and replacing it with 4 litres of water, the remaining amount of milk is (36 – 3.6) = 32.4 litres and the amount of water is (3.6 + 4) = 7.6 litres. So, the milk to water ratio is 32.4:7.6 in the container.   Now for the third process, 4 litres of the mixture is taken out which has the ratio 32.4:7.6, so it contains 3.24 litres of milk and 0.76 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and adding 4 litres of water, the amount of milk = (32.4 – 3.24) = 29.16 litres. Therefore, we get the amount of milk remaining in the container as 29.16 litres. Question 33 of 35 33. Question A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D, E in a household. If B, C, D, E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A? a) 112/9 b) 125/6 c) 155/9 d) 250/9 Correct Solution (d) A pie chart corresponds to 360 ° Items B, C, D and E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively on the pie chart. Angle corresponding to A in the pie chart = 360° – (75 °+ 55 °+ 80 °+ 50 °) = 100° So, percentage expenditure of the household on item A = (100/360) * 100 = 250/9 %   Incorrect Solution (d) A pie chart corresponds to 360 ° Items B, C, D and E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively on the pie chart. Angle corresponding to A in the pie chart = 360° – (75 °+ 55 °+ 80 °+ 50 °) = 100° So, percentage expenditure of the household on item A = (100/360) * 100 = 250/9 %   Question 34 of 35 34. Question If N and x are positive integers such that N^N = 2^160 and N^2 + 2^N is an integral multiple of 2^x, then the largest possible x is a) 12 b) 10 c) 13 d) 11 Correct Solution (b) Given that N and X are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x Now we have to find the largest possible value for x NN = 2160 We can rewrite this 2160 as (2p)q such that 2p = N = q pq = 160 We can try by substituting p and q with 2 and 80 respectively (22)80 = 480 This doesn’t work so we can try by substituting p and q with 4 and 40 respectively (24)40 = 1640 This also doesn’t work so now we can substitute p and q with 5 and 32 respectively Such that (25)32 = 3232 Now we can say that N = 32 N2 + 2N ⟹ 322 + 232 = 2x × k (where k is the integral multiple) N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 + 232 = 2x × k since 322 = (25)2 N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 (1 + 222) = 2x × k This (1 + 222) is an odd number so the number is going to be 210 × multiple of the odd number Hence the largest power of 2 can be 10 i.e. 210 Xmax = 10 The largest possible x is 10 The question is “If N and x are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x, then the largest possible x is 10 Hence, the answer is 10 Incorrect Solution (b) Given that N and X are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x Now we have to find the largest possible value for x NN = 2160 We can rewrite this 2160 as (2p)q such that 2p = N = q pq = 160 We can try by substituting p and q with 2 and 80 respectively (22)80 = 480 This doesn’t work so we can try by substituting p and q with 4 and 40 respectively (24)40 = 1640 This also doesn’t work so now we can substitute p and q with 5 and 32 respectively Such that (25)32 = 3232 Now we can say that N = 32 N2 + 2N ⟹ 322 + 232 = 2x × k (where k is the integral multiple) N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 + 232 = 2x × k since 322 = (25)2 N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 (1 + 222) = 2x × k This (1 + 222) is an odd number so the number is going to be 210 × multiple of the odd number Hence the largest power of 2 can be 10 i.e. 210 Xmax = 10 The largest possible x is 10 The question is “If N and x are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x, then the largest possible x is 10 Hence, the answer is 10 Question 35 of 35 35. Question In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 3, 12, 8, 19, 13, 32, 18, 42, 23, 52 a) 12 b) 19 c) 42 d) 32 Correct Solution (b) The sequence is a combination of following two series: (I) 3, 8, 13, 18, 23 and (II) 12, 19, 32, 42, 52 The pattern in (I) has a constant difference of +5 and the pattern in (II) has a constant difference of +10. So, in (II), 19 is wrong and should be replaced by (12+10), i.e., 22. Incorrect Solution (b) The sequence is a combination of following two series: (I) 3, 8, 13, 18, 23 and (II) 12, 19, 32, 42, 52 The pattern in (I) has a constant difference of +5 and the pattern in (II) has a constant difference of +10. So, in (II), 19 is wrong and should be replaced by (12+10), i.e., 22. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3649', init: { quizId: 3649, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32469":{"type":"single","id":32469,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32471":{"type":"single","id":32471,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32473":{"type":"single","id":32473,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32475":{"type":"single","id":32475,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32478":{"type":"single","id":32478,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32481":{"type":"single","id":32481,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32482":{"type":"single","id":32482,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32483":{"type":"single","id":32483,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32485":{"type":"single","id":32485,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32488":{"type":"single","id":32488,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32490":{"type":"single","id":32490,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32492":{"type":"single","id":32492,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32493":{"type":"single","id":32493,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32495":{"type":"single","id":32495,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32496":{"type":"single","id":32496,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32497":{"type":"single","id":32497,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32498":{"type":"single","id":32498,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32499":{"type":"single","id":32499,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32502":{"type":"single","id":32502,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32503":{"type":"single","id":32503,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32506":{"type":"single","id":32506,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32507":{"type":"single","id":32507,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32510":{"type":"single","id":32510,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32512":{"type":"single","id":32512,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32514":{"type":"single","id":32514,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32516":{"type":"single","id":32516,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32517":{"type":"single","id":32517,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32519":{"type":"single","id":32519,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32521":{"type":"single","id":32521,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32523":{"type":"single","id":32523,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32526":{"type":"single","id":32526,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32529":{"type":"single","id":32529,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32531":{"type":"single","id":32531,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32534":{"type":"single","id":32534,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32536":{"type":"single","id":32536,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Andaman and Nicobar Islands Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography, Security challenges Context: Various geopolitical events leading to the realisation of the critical importance of ocean power, the rapid enhancement in the capabilities of the Chinese PLA Navy, and the transformation of India’s Look East policy into a robust Act East policy have brought new thrust to developing Indian island territories in general and the Andaman and Nicobar groups in particular. Background:- The Andaman and Nicobar (A&N Islands) islands are located 700 nautical miles (1,300 km) southeast of the Indian mainland. Key takeaways Andaman and Nicobar islands share four of India’s international maritime zone delimitations with Myanmar, Thailand, Indonesia, and Bangladesh. They also give India substantial ocean space under the United Nations Conference on the Laws of the Sea (UNCLOS) in terms of exclusive economic zone and continental shelf. The Malacca Strait, the main waterway that connects the Indian Ocean to the Pacific, is less than a day’s steaming from Port Blair. The severe disruption and re-routing of shipping, occasioned by the Houthi attacks in the Red Sea, have served as yet another harsh and expensive reminder that “maritime choke points” constitute critical vulnerabilities for world trade and commerce. In this context, the Malacca Strait — more than 90,000 merchant ships carrying about 30 per cent of the world’s traded goods pass through it every year — presents a challenge as well as a latent opportunity for India. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of great strategic importance since they straddle one of the busiest sea lanes in the world and give India the reach to monitor the flow of traffic from the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean) to the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) via the Strait of Malacca that’s key to trade and oil shipments in the Indo-Pacific. Of significance for Indian strategists is the location of the Great Nicobar Island, which sits astride the western entrance/exit of the Malacca Strait and can comprehensively dominate all shipping — merchant as well as naval — in transit. The A&N Islands should be the first line of offence against any attempt from the East to undermine India’s maritime security. While some effort was made to leverage this locational advantage with the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) being constituted as a tri-services command in 2001, subsequent efforts have been grossly inadequate. Reasons for the Slow Pace of Infrastructural Development in the A&N Islands: Distance from the mainland and difficulties in developing infrastructure. Complex procedures for obtaining environmental clearances. Significant coordination challenges among ministries, departments, and agencies. Key areas to be focused on for the development of the A&N Islands: Development of separate airfields with long runways for monitoring and patrolling of sea areas by aircraft and surface platforms. Work on the Galathea Bay (Great Nicobar Island) transhipment port must be expedited. Maritime services such as repair and logistics must be developed for international and Indian shipping. Road networks, high-speed inter-island ferry services, and a seaplane terminal. Forest and environmental clearances must be accorded with minimum red tape. Planned habitation of uninhabited islands should be considered by providing incentives. Eco-friendly entrepreneurial efforts could be encouraged. Ports and fuel storages Source: Indian Express Marine Coldwaves Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: The effects of ocean warming are profound and well-documented. But sometimes changes in the patterns of winds and ocean currents cause seawater to suddenly cool, instead. Background: When a “killer coldwave” manifested along South Africa’s southeast coast in March 2021, it killed hundreds of animals across at least 81 species. More worrying still was the fact these deaths included vulnerable manta rays and even specimens of notoriously robust migratory bull sharks. About Cold waves Sometimes changes in the patterns of winds and ocean currents cause seawater to suddenly cool. Surface temperatures can plummet rapidly — by 10ºC or more over a day or two. When these conditions persist for several days or weeks, the area experiences a “coldwave”. Certain wind and current conditions can cause the sea surface to cool, rather than warm. This happens when winds and currents force coastal waters to move offshore, which are then replaced from below by cold water from the deep ocean. This process is known as In some places, such as California on the US west coast, upwelling happens regularly along hundreds of kilometres of coastline. But localised upwelling can occur seasonally on a smaller scale, too, often at the edges of bays on the east coasts of continents due to interactions of wind, current and coastline. Previous research had shown climate change induced changes in global wind and current patterns. Studies reveal an increasing trend in the number of annual upwelling events over the past 40 years. We also found an increase in the intensity of such upwelling events and the extent to which temperatures dropped on the first day of each event – in other words, how severe and sudden these cold snaps were. During the extreme upwelling event along the southeast coast of South Africa in March 2021, at least 260 animals from 81 species died. These included tropical fish, sharks and rays. Overall, our oceans are warming. The ranges of tropical and subtropical species are extending towards the poles. But along some major current systems, sudden short-term cooling can make life difficult for these climate migrants, or even kill them. This really shows the complexity of climate change, as tropical species would expand into higher-latitude areas as overall warming continues, which then places them at risk of exposure to sudden extreme cold events. Source: The Hindu ASHWAGANDHA (WITHANIA SOMNIFERA) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Ashwagandha is gaining global attention and popularity for its numerous health benefits. Background: Scientific research highlights its potential in stress management, cognitive function, physical performance, and more. About ASHWAGANDHA (WITHANIA SOMNIFERA) Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera), also known as Indian ginseng or winter cherry, is a prominent herb in Ayurveda, the traditional medicine system of India. It is renowned for its adaptogenic properties, which help the body manage stress. Some of the Potential Benefits and Uses of Ashwagandha: Stress and Anxiety Reduction: Ashwagandha may lower cortisol levels and mitigate stress and anxiety symptoms. Athletic Performance: It could potentially enhance physical performance and strength. Cognitive Function: There’s evidence suggesting it may improve memory and brain function. Anti-inflammatory Effects: Withanolides in Ashwagandha have anti-inflammatory properties. Sleep Improvement: Some studies indicate it may help improve sleep quality. Source: Hindu Businessline SPECIAL RUPEE VOSTRO ACCOUNT (SRVA) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:The Indian government has simplified the payment mechanism for traders importing pulses from Myanmar by implementing the Rupee/Kyat direct payment system through the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) via Punjab National Bank. Background: This move aims to streamline trade transactions and enhance efficiency. India heavily relies on imports of pulses, including tur and urad dals, from Myanmar to meet domestic demand. About SPECIAL RUPEE VOSTRO ACCOUNT (SRVA): Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, which, in this case, is the Indian Rupee (INR). It allows domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs without physically being present abroad. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the SRVA mechanism to settle international transactions in rupees. The primary objectives were to promote the growth of global trade, emphasize Indian exports, and position the rupee as an international currency. Why SRVA? The existing system primarily uses freely convertible currencies (like the US dollar or pound) for trade transactions. However, the SRVA serves as an additional arrangement to this system, specifically focusing on transactions denominated in INR. It aims to reduce costs associated with currency conversions and streamline trade processes. Key Components of SRVA: Invoicing: All exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in Indian National Rupee (INR). Exchange Rate: The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries is market-determined. Final Settlement: The ultimate settlement also takes place in INR. Benefits and Significance: Promoting Trade: SRVA facilitates smoother trade between India and other nations, including those facing sanctions (e.g., Russia). Reducing Currency Risks: By using INR, both parties avoid currency fluctuations and associated risks. Cost-Efficiency: Eliminating the need for multiple currency conversions saves costs for businesses. Source: Livemint Previous Year Question Q1. Convertibility of rupee implies being able to convert rupee notes into gold allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa developing an international market for currencies in India LAKE KARIBA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest El Nino drought.   Background: El Niño leads to hotter temperatures and significantly reduced rainfall in southern Africa for extended periods.   About LAKE KARIBA : Lake Kariba is renowned as the world’s largest artificial lake and reservoir by volume. It situated along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It was created following the completion of the Kariba Dam at its northeastern end, which flooded the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River. The lake was filled between 1958 and 1963 and is a significant source of hydroelectric power for both countries. This drastic decline in the water level of the Lake Kariba has a severe consequence for local communities, affecting livelihoods, economic activities, and the environment. The Zimbabwean government has declared a national disaster in response to this unfolding crisis. Source: Down To Earth Multilingualism in Education Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: With the advent of the New Education Policy (NEP) and recent initiatives like the NIPUN Bharat Mission that stresses the importance of using the mother tongue in the teaching-learning process and creating educational materials, we have an opportunity to revolutionise education. Background: In a diverse and culturally rich country like India, language is more than just a means of communication; it is the essence of our identity. Multilingualism: It is the ability to speak, understand, read, and write more than one language. It can be individual or societal, depending on whether a person or a community uses multiple languages. It can also be classified into different types, such as additive or subtractive, balanced or dominant, sequential or simultaneous, depending on how languages are acquired, used, and valued. India is one of the most linguistically diverse countries in the world, with over 19,500 languages spoken throughout the nation. According to the 2011 Census of India, more than 25% of the population speaks two languages, while about 7% speak three languages. Importance/Significance of Multilingualism in Education: Research shows that learning more than one language can boost brain functions, such as memory, attention, problem-solving, and creativity. It can also improve metalinguistic awareness, which is the ability to reflect on and manipulate language structures and rules. Learning multiple languages can expose students to different cultures, perspectives, and values. It can also help them develop intercultural competence, which is the ability to communicate effectively and appropriately with people from diverse backgrounds. With over 22 officially recognised languages and hundreds of dialects, each with its own unique cultural and historical significance, language is a crucial aspect of our identity. Studies have consistently shown that students who receive instruction in their mother tongue or home language perform better in school than those who are taught in a foreign or unfamiliar language. This is because they can access the curriculum content more easily and confidently, and transfer their skills and knowledge to other languages. Providing education in multiple languages can ensure that every child has equal access and opportunity to learn, regardless of their linguistic background. It can also foster a sense of belonging and identity among minority language speakers, and reduce discrimination and marginalization. Ways to implement Multilingual Education: Multilingual education should be based on the linguistic realities and needs of the learners and the communities. It should also respect the constitutional provisions and the three-language formula of the National Education Policy (NEP 2020). Multilingual education should adopt a learner-centered and interactive pedagogy that fosters language awareness and proficiency. It should also promote cross-linguistic transfer and multiliteracy skills among the learners. Multilingual education should use fair and valid assessment tools and criteria that measure the learning outcomes and progress of learners in multiple languages. It should also provide constructive feedback and support to the learners to improve their language skills. Benefits of Multilingual Education for India: Multilingual education can equip learners with the necessary language skills and competencies to participate in various domains of life, such as education, employment, research, innovation, etc. It can also increase their employability and mobility in the globalized world. Multilingual education can help preserve and revitalize the linguistic diversity and heritage of India. It can also promote the linguistic rights and dignity of the speakers of different languages, especially those who are endangered or marginalized. Multilingual education can foster mutual understanding and respect among speakers of different languages and cultures. It can also enhance social cohesion and harmony among the diverse groups of people in India. Starting education in one’s mother tongue provides a solid foundation for learning additional languages, including the national language and English, promoting multilingualism. When students can understand what they are being taught, they are more likely to stay in school and complete their education. Issues/Challenges for Multilingualism in Education: Implementing multilingual education requires adequate resources, such as trained teachers, appropriate curricula, quality textbooks, assessment tools, and digital platforms. However, many schools lack these resources, especially in rural and remote areas. Although the NEP 2020 and the NIPUN Bharat Mission advocate for multilingual education, there is still a gap between policy and practice. There is also a need for more coordination and collaboration among different stakeholders, such as central and state governments, educational institutions, civil society organizations, and communities. Many parents, teachers, students, and policymakers are not aware of the benefits of multilingual education. They may have misconceptions or prejudices about certain languages or dialects. Balancing the use of mother tongues or regional languages with national or standardized curricula can be challenging. Ensuring that students have access to a well-rounded education while also valuing their linguistic backgrounds is crucial. Developing fair and standardized assessment methods across different languages can be difficult. Ensuring that students are evaluated fairly and consistently can be a challenge when using multiple languages. While multilingual education can be effective at the primary level, transitioning to higher education or the job market might require proficiency in a more widely spoken language, potentially disadvantageous to students who were educated in their mother tongue. Source: Hindu Businessline Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which among the following lake recently had a devastating impact due to the El Niño drought? Chilika Pangong Tso Caspian Kariba Q2.)  Withania somnifera, recently seen in news is a herb an invasive plant a vaccine a turtle Q3.) With reference to the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA), consider the following statements: SRVA is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency. SRVA facilitates smoother trade between India and other nations, including those facing sanctions. The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries is market-determined. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 39] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Lakshmi 2024/04/17 1:06 PM 22 42.31 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? Avanti Gandhara Kosala Magadha Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) Buddha traveled to Rajagaha, capital of Magadha, to visit King Bimbisara. During this visit, Sariputta and Maudgalyayana were converted by Assaji, one of the first five disciples. Buddha belonged to Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime. Avanti and Gandhara are not visited by Buddha. Incorrect Solution (c) Buddha traveled to Rajagaha, capital of Magadha, to visit King Bimbisara. During this visit, Sariputta and Maudgalyayana were converted by Assaji, one of the first five disciples. Buddha belonged to Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime. Avanti and Gandhara are not visited by Buddha. Question 2 of 35 2. Question With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? a) Avalokiteshvara b) Lokesvara c) Maitreya d) Padmapani Correct Solution (c) Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. Incorrect Solution (c) Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of the Indus Valley Civilization? They possessed great palaces and temples. They worshipped both male and female deities. They employed horse-drawn chariots How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Indus people probably worshipped Mother Goddess, in addition to male and female deities. They worshipped a father God who might be a progenitor of the race and probably was a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the Animals. On the basis of the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated. But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse-drawn chariots. Incorrect Solution (a) The Indus people probably worshipped Mother Goddess, in addition to male and female deities. They worshipped a father God who might be a progenitor of the race and probably was a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the Animals. On the basis of the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated. But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse-drawn chariots. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Of the second Sangam, it is the only surviving work. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it also provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Which work is being described in the above-given paragraph? a) Ettuttokoi b) Tolkappiyam c) Pathinenkilkanakku d) Silappathikaram Correct Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The compositions of the third Sangam are classified into eight anthologies known as Ettuttokoi/ Ettuthokai and ten idylls known as Pattuppattu. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram but the all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. Silappadikaram, which is composed by Ilango Adigal. The story revolves around an anklet. The name literally means the tale of an anklet. A chief character is Kannagi, who seeks revenge on the Pandya kingdom for her husband who was wrongly put to death. The poem gives a lot of insight into contemporary Tamil society, polity, values and social life of the people.   Incorrect Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The compositions of the third Sangam are classified into eight anthologies known as Ettuttokoi/ Ettuthokai and ten idylls known as Pattuppattu. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram but the all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. Silappadikaram, which is composed by Ilango Adigal. The story revolves around an anklet. The name literally means the tale of an anklet. A chief character is Kannagi, who seeks revenge on the Pandya kingdom for her husband who was wrongly put to death. The poem gives a lot of insight into contemporary Tamil society, polity, values and social life of the people.   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding ancient universities: The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. The Chancellor of the Nalanda University, Shilabhadra, was the authority in Yoga. Panini, Jivaka and Chanakya studied in Takshashila. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. They have given vivid accounts of Nalanda. They have noted that as many as 100 discourses happened on a daily basis, in a variety of disciplines through the methods of debate and discussions. Xuan Zang himself became a student of Nalanda to study Yogashastra. He has mentioned that the Chancellor of Nalanda, Shilabhadra, was the highest living authority in Yoga. Takshashila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in northwestern Pakistan. It is an important archaeological site and UNESCO declared it to be a ‘World Heritage Site’ in 1980. Its fame rested on the University, where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra. Panini and Jivaka also studied in Takshashila. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid-19th century. Note: The Nalanda University: The ancient Nalanda was a center of learning from the 5th century CE to the 12th century CE. Located in present day Rajgir (Bihar), Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a ‘World Heritage Site’. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a center of inter-civilizational dialogue. Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The courses of study offered by the Nalanda University covered a wide range, almost the entire circle of knowledge then available. The students at Nalanda studied the Vedas and were also trained in fine arts, medicine, mathematics, astronomy, politics and the art of warfare. The Takshashila or Taxila University: In ancient times, Takshashila was a noted center of learning, including religious teachings of Buddhism for several centuries. It continued to attract students from around the world until its destruction in the 5th century CE. It was known for its higher education and the curriculum comprised the study of ancient scriptures, law, medicine, astronomy, military science and the 18 Silpas or arts. Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due to its teachers’ expertise. Among its noted pupils was the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini. He was an expert in language and grammar, and authored one of the greatest works on grammar, called Ashtadhyayi. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in ancient India, and Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), a skilled exponent of statecraft, both studied here. Students came to Takshashila from Kashi, Kosala, Magadha and also from other countries, in spite of the long and arduous journey they had to undertake. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. They have given vivid accounts of Nalanda. They have noted that as many as 100 discourses happened on a daily basis, in a variety of disciplines through the methods of debate and discussions. Xuan Zang himself became a student of Nalanda to study Yogashastra. He has mentioned that the Chancellor of Nalanda, Shilabhadra, was the highest living authority in Yoga. Takshashila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in northwestern Pakistan. It is an important archaeological site and UNESCO declared it to be a ‘World Heritage Site’ in 1980. Its fame rested on the University, where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra. Panini and Jivaka also studied in Takshashila. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid-19th century. Note: The Nalanda University: The ancient Nalanda was a center of learning from the 5th century CE to the 12th century CE. Located in present day Rajgir (Bihar), Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a ‘World Heritage Site’. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a center of inter-civilizational dialogue. Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The courses of study offered by the Nalanda University covered a wide range, almost the entire circle of knowledge then available. The students at Nalanda studied the Vedas and were also trained in fine arts, medicine, mathematics, astronomy, politics and the art of warfare. The Takshashila or Taxila University: In ancient times, Takshashila was a noted center of learning, including religious teachings of Buddhism for several centuries. It continued to attract students from around the world until its destruction in the 5th century CE. It was known for its higher education and the curriculum comprised the study of ancient scriptures, law, medicine, astronomy, military science and the 18 Silpas or arts. Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due to its teachers’ expertise. Among its noted pupils was the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini. He was an expert in language and grammar, and authored one of the greatest works on grammar, called Ashtadhyayi. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in ancient India, and Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), a skilled exponent of statecraft, both studied here. Students came to Takshashila from Kashi, Kosala, Magadha and also from other countries, in spite of the long and arduous journey they had to undertake. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the difference between the culture of Rig Vedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Rig Vedic Aryans knew gold, silver, and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (c) Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.There is also evidence of swords, arrows, bows used during Rig Vedic Aryans. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Rig Vedic Aryans know gold, silver, copper, iron whereas Indus valley people knew gold, copper, bronze but they did not know iron. Incorrect Solution (c) Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.There is also evidence of swords, arrows, bows used during Rig Vedic Aryans. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Rig Vedic Aryans know gold, silver, copper, iron whereas Indus valley people knew gold, copper, bronze but they did not know iron. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelising water into connected reservoirs? a) Dholavira b) Kalibangan c) Rakhigarhi d) Ropar Correct Solution (a) Discovered in 1968, Dholavira is set apart by its unique characteristics, such as its water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms, extensive use of stone in construction and special burial structures. It has a complex system for collecting and storing rain water within several reservoirs. Planners in the ancient city of Dholavira had conceptualised a system of drains, dams and tanks to manage water. Incorrect Solution (a) Discovered in 1968, Dholavira is set apart by its unique characteristics, such as its water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms, extensive use of stone in construction and special burial structures. It has a complex system for collecting and storing rain water within several reservoirs. Planners in the ancient city of Dholavira had conceptualised a system of drains, dams and tanks to manage water. Question 8 of 35 8. Question During the period of Sangam Age, the designation ‘uzhavar’, was used for: a) Ordinary Ploughmen b) Craftsmen c) Weavers d) Large landowners Correct Solution (a) a)       b)       c)       d)       Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ordinary Ploughmen were called Uzhavar. A Ploughman is a man whose job is to plough the land,especially with a plough pulled by horses or oxen. In villages they were other workers apart from the ones working in the field or owning lands. There were also some craft persons such as the blacksmiths, potter, carpenter and weavers. There were at least three different types of people living in most villages in the southern and northern part of the subcontinent. The handicraft included weaving, metal works and carpentry, ship building and making of ornaments using beads, stones and ivory. These were in great demand in the internal and external trade that was at its peak during the Sangam period. A high expertise was attained in spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes. These were in great demand in the western world especially for the cotton clothes woven at Uraiyur. Large landowners were known as Vellalar. They traditionally pursued agriculture as a profession in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu,Kerala and Northern part of Sri Lanka. They held offices pertaining to land, were ranked as Set-Sudra in the 1901 census.The Vellaras of Sri lanka form half of the Sri Lankan Tamil population and are the major husbandmen,involved in tillage and cattle cultivation. Incorrect Solution (a) a)       b)       c)       d)       Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ordinary Ploughmen were called Uzhavar. A Ploughman is a man whose job is to plough the land,especially with a plough pulled by horses or oxen. In villages they were other workers apart from the ones working in the field or owning lands. There were also some craft persons such as the blacksmiths, potter, carpenter and weavers. There were at least three different types of people living in most villages in the southern and northern part of the subcontinent. The handicraft included weaving, metal works and carpentry, ship building and making of ornaments using beads, stones and ivory. These were in great demand in the internal and external trade that was at its peak during the Sangam period. A high expertise was attained in spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes. These were in great demand in the western world especially for the cotton clothes woven at Uraiyur. Large landowners were known as Vellalar. They traditionally pursued agriculture as a profession in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu,Kerala and Northern part of Sri Lanka. They held offices pertaining to land, were ranked as Set-Sudra in the 1901 census.The Vellaras of Sri lanka form half of the Sri Lankan Tamil population and are the major husbandmen,involved in tillage and cattle cultivation. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements in the context of Sangam literature: Aham under Sangam literature refers to subjective love poems. Puram under Sangam literature deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟. In this, Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil.  Note: Sangam Literature: Dravidian literature mainly consists of the four languages Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam. Out of these, Tamil is the oldest language which preserved its Dravidian character the most. Kannada, as a cultured language, is almost as old as Tamil. All these languages have borrowed many words from Sanskrit and vice versa. Tamil is the only modern Indian language which is recognizably continuous with a classical past. Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟, indicating mainly two schools of poets, Aham (subjective love poems): Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram (objective, public poetry and heroic): Puram with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. These were written by many poets, among whom 30 were women, the famous poetess Avvaiyar being one of them. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar, it also provides insights on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the time. Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consists of eight works. The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. It serves as a manual of precepts to guide one to noble living. The twin epics, Silappadhikaram (the story of the anklet), written by Ilango-Adigal, and Manimekalai (the story of Manimekalai) by Chattanar, were written sometimes in A.D. 200-300 and give vivid accounts of Tamil society during that period. In Manimekalai there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟. In this, Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil.  Note: Sangam Literature: Dravidian literature mainly consists of the four languages Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam. Out of these, Tamil is the oldest language which preserved its Dravidian character the most. Kannada, as a cultured language, is almost as old as Tamil. All these languages have borrowed many words from Sanskrit and vice versa. Tamil is the only modern Indian language which is recognizably continuous with a classical past. Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟, indicating mainly two schools of poets, Aham (subjective love poems): Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram (objective, public poetry and heroic): Puram with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. These were written by many poets, among whom 30 were women, the famous poetess Avvaiyar being one of them. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar, it also provides insights on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the time. Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consists of eight works. The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. It serves as a manual of precepts to guide one to noble living. The twin epics, Silappadhikaram (the story of the anklet), written by Ilango-Adigal, and Manimekalai (the story of Manimekalai) by Chattanar, were written sometimes in A.D. 200-300 and give vivid accounts of Tamil society during that period. In Manimekalai there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. Question 10 of 35 10. Question In the context of the Mauryan period, Dharmasthiya and Kantakasodhana were: a) Priests for the interpretations of laws. b) Law courts. c) Officers in charge of propagation of Ashoka’ s Dhamma. d) Minister in charge for the superintendence of religious and social affairs. Correct Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect In the Mauryan period purohit was a post in the Royal Department for Chief Priest. They were included in the ministry of Councils to help the king in their ways. The duties of the purohit is to perform rites or yajna and Vedic sacrifices such as ashvamedha in favor of Mauryan. There were civil and criminal courts which are mentioned in the Arthashastra. The Dharmasthiya were the civil court and the Kantakasodhana was the criminal wing. The former dealt with civil matters and was presided over by three amatyas and three Dharmasthas. Ashoka appointed officials, known as Dhamma-Mahamatta to go from place to place teaching people about dhamma. His messages are inscribed on stone pillars so that people can read them. Officials were instructed to spread his message. Ashoka used Prakrit and local languages ​​so that ordinary people could understand his messages. Ashoka embraced several ways to spread his dhamma. He himself set an example before his people by strictly following Ahimsa. Pativedakas and Pulisani functioned as special reporters of the king. In the Arthashastra of Kautilya there is mention of Pativedakas and Pulisani who functioned as special reporters of the King. They kept the King informed of public opinion.   Incorrect Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect In the Mauryan period purohit was a post in the Royal Department for Chief Priest. They were included in the ministry of Councils to help the king in their ways. The duties of the purohit is to perform rites or yajna and Vedic sacrifices such as ashvamedha in favor of Mauryan. There were civil and criminal courts which are mentioned in the Arthashastra. The Dharmasthiya were the civil court and the Kantakasodhana was the criminal wing. The former dealt with civil matters and was presided over by three amatyas and three Dharmasthas. Ashoka appointed officials, known as Dhamma-Mahamatta to go from place to place teaching people about dhamma. His messages are inscribed on stone pillars so that people can read them. Officials were instructed to spread his message. Ashoka used Prakrit and local languages ​​so that ordinary people could understand his messages. Ashoka embraced several ways to spread his dhamma. He himself set an example before his people by strictly following Ahimsa. Pativedakas and Pulisani functioned as special reporters of the king. In the Arthashastra of Kautilya there is mention of Pativedakas and Pulisani who functioned as special reporters of the King. They kept the King informed of public opinion.   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements with regard to Mauryan art and culture? Marble was used on an extensive scale. The pillars were monolithic and highly polished. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Marble was not prevalent during the Mauryan times. Emperor. Wood and red buffed sandstone was the principal building material used during the Mauryan Empire. Examples: The Mauryan capital at Pataliputra, Ashoka’s palace at Kumrahar, Chandragupta Maurya’s palace. The remains certainly attest the high technical skill attained by the Maurya artisans in polishing the stone Pillars. Each pillar is made of a single piece of buff coloured sandstone. Only their capitals, which are beautiful pieces of sculpture in the form of lions or bulls, are joined with the pillars on the top. These polished pillars were set up throughout the country, which shows that technical knowledge involved in their polishing and transport had spread far and wide. The Mauryas made a remarkable contribution to art and architecture. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. Ashoka started using stones in sculptures and monuments whereas the preceding dynasties used wood or clay. Rock cut architecture began with the Mauryans. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Marble was not prevalent during the Mauryan times. Emperor. Wood and red buffed sandstone was the principal building material used during the Mauryan Empire. Examples: The Mauryan capital at Pataliputra, Ashoka’s palace at Kumrahar, Chandragupta Maurya’s palace. The remains certainly attest the high technical skill attained by the Maurya artisans in polishing the stone Pillars. Each pillar is made of a single piece of buff coloured sandstone. Only their capitals, which are beautiful pieces of sculpture in the form of lions or bulls, are joined with the pillars on the top. These polished pillars were set up throughout the country, which shows that technical knowledge involved in their polishing and transport had spread far and wide. The Mauryas made a remarkable contribution to art and architecture. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. Ashoka started using stones in sculptures and monuments whereas the preceding dynasties used wood or clay. Rock cut architecture began with the Mauryans. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about different School of Arts in Ancient India: Gandhara School of Art was patronized by Kanva dynasties’ ruler Vasudeva. Mathura school of Art used the spotted red sandstone for making images. Amaravati School of Art had themes of Vardhaman Mahavira’s life only. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art. Gandhara school owes its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Sakas and the Kushanas especially Kanishka. (1st to 3rd century AD). The Kanva dynasty was from 73 BC to 28 BC, not related to the Gandhara School of art. The Greco-Roman effect on Gandhara art can be traced through: Halo around the head of Lord Buddha; Buddha’s wavy hair; The forehead lines; Ornaments; Drape and style of the garments. The Mathura School of Art was entirely influenced by Indianism. The stone used in the Mathura school of arts was red sandstone. The sculptures were less spiritual. In its early phase the Mathura School was probably inspired by Jainism as many figures of cross-legged tirthankaras in meditation were carved by Mathura craftsmen. The initial images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattva are happy and fleshy figures with little spirituality about them. The Mathura School of arts prided themselves on creating images of Buddha and they also made statues of many gods and goddesses such as Jain Tirthankaras. The school has been involved in the evolution of regional art style based on the commercial and imperial system. The Amaravati sculptures are made out of white marble. Another feature of Amaravati sculptures is that the figures have slim blithe features with complex curves. Amaravati School flourished in the region between the lower valleys of the Krishna and Godavari which became an important center of Buddhism. It depicted scenes from Buddha life as well as secular figures.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art. Gandhara school owes its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Sakas and the Kushanas especially Kanishka. (1st to 3rd century AD). The Kanva dynasty was from 73 BC to 28 BC, not related to the Gandhara School of art. The Greco-Roman effect on Gandhara art can be traced through: Halo around the head of Lord Buddha; Buddha’s wavy hair; The forehead lines; Ornaments; Drape and style of the garments. The Mathura School of Art was entirely influenced by Indianism. The stone used in the Mathura school of arts was red sandstone. The sculptures were less spiritual. In its early phase the Mathura School was probably inspired by Jainism as many figures of cross-legged tirthankaras in meditation were carved by Mathura craftsmen. The initial images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattva are happy and fleshy figures with little spirituality about them. The Mathura School of arts prided themselves on creating images of Buddha and they also made statues of many gods and goddesses such as Jain Tirthankaras. The school has been involved in the evolution of regional art style based on the commercial and imperial system. The Amaravati sculptures are made out of white marble. Another feature of Amaravati sculptures is that the figures have slim blithe features with complex curves. Amaravati School flourished in the region between the lower valleys of the Krishna and Godavari which became an important center of Buddhism. It depicted scenes from Buddha life as well as secular figures.   Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra. Ashoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra in 240 B.C., in order to strengthen the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. About 261 B.C., Asoka became a Sakya Upasaka (lay disciple) and two and a half years later, a Bikshu (monk). Then he gave up hunting, visited Bodh-Gaya and organized missions. He appointed special officers, called the Dharma Mahamatras, to speed up the progress of Dhamma. According to some scholars, Asoka’s conversion to Buddhism was gradual and not immediate. Extent of Asoka’s empire: Asoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Pandyas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. Therefore, these states remained outside the Mauryan Empire. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. Nepal was also within the Mauryan Empire. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra in 240 B.C., in order to strengthen the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. About 261 B.C., Asoka became a Sakya Upasaka (lay disciple) and two and a half years later, a Bikshu (monk). Then he gave up hunting, visited Bodh-Gaya and organized missions. He appointed special officers, called the Dharma Mahamatras, to speed up the progress of Dhamma. According to some scholars, Asoka’s conversion to Buddhism was gradual and not immediate. Extent of Asoka’s empire: Asoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Pandyas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. Therefore, these states remained outside the Mauryan Empire. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. Nepal was also within the Mauryan Empire. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands during the Sangam period. Consider the following pairs regarding this: Division of lands Feature 1.     Kurinji Agricultural land 2.     Neydal Coastal land 3.     Marudam Hilly tracks How many of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Division of lands during the Sangam period – Kurinji: Hilly tracks Division of lands during the Sangam period – Neydal: Coastal land Division of lands during the Sangam period – Marudam: Agricultural land   Note: The Sangam Society – Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands: Division of lands Feature Kurinji Mullai Marudam Neydal Palai Hilly tracks Pastoral Agricultural Coastal land Desert Tolkappiyam also refers to 4 castes, namely Arasar; Anthanar; Vanigar; and Vellalar. The ruling class was called Arasar. Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion. Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Division of lands during the Sangam period – Kurinji: Hilly tracks Division of lands during the Sangam period – Neydal: Coastal land Division of lands during the Sangam period – Marudam: Agricultural land   Note: The Sangam Society – Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands: Division of lands Feature Kurinji Mullai Marudam Neydal Palai Hilly tracks Pastoral Agricultural Coastal land Desert Tolkappiyam also refers to 4 castes, namely Arasar; Anthanar; Vanigar; and Vellalar. The ruling class was called Arasar. Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion. Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements are correct about Kalidasa? In Kalidasa’s play, women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit to converse . Abhijnana Shakuntalam is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Bhavabhuti. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kalidasa is known for his plays depicting life in the king’s court. An interesting feature about these plays is that the king and most Brahmins are shown as speaking Sanskrit, while women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit. Abhijnana Shakuntalam, is the work by which Kalidasa is best known not only in India, but throughout the world. It was the first work of Kalidasa to be translated into English. It is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a young woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Kalidasa Poems by Kalidasa: Kumarasambhava (Birth of Kumara) and Raghuvamsha (Dynasty of Raghu). Meghaduuta (Cloud Messenger) and Ritusamhara (Description of the Seasons). Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kalidasa is known for his plays depicting life in the king’s court. An interesting feature about these plays is that the king and most Brahmins are shown as speaking Sanskrit, while women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit. Abhijnana Shakuntalam, is the work by which Kalidasa is best known not only in India, but throughout the world. It was the first work of Kalidasa to be translated into English. It is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a young woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Kalidasa Poems by Kalidasa: Kumarasambhava (Birth of Kumara) and Raghuvamsha (Dynasty of Raghu). Meghaduuta (Cloud Messenger) and Ritusamhara (Description of the Seasons). Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: The Madhuban plate inscription and the Sonpat inscription are helpful to know the chronology of Harsha. The maintenance of public records was the salient feature of Harsha’s administration. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts mention the victory of Harshavardhana over Pulakesin II. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The decline of the Gupta Empire was followed by a period of political disorder and disunity in north India. It was only in the beginning of the seventh century A.D. that Harshvardhana succeeded in establishing a larger kingdom in north India. The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita’ written by Bana and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang. Bana was the court poet of Harsha. There are three inscriptions— Madhuban Plate, Sonpat plate and the Bankkhera inscription which are immensely valuable. The Madhuban plates speak much on the family of Harsha and Sonepat plates disclose the names and reign of many kings of the dynasty. The Bankkhera inscription confirms that Harsha was an efficient ruler and artsman. Coins of Harsha give adequate reliable information of his reign. Harsha followed the traditional monarchical system of administration which had existed in India during the earlier imperial periods. His time having been nearer to the Gupta Age, the various features of the imperial Gupta administration influenced Harsha’s administration to a very large extent. Harsha was the first commander in chief of the army and oversaw all administrative, legislative, and judicial functions. The names of owners of land were entered in the village records. It appears that record of village census was also kept. It is certain that land revenue was only a modest percentage of total yield. Taxation was light-revenue from crown lands amounted to only one -sixth of the crop, according to traditional standard. The other sources of revenue were trade, and duties at ferries and barrier stations. Important officers of Harsha’s administration are: The ‘Sreshti’ (Chief Banker or Merchant) The ‘Sarthavaha’ (Leader of Merchant Caravans) ‘Prathama Kulika’ (Chief Craftsman) ‘Kayasthas’ (head of the scribes). Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveler who visited India in the seventh century A.D. Besides these two sources, the dramas written by Harsha, namely Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika, also provide useful information. But, in the Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin, who, after this achievement, assumed the title Paramesvara. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts also confirm the victory of Pulakesin. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The decline of the Gupta Empire was followed by a period of political disorder and disunity in north India. It was only in the beginning of the seventh century A.D. that Harshvardhana succeeded in establishing a larger kingdom in north India. The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita’ written by Bana and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang. Bana was the court poet of Harsha. There are three inscriptions— Madhuban Plate, Sonpat plate and the Bankkhera inscription which are immensely valuable. The Madhuban plates speak much on the family of Harsha and Sonepat plates disclose the names and reign of many kings of the dynasty. The Bankkhera inscription confirms that Harsha was an efficient ruler and artsman. Coins of Harsha give adequate reliable information of his reign. Harsha followed the traditional monarchical system of administration which had existed in India during the earlier imperial periods. His time having been nearer to the Gupta Age, the various features of the imperial Gupta administration influenced Harsha’s administration to a very large extent. Harsha was the first commander in chief of the army and oversaw all administrative, legislative, and judicial functions. The names of owners of land were entered in the village records. It appears that record of village census was also kept. It is certain that land revenue was only a modest percentage of total yield. Taxation was light-revenue from crown lands amounted to only one -sixth of the crop, according to traditional standard. The other sources of revenue were trade, and duties at ferries and barrier stations. Important officers of Harsha’s administration are: The ‘Sreshti’ (Chief Banker or Merchant) The ‘Sarthavaha’ (Leader of Merchant Caravans) ‘Prathama Kulika’ (Chief Craftsman) ‘Kayasthas’ (head of the scribes). Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveler who visited India in the seventh century A.D. Besides these two sources, the dramas written by Harsha, namely Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika, also provide useful information. But, in the Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin, who, after this achievement, assumed the title Paramesvara. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts also confirm the victory of Pulakesin. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following historical temples: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Virupaksha temple, Mysore Which of the above is/are examples of Nagara style temples? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Sun temple, Konark is a Nagara style temple. Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri. Built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264). Its scale, refinement and conception represent the strength and stability of the Eastern Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historic milieu. The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot. It is dedicated to the sun God. The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work. However, the temple architecture of Odisha corresponds altogether to a different category for their unique representations called Kalinga style of temple architecture. This style broadly comes under the Nagara style. Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh is a Nagara style temple. It is a Classic example of the late Gupta period temple architecture. Main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners. This temple has a rekha-prasada type of shikhara. It is a west-facing temple. Most temples are north or east facing. It has a grand doorway with figures of Ganga and Yamuna on the left and right side respectively. Depicts Vishnu in various forms. 3 main Vishnu reliefs on the temple walls: Sheshashayana on the south; Nara-Narayan on the east; and Gajendramoksha on the west. Since it was assumed that the subsidiary shrines had avatars of Vishnu in them, the temple was mistaken to be Dashavatara temple. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple.  Note: Temple Architecture: The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. Most of the nagara temples were built on the stone platform with steps leading up to it, whereas the temples in south India have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. Depending on the shape of the shikhara, the nagara temples are sub-divided as the Latina type, Phamsana type and the Valabhi type. The important temples belonging to the nagara style are: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Vishwanatha temple and Laxman temple, Khajuraho Sun temple, Modhera, etc. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Sun temple, Konark is a Nagara style temple. Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri. Built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264). Its scale, refinement and conception represent the strength and stability of the Eastern Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historic milieu. The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot. It is dedicated to the sun God. The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work. However, the temple architecture of Odisha corresponds altogether to a different category for their unique representations called Kalinga style of temple architecture. This style broadly comes under the Nagara style. Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh is a Nagara style temple. It is a Classic example of the late Gupta period temple architecture. Main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners. This temple has a rekha-prasada type of shikhara. It is a west-facing temple. Most temples are north or east facing. It has a grand doorway with figures of Ganga and Yamuna on the left and right side respectively. Depicts Vishnu in various forms. 3 main Vishnu reliefs on the temple walls: Sheshashayana on the south; Nara-Narayan on the east; and Gajendramoksha on the west. Since it was assumed that the subsidiary shrines had avatars of Vishnu in them, the temple was mistaken to be Dashavatara temple. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple.  Note: Temple Architecture: The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. Most of the nagara temples were built on the stone platform with steps leading up to it, whereas the temples in south India have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. Depending on the shape of the shikhara, the nagara temples are sub-divided as the Latina type, Phamsana type and the Valabhi type. The important temples belonging to the nagara style are: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Vishwanatha temple and Laxman temple, Khajuraho Sun temple, Modhera, etc. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Bhitargaon brick temple: It is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Mauryan period. This temple is dedicated to Varaha (Incarnation of Lord Vishnu). This temple resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Bhitargaon brick temple is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Gupta period. The Bhitargaon temple was first excavated by Alexander Cunningham (An archaeologist). Though Cunningham had placed it as belonging to the 7th century, it has subsequently been identified as belonging to the late Gupta period, to the 5th century. Village Bhitargaon had been a part of an ancient city, called Phulpur. According to Cunningham, because of the Varaha incarnation at the back of the temple, it was probably a Vishnu temple. It is covered throughout with terracotta sculptures of superb workmanship and resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Bhitargaon brick temple is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Gupta period. The Bhitargaon temple was first excavated by Alexander Cunningham (An archaeologist). Though Cunningham had placed it as belonging to the 7th century, it has subsequently been identified as belonging to the late Gupta period, to the 5th century. Village Bhitargaon had been a part of an ancient city, called Phulpur. According to Cunningham, because of the Varaha incarnation at the back of the temple, it was probably a Vishnu temple. It is covered throughout with terracotta sculptures of superb workmanship and resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture.   Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to the Brihadeeswarar temple, consider the following statements: It is made up of complete white marble. It is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The temple is built in the Vesara style of temple architecture. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Brihadeeswarar temple, or Peruvudaiyar Kovil, or the Rajrajeshwaram temple at Thanjavur is the world’s first complete ‘granite’ temple. It was built by Rajraja Chola I and is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The Vimana or the temple tower (known as Raja Gopuram) is one of the tallest buildings of its kind. The Nandi is carved out of a single rock. It is a classic example of the Dravida temple style. It was dedicated to Lord Shiva by Rajaraja Chola I when he triumphed over the Ilam (Sri Lanka) Island.  Note: Other important Chola temples include: Vijayalaya Cholisvara temple, Thanjore; Koranganatha temple, Srinivasanallur; Muvarkovil, Pudukkottai; Tiruvalisvaram temple, Tiruneveli and Brihadeeswarar temple, Gangaikondacholapuram. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Brihadeeswarar temple, or Peruvudaiyar Kovil, or the Rajrajeshwaram temple at Thanjavur is the world’s first complete ‘granite’ temple. It was built by Rajraja Chola I and is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The Vimana or the temple tower (known as Raja Gopuram) is one of the tallest buildings of its kind. The Nandi is carved out of a single rock. It is a classic example of the Dravida temple style. It was dedicated to Lord Shiva by Rajaraja Chola I when he triumphed over the Ilam (Sri Lanka) Island.  Note: Other important Chola temples include: Vijayalaya Cholisvara temple, Thanjore; Koranganatha temple, Srinivasanallur; Muvarkovil, Pudukkottai; Tiruvalisvaram temple, Tiruneveli and Brihadeeswarar temple, Gangaikondacholapuram. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to the cultural history of India, which of the following is the correct description of the term ‘Agraharams’? a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts are written in aphoristic (Sutra) style. b) Gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages. c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path. d) Powerful merchant guilds of the early medieval south India. Correct Solution (b) Village government in the Chola Empire is known from a number of inscriptions. We hear of two assemblies, called the Ur and the Sabha or Mahasabha. The Ur was a general assembly of the village. However, we know more about the working of the Mahasabha. This was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages, which was called Agraharam. An Agraharam or Agrahara was a grant of land and royal income from it, typically by a king or a noble family in India, for religious purposes, particularly to Brahmins to maintain temples in that land or a pilgrimage site and to sustain their families. Agraharams were also known as Chaturvedimangalams in ancient times. They were also known as Ghatoka, and Boya. Agraharams were built and maintained by dynasties such as the Cholas and Pallavas. The name originates from the fact that the Agraharams have lines of houses on either side of the road and the temple to the village god at the center, thus resembling a garland around the temple. According to the traditional Hindu practice of architecture and town-planning, an Agraharam is held to be two rows of houses running north–south on either side of a road at one end of which would be a temple to Shiva and at the other end, a temple to Vishnu. An example is Vadiveeswaram in Tamil Nadu. Incorrect Solution (b) Village government in the Chola Empire is known from a number of inscriptions. We hear of two assemblies, called the Ur and the Sabha or Mahasabha. The Ur was a general assembly of the village. However, we know more about the working of the Mahasabha. This was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages, which was called Agraharam. An Agraharam or Agrahara was a grant of land and royal income from it, typically by a king or a noble family in India, for religious purposes, particularly to Brahmins to maintain temples in that land or a pilgrimage site and to sustain their families. Agraharams were also known as Chaturvedimangalams in ancient times. They were also known as Ghatoka, and Boya. Agraharams were built and maintained by dynasties such as the Cholas and Pallavas. The name originates from the fact that the Agraharams have lines of houses on either side of the road and the temple to the village god at the center, thus resembling a garland around the temple. According to the traditional Hindu practice of architecture and town-planning, an Agraharam is held to be two rows of houses running north–south on either side of a road at one end of which would be a temple to Shiva and at the other end, a temple to Vishnu. An example is Vadiveeswaram in Tamil Nadu. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution? a) Tadoba Tiger Reserve b) Melghat Tiger Reserve c) Pench Tiger Reserve d) None of the above Correct Solution (c) Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution. Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky. This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles, shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution. The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement to promote astronomy. Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution. Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky. This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles, shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution. The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement to promote astronomy. Hence option c is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about Thylakoids:  They are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. Hence statement 2 is correct. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. Hence statement 2 is correct. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. The Indian Pangolin is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. Hence statement 1 is correct. Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: The Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can also curl itself into a ball in self-defense against predators. It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites. It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day. The Indian Pangolin is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Incorrect Solution (b) Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. Hence statement 1 is correct. Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: The Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can also curl itself into a ball in self-defense against predators. It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites. It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day. The Indian Pangolin is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Warli Adivasi Revolt: It began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Warli Tribes are spread across Thane, Nashik, and Dhule districts of Maharashtra, Valsad district of Gujarat, Karnataka, Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. They are small-scale cultivators and cultivate rice, pulses, and vegetables. They also sell toddy, mahua, and fuelwood to their tribesmen and neighbouring communities for a living. Warli are nature worshippers. Warli art stems from their belief system shaped by their centuries-old subsistence on forest land. Warli Adivasi Revolt began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nearly 5,000 indentured tribals gathered and refused to work in landlords’ fields until they received 12 annas a day in wages. Their resistance sowed the first seeds of rights-based movements among the region’s indigenous communities. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. Hence statement 3 is correct. She was the Kisan Sabha leader and was also known as Godutai (elder sister) by the Adivasis. Women followed her and spoke at meetings about the oppression they faced and encouraged other women to join the struggle. Incorrect Solution (c) Warli Tribes are spread across Thane, Nashik, and Dhule districts of Maharashtra, Valsad district of Gujarat, Karnataka, Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. They are small-scale cultivators and cultivate rice, pulses, and vegetables. They also sell toddy, mahua, and fuelwood to their tribesmen and neighbouring communities for a living. Warli are nature worshippers. Warli art stems from their belief system shaped by their centuries-old subsistence on forest land. Warli Adivasi Revolt began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nearly 5,000 indentured tribals gathered and refused to work in landlords’ fields until they received 12 annas a day in wages. Their resistance sowed the first seeds of rights-based movements among the region’s indigenous communities. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. Hence statement 3 is correct. She was the Kisan Sabha leader and was also known as Godutai (elder sister) by the Adivasis. Women followed her and spoke at meetings about the oppression they faced and encouraged other women to join the struggle. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Which of the following amounts to genocide under the Genocide Convention of 1948? Killing members of the group Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The term ‘genocide’ has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948. It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: Killing members of the group; Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group. Hence option d is correct. As per this convention, genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime. Incorrect Solution (d) The term ‘genocide’ has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948. It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: Killing members of the group; Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group. Hence option d is correct. As per this convention, genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC): It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Hence statement 2 is correct. At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other schemes covered under the KVIC include the Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC), the Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans, Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure, the Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP), Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), and Honey Mission. Incorrect Solution (b) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Hence statement 2 is correct. At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other schemes covered under the KVIC include the Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC), the Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans, Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure, the Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP), Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), and Honey Mission. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the VIPER Rover: It is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by the European Space Agency. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER Rover is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by NASA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments. The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts. Hence statement 2 is correct. The mission duration is 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night. It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024. Incorrect Solution (b) The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER Rover is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by NASA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments. The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts. Hence statement 2 is correct. The mission duration is 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night. It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about the Devika River: It originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Sutlej River. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is considered the sister of the sacred river Ganga, and it has great religious significance. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. River Devika Project is built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’ and it is north India’s first river rejuvenation project. Incorrect Solution (a) Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is considered the sister of the sacred river Ganga, and it has great religious significance. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. River Devika Project is built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’ and it is north India’s first river rejuvenation project. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Karman Line: It is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. NASA defines the Karman line as the altitude of 500 kilometres above Earth’s mean sea level. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Karman Line is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the internationally recognized boundary of space. The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI) defines the Kármán line as the altitude of 100 kilometres (62 miles) above Earth’s mean sea level. FAI is an international standard-setting and record-keeping body for aeronautics and astronautics. However, not all organizations recognize this definition. The US Air Force and NASA define the boundary as 50 miles (80 km) above sea level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. But there is no international law that defines the edge of space or the limit of national airspace. Incorrect Solution (a) Karman Line is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the internationally recognized boundary of space. The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI) defines the Kármán line as the altitude of 100 kilometres (62 miles) above Earth’s mean sea level. FAI is an international standard-setting and record-keeping body for aeronautics and astronautics. However, not all organizations recognize this definition. The US Air Force and NASA define the boundary as 50 miles (80 km) above sea level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. But there is no international law that defines the edge of space or the limit of national airspace. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Savitri Bai Phule: She started the Mahila Seva Mandalto raise awareness about women’s rights. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Savitri Bai Phule started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. Hence statement 1 is correct. It brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies. She was born in a small village in the Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle. She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement. Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India. Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848. They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. They are collections of her poems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs. In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. Hence statement 3 is correct. Her birth anniversary celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.   Incorrect Solution (c) Savitri Bai Phule started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. Hence statement 1 is correct. It brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies. She was born in a small village in the Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle. She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement. Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India. Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848. They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. They are collections of her poems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs. In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. Hence statement 3 is correct. Her birth anniversary celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question If the length of the rectangle is increased by 50% and breadth is decreased by 20%. Then what is the percentage change in the area? a) 20% decrease b) 20% increase c) 30% decrease d) 30% increase Correct Solution (b) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘l’ Let the breadth of the rectangle be ‘b’ Now, the length is increased by 50% = 1.5l The breadth is decreased by 20% = 0.8b As we know, the area of a rectangle = length * breadth The new area = 1.5l * 0.8b = 1.2 times the original area = 20% increase. Incorrect Solution (b) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘l’ Let the breadth of the rectangle be ‘b’ Now, the length is increased by 50% = 1.5l The breadth is decreased by 20% = 0.8b As we know, the area of a rectangle = length * breadth The new area = 1.5l * 0.8b = 1.2 times the original area = 20% increase. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The price of wheat has increased by 30%. Chandana has decided to spend only 17% more than her earlier spend. By what percentage does she have to decrease her wheat consumption? a) 13% b) 12% c) 10% d) 15% Correct Solution (c) Assume that Chandana earlier used to purchase 10 units of wheat for Rs. 100 per unit. ∴ Initial spending = 100 × 10 = Rs. 1,000. New price of wheat = 1.3 × 100 = Rs. 130 and new spend = 1.17 × 1000 = Rs. 1,170 ∴ New consumption = 1170/130 = Rs. 9 per unit. ∴ Percentage decrease in consumption = [(10 – 9)/10] × 100 = 10% Hence, option c. Incorrect Solution (c) Assume that Chandana earlier used to purchase 10 units of wheat for Rs. 100 per unit. ∴ Initial spending = 100 × 10 = Rs. 1,000. New price of wheat = 1.3 × 100 = Rs. 130 and new spend = 1.17 × 1000 = Rs. 1,170 ∴ New consumption = 1170/130 = Rs. 9 per unit. ∴ Percentage decrease in consumption = [(10 – 9)/10] × 100 = 10% Hence, option c. Question 33 of 35 33. Question In an election between two candidates, the winner got 70% of the valid votes and loser lost by 1800 votes. Which of the following statements is false if 10% of the total votes cast were invalid? a) The winner got 3150 votes. b) The loser did not get more than 1500 votes. c) The winner got more than twice the number of votes that the loser got. d) None of the above Correct Solution (d) Let the total number of votes cast be 100x. Since 10% of the votes were invalid, total valid votes = 90x. Since the winner got 70% of the valid votes, votes cast for the winner = (0.7)(90x) = 63x ∴ Votes received by loser = 90x – 63x = 27x The loser lost by 1800 votes. ∴ 63x – 27x = 1800 ∴ 36x = 1800 i.e. x = 50 ∴ Votes obtained by winner = 63x = 3150 and votes obtained by loser = 27x = 1350 Hence, statements a and b are true. Observe that 63x/27x = 2.33 i.e. > 2 Hence, statement c is definitely true. Hence, none of the statements is false. Hence, option d.   Incorrect Solution (d) Let the total number of votes cast be 100x. Since 10% of the votes were invalid, total valid votes = 90x. Since the winner got 70% of the valid votes, votes cast for the winner = (0.7)(90x) = 63x ∴ Votes received by loser = 90x – 63x = 27x The loser lost by 1800 votes. ∴ 63x – 27x = 1800 ∴ 36x = 1800 i.e. x = 50 ∴ Votes obtained by winner = 63x = 3150 and votes obtained by loser = 27x = 1350 Hence, statements a and b are true. Observe that 63x/27x = 2.33 i.e. > 2 Hence, statement c is definitely true. Hence, none of the statements is false. Hence, option d.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question A number consists of three digits having their sum as 6 and the tens digit as 0. If the number formed by reversing the original number is greater than the original number by 396, what is the difference between the first and last digit? a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2 Correct Solution (c) Let the original number be 100x + 10y + z. Hence, the reversed number is 100z + 10y + x. Here, y = 0. Hence, the numbers become (100x + z) and (100z + x) The difference between these numbers is 396. ∴ (100z + x) – (100x + z) = 396 ∴ 99z – 99x = 396 ∴ z – x = 4 Hence, option c.   Incorrect Solution (c) Let the original number be 100x + 10y + z. Hence, the reversed number is 100z + 10y + x. Here, y = 0. Hence, the numbers become (100x + z) and (100z + x) The difference between these numbers is 396. ∴ (100z + x) – (100x + z) = 396 ∴ 99z – 99x = 396 ∴ z – x = 4 Hence, option c.   Question 35 of 35 35. Question Consider the following statements: If a two-digit number is added to a number obtained by reversing the digits of the given number, then the sum is always divisible by 11. If the digits of a two-digit number are reversed, then the difference of the reversed number and the original number is always divisible by 9. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Let a two digit number be (10x + y) and reversing number be (10y + x) Therefore, Required sum = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11 (x+y) Hence it is divisible by 11.   Similarly, Let a two digit number be (10x + y) And reversing number be (10y + x) Required difference = 10x + y – 10y – x = 9x – 9y = 9 (x-y) Hence it is divisible by 9. Thus, both statements are correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Let a two digit number be (10x + y) and reversing number be (10y + x) Therefore, Required sum = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11 (x+y) Hence it is divisible by 11.   Similarly, Let a two digit number be (10x + y) And reversing number be (10y + x) Required difference = 10x + y – 10y – x = 9x – 9y = 9 (x-y) Hence it is divisible by 9. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Tipu Sultan Syllabus Prelims & Mains – History Context: The BJP president of Kerala said the renaming of Sulthan Bathery in Kerala’s Wayanad district is “inevitable”.  He said, “Sulthan Bathery should be renamed as Ganapathyvattam. Background:- One of the three municipal towns in Wayanad, along with Mananthavady and Kalpetta, is Sulthan Bathery. Key takeaways Sulthan Bathery is home to a stone temple that was formerly known as Ganapathyvattam. The temple was established by Jains who came to Wayanad from regions in what is now Tamil Nadu and Karnataka in the 13th century. It is designed in the dominant Vijayanagara architectural style. The temple was partly destroyed during the invasions of Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysuru in the second half of the 18th century. It remained abandoned for nearly 150 years. Later, it was taken over by the Archaeological Survey of India, which declared it as a monument of national importance. About Tipu Sultan Tipu Sultan was born Sultan Fateh Ali Sahab Tipu on November 10, 1750 in Devanahalli, present-day Bangalore. He was born to Hyder Ali, who rose through the ranks of the army of the Wodeyars, the then Hindu rulers of Mysore. Hyder Ali ceased power in 1761 with Tipu succeeding his father in 1782. While fighting the British in 1767, Tipu first came in contact with European culture and lifestyle, something that would fascinate him. This fascination would be reflected in his rule of Mysore: Tipu undertook various policies and reforms which would modernise the princely state and go on to become a lasting aspect of his legacy. Hyder Ali died in 1782, during a period of conquest and expansion of his realm. Thus, Tipu inherited the throne under trying circumstances, with his primary motivation being to consolidate the territory he had inherited from his father. Over the past 20 years, the kingdom of Mysore had slowly expanded by capturing disputed areas at its borders. Tipu inherited rebellious provinces in Malabar, Kodagu, and Bednur, all of which were crucial to Mysore’s strategic and economic interests. The Mysuru ruler’s military used Ganapathyvattam as a battery for their ammunition and the town became known as ‘Sultan’s Battery’ in British records. Tipu Sultan died defending his fortress of Srirangapatna against British forces in the Fourth Anglo Mysore War in 1799. His forces were heavily outnumbered and his French allies had not been able to come to his aid. Source: Indian Express Import restrictions on solar PV cells Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Renewable Energy Context: Recent government orders on attempts to increase local sourcing of solar modules to support India’s renewables manufacturing ecosystem has been widely reported in the media as import restrictions. Background: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy’s (MNRE), on March 29 ordered to re-implement its 2021 notification of an ‘Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic [PV] Modules’, also called the ALMM list. Approved List of Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic [PV] Modules: This list consists of manufacturers who “are eligible for use in Government Projects/Government assisted projects/ projects under Government schemes & programmes including projects set up for sale of electricity to the Central and State Governments.” However, this notification was “kept in abeyance” two years after it was issued, for the past financial year. While the government did not give an explicit reason for this, it has been reported that it stems from concerns and demands of renewable power producers who had secured sale contracts with the government before these rules were issued, when solar modules and cells were overwhelmingly imported from China at highly competitive rates. India’s domestic renewables sector, at the time, was unlikely to meet the spike in demand for solar power production equipment at rates offered by Chinese manufacturers. The government’s re-introduction of this rule has been premised on the estimation that following measures, such as the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, India’s domestic sector has boosted its production capacities and bettered price competitiveness to meet local demand. This is an import substitution effort, and not an attempt to restrict imports. Does India rely on solar PV imports? India is overwhelmingly import dependent to meet its demand for solar cells and modules — with China and Vietnam being the country’s major suppliers. According to a reply by the Minister for New and Renewable Energy in Parliament in February last year, India imported about $11.17 billion worth solar cells and modules in the past five years. And until January of 2023-24, data from the Ministry of Commerce’s Import-Export showed that China accounted for 53% of India’s solar cell imports, and 63% of solar PV modules. Ratings agency ICRA estimates that China commands more than 80% share of the manufacturing capacity across polysilicon, wafer, cell and modules. “In comparison, the manufacturing capacity in India is relatively low and is largely restricted to the last manufacturing stage,” ICRA stated in its report, adding that the PLI scheme is expected to change this, with integrated module units expected to come up in India over the next 2-3 years. How have our policies responded? To address this over dependence, India made three significant efforts over the past five years. It began with the notification of the ALMM order in January 2019. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman proposed the ₹19,500 crore PLI scheme in the Union Budget of 2022-23. This was to scale domestic manufacturing of the entire solar supply chain — from polysilicon to solar modules. The government also introduced a steep 40% customs duty on PV modules and 25% on PV cells. These duties were halved as solar capacity additions slowed and as Reuters had reported, developers had quoted “aggressively low tariffs” to win power purchase contracts based on imports of Chinese equipment. Why is China a leading exporter? The International Energy Agency (IEA) noted that China was the most cost-competitive location to manufacture all components of the solar PV supply chains. This is mainly because of the lower cost of power supplied to the industry, the agency observed, as electricity accounts for more than 40% of production costs for polysilicon and almost 20% for ingots and wafers. The IEA also observed that Chinese government policies prioritised solar PV as a strategic sector, and growing domestic demand enabled economies of scale and supported continuous innovation throughout the supply chain. Source: The Hindu OPERATION MEGHDOOT Syllabus Prelims & Mains – History Context: Recently, the Indian Army commemorated 40 years of ‘Operation Meghdoot’. Background: Operation Meghdoot was a significant military endeavour executed by the Indian Army. About OPERATION MEGHDOOT Operation Meghdoot was the codename for the Indian Army’s operation to take full control of the Siachen Glacier in Ladakh. Executed on the morning of April 13, 1984, in the highest battlefield in the world, Meghdoot was the first military offensive of its kind. Operation Meghdoot was in response to the intelligence reports about Pakistan’s Operation Ababeel, which aimed to capture the Siachen Glacier. Siachen region had become a disputed area between India and Pakistan following a vague demarcation of territories in the Karachi Agreement of 1949. As a result of Operation Meghdoot, India gained the 70 kilometers long Siachen Glacier and all of its tributary glaciers, as well as the three main passes on the Saltoro Ridge: Sia La, Bilafond La, and Gyong La. This strategic advantage allowed India to hold higher grounds in the region, and currently, the Indian Army remains the first and only army in the world to have deployed tanks and other heavy ordnance at altitudes well over 5,000 meters Strategic Importance of Siachen: The Siachen Glacier, located at a height of around 20,000 feet in the Karakoram Mountain range, is known as the highest militarized zone globally. It dominates the Shaksgam Valley (ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963) in the north, controls routes from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh from the west, and also dominates the ancient Karakoram Pass in the east. Additionally, it observes nearly the entire Gilgit Baltistan, which is an Indian territory illegally occupied by Pakistan since 1948. Source: Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Siachen Glacier is situated to the East of Aksai Chin East of Leh North of Gilgit North of Nubra Valley EXO- ATMOSPHERIC INTERCEPTORS Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, Israel asserted that its air-defence system, which employs exo-atmospheric interceptors, successfully neutralized 99% of the missiles launched by the Islamic Republic of Iran. Background: The recent Iran-Israel tensions saw Iran launching 170 drones, over 30 cruise missiles, and more than 120 ballistic missiles against Israel, with the majority being intercepted by Israel’s defence systems. About DEMOGRAPHIC DIVIDEND: Exo-atmospheric interceptors are a critical component of missile defence systems. Exo-atmospheric interceptors are designed to counter ballistic missiles in the outer atmosphere, demonstrating exceptional long-range interception capabilities. Exo-atmospheric interceptors are deployed to destroy incoming ballistic missiles before they re-enter the atmosphere and reach their intended targets. The Arrow 3 Missile defence system, developed and produced primarily by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), plays a crucial role in this defence mechanism. Arrow 3 Missile defence system The Arrow 3 (also known as Hetz 3) is an exo-atmospheric hypersonic anti-ballistic missile jointly funded, developed, and produced by Israel and the United States. Source: Livemint SHRINKFLATION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Economy Context: Shrinkflation is again became a topic of concern within the fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) industry. Background: As input costs rise, companies are faced with the challenge of maintaining profitability while also addressing consumer needs. About SHRINKFLATION: Shrinkflation refers to the practice of reducing the size of a product while maintaining its sticker price. It’s a form of hidden inflation. Companies, especially in the food and beverage industries, employ this strategy to stealthily boost profit margins or maintain them in the face of rising input costs. Shrinkflation involves reducing the quantity or volume of a product while keeping the retail price unchanged. Companies use shrinkflation to improve profit margins without overtly raising prices. In macroeconomic context shrinkflation can also refer to a situation where the economy contracts while experiencing rising prices. Causes: Higher Production Costs: Rising costs of ingredients, raw materials, energy, and labour lead companies to downsize products. Intense Market Competition: In competitive markets, producers seek ways to maintain customer favour and profits simultaneously. Source: Financial Express Declining Fertility Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: Recently, a Lancet paper showed global population trends are changing, with declining birth rates instead of overpopulation. Background: Regardless of the exact timing of peak world population, it will likely begin declining in the second half of the century, with dramatic geopolitical, economic and societal consequences. Major findings on global population trends in the Lancet: The Lancet paper projects a significant decrease in the global population. Most countries, including India, are expected to see lower birth rates. By 2100, China’s population might drop by up to 50%. Sub-Saharan Africa is the exception, likely to experience population growth. The decline in birth rates suggests a future with more elderly people and fewer young ones. The change could affect job markets, healthcare, and social systems, as there will be more old people needing care but fewer young people to support them. Factors behind declining fertility: Higher education levels and increased empowerment among women lead to smaller family sizes. The high cost of child-rearing and lack of job security discourage having children. This trend is observed even in wealthy countries with generous parental support policies. Young people are reluctant to bring children into a world threatened by environmental issues like climate change. In India, 90% of the youth are in low-paying, informal jobs, contributing to uncertainty about the future. India’s extreme wealth inequality, with the richest 1% owning 40% of the wealth, creates societal instability. India’s low ranking in the World Happiness Report and concerns about its democratic status further impact decisions about starting a family. Way Forward: Policies should focus on instilling hope in young people about their future. Enhancing education and ensuring job security can address economic uncertainties. Implement progressive taxation and improve social security systems to create a more equitable society. Universal health coverage should be provided, especially for long-term care of chronic conditions. Tackling issues like climate change can alleviate young people’s fears about the future world of their children. Improving the democratic health of a country can positively impact societal outlook and stability. Source: Lancet Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Shrinkflation, consider the following statements: Shrinkflation involves reducing the quantity or volume of a product while keeping the retail price unchanged. Companies use shrinkflation to improve profit margins without overtly raising prices. Which of the statements given above is /are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.)  Consider the following statements: Arrow 3 is an exo-atmospheric hypersonic anti-ballistic missile developed by India. Exo-atmospheric interceptors are deployed to destroy incoming ballistic missiles before they re-enter the atmosphere and reach their intended targets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Operation Meghdoot was the codename for the Indian Army’s operation to take full control of the Aksai Chin Gilgit Siachen Glacier Pangong Tso Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  12th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 38] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Inter-State trade is one of the important drivers of economic growth in federal country. With reference to Inter-State trade, consider the following constitutional provisions: Parliament may by law impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one state and another in the public interest. Bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse within the state cannot be moved in the state legislature without the sanction of the President. Parliament may enact any law giving or authorizing any discrimination to deal with situation arising from the scarcity of goods in any part of Indian Territory. Trade and commerce within the state is a subject in the concurrent list. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse between the states or within a state in public interest. But, the Parliament cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India. The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest. But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Under Article 303, Parliament shall make any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination if it is declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India. Trade and commerce within the State is in State list in entry 27 whereas Interstate trade and commerce is in provisions of Entry 33 of Concurrent list. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse between the states or within a state in public interest. But, the Parliament cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India. The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest. But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Under Article 303, Parliament shall make any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination if it is declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India. Trade and commerce within the State is in State list in entry 27 whereas Interstate trade and commerce is in provisions of Entry 33 of Concurrent list. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements: Under Article 352, the centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Under Article 360, the centre can direct the states to observe canons of financial propriety. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any ’matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended. The executive authority of the Centre extends to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it during the Financial emergency. Note: Article 360- Financial Emergency: Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency. Grounds of Proclamation: If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Under such a situation, the executive and legislative powers will go to the centre. Like the other two types of emergencies, it has also to be approved by the Parliament. 38th amendment act of 1975: The Amendment act made that the proclamation of financial emergency cannot be questioned in the court of law. 44th amendment act of 1978: The amendment act deleted the provision inserted by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975, which suggests that the president’s satisfaction is not immune from judicial review. Now the Financial emergency is under Judicial review. However, there is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting. A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any ’matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended. The executive authority of the Centre extends to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it during the Financial emergency. Note: Article 360- Financial Emergency: Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency. Grounds of Proclamation: If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Under such a situation, the executive and legislative powers will go to the centre. Like the other two types of emergencies, it has also to be approved by the Parliament. 38th amendment act of 1975: The Amendment act made that the proclamation of financial emergency cannot be questioned in the court of law. 44th amendment act of 1978: The amendment act deleted the provision inserted by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975, which suggests that the president’s satisfaction is not immune from judicial review. Now the Financial emergency is under Judicial review. However, there is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting. A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements with regards to the Inner Line Permit System in India: The system is in effect in some states of Northeast India including Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. The system has its origins in the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act of 1873. An Inner Line permit is issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a document permitting an Indian citizen to travel or reside in a state protected by the ILP system. The system is now in effect in four Northeastern states: Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and recently Manipur. No Indian person may visit any of these states unless he or she is a resident of that state, nor may he or she remain longer than the term stipulated in the ILP. The notion originated in the colonial era Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act of 1873, when restrictions were imposed on the entry and stay of non-citizens in certain areas. The ILP system is to address the concerns over the protection of indigenous people’s interests from foreigners from other Indian states. An ILP is issued by the relevant state government, not the central government ministry. It may be obtained by online or in-person application and it contains the travel dates and places within the state to which the ILP holder can go. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a document permitting an Indian citizen to travel or reside in a state protected by the ILP system. The system is now in effect in four Northeastern states: Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and recently Manipur. No Indian person may visit any of these states unless he or she is a resident of that state, nor may he or she remain longer than the term stipulated in the ILP. The notion originated in the colonial era Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act of 1873, when restrictions were imposed on the entry and stay of non-citizens in certain areas. The ILP system is to address the concerns over the protection of indigenous people’s interests from foreigners from other Indian states. An ILP is issued by the relevant state government, not the central government ministry. It may be obtained by online or in-person application and it contains the travel dates and places within the state to which the ILP holder can go. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Emergency? It can be applied only to whole country. One of the grounds for imposing National Emergency is ‘internal disturbance’ Proclamation of national emergency is not subject to judicial review It can be imposed only after the actual occurrence of war or external aggression How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency even for a specific part of  India. The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger. Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance ’as the third ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency, but the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the words ‘armed rebellion ’for ‘internal disturbance’. In Minerva mills case, the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse. The president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency even for a specific part of  India. The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger. Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance ’as the third ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency, but the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the words ‘armed rebellion ’for ‘internal disturbance’. In Minerva mills case, the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse. The president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which of the following provisions in the Part XVIII of Indian Constitution was/were added by the 44th Amendment Act of Indian Constitution? Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency. Periodic Parliamentary approval of National Emergency for extension. ‘Armed rebellion’ as one of the grounds for imposing National Emergency. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency. Periodical Approval for National Emergency by both houses of Parliament. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. ‘Armed rebellion’ as one of the grounds for imposing National Emergency. It replaced the earlier term internal disturbance. Note: Part XVIII of the constitution consists of Articles 352 to 360 dealing with the Emergency Provisions. The Emergency declared in 1975 (internal emergency) by Indira Gandhi Government proved to be the most controversial. The Shah commission did not justify the declaration of the Emergency. Hence, the 44th Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 to introduce a number of safeguards against the misuse of Emergency provisions. Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression‘, it is known as ‘External Emergency‘. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion‘, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency‘. Following changes were made by the 44th Amendment Act, in the National Emergency provisions in Part XVIII: Armed Rebellion in place of Internal Disturbance Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency Judicial Review of Emergency Period of one month for Parliamentary approval for National Emergency Periodical Approval for National Emergency by both houses of Parliament. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Lok Sabha can revoke National Emergency Safeguards for Fundamental Rights in case of National Emergency Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency. Periodical Approval for National Emergency by both houses of Parliament. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. ‘Armed rebellion’ as one of the grounds for imposing National Emergency. It replaced the earlier term internal disturbance. Note: Part XVIII of the constitution consists of Articles 352 to 360 dealing with the Emergency Provisions. The Emergency declared in 1975 (internal emergency) by Indira Gandhi Government proved to be the most controversial. The Shah commission did not justify the declaration of the Emergency. Hence, the 44th Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 to introduce a number of safeguards against the misuse of Emergency provisions. Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression‘, it is known as ‘External Emergency‘. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion‘, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency‘. Following changes were made by the 44th Amendment Act, in the National Emergency provisions in Part XVIII: Armed Rebellion in place of Internal Disturbance Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency Judicial Review of Emergency Period of one month for Parliamentary approval for National Emergency Periodical Approval for National Emergency by both houses of Parliament. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Lok Sabha can revoke National Emergency Safeguards for Fundamental Rights in case of National Emergency Question 6 of 35 6. Question In which of the following situation, it is constitutionally valid to impose President’s Rule in a state? a) When a state government’s political ideology is opposite to central government’s political ideology. b) When a court finds Chief Minister of a state guilty of corruption. c) When the centre directs a state government to implement land reform measures but the state government refuses to do so. d) When majority people of the state demand President’s Rule in the state. Correct Solution (c) President’s Rule: The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds: Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, other options are not valid ground for imposition of President Rule in the state. Incorrect Solution (c) President’s Rule: The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds: Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, other options are not valid ground for imposition of President Rule in the state. Question 7 of 35 7. Question The centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to exercise of their executive power in which of the following matter? Maintenance of means of communication Protection of the railways Primary education in mother-tongue Execution of specified schemes of Scheduled Tribes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) The Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters: the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state; the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state; the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state. Incorrect Solution (d) The Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters: the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state; the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state; the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following will happen when there is a conflict between Parliament and state legislature on matters over state list under Article 249 and Article 250? a) Judiciary will decide b) Predominance to Union legislature c) Predominance to State legislature d) The subject will be treated as in concurrent list Correct Solution (b) Article 251 clearly says that if there is any inconsistency between the laws made by the Parliament under article 249 and 250 and the laws made by the Legislature of the States, then the law made by the Parliament shall prevail. Article 251- Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under articles 249 and 250 and laws made by the Legislatures of States: Nothing in articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of the Legislature of a State to make any law which under this Constitution it has power to make, but if any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament has under either of the said articles power to make, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of the State, shall prevail, and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall to the extent of the repugnancy, but so long only as the law made by Parliament continues to have effect, be inoperative. Article 249- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest: Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force. A resolution passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein: Provided that, if and so often as a resolution approving the continuance in force of any such resolution is passed in the manner provided in clause (1), such resolution shall continue in force for a further period of one year from the date on which under this clause it would otherwise have ceased to be in force. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the passing of a resolution under clause (1) have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period. Article 250- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation: Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, Parliament shall, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any of the matters enumerated in the State List. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the issue of a Proclamation of Emergency have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period. Incorrect Solution (b) Article 251 clearly says that if there is any inconsistency between the laws made by the Parliament under article 249 and 250 and the laws made by the Legislature of the States, then the law made by the Parliament shall prevail. Article 251- Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under articles 249 and 250 and laws made by the Legislatures of States: Nothing in articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of the Legislature of a State to make any law which under this Constitution it has power to make, but if any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament has under either of the said articles power to make, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of the State, shall prevail, and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall to the extent of the repugnancy, but so long only as the law made by Parliament continues to have effect, be inoperative. Article 249- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest: Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force. A resolution passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein: Provided that, if and so often as a resolution approving the continuance in force of any such resolution is passed in the manner provided in clause (1), such resolution shall continue in force for a further period of one year from the date on which under this clause it would otherwise have ceased to be in force. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the passing of a resolution under clause (1) have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period. Article 250- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation: Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, Parliament shall, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any of the matters enumerated in the State List. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the issue of a Proclamation of Emergency have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following is not correct with reference to National Emergency? a) President can proclaim National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. b) Emergency can be extended for an indefinite period with approval of Parliament for every six months. c) Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency must be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the House. d) Revocation of National Emergency does not require approval of the Parliament. Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its proclamation by the President. Once approved by both the houses of the Parliament the emergency continues for six months. After completion of six months, the emergency can be extended for another six months with the approval of both the houses of Parliament. Thus, the emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired. Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, that is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. Impeachment resolution of the President is one case where a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the house is required for approval. A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its proclamation by the President. Once approved by both the houses of the Parliament the emergency continues for six months. After completion of six months, the emergency can be extended for another six months with the approval of both the houses of Parliament. Thus, the emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired. Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority, that is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. Impeachment resolution of the President is one case where a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the house is required for approval. A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence option (d) is correct. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following is correct with reference to Financial Emergency under Article 360? a) The proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President cannot be questioned in any court. b) Proclamation declaring financial emergency can be approved only by Lok Sabha. c) Proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. d) The Parliament can make laws on the state subjects during Financial Emergency. Correct Solution (c) Article 360- Financial Emergency: Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting. A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency: The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it, and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose. Direction may include a provision requiring (a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state, and (b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state. The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union, and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court. There is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject. Incorrect Solution (c) Article 360- Financial Emergency: Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review. A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting. A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency: The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it, and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose. Direction may include a provision requiring (a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state, and (b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state. The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union, and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court. There is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements regarding Martial Law and National Emergency: In the case of both Martial Law and the National Emergency, ordinary law courts are suspended. The imposition of both Martial Law and the National emergency affect Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Martial Law suspends the Government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts. Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights while National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues, and legislative powers between center and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Note: Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force. Martial Law suspends the Government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts. While National Emergency has specific and detailed provisions in the Constitution and is explicit, Martial Law has no specific provisions in the Constitution and is implicit. Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights while National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues, and legislative powers between center and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Martial Law suspends the Government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts. Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights while National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues, and legislative powers between center and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Note: Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force. Martial Law suspends the Government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts. While National Emergency has specific and detailed provisions in the Constitution and is explicit, Martial Law has no specific provisions in the Constitution and is implicit. Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights while National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues, and legislative powers between center and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the powers vested to the President under Article 359 of the Constitution of India? He is empowered to suspend the enforcement of some Fundamental Rights. He may extend National Emergency only to few parts of the country and not the entire country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Question 13 of 35 13. Question With reference to the impacts of proclamation of National Emergency on centre-state relations, consider the following statements: The state legislature is suspended and Parliament can make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. The President can issue ordinance on the state subject even if Parliament is in session. The Union Government can give directions to state on any matter. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct During a national emergency, the parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. However, state legislatures are not suspended. But the power of state legislature become subject to over-riding power of the parliament. During National Emergency, the President can issue ordinances on the state subject also, if the Parliament is not in session. During a National Emergency, the executive power of the centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the centre can give executive directions to state only on certain specified manner. However, during a national emergency, the centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to state on any matter. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct During a national emergency, the parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. However, state legislatures are not suspended. But the power of state legislature become subject to over-riding power of the parliament. During National Emergency, the President can issue ordinances on the state subject also, if the Parliament is not in session. During a National Emergency, the executive power of the centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the centre can give executive directions to state only on certain specified manner. However, during a national emergency, the centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to state on any matter. Question 14 of 35 14. Question The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred which of the following subjects to Concurrent List from State List? Education Weights and Measures Protection Of Wild Animals and Birds Administration of Justice, constitution and organization of all courts. Select the correct answers using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List- Education Forests Weights and Measures Protection Of Wild Animals and Bird Administration Of Justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts Incorrect Solution (c) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List- Education Forests Weights and Measures Protection Of Wild Animals and Bird Administration Of Justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts Question 15 of 35 15. Question Which of the following statements is/ are correct about the powers of Supreme Court? The Supreme Court has the power to review any judgement pronounced or order made by it. It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Powers of the Supreme Court: Besides the several jurisdictions, the Supreme Court has numerous other powers: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the Vice-President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority. It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the President for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. It has power to review its own judgement or order. Thus, it is not bound by its previous decision and can depart from it in the interest of justice or community welfare. In brief, the Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency. It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court. Its law is binding on all courts in India. Its decree or order is enforceable throughout the country. All authorities (civil and judicial) in the country should act in aid of the Supreme Court. It has power of judicial superintendence and control over all the courts and tribunals functioning in the entire territory of the country. Incorrect Solution (c) Powers of the Supreme Court: Besides the several jurisdictions, the Supreme Court has numerous other powers: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the Vice-President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority. It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the President for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. It has power to review its own judgement or order. Thus, it is not bound by its previous decision and can depart from it in the interest of justice or community welfare. In brief, the Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency. It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court. Its law is binding on all courts in India. Its decree or order is enforceable throughout the country. All authorities (civil and judicial) in the country should act in aid of the Supreme Court. It has power of judicial superintendence and control over all the courts and tribunals functioning in the entire territory of the country. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Judges: The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Chief Justice of India. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High courts as he deems necessary. Note: Appointment of Judges of Supreme Court: The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the Chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts as he deems necessary. The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief Justice. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High courts as he deems necessary. Note: Appointment of Judges of Supreme Court: The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High courts as he deems necessary. The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the Chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts as he deems necessary. The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief Justice. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding the removal of Judges The legislature has the powers of removal of the Judges. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved only by the majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting in the parliament. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority i.e., (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in both Houses of the Parliament. The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is also extremely difficult. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority i.e., (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in both Houses of the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority i.e., (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in both Houses of the Parliament. The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is also extremely difficult. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority i.e., (a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting) in both Houses of the Parliament. Question 18 of 35 18. Question The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India: When the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent or his office is vacant. When there is a lack of quorum to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when: ·       the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or ·       the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or ·       the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office.   When there is a lack of quorum to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Note: Acting Chief Justice: The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when: the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office. Ad hoc Judge: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when: ·       the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or ·       the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or ·       the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office.   When there is a lack of quorum to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Note: Acting Chief Justice: The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when: the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office. Ad hoc Judge: When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements regarding Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court: The Court has the power to grant, in its discretion, special leave appeal from any judgment passed or made by any court but not tribunal. In civil cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court, if the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance. The Supreme Court is also vested with the power to render advisory opinions if referred to it by the President How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Supreme Court has the power to grant, in its discretion, special leave appeal from any judgment, decree sentence or order in any case or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal. In civil cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a high court if the high court certifies– ·       that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance; and ·       that the question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.   The Supreme Court being vested with the power to render advisory opinions if referred to it by the President falls under Advisory Jurisdiction of the court. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Supreme Court has the power to grant, in its discretion, special leave appeal from any judgment, decree sentence or order in any case or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal. In civil cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a high court if the high court certifies– ·       that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance; and ·       that the question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.   The Supreme Court being vested with the power to render advisory opinions if referred to it by the President falls under Advisory Jurisdiction of the court. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to the ‘Contempt of Court’ in India, consider the following statements: The Criminal contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ, or other process of a court. The Civil contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which lowers the authority of a Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which: o          Scandalises or lowers the authority of a Court. o          Prejudices or interferes with the due course of a Judicial proceeding. o          Interferes or obstructs the administration of Justice in any other manner. Note: Contempt of Court: Contempt of court, as a concept that seeks to protect judicial institutions from motivated attacks and unwarranted criticism, and as a legal mechanism to punish those who lower its authority This follows the initiation of contempt proceedings by the Supreme Court of India, on its own motion. Constitutional Provision and Statutory Basis: When the Constitution was adopted, contempt of court was made one of the restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Separately, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, gives statutory backing to the idea. Types of Contempt: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has power to punish for the ‘Contempt of Court’. It may be Civil or Criminal. Civil contempt Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which: Scandalises or lowers the authority of a Court. Prejudices or interferes with the due course of a Judicial proceeding. Interferes or obstructs the administration of Justice in any other manner. Innocent publication and distribution of some matter, fair and accurate report of Judicial proceedings, fair and reasonable criticism of Judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the Judiciary do not amount to a Contempt of Court. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which: o          Scandalises or lowers the authority of a Court. o          Prejudices or interferes with the due course of a Judicial proceeding. o          Interferes or obstructs the administration of Justice in any other manner. Note: Contempt of Court: Contempt of court, as a concept that seeks to protect judicial institutions from motivated attacks and unwarranted criticism, and as a legal mechanism to punish those who lower its authority This follows the initiation of contempt proceedings by the Supreme Court of India, on its own motion. Constitutional Provision and Statutory Basis: When the Constitution was adopted, contempt of court was made one of the restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Separately, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, gives statutory backing to the idea. Types of Contempt: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has power to punish for the ‘Contempt of Court’. It may be Civil or Criminal. Civil contempt Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which: Scandalises or lowers the authority of a Court. Prejudices or interferes with the due course of a Judicial proceeding. Interferes or obstructs the administration of Justice in any other manner. Innocent publication and distribution of some matter, fair and accurate report of Judicial proceedings, fair and reasonable criticism of Judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the Judiciary do not amount to a Contempt of Court. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about the Wular Lake: It is the largest saltwater lake in India. It was formed as a result of tectonic activity. It is fed by the Jhelum River. Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din. In 1990, it was designated as a Ramsar Site. Chilika Lake is the largest saltwater lake in India located in the state of Odisha. It was formed as a result of tectonic activity. Hence statement 2 is correct. It lies at an altitude of 1,580 m. It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake, which existed in ancient times. It is fed by the Jhelum River. Hence statement 3 is correct. Jhelum River flows in India and Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River. It is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley. Incorrect Solution (b) The Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din. In 1990, it was designated as a Ramsar Site. Chilika Lake is the largest saltwater lake in India located in the state of Odisha. It was formed as a result of tectonic activity. Hence statement 2 is correct. It lies at an altitude of 1,580 m. It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake, which existed in ancient times. It is fed by the Jhelum River. Hence statement 3 is correct. Jhelum River flows in India and Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River. It is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme: Under this Scheme, 1,00,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in India. Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. This scheme will cover cities with a population of 300,000 and above. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) In the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was introduced to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport. Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Hence statement 2 is correct. This scheme will support bus operations for 10 years. States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators. The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the proposed scheme. This scheme will cover cities with a population of 300,000 and above and will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and the Hill States’. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) In the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was introduced to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport. Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Hence statement 2 is correct. This scheme will support bus operations for 10 years. States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators. The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the proposed scheme. This scheme will cover cities with a population of 300,000 and above and will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and the Hill States’. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary: It is situated on the southern side of Kodagu district of Karnataka. It is covered with semi-evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high-altitude grassland shoal forests. River Laxman Tirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the southern side of Kodagu district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is named after the highest peak of the sanctuary called Brahmagiri Hill. It is covered with semi-evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high-altitude grassland shoal forests. Hence statement 2 is correct. River Laxman Tirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Researchers from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS) found a new butterfly species named Conjoined Silverline (Cigaritis conjuncta) in Karnataka’s Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, Kodagu. Incorrect Solution (c) The Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the southern side of Kodagu district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is named after the highest peak of the sanctuary called Brahmagiri Hill. It is covered with semi-evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high-altitude grassland shoal forests. Hence statement 2 is correct. River Laxman Tirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Researchers from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS) found a new butterfly species named Conjoined Silverline (Cigaritis conjuncta) in Karnataka’s Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, Kodagu. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the conservation status of the Himalayan Wolf: It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), is a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas. It is also called Tibetan wolves, which live at more than 4,000 metres in altitudes and are genetically distinct from grey wolves. It is found in China, the Himalayan wolf lives on the Tibetan Plateau in the provinces of Gansu, Qinghai, Tibet, and western Sichuan. In northern India, it occurs in the Union Territory of Ladakh and the Lahaul and Spiti region in north-eastern Himachal Pradesh. The conservation status of the Himalayan Wolf: It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), is a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas. It is also called Tibetan wolves, which live at more than 4,000 metres in altitudes and are genetically distinct from grey wolves. It is found in China, the Himalayan wolf lives on the Tibetan Plateau in the provinces of Gansu, Qinghai, Tibet, and western Sichuan. In northern India, it occurs in the Union Territory of Ladakh and the Lahaul and Spiti region in north-eastern Himachal Pradesh. The conservation status of the Himalayan Wolf: It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about the Chittorgarh Fort: It is located in Rajasthan and was used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers. It is situated on a hill that rises from the banks of the river Berach. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Chittorgarh Fort is located in Rajasthan and was used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was built by local Maurya rulers in the 7th century A.D. The common belief is that Chitrangada Mori, the local Maurya ruler, developed the fort originally. Later, the fort was captured by the Mewar rulers in 728 CE. It is situated on a hill that rises from the banks of the river Berach. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has witnessed several legendary warriors in Indian history, including Badal, Gora, Maharana Pratap, Rana Kumbha, Patta, and Jaimal, among others. It is known for its seven gates namely Padan Gate, Ganesh Gate, Hanuman Gate, Bhairon Gate, Jodla Gate, Lakshman Gate, and the main gate, which is named after Lord Ram. These gates were built to protect the fort from enemy attacks, and the arches even protect the elephants from entering. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Chittorgarh Fort is located in Rajasthan and was used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was built by local Maurya rulers in the 7th century A.D. The common belief is that Chitrangada Mori, the local Maurya ruler, developed the fort originally. Later, the fort was captured by the Mewar rulers in 728 CE. It is situated on a hill that rises from the banks of the river Berach. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has witnessed several legendary warriors in Indian history, including Badal, Gora, Maharana Pratap, Rana Kumbha, Patta, and Jaimal, among others. It is known for its seven gates namely Padan Gate, Ganesh Gate, Hanuman Gate, Bhairon Gate, Jodla Gate, Lakshman Gate, and the main gate, which is named after Lord Ram. These gates were built to protect the fort from enemy attacks, and the arches even protect the elephants from entering. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the AN-32 Aircraft: It is a German-origin military transport aircraft. It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines. It is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The AN-32 Aircraft is a Soviet-origin military transport aircraft. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is designed and manufactured by the Antonov Design Bureau of Ukraine for the Indian Air Force (IAF). It was purchased by India from the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1984. The IAF has a fleet of around 100 AN-32 planes. It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can fly at a maximum speed of 530 km/h, and its cruise speed is 470 km/h. The range and service ceiling of the aircraft is 2,500km and 9,500m, respectively. The aircraft weighs around 16,800 kg, and its maximum take-off weight is 27,000kg. It can take off and land on rough airfields and dirt runways. It is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The AN-32 Aircraft is a Soviet-origin military transport aircraft. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is designed and manufactured by the Antonov Design Bureau of Ukraine for the Indian Air Force (IAF). It was purchased by India from the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1984. The IAF has a fleet of around 100 AN-32 planes. It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can fly at a maximum speed of 530 km/h, and its cruise speed is 470 km/h. The range and service ceiling of the aircraft is 2,500km and 9,500m, respectively. The aircraft weighs around 16,800 kg, and its maximum take-off weight is 27,000kg. It can take off and land on rough airfields and dirt runways. It is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Cabo Verde: It is a group of islands that lie off the west coast of Australia. It is certified as a malaria-free country by the World Health Organization (WHO). Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Cabo Verde is a group of islands that lie off the west coast of Africa. Its capital is Praia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located near Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent. This volcanic archipelago includes ten islands and five islets, divided into the windward (Barlavento) and leeward (Sotavento) groups. Its climate is characterized by stable temperatures with extreme aridity. It is certified as a malaria-free country by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct. Cabo Verde has become the third country to acquire the status in the global health organisation’s African region. The country has now joined Mauritius and Algeria, who were certified in 1973 and 2019, respectively. Incorrect Solution (b) Cabo Verde is a group of islands that lie off the west coast of Africa. Its capital is Praia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located near Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent. This volcanic archipelago includes ten islands and five islets, divided into the windward (Barlavento) and leeward (Sotavento) groups. Its climate is characterized by stable temperatures with extreme aridity. It is certified as a malaria-free country by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct. Cabo Verde has become the third country to acquire the status in the global health organisation’s African region. The country has now joined Mauritius and Algeria, who were certified in 1973 and 2019, respectively. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding Cervical Cancer: It is caused by Human papillomavirus (HPV). It is a cancer that is found anywhere in the cervix. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Cervical Cancer is caused by Human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted infection, that plays a role in causing most cervical cancer. Hence statement 1 is correct. Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix — the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. When exposed to HPV, the body’s immune system typically prevents the virus from harming. In a small percentage of people, however, the virus survives for years, contributing to the process that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells. It is a cancer that is found anywhere in the cervix. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Cervical Cancer is caused by Human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted infection, that plays a role in causing most cervical cancer. Hence statement 1 is correct. Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix — the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. When exposed to HPV, the body’s immune system typically prevents the virus from harming. In a small percentage of people, however, the virus survives for years, contributing to the process that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells. It is a cancer that is found anywhere in the cervix. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements: The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it. Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities. The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it. Hence statement 1 is correct. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about “any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied. It also says that citizens should be allowed to be admitted to any educational institution that is maintained by the State or get help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them. Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities. Hence statement 2 is correct. It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.” The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community. Hence statement 3 is correct. Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are: Muslims Christians Buddhists Sikhs Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis) Incorrect Solution (c) The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it. Hence statement 1 is correct. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about “any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied. It also says that citizens should be allowed to be admitted to any educational institution that is maintained by the State or get help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them. Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities. Hence statement 2 is correct. It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.” The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community. Hence statement 3 is correct. Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are: Muslims Christians Buddhists Sikhs Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis) Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the Congo River: It is a river in west-central Africa. It is the deepest river in the world. It runs through the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Cameroon, and Tanzania. Its main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Congo River is a river in west-central Africa. The river gets its name from the ancient Kongo Kingdom, which existed near the mouth of the river. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also called the Zaire River. With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile, and the ninth-longest in the world. It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres). Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Its course through the rainforest causes it to cross the equator twice. It is the deepest river in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. It reaches depths of over 750 feet (230 meters). It also has the second-largest flow in the world, with a discharge of 1.5 million cubic feet of water per second, trailing only the Amazon, and the second-largest watershed of any river. It runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (d) The Congo River is a river in west-central Africa. The river gets its name from the ancient Kongo Kingdom, which existed near the mouth of the river. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also called the Zaire River. With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile, and the ninth-longest in the world. It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres). Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Its course through the rainforest causes it to cross the equator twice. It is the deepest river in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. It reaches depths of over 750 feet (230 meters). It also has the second-largest flow in the world, with a discharge of 1.5 million cubic feet of water per second, trailing only the Amazon, and the second-largest watershed of any river. It runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question Ramesh said to his daughter, “I am four times as old as you now. Five years from now, I will be thrice as old as you.” His daughter asked him, “Ten years from now, how many times my age would you be?” What would be Ramesh’s answer? a) 2 times b) 1.5 times c) 2.5 times d) None of these Correct Solution (c) Let the current age of Ramesh and his daughter be 4x and x years respectively. Five years later: (4x + 5) = 3(x + 5) ∴ 4x + 5 = 3x + 15 i.e. x = 10 Hence, Ramesh and his daughter are currently 40 years and 10 years old respectively. Ten years from now, their age will be 50 years and 20 years respectively. Hence, Ramesh will be 2.5 times as old as his daughter. Hence, option c.   Incorrect Solution (c) Let the current age of Ramesh and his daughter be 4x and x years respectively. Five years later: (4x + 5) = 3(x + 5) ∴ 4x + 5 = 3x + 15 i.e. x = 10 Hence, Ramesh and his daughter are currently 40 years and 10 years old respectively. Ten years from now, their age will be 50 years and 20 years respectively. Hence, Ramesh will be 2.5 times as old as his daughter. Hence, option c.   Question 32 of 35 32. Question A test paper consists of 10 questions, and each such question has 4 choices. If each question is necessarily attempted, then find the number of ways of answering the test paper. a) 10^4 b) 4^10 c) 4 x 10 d) 4! X 10! Correct Solution (b) Since each question can be answered in 4 ways. So, the total number of ways of answering 10 questions = 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 * 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 = 4^10 Incorrect Solution (b) Since each question can be answered in 4 ways. So, the total number of ways of answering 10 questions = 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 * 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 = 4^10 Question 33 of 35 33. Question Consider the following figure:   How many triangles does the above figure have? a) Less than 35 b) 35-45 c) 45-55 d) More than 55 Correct Solution (d) By observation, there are 58 triangles in the given figure. Hence, option d   Incorrect Solution (d) By observation, there are 58 triangles in the given figure. Hence, option d   Question 34 of 35 34. Question Akshay, Rakesh and Shashank can do a piece of work in 10 days, 8 days and 16 days respectively. They started a work together, and after 2 days Akshay left the work. Find the time taken to complete the entire work.   a) 3(1/15) days b) 4(4/15) days c) 8(1/7) days d) None of these Correct Solution (b) 1 day work of Akshay, Rakesh and Shashank is 1/10, 1/8, 1/16 respectively Let the work gets completed in ‘x’ days Then, 2* (1/10) + n * (1/8) + n * (1/16) = 1 (∵complete work is 1) = n = 64/15 = 4 (4/15) days   Incorrect Solution (b) 1 day work of Akshay, Rakesh and Shashank is 1/10, 1/8, 1/16 respectively Let the work gets completed in ‘x’ days Then, 2* (1/10) + n * (1/8) + n * (1/16) = 1 (∵complete work is 1) = n = 64/15 = 4 (4/15) days   Question 35 of 35 35. Question When a particular positive number is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. If the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is 1. If the difference between the quotients of division is 3, then find the number. a) 67 b) 127 c) 97 d) 73 Correct Solution (c) Number = (Divisor x Quotient) = Remainder Let the quotients when this number is divided by 5 and 6 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 5 is smaller than 6). Number = 5x + 2 = 6y + 1 Given that, x – y = 3 On solving both equations we get, x = 19, y = 16 Thus, the number is 19× 5 + 2 = 97 Incorrect Solution (c) Number = (Divisor x Quotient) = Remainder Let the quotients when this number is divided by 5 and 6 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 5 is smaller than 6). Number = 5x + 2 = 6y + 1 Given that, x – y = 3 On solving both equations we get, x = 19, y = 16 Thus, the number is 19× 5 + 2 = 97 window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3640', init: { quizId: 3640, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32321":{"type":"single","id":32321,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32322":{"type":"single","id":32322,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32324":{"type":"single","id":32324,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32326":{"type":"single","id":32326,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32328":{"type":"single","id":32328,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32331":{"type":"single","id":32331,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32333":{"type":"single","id":32333,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32335":{"type":"single","id":32335,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32336":{"type":"single","id":32336,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32339":{"type":"single","id":32339,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32342":{"type":"single","id":32342,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32345":{"type":"single","id":32345,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32347":{"type":"single","id":32347,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32348":{"type":"single","id":32348,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32350":{"type":"single","id":32350,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32351":{"type":"single","id":32351,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32352":{"type":"single","id":32352,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32354":{"type":"single","id":32354,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32356":{"type":"single","id":32356,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32357":{"type":"single","id":32357,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32360":{"type":"single","id":32360,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32361":{"type":"single","id":32361,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32364":{"type":"single","id":32364,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32365":{"type":"single","id":32365,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32367":{"type":"single","id":32367,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32369":{"type":"single","id":32369,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32370":{"type":"single","id":32370,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32371":{"type":"single","id":32371,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32372":{"type":"single","id":32372,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32373":{"type":"single","id":32373,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32376":{"type":"single","id":32376,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32377":{"type":"single","id":32377,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32379":{"type":"single","id":32379,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32381":{"type":"single","id":32381,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32383":{"type":"single","id":32383,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here