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Feb 27, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NAKSHA SCHEME Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, Union Rural Development Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched the Central government’s new initiative—‘NAtional geospatial Knowledge-based land Survey of urban HAbitations’ (NAKSHA). Background: – Most urban areas – barring a few states like Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Goa – have outdated or unstructured land records, causing inefficiencies in governance and taxation. The programme addresses the issue of updation of land records in urban areas – while land records have improved in rural areas, several cities lack maps even today. Key takeaways NAKSHA is a city survey initiative under the existing Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP). It is spearheaded by the Department of Land Resources (DoLR), under the Ministry of Rural Development. Under the new initiative, maps of towns and cities will be prepared. The programme has been launched as a pilot across 152 urban local bodies in 26 states. The cities selected meet two criteria: area less than 35 sq km, and population less than 2 lakhs. The pilot will be completed in a year. According to the DoLR, “The NAKSHA program aims to create a comprehensive and accurate geospatial database for urban land records. By integrating aerial and field surveys with advanced GIS technology, the program enhances efficiency in land governance, streamlines property ownership records, and facilitates urban planning. Accurate geospatial data ensures improved decision-making, efficient land use planning and smoothen and certain property transactions.” What does NAKSHA entail? As per the Census 2011, India has 7,933 towns covering 1.02 lakh square km of the total 32.87 lakh square km geographical area of the country. NAKSHA will cover 4,142.63 square km of area. The initiative is 100 per cent centrally funded. The pilot project is expected to cost about Rs 194 crore. Once completed, NAKSHA is expected to provide comprehensive digital urban land records, reduce land disputes, aid in faster and more efficient urban planning, improve property tax collection, simplify property transactions and improve access to credit. The Centre plans to scale up NAKSHA once the pilot is completed. How will the survey be done? The survey will be done through aerial photography using two types of cameras— simple cameras and oblique angle cameras (having 5 cameras) with LiDAR sensors. These cameras will be mounted on drones. The ground resolution of these cameras will be 5 cm, which is far better than any satellite. The NAKSHA initiative envisages a three-stage process for the survey and mapping of urban areas. In the first stage, an area is selected, and a flight plan for a drone survey is drawn. Once a drone flight takes place, photographs are taken from which data will be extracted. In the second stage, a field survey is done to verify the conditions on the ground. Details like property tax, ownership, and registration deeds will be linked with each land parcel and property. Thereafter 2D/3D models will be prepared and draft land ownership details will be published. In the third stage, claims and objections are accounted for and grievances are redressed. Following these, the final maps will be published. Source: Indian Express UN PEACEKEEPING Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – INTERNATIONAL Context: External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar highlighted India’s commitments to supporting Global South nations in building their peacekeeping capacities at the inaugural ‘Conference for Women Peacekeepers from the Global South’. Background: – Since the 1950s, India has contributed over 290,000 peacekeepers across more than 50 UN Peacekeeping missions. Today, more than 5,000 Indian peacekeepers are currently deployed in nine of the 11 active peacekeeping missions. Key takeaways The idea of UN Peacekeeping stems from the UN having no military forces. Therefore, Member States voluntarily provide the military and police personnel that are periodically required for each peacekeeping operation from their national forces. Peacekeepers usually wear their countries’ uniforms and are identified as UN peacekeepers only by a UN blue helmet or beret and a badge. They are tasked with protecting civilians, actively preventing conflict, reducing violence, strengthening security, and empowering national authorities to assume these responsibilities. Officially, they are allowed to use force at a tactical level, with the authorisation of the Security Council, if acting in self-defence and defence of the mandate. In general, a UN peacekeeping operation should only use force as a measure of last resort. The first UN peacekeeping mission was established in May 1948, when the UN Security Council authorised the deployment of a small number of UN military observers to the Middle East to form the United Nations Truce Supervision Organization (UNTSO) to monitor the Armistice Agreement between Israel and its Arab neighbours. Who funds UN Peacekeeping Missions? The UN Security Council makes decisions about establishing, maintaining, or expanding peacekeeping operations, while all UN Member States are collectively tasked with financing them. Every member is legally obligated to pay their respective share under Article 17 of the Charter of the United Nations. The United States (26.95%) and China (18.69%) pay the most, partly because they are part of the UNSC. India’s share is around 0.2088%. Peacekeeping soldiers are paid by their Governments according to their own national rank and salary scale. Countries volunteering uniformed personnel to peacekeeping operations are reimbursed by the UN at a standard rate, approved by the General Assembly, of US$1,428 per soldier per month as of 1 July 2019. Source: Indian Express PUNCH MISSION Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Nasa is gearing up for a new and first-of-its-kind solar mission that will closely observe the solar atmosphere and reconstruct the formation, trace origins, and map the evolution of solar winds and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), both of which influence space weather. Background: The Polarimetry to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) mission will be launched by SpaceX on February 28. Key takeaways The Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) is a NASA mission designed to study the Sun’s outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and its expansion into the solar wind that fills the solar system. Objective: To understand how the solar corona transitions into the solar wind and how solar events, such as coronal mass ejections (CMEs), propagate through space. Spacecraft Configuration: The mission comprises four suitcase-sized satellites operating in a coordinated constellation. These satellites will work together to create continuous, three-dimensional images of the corona and inner heliosphere. Scientific Goals PUNCH aims to bridge the observational gap between the solar corona and the heliosphere by: Mapping the Solar Wind: Tracking the continuous flow of charged particles from the Sun to understand their acceleration and distribution. Studying Solar Transients: Observing CMEs and other dynamic events to determine their structure, evolution, and potential impact on planetary environments. Enhancing Space Weather Prediction: Providing data to improve models that predict space weather events, which can affect satellites, power grids, and communication systems on Earth. Orbit: The satellites will be placed in a Sun-synchronous, low Earth orbit, allowing continuous observation of the Sun with minimal interruptions. Mission Duration: Following a 90-day commissioning phase, PUNCH is slated for at least two years of scientific operations. Source: NASA QUALIFIED INSTITUTIONS PLACEMENT (QIP) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Shareholders of Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) have approved the company’s proposal to raise up to ₹5,000 crore through Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP) of equity shares, in one or multiple tranches. Background: – The approval was granted by the shareholders in favour of the resolution via remote e-voting during the 22nd Extra-Ordinary General Meeting (EGM) held on Tuesday through video conferencing. Key takeaways A Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) is a capital-raising tool used by listed companies in India and other Southeast Asian countries. It allows these companies to raise funds by issuing equity shares, non-convertible debt instruments, and convertible securities to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) without having to go through the lengthy and complex regulatory compliance required for other methods like follow-on public offerings (FPOs) or rights issues. Key Features of QIP: Purpose: QIPs were introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 2006 to reduce the dependence of Indian companies on foreign capital and encourage them to raise funds domestically. Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs): Only QIBs can participate in QIPs. QIBs include mutual funds, venture capital funds, foreign institutional investors, public financial institutions, scheduled commercial banks, insurance companies, and pension funds. Advantages: QIPs offer a quicker and more efficient way for companies to raise capital. They avoid the time-consuming procedural requirements and are less expensive than raising capital through American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) or Global Depositary Receipts (GDRs). Pricing: The issue price of a QIP must be not less than the average of the weekly high and low of the closing prices over the past two weeks. This ensures that shares are not allotted at a price lower than the market value. Lock-in Period: Securities allotted in a QIP are subject to a lock-in period of six months from the date of allotment. This is intended to ensure that only QIBs with a medium to long-term view participate in the issue. Procedure: Approval: The company must obtain approval from its board of directors and shareholders to proceed with a QIP. Merchant Banker: A merchant banker is appointed to manage the issue and act as an intermediary between the company and the QIBs. Offer Document: The company prepares an offer document containing details about the issue, which is shared with the QIBs. Allotment: The securities are allotted to the QIBs based on their bids, and the funds are raised. Source: The Hindu GHARIALS Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Mohan Yadav recently released 10 gharials, a critically endangered species, into the Chambal river at the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary in Morena. Background: – Madhya Pradesh’s decades-long conservation efforts have earned it the title of a “gharial state,” hosting over 80 per cent of India’s gharials. Key takeaways The gharial is a species of Gavialis gangeticus—long-snouted, fish-eating crocodilians. The name ‘gharial’ comes from the Hindi word ghara, meaning pot or vessel, referring to the bulbous snout tip of adult males, which resembles an inverted pot. Sandbanks, sandbars, and islands are critical to their ecology, serving as preferred sites for basking and nesting. From March to May, as river levels recede, female gharials climb onto exposed sandbanks and islands to nest communally, with many laying eggs in the same area. Gharials are important for a river’s ecosystem, as they clean up carrion. Madhya Pradesh boasts the highest number of gharials in India, with a 2024 census recording 2,456 individuals in the sanctuary. Wildlife researchers have said the species is likely extinct in Myanmar and Bhutan, with only small, uncertain populations remaining in Pakistan, Nepal, and Bangladesh’s upper Brahmaputra. What are the conservation efforts? Between 1975 and 1982, India established 16 captive breeding and release centers and five gharial sanctuaries. Today, the species survives primarily in five refuges: National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS), Katerniaghat Sanctuary, Chitwan National Park, Son River Sanctuary, and Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary. Conservation efforts include captive breeding programmes to rear and release hatchlings back into the river, monitoring populations, actively managing threats like sand mining, and engaging local communities. Why is the Chambal sanctuary crucial? Spanning three states, the Chambal sanctuary protects a 435-km stretch of one of India’s cleanest rivers. Apart from gharials, the stretch hosts over 290 bird species, including rare Indian Skimmers (80% of the national population). The sanctuary has also been helpful in reviving populations elsewhere. Gharials had disappeared from the rivers of Punjab around 1960-70. Gharials were sent to Punjab from the Deori Gharial Center of Chambal in 2017. In 2018, 25 gharials were sent to the Sutlej River, and in 2020, 25 gharials were sent to the Beas River. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding NASA’s PUNCH Mission: The mission aims to study the Sun’s outer atmosphere and the solar wind. It consists of a single large spacecraft equipped with advanced solar imaging instruments. One of its objectives is to enhance space weather prediction by observing coronal mass ejections (CMEs). The satellites will be placed in a geostationary orbit to provide continuous monitoring of the Sun. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding Gharials: They are found only in India. Gharials are primarily fish-eating reptiles. They are listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q3.) Which of the following statements is true about Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP)? (a) It allows listed companies to raise funds from the general public. (b) It is a method of raising capital exclusively from Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs). (c) It is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). (d) It requires a minimum of 50 investors to participate. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 25th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Feb 27, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Feb 27, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th February 2025

Feb 25, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PANCHAYAT DEVOLUTION INDEX Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj released the Panchayat Devolution Index , which is based on a study conducted by the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA). Background: – The index was last published in 2014, and over the past decade, the national average score has increased from 39.92 to 43.89. Key takeaways As of 2024, India has 2.62 lakh panchayats, an increase from 2.48 lakh in 2013-14. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of panchayats in both 2013-14 and 2024. The IIPA studied 172 panchayats across 68 districts in India to assess the performance of the panchayat system based on six parameters: framework, functions, finances, functionaries, capacity building, and accountability. Using this data, the IIPA developed the Panchayat Devolution Index. The index scores states on a scale of 0 to 100. Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu ranked highest on the index, while Uttar Pradesh and Bihar showed the most significant improvement. According to the latest index, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and Jharkhand are the lowest-scoring states. Notably, in 2013-14, Maharashtra, Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Chhattisgarh got the top scores. Women representation: While most states have a 50% reservation quota for women in panchayats, seven states and union territories fall below this threshold. Odisha has the highest proportion of women among panchayat representatives at 61.51%, followed by Himachal Pradesh at 57.5% and Tamil Nadu at 57.32%. Uttar Pradesh has the lowest proportion of women representatives at 33.33%, as its regulations allow only a one-third reservation for women. Nationally, the average proportion of women representatives is 46.44%, a slight increase from 45.9% in 2013-14. While there is no formal reservation for SCs, STs, and OBCs, specific states have shown notable representation of these groups in panchayats. Punjab has the highest proportion of SC representatives at 36.34%. Chhattisgarh has the highest share of ST representatives at 41.04%. Bihar has the highest representation of OBCs at 39.02%. In comparison, the national average representation for these groups is 18.03% for SCs, 16.22% for STs, and 19.15% for OBCs. Source: Indian Express BLACK PLASTIC Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Black plastic made headlines after a study claimed that the material contained toxic flame retardants, which could be leaching into food at hazardous levels. However, it was recently found that the study had miscalculated the levels of one of the toxic chemicals, leading the researchers to issue a correction. Background: – Black plastic is often made from recycled electronic waste such as computers, TVs, and appliances. The issue is that these electronics typically contain substances such as the flame retardant bromine; antimony; and heavy metals such as lead, cadmium, and mercury. Key takeaways Black plastic refers to plastics dyed with carbon black pigments, commonly used in packaging, electronics, automotive parts, and household goods. It is primarily made from recycled plastic but is difficult to recycle due to the presence of toxic chemicals and detection issues in recycling facilities. Challenges in Recycling Black plastic is not easily detected by conventional sorting machines in Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs). Since most recycling systems use near-infrared (NIR) sensors, black plastic absorbs infrared light, making it invisible for sorting and leading to landfill disposal. Presence of Toxic Additives Often contains hazardous chemicals like brominated flame retardants, heavy metals, and persistent organic pollutants (POPs). These chemicals leach into soil and water, causing health risks and environmental pollution. Contribution to Microplastic Pollution When black plastic degrades, it breaks into microplastics, contaminating water bodies, soil, and even entering the food chain. Microplastics impact marine life and pose a human health hazard when ingested through food or water. Link to E-Waste Pollution Black plastic is commonly sourced from e-waste, including discarded electronic casings, cables, and appliances. Improper disposal of e-waste black plastic releases hazardous chemicals, contributing to air and water pollution. Landfill and Incineration Issues Due to low recycling rates, black plastic ends up in landfills or incinerators, releasing toxic fumes such as dioxins and furans, known carcinogens and endocrine disruptors. Source: Indian Express BATTLE OF KARNAL AND DECLINE OF MUGHALS Syllabus: Prelims &Mains – HISTORY Context: The Battle of Karnal, on February 24, 1739, saw Persian emperor Nadir Shah handing a crushing defeat to the forces of Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah Rangila. Background: The army of Nadir Shah, founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Iran, defeated the Mughal forces in under three hours. The Shah of Iran subsequently captured and sacked Delhi, the Mughal capital, and emptied the royal treasury, taking home the fabled Peacock Throne and the Koh-i-noor diamond embedded on it. Key takeaways The decline of the once-mighty Mughal Empire is attributed to structural weaknesses, rather than merely the incompetence of later emperors. Excessive Tax Burden on Peasantry Historian Irfan Habib argues that heavy taxation led to peasant revolts, which forced the empire to further increase taxes to fund military campaigns, creating a vicious cycle of economic distress. (The Agrarian System of Mughal India, 1963) Expansion of the Mughal Nobility M. Athar Ali highlights how an overgrown nobility in the late 17th century led to corruption, infighting, and inefficiency due to a shortage of lucrative jagirs (land revenue assignments). (The Mughal Nobility under Aurangzeb, 1966) Religious Alienation under Aurangzeb Historians like Jadunath Sarkar argue that Aurangzeb’s oppressive religious policies alienated Hindus and other minorities, leading to internal discontent and rebellions. Nadir Shah’s invasion By the time of Aurangzeb, the Empire faced constant challenges, whether they be from the Marathas in the south, Ahoms in the east, or the Jats, Raputs, Bundelas, and Sikhs in the north and west. These challengers were not only taking territory but straining the Mughal treasury in the process. The invasion of Nadir Shah would be the single-greatest challenge that the Mughal Empire would face till that date. A military genius who some historians would later refer to as the “Napoleon of Persia”, Nadir Shah took over power in Iran after deposing the reigning Safavid dynasty. After conquering Kandahar in 1738, Nadir Shah set his sights on India. He crossed into the subcontinent through the famed Khyber pass — the route taken by previous invaders from the west, from Alexander to Timur. The two armies would meet in Karnal (present-day Haryana), some 125 km away from the capital. The battle & beyond The Mughal army was 300,000-strong, boasting more than 2,000 war elephants and 3,000 cannons. Nadir Shah’s army was much smaller, only 55,000 strong. But it was more disciplined, significantly experienced, and boasted modern tactics and weaponry. This, along with Nadir Shah’s own genius, proved to be no match for the Mughals. The Mughal army was routed in under three hours, and Muhammad Shah was subsequently captured. The Persians then marched to Delhi where they plundered the royal treasure, and massacred thousands in one of the most violent episodes in Delhi’s history. Nadir Shah eventually handed Rangila his territories back but he left Delhi with what was the accumulated wealth of eight generations of imperial Mughal conquest. Over the next hundred-odd years, the Mughal Empire ceded more and more territory, till the British finally ended Mughal rule once and for all in 1857. Source: Indian Express INDIA’S TEXTILE INDUSTRY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India’s textile industry is among the largest in the world. Despite its scale, India lags behind countries like China, Vietnam, and Bangladesh in textile exports. Background: – Sustainability is set to pose a major challenge for India’s textile industry, as global brands and markets tighten compliance norms. These include higher renewable energy use, water and material recycling, and stricter sourcing and traceability requirements. Key takeaways Cotton cultivation provides livelihood to nearly 60 lakh farmers, mainly in Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana. The entire cotton textile value chain—from processing raw fibre and spinning yarn to weaving fabric, dyeing, and stitching—employs over 4.5 crore people. Although cotton dominates fibre consumption in India, the textile industry also utilizes wool, jute, and man-made fibres (MMF). India is the second-largest producer of MMF, with Reliance Industries Ltd leading in polyester fibre and Aditya Birla Group’s Grasim Industries Ltd being the only domestic producer of viscose fibre. Around 80% of India’s textile value chain is concentrated in MSME clusters, each specializing in different segments: Bhiwandi, Maharashtra – Fabric production Tiruppur, Tamil Nadu – T-shirts and undergarments Surat, Gujarat – Polyester and nylon fabric Ludhiana, Punjab – Woolen garments Growth, exports in the red The textile and apparel industry contributes 13% to industrial production, 12% to exports, and nearly 2% to GDP. However, manufacturing in the textile and apparel industry has slightly contracted over the past 10 years, according to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). The economic downturn after the Covid pandemic, caused by a combination of global and domestic headwinds, has taken a severe toll on the MSME clusters, especially in Tamil Nadu. Although India maintains a trade surplus in textiles and apparel, export growth has remained sluggish in recent years. Challenges in Export Competitiveness India faces stiff competition from China, Vietnam, and Bangladesh, primarily due to higher production costs and fragmented supply chains. Lack of Vertical Integration India’s cotton supply chain is scattered across multiple states, leading to higher logistical costs and inefficiencies. In contrast, China and Vietnam have vertically integrated ‘fibre-to-fashion’ firms, enabling cost-effective production, consistent quality, and agility in adapting to market trends. Regulatory & Trade Barriers Complex customs procedures in India make textile exports more expensive and time-consuming. Competitor nations benefit from simpler regulatory frameworks and Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), which provide them with a price advantage in global markets. High Raw Material Costs in MMF Sector The MMF industry in India suffers from higher raw material costs, further reducing its competitiveness. Quality Control Orders (QCOs) restrict imports of polyester and viscose fibres, forcing domestic yarn makers to rely on more expensive local alternatives. Source: Indian Express SELENIUM Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Incidents of sudden hair loss in Maharashtra’s Buldhana district, which made national headlines, are linked to high selenium content found in wheat from Punjab and Haryana supplied by local ration shops, as per a medical expert’s report. Background: – The cases of sudden hair loss, or ‘acute onset alopecia totalis’, were reported in 279 persons in 18 villages of Buldhana between December 2024 and January this year, prompting authorities to order a probe into the matter. Key takeaways Selenium (Se) is a nonmetal element. It naturally occurs in various forms, including a gray metallic form known for its photoconductive (conducts electricity when exposed to light) properties, making it useful in photocells and light meters. Selenium is primarily obtained as a byproduct of copper refining and is utilized in glassmaking, pigments, and electronics. Biologically, it is an essential trace mineral vital for functions such as thyroid hormone metabolism, DNA synthesis, and protection against oxidative damage and infection. Selenium is a mineral found in the soil and naturally appears in water and some foods. Dietary sources rich in selenium include Brazil nuts, fish, poultry, and grains. While necessary in small amounts, excessive selenium intake can lead to toxicity. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Battle of Karnal (1739), consider the following statements: Nadir Shah invaded India after capturing Kandahar in 1738. The Mughal army was significantly smaller than Nadir Shah’s army. The outcome of the battle led to the weakening of the Mughal treasury and further decline of the empire. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) The Panchayat Devolution Index is developed based on which of the following parameters? Framework Functions Finances Functionaries Capacity Building Accountability Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only (c) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding Selenium: Selenium is a nonmetal element that naturally occurs in various forms, including a photoconductive metallic form. It is primarily obtained as a byproduct of iron refining. Excessive intake of selenium can lead to toxicity in humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 24th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Feb 25, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th February 2025

Feb 24, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) ZONAL COUNCILS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the 27th meeting of the Western Zonal Council in Pune. Background: – The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first PM Jawaharlal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Reorganisation Commission, he suggested that the states proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council “to develop the habit of cooperative working”. Key takeaways Zonal Councils in India are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North-Eastern Council (NEC), created under a separate Act in 1971, covers the northeastern states and functions differently. The present composition of the Zonal Councils is as follows: The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh. The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal. The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry. North Eastern Council was set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972 with Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland as its members. The state of Sikkim, earlier in the Eastern Zonal Council was included in the North Eastern Council in 2002. Each Zonal Council has a Standing Committee consisting of Chief Secretaries of the member states. These Standing Committees meet from time to time to resolve the issues or to do necessary groundwork for further meetings of the Zonal Councils. The composition of each council is as follows: The Union Home Minister is the chairman of each of these council. The Chief Ministers of the states included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. In 2018, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the nomination of the Union Home Minister as ex-officio chairman of North Eastern Council and the Minister Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) to serve as Vice Chairman of the Council. Source: Indian Express DARIEN GAP Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Migrants seeking entry into the US continue to resort to the infamous Darien Gap, an unforgiving expanse of jungle between Panama and Colombia. They are led by unscrupulous human traffickers who prey on their desire to seek a better life. Background: – The majority of migrants hail from Latin America and are fleeing poverty, economic instability, and political turmoil in their home countries. However, an increasing number of people from Asian countries like India have frequented this route, spending large amounts of money. Key takeaways Location: The Darien Gap is a dense, roadless jungle region on the border of Panama and Colombia. Physical Features: It consists of swamps, rainforests, and rugged mountains, making it one of the most inaccessible regions in the world. Obstacle to the Pan-American Highway: This is the only missing section (about 106 km) in the otherwise continuous Pan-American Highway, which extends from Alaska to Argentina. Strategic & Geopolitical Importance Migration Route: It has become a major passage for migrants from South America, Africa, and even Asia attempting to reach North America. Security Issues: The area is notorious for drug trafficking, organized crime, and armed groups operating in the region. Environmental Conservation vs. Development: Proposals to build roads through the Darien Gap face opposition due to concerns about deforestation, indigenous rights, and biodiversity loss. Environmental & Ecological Concerns Biodiversity Hotspot: It is home to endangered species and a vital part of the Mesoamerican Biological Corridor. Portions of the Darién Gap are protected as national parks and reserves, such as Darién National Park in Panama, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Climate Change & Deforestation: Logging, illegal settlements, and infrastructure development threaten the unique ecosystem. Indigenous Communities: Several indigenous tribes, including the Emberá and Wounaan, inhabit the region and rely on traditional means for survival. Source: Indian Express SOLIGA Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a reference to Soligas of BRT Tiger Reserve in the 119th edition of Mann Ki Baat and praised their contribution to tiger conservation. Background: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) report on the tiger population for BRT Tiger Reserve indicated the presence of 69 tigers in 2014. This number went up to 86 in the 2018 report. However, the NTCA’s 2022 report on the “Status of Tigers, Co-Predators, and Prey” noted a decline in the tiger population and attributed it to the presence of humans and habitat degradation. Key takeaways The Soliga, also spelled Solega, Sholaga, and Shōlaga, are an indigenous tribal community primarily residing in the Biligirirangana Hills (BR Hills) and Male Mahadeshwara Hills of Karnataka, India, with some populations in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu. Their name, “Soliga,” translates to “children of bamboo,” reflecting their deep-rooted connection with nature. Language: The Soliga speak Sholaga, a Dravidian language closely related to Kannada and Tamil. Historically, the Soliga practiced shifting cultivation and were dependent on the forest for their livelihood, collecting non-timber forest products (NTFP) such as honey, gooseberries, bamboo, and various medicinal plants. They possess extensive knowledge of over 300 herbs used for treating various ailments. Cultural and Religious Practices The Soliga follow a blend of naturism, animism, and Hinduism. Sacred sites such as Dodda Sampige, a large Michelia champaka tree, hold significant spiritual importance. Legal Recognition and Conservation Efforts In 2011, the BR Hills region was declared a tiger reserve, leading to restrictions on traditional practices. The Soliga community legally contested these limitations and became the first tribal group in India to have their forest rights recognized within a core area of a tiger reserve. They have since collaborated in conservation efforts, contributing to the doubling of the tiger population between 2011 and 2015. Source: The Hindu NATIONAL EDUCATION POLICY (NEP) OF 2020 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan’s remarks indicating that Tamil Nadu would not receive funding under the Samagra Shiksha program until it adopts the National Education Policy (NEP) and implements its three-language policy has sparked significant protest against NEP in the state. Background: – The need for an education policy was first felt in 1964 when Congress MP Siddheshwar Prasad criticised the then government for lacking vision for education. A 17-member Education Commission, headed by then UGC Chairperson D S Kothari, was constituted to draft a national policy. Based on the suggestions of this Commission, Parliament passed the first education policy in 1968. Key takeaways The National Education Policy, 2020 is the third national education policy. The first came in 1968 and the second in 1986, under Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi respectively; the NEP of 1986 was revised in 1992 when P V Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister. The NEP only provides a broad direction and is not mandatory to follow. Education is a concurrent subject (both the Centre and the state governments can make laws on it). Salient Features of NEP 2020 School Education Reforms New 5+3+3+4 Structure replacing the 10+2 system: Foundational Stage (5 years): 3 years of preschool + Grades 1-2 (Ages 3-8). Preparatory Stage (3 years): Grades 3-5 (Ages 8-11). Middle Stage (3 years): Grades 6-8 (Ages 11-14). Secondary Stage (4 years): Grades 9-12 (Ages 14-18). Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE): Universal access to quality education for kids aged 3-6, integrating anganwadis and pre-schools into the system. Mother Tongue as Medium of Instruction: Up to Grade 5, preferably till Grade 8 and beyond. Introduction of Coding & Computational Thinking from Grade 6. Higher Education Reforms Multidisciplinary Education with flexible curricula. Multiple Entry and Exit Options: Certificate after 1 year, Diploma after 2 years, Degree after 3/4 years. Abolition of M.Phil. Programs. Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Digital credit storage and transfer system. Focus on Research: Formation of National Research Foundation (NRF). Higher Education Commission of India (HECI): Single regulatory body for all higher education (excluding medical and legal). Skill Development & Vocational Education Vocational courses integrated from Grade 6. Focus on experiential learning, internships, and hands-on projects. By 2030, the minimum qualification for teaching to be a 4-year integrated B.Ed. degree. Increased Budget Allocation – Public investment in education to increase to 6% of GDP. Source: Indian Express JHUMUR DNACE Syllabus: Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will witness what has been pegged as the “biggest ever” jhumur (also spelt jhumoir or jhumair) event in history on February 24. Background: – Some 8,600 dancers will perform in Guwahati’s Sarusajai Stadium at the Jhumoir Binandini 2025 to mark the 200th anniversary of Assam’s tea industry. Key takeaways The term “tea tribe” loosely refers to a multi-cultural, multi-ethnic community of tea garden workers and their descendants. These people came from Central India — mostly from present-day Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal — and settled in Assam in the 19th century to work in the British tea gardens. This migration was often forced, and even when it was not, it occurred in highly exploitative circumstances. Not only did migrants work under abysmal conditions at the tea gardens for very little pay, but they were also not free to leave. Today, the descendants of these people are concentrated in districts with a large concentration of tea estates, in Upper Assam and in the Barak Valley. They have Other Backward Classes (OBC) status in the state, although they have long been fighting for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status. Tribes such as the Munda or the Santhal, a part of the larger tea garden community in Assam, have ST status in the states where they originally came from. what is the Jhumur dance? The tea garden community brought a motley collection of cultural practices from their homelands to Assam. Of particular note in this regard is the jhumur tradition. Jhumur is the folk dance of the Sadan ethnolinguistic group, who trace their origins to the Chotanagpur region. Today it occupies a central place in what are known as “tea garden festivals” or festivals celebrated by tea garden workers in Assam. Women are the main dancers and singers, while men play traditional instruments such as madal, dhol, or dhak (drums), cymbals, flutes, and shehnai. The attire worn varies from community to community, although red and white sarees are particularly popular among women. Dancers stand shoulder-to-shoulder and move in coordinated patterns with precise footwork while singing couplets in their native languages — Nagpuri, Khortha and Kurmali. These have evolved in Assam to borrow heavily from Assamese. While set to upbeat tunes and lively rhythms, the subject of Jhumur songs in Assam, however, can often be grim. The tradition also acts as a means of social cohesion, more so given the history of displacement of the tea garden communities. It aided them in not only retaining aspects of their culture and identity but also in making sense of the world their ancestors found themselves in. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Jhumur Dance: It is a folk dance traditionally performed by the tea garden community in Assam. The main dancers in Jhumur are men, while women play musical instruments. Jhumur songs in Assam are performed in languages like Nagpuri, Khortha, and Kurmali, with influence from Assamese. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the Soliga tribe, consider the following statements: The Soliga are primarily found in the Biligirirangana Hills (BR Hills) and Male Mahadeshwara Hills in Karnataka. They were the first tribal group in India to receive legal recognition for their forest rights within a core area of a tiger reserve. The Soliga language is an Indo-Aryan language closely related to Hindi and Marathi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Darien Gap: It is a roadless jungle region that serves as a geographical barrier between Panama and Colombia. It is the only missing section of the Pan-American Highway, which otherwise connects North and South America. The region is primarily known for its biodiversity conservation, with minimal security threats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 22nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Feb 24, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th February 2025

Feb 22, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd February 2025

Feb 22, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COMPENSATORY AFFORESTATION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: A recent audit report by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) on the functioning of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) in the 2019-2022 period has flagged that the funds allocated for compensatory afforestation were diverted for other activities by Uttarakhand’s forest divisions. Background: – As per CAMPA guidelines, after receiving funds, afforestation should be conducted within a year, or two growing seasons. However, the report flagged that in 37 cases, compensatory afforestation was executed after more than eight years of getting final clearance. Key takeaways The simple principle that works in compensatory afforestation is that since forests are an important resource and render ecological services, they must not be destroyed. However, because of developmental requirements, forests are routinely cut, or, as it is said in official language, “diverted for non-forest purposes”. But since afforested land does not become a forest overnight, there is still a loss of the goods and services that the diverted forest would have provided in the interim period. These goods and services include timber, bamboo, fuelwood, carbon sequestration, soil conservation, water recharge, and seed dispersal. Afforested land is expected to take no less than 50 years to start delivering comparable goods and services. To compensate for the loss in the interim, the law requires that the Net Present Value (NPV) of the diverted forest is calculated for a period of 50 years, and recovered from the “user agency” that is “diverting” the forests. “User agencies”, which are often private parties, are not expected to undertake afforestation work themselves. This work has to be done by the state government. But the entire expenditure to be incurred on creating this new ‘forest’, including purchase of land for the purpose, has to be borne by the user. Thus, if any user agency wants to divert forest land for non-forest purposes, it has to deposit money for compensatory afforestation as well as pay the NPV, besides a few other charges. CAMPA is set up to manage this money. The compensatory afforestation money and NPV are supposed to be collected from the user agency by the government of the state in which the project is located, and deposited with the central government. The money will eventually flow back to the state to be used for afforestation or related works. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act 2016 created a national CAMPA at the central government level, and a state CAMPA in each state and UT. Similarly, a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF), and one in each state and UT too are also constituted. The states deposit money collected from user agencies with the national CAF, to be eventually credited into state CAFs as per their entitlement. The states, however, receive only 90% of their share; the other 10% are held back to cover administrative expenses. Source: Indian Express ARTICLE 101(4) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Incarcerated Khadoor Sahib MP Amritpal Singh moved the Punjab and Haryana High Court to attend the ongoing Parliament session, lest he lose his seat because of his prolonged absence from the House. Background: – Amritpal, who faces charges under National Security Act, has been detained in Dibrugarh since April 2023. He contested and won the 2024 Lok Sabha election from prison, but thus far has an attendance of only 2%. Key takeaways “If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of Parliament is without permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant,” Article 101(4) says. The 60 days, however, do not account for “any period during which the House is prorogued or is adjourned for more than four consecutive days”. Effectively, the period of absence is only calculated based on the actual sittings of Parliament. Amritpal, for instance, only attended one sitting of the Lok Sabha — the one in which he was sworn in last July. Since then, he has remained in detention in Assam. MPs can seek leave The operative term in Article 101(4) is “without permission of the House”. For long absences, MPs write to the ‘Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House’, the parliamentary panel that deals with this issue. The committee makes recommendations on each leave application, which are then ratified by the House concerned. In practice, however, applications are seldom rejected. Past leave application reports list illness — their own or some relative’s — as the most common reason for MPs being granted leave. That said, members have requested and been granted leave on the count of being imprisoned as well. In 2023, then Ghosi MP Atul Rai of the Bahujan Samaj Party sought permission to remain absent on 23 consecutive sittings of Parliament as he was in jail. His application was granted. Even if an MP is absent for more than 60 days, the House has to “declare” the seat vacant, meaning the matter has to be put to vote. Source: Indian Express STAGFLATION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Stubborn inflation and President Donald Trump’s hard-line trade policies have rekindled fears of stagflation, a worrying mix of sluggish growth and relentless inflation that haunted the U.S. in the 1970s. Background: A critical component of the stagflation phenomenon—persistently high inflation—became more pronounced earlier this month when data revealed that consumer prices in January experienced their most rapid monthly increase since August 2023. Meanwhile, the trajectory of U.S. economic growth remains uncertain, with the potential inflationary impact of Mr. Trump’s tariffs posing a risk that could further exacerbate the situation. Key takeaways Stagflation is a rare economic condition where high inflation coexists with stagnant economic growth and high unemployment. This phenomenon contradicts conventional economic theories, which suggest that inflation and economic growth generally move in the same direction. Understanding Stagflation: The term “stagflation” is a combination of stagnation (slow or no economic growth) and inflation (rising prices). Typically, inflation is associated with economic expansion, but in stagflation, rising prices occur alongside weak demand and high unemployment. Causes of Stagflation: Supply-Side Shocks: A sudden increase in the cost of essential goods (e.g., crude oil prices) can drive inflation while simultaneously slowing economic activity. Monetary Policy Failures: Excessive money supply without corresponding economic growth can lead to inflation without boosting employment or output. Structural Rigidities: Labor market inefficiencies, lack of productivity growth, and supply chain disruptions can contribute to stagnant growth and rising inflation. External Factors: Geopolitical tensions, trade restrictions, and commodity price volatility can create stagflationary conditions. Historical Example: The 1970s Oil Crisis is a classic example, where oil price shocks caused high inflation while economies faced recessionary pressures. Impact of Stagflation: Economic Growth Decline: Businesses struggle due to high costs, reducing production and investments. Unemployment Increases: Job losses occur as firms cut back on hiring due to weak demand. Declining Purchasing Power: Rising prices erode consumer savings and wages, impacting living standards. Policy Dilemma: Central banks face difficulty in addressing stagflation since measures to curb inflation (e.g., high interest rates) can further slow growth, while stimulus measures (e.g., low interest rates) can worsen inflation. Source: The Hindu INTERNATIONAL FINANCE CORPORATION Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Following opposition from local communities, environmentalists and civil society groups, the World Bank has said that it will not invest in four waste-to-energy (WTE) incineration plants in Gujarat. Background: – According to a press release by civil society group Alliance for Incinerator Free Gujarat, the World Bank’s International Finance Corporation (IFC) – the private lending arm of the World Bank – confirmed to the NGO after it filed for an access to information request that it would not be investing in the WTE incineration plants in Gujarat. Key takeaways The International Finance Corporation (IFC), a key institution of the World Bank Group, plays a crucial role in promoting private sector development in emerging economies by providing investment, advisory, and asset management services. Established: 1956 Headquarters: Washington, D.C., USA Parent Organization: World Bank Group Membership: 186 countries Objectives of IFC: To promote private sector development in developing countries. To provide financial assistance to businesses and entrepreneurs where traditional financial institutions are reluctant to invest. To reduce poverty by fostering economic growth through private sector investments. To support sustainable development by financing projects with environmental and social benefits. Functions of IFC: Financing Private Sector Projects: Provides loans, equity investments, and guarantees to private enterprises. Mobilizing Capital: Helps attract private investors and financial institutions to invest in developing economies. Advisory Services: Offers expertise in corporate governance, financial structuring, and policy reforms. Promoting Sustainable Development: Invests in environmentally friendly and socially responsible projects. IFC & India: India is one of the largest recipients of IFC funding. IFC has invested in renewable energy, infrastructure, banking, and microfinance sectors in India. Supports MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) and start-ups. Aims to facilitate green financing and sustainable urban development in India. Source: The Wire PRIME MINISTER INTERNSHIP SCHEME Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS) is once again open for applications with the launch of round 2 of the pilot phase. Background: – After more than six lakh applications in round 1, round 2 offers more than one lakh internship opportunities in top companies across more than 730 districts in India. Key takeaways The Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS) is a significant initiative by the Government of India, aiming to provide 12-month paid internships to the nation’s youth in the country’s top companies. This program seeks to bridge the gap between academic learning and practical industry experience, thereby enhancing employability and skill development among young individuals. Key Features of PMIS: Target Group: Individuals aged 21 to 24 who are not currently enrolled in any full-time academic program or employment. Internship Duration: 12 months, combining relevant training with at least six months of professional experience. Financial Assistance: Each intern receives a monthly stipend of ₹5,000, supplemented by a one-time financial assistance of ₹6,000. Sectors Covered: Internships are available across various sectors, including Oil, Gas & Energy; Banking & Financial Services; Travel & Hospitality; Automotive; Metals & Mining; Manufacturing & Industrial; and Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG). Eligibility Criteria: Age: 21 to 24 years. Educational Background: Applicants should have completed their education and not be engaged in any full-time academic or employment activities. Minimum qualification of 10th, 12th grade, or an undergraduate degree, ITI, or other technical diploma Exclusions: Individuals enrolled in full-time studies or employment are not eligible. Implementation and Outreach: The scheme is spearheaded by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. To maximize reach, more than 70 Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) events are being conducted across India, targeting districts with the highest number of internship opportunities. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Stagflation: Stagflation is a situation where high inflation is accompanied by high economic growth. It is primarily caused by supply-side shocks that lead to rising costs while economic output stagnates. Stagflation was first widely recognized during the 1970s oil crisis. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Which of the following statements regarding the International Finance Corporation (IFC) is correct? (a) IFC is a part of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and primarily provides loans to governments of developing countries. (b) IFC provides financial assistance only to large multinational corporations and excludes small and medium enterprises (SMEs). (c) The headquarters of IFC is located in Geneva, Switzerland. (d) It is a member of the World Bank Group and focuses on private sector investment in developing economies. Q3.) With reference to the Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PMIS), consider the following statements: The scheme provides a 12-month internship opportunity to young individuals in India’s top companies. The eligible age group for this internship is 21 to 24 years. Interns under this scheme receive both a monthly stipend and a one-time financial assistance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 21st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

Feb 21, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) GLOBAL SEA ICE COVER Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Global sea ice cover reached a record low of 15.76 million sq km over the five days leading up to February 13, surpassing the previous low of 15.93 million sq km recorded in January-February 2023. Background: – Sea ice refers to the free-floating ice in the polar regions. While it generally expands during the winter and melts in the summers, some sea ice remains year-round. Note that this is different from icebergs, glaciers, ice sheets, and ice shelves, which form on land. Key takeaways Experts suggest that the 2025 low could be due to a combination of warm air, warm seas and winds breaking apart the ice. Antarctic sea ice is particularly vulnerable to ice-breaking winds. Unlike Arctic ice, it is surrounded by the ocean instead of continents and is thus more mobile, and also comparatively thinner. The situation has been made worse this year due to warmer air and warmer waters towards the end of the southern hemisphere summer (December to February). Higher air temperatures led to the melting of the edges of the Antarctic ice sheet — also known as ice shelves — which extend over the ocean. In the Arctic, where winter lasts from November to February, sea ice remained low because of a delayed freezing around the Hudson Bay, a large saltwater body in northeastern Canada. The delay occurred as unusually warm oceans took a longer time to cool down. The region also witnessed some storms which broke apart ice around the Barents Sea, located off the northern coasts of Norway and Russia, and the Bering Sea, the stretch between Alaska and Russia. Higher than usual air temperatures in areas such as Svalbard, Norway, resulted in further loss of sea ice. What dip means Less sea ice cover means that more water is getting exposed to the Sun and more heat (solar radiation) is getting absorbed, leading to a further rise in temperatures. Notably, sea ice keeps temperatures down in the polar regions, as its bright, white surface reflects more sunlight back to space than liquid water. The loss of sea ice cover could be one of the reasons why the polar regions are getting warmer at a faster rate than the rest of the world. Source: Indian Express MAJORANA 1 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Microsoft has announced a new chip, called Majorana 1, that it said showed quantum computing is “years, not decades” away, joining Google and IBM in predicting that a fundamental change in computing technology is closer than believed. Background: – Quantum computing holds the promise of carrying out calculations that would take today’s systems millions of years and could unlock important discoveries in medicine, chemistry, and aerospace, among others. Key takeaways Majorana 1 is a groundbreaking quantum computing chip developed by Microsoft. Microsoft’s breakthrough revolves around engineering a new type of particle known as Majorana. These Majorana particles have been fabricated using topological conductors and they exist in a topological state, which differs from traditional states of matter such as solid, liquid, and gas. First theorised over 80 years ago by Italian physicist Ettore Majorana, Majorana fermions are particles that are their own anti-particles. But, there was no physical evidence of such particles. Key Features Topological Quantum Bits: Majorana 1 integrates eight topological qubits, which are more stable and less prone to errors compared to traditional qubits. Topological Conductors: Utilizes a new type of material called topoconductors to observe and control Majorana particles, enhancing the reliability and scalability of qubits. Compact Design: The chip is compact, about the size of a sticky note, yet powerful enough to be a stepping stone towards systems capable of supporting a million qubits. Applications Industrial-Scale Problems: Designed to solve meaningful, industrial-scale problems in fields such as medicine, pollution control, and materials science. Future Potential: Microsoft envisions Majorana 1 as a path to developing quantum systems that can scale to a million qubits, enabling transformative solutions. Significance Quantum Leap: Represents a significant advancement in quantum computing, potentially revolutionizing various industries. Error Resistance: The use of Majorana fermions makes the chip highly stable and resistant to errors, a major challenge in quantum computing. Source: The Hindu CONSUMPTION, INVESTMENT AND GROWTH Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The role of consumption and investment in driving growth has been a topic of debate. In the latest Budget, the government has not demonstrated a strong commitment to boosting investment. Instead, the emphasis on tax concessions and restrained public spending suggests a reliance on consumption to drive growth. Background: An economy’s growth depends on two factors. One is the supply or the production of goods and services, and the other is the demand or expenditure for purchasing these goods and services. Key takeaways The demand or aggregate expenditure in an economy comes from four sources. First is private consumption, which is the sum of expenditures by all individuals on items such as food, clothing, and mobile phones. Second is private investment, which is the amount spent by firms and households on installing new machines and constructing new factories or residences. Third is government expenditure, for consumption and investment. Fourth is net exports or exports minus import of goods and services while engaging in trade with the rest of the world. Investment and its multipliers Among the sources of demand, investment stands out for its ‘multiplier effects’. That is, an increase in investment of ₹100 could increase the economy’s overall demand and GDP by more than ₹100 — let us say by ₹125. Consider public investment in building a new highway. The incomes received by workers and firms involved in the project will generate fresh demand in the economy. The highways will trigger the establishment of new industries, all of which translate into a much bigger expansion of aggregate demand. Compared to investment, the multiplier effect from increased consumption is weaker. If incomes increase, consumption expenditures also increase, but the relation does not work strongly enough in the reverse direction. A rise in consumption cannot lift incomes as much in the rest of the economy. Indian and Chinese experiences In the early 1990s, the per capita incomes of India and China were almost the same. But by 2023, China’s per capita income has grown to five times as high as the Indian level (2.4 times as high if purchasing power differences between the two countries are considered). The speedy growth of incomes in China has been led by investment. India’s economic growth over the last decade has been driven mainly by expanding domestic consumption expenditures. In 2023, consumption as a share of GDP was 60.3% in India compared to 39.1% in China. The dominance of consumption in India’s GDP structure is mainly due to the weaknesses of the other components of aggregate demand in the country. The shares of investment and government consumption expenditure are relatively low. India also has a trade deficit, with its import of goods and services being larger than its exports, reducing domestic demand. Economic growth driven by consumption is not only slower than investment-led growth, but it also aggravates inequalities. The growth of jobs, incomes, and consumption has remained depressed for many Indians, and they will be left behind. Source: The Hindu ADVOCATE-ON-RECORD Syllabus: Prelims – POLITY Context: The Supreme Court has held that Advocates-on-Record (AoRs) bear full responsibility for the accuracy of petitions filed before the Court, even if the drafts are prepared by other advocates. Background: – The Court warned against AoRs merely lending their names to petitions without due diligence. Key takeaways The Supreme Court of India has a unique designation known as Advocate-on-Record (AOR), which grants exclusive rights to file cases before the apex court. An Advocate-on-Record is a lawyer who is authorized to file pleadings and appear before the Supreme Court of India on behalf of clients. Only an AoR can file cases before the Supreme Court. An AoR might engage other lawyers including senior counsels to argue before the Court. Eligibility Criteria to Become an AOR: The advocate must have four years of legal practice. They must complete one year of training under a Supreme Court approved AOR. They must pass the AOR Examination, conducted by the Supreme Court, which includes subjects like Constitutional Law, Practice & Procedure, and Professional Ethics. They must maintain an office within a 16-km radius of the Supreme Court and have a registered clerk. Key Responsibilities of an AOR: Filing and processing cases in the Supreme Court. Ensuring compliance with Supreme Court rules and procedures. Managing legal documentation and submissions before the apex court. Representing clients in Supreme Court cases. Significance of the AOR System: Ensures high-quality legal representation at the Supreme Court. Helps in streamlining case management and adherence to procedural rules. Facilitates better coordination between the judiciary and legal practitioners. Source: Live Law DINESH KHARA COMMITTEE Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) has formed a high-powered committee, led by Dinesh Khara, former chairman of State Bank of India, to scrutinise various aspects of the Insurance Act 1938 and suggest amendments. Background: – Insurance Act, 1938 was originally passed in British India to regulate the insurance sector. It provides the broad legal framework within which the industry operates. It also led to establishment of the regulatory authority, Irdai, which oversees the implementation of the act. Key takeaways The Dinesh Khara Committee is a high-powered seven-member committee formed by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to review proposed amendments to the Insurance Act of 1938. The Irdai move has come at a time when the Indian government is gearing up to introduce the Insurance Amendment Bill in Parliament. Key Objectives of the Dinesh Khara Committee: Reviewing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Limits: Assessing the feasibility of increasing the FDI cap in the insurance sector from the current 74% to 100%, with appropriate safeguards to ensure that revenues from insurance sales remain within India. Introducing Composite Licenses: Evaluating the implementation of a composite licensing system that would allow insurers to offer multiple types of insurance products—life, non-life, and health—under a single entity, thereby streamlining operations and expanding product offerings. Reducing Capital Requirements: Considering the reduction of paid-up capital requirements for insurers to encourage the entry of new players and enhance competition within the industry. Streamlining Regulatory Processes: Proposing measures to simplify and expedite regulatory procedures, facilitating ease of doing business and promoting growth in the insurance sector. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate-on-Record (AoR) system in the Supreme Court of India: Only an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is authorized to file cases before the Supreme Court of India. Any advocate with five years of legal practice is eligible to become an AoR without any additional examination. An AoR must maintain an office within a specified radius of the Supreme Court and have a registered clerk. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to Microsoft’s Majorana 1 quantum computing chip, consider the following statements: Majorana 1 is based on topological quantum computing, utilizing Majorana fermions for greater stability. The chip integrates eight topological qubits, making it less prone to errors compared to traditional qubits. Majorana 1 is designed primarily for commercial consumer use in personal computing devices. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Match the following committees with their respective objectives: Committee Name Objective Dinesh Khara Committee. 1. Review and suggest reforms in the Insurance Act Kasturirangan Committee. 2. Recommend policies for Western Ghats Shyam Benegal Committee. 3. Propose reforms in film certification and censorship policies in India Bimal Jalan Committee. 4. Review economic capital framework and financial reserves Select the correct match using the code below: (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 20th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

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