IASbaba's Flagship Course: Integrated Learning Programme (ILP) - 2024  Read Details

Posts

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 21] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 20 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a time when doing something good for someone else also resulted in a positive outcome for you. What happened, and how did it make you feel? How do you define “doing good” in your life? Is it through acts of kindness, contributing to society, or something else? Discuss the importance of altruism in today’s world. Can individual acts of goodness collectively lead to significant social change? Share your thoughts. Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Indian government has launched various beneficiary programs aimed at social welfare, financial inclusion, and healthcare accessibility, among others, to uplift and support different segments of the population. How effective do you think these beneficiary programs are in addressing the needs of the intended populations? What are the key factors that determine their success or failure? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   MERA GAON MERI DHAROHAR Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Government of India decided to map and document all villages under the Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar (MGMD) Programme. Background:- A web portal on MGMD has also been launched on 27.07.2023. About Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar (MGMD) Programme:- Launched: 27th July 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Culture. Objective: The main objective of the project is to culturally map India’s 6.5 lakh villages, spanning 29 States and 7 Union Territories, on a comprehensive virtual platform. Salient Features:- It is a pan-India initiative under the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. Under the MGMD, information is collected under seven broad categories as given below- Arts and Crafts Village Ecologically Oriented Village Scholastic Village linked with Textual and Scriptural Traditions of India Epic Village linked with Ramayana, Mahabharata, and/or Puranic legends and oral epics Historical Village linked with Local and National History Architectural Heritage Village Any other characteristic that may need highlighting such as a fishing village, horticulture village, shepherding village, etc. The Ministry of Culture is implementing a Scheme of Financial Assistance for the Promotion of Art and Culture consisting of 08 components through which cultural organizations are given financial assistance for the promotion of art and culture. The MGMD seeks to compile comprehensive information detailing the life, history, and ethos of Indian villages and to make the same available to virtual and real-time visitors. (Vibrant Villages Programme) This comprehensive portal showcases essential information about each village, including its geographical location, demographic aspects, and description of traditional dresses, ornaments, arts and crafts, temples, fairs, festivals, and much more. Benefits:- It serves as a one-stop destination for discovering, exploring, researching, and virtually visiting every village in the country.  MUST READ: ‘Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav’ drive SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only International Energy Agency (IEA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The International Energy Agency (IEA)’s Renewables 2023 report was released recently. Background:- It paints a complex picture of the renewable energy sector, highlighting both progress and challenges. About the International Energy Agency (IEA):- It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Headquarters:  Paris The IEA is made up of 31 member countries. Objective:  to promote reliable, affordable, and clean energy for its member countries and the rest of the world. The Agreement on an International Energy Program (IEP Agreement) established the mandates and structure of the IEA under the umbrella of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Eligibility Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must have crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply. India became an Associate member of IEA in 2017. India inked a Strategic Partnership Agreement with the IEA to strengthen cooperation in global energy security, stability, and sustainability in 2021. India’s current strategic oil reserves equal 9.5 days of its requirement. India is not a member of the OECD but a key economic partner. IEA invited India to deepen its cooperation with IEA by becoming a full Member. Key publications of IEA : World Energy Outlook (WEO) Net Zero by 2050: a roadmap for the global energy sector Energy Technology Perspectives (ETP) Global EV Outlook (GEVO) Oil Market Report World Energy Investment Clean Energy Transitions Programme  MUST READ: Methane Global Tracker report SOURCE: IEA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Odisha Government announced to establishment of a first of its kind in the world melanistic tiger safari near the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR). Background:- The Similipal Tiger Reserve became the only home for melanistic tigers in the wild in the world, says the State Forest and Environment department. About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR):- Location: Odisha. Similipal, which derives its name from the ‘Simul’(Silk Cotton) tree, is a national park and a Tiger Reserve situated in the northern part of Orissa’s Mayurbhanj district. Area: 2750 sq km. It has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani. Prominent tribes: Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia and Sahara. It was declared a ‘Tiger Reserve’ in 1956. It has been included in the national conservation programme ‘Project Tiger’ since 1973. The STR, along with a ‘transitional area’ of 2250 sq. km, has been included as a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2009. Flora: A mix of different forest types and habitats dominate, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches. Sal is the dominant tree species here. Fauna: Royal Bengal Tiger, Leopard, Gaur, Elephant, Langur, Barking and Spotted Deer, Sloth Bear, Mongoose, Flying Squirrel,etc. MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways e-NAM Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Farm-gate, inter-mandi e-NAM sales show surge in FY2024. Background:- The total traded value of commodities on the digital platform using the farmgate model during April – January, 2023-24 has been Rs 79 crore compared to a very small amount traded last fiscal. About e-NAM:- eNAM platform is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. It was launched in 2016 as a pan-India electronic trade portal linking agricultural produce market committees (APMCs) across all states. It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. It facilitates farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading in commodities. It provides for contactless remote bidding and mobile-based anytime payment for which traders do not need to either visit mandis or banks for the same. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. Benefits:- e-NAM has been able to bring competence in APMC mandi operations via technology interventions like:- accuracy in weighing via digital weighbridge and weighing scale. accuracy in assaying via advanced assaying equipment. real-time online information on commodity prices. access to more buyers/sellers and transparency in trade. transparency in payment via multiple online payment modes. better efficiency in overall mandi operations via digitalization. Challenges:- Lack of internet connectivity. Farmers feel more comfortable with physical trading rather than going online as they face issues with transportation for their produce. A very small percentage of the total mandis are connected through the e-NAM platform.  MUST READ: Integration of E-MANDIS into E-NAM Platform SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Green Propulsion System Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a Green Propulsion System, developed under the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme of DRDO, has successfully demonstrated in-orbit functionality on a payload launched by the PSLV C-58 mission. Background:- ISRO’s PSLV-C58 launched an X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPOSAT) into an Eastward low inclination orbit on 1st January 2024. About Green Propulsion System:- This project – 1N Class Green Monopropellant thruster for altitude control and orbit keeping of microsatellites was sanctioned to a Bengaluru-based start-up Bellatrix Aerospace Pvt Ltd (Development Agency). The complete project has been carried out by the Development Agency under the guidance of Project Monitoring & Mentoring Group of DRDO. A propulsion system is a machine that produces thrust to push an object forward. This project uses a 1N Class Green Monopropellant for altitude control and orbit keeping of microsatellites. The system consists of indigenously developed propellant, fill and drain valves, latch valve, solenoid valve, catalyst bed, drive electronics, etc. It has demonstrated pulsed mode and steady-state firing in a vacuum, passivation of residual propellant in outer space, propellant realization, and establishing of filling procedure under the TDF. The TDF is a flagship programme of Ministry of Defence executed by DRDO under the ‘Make in India’ initiative for funding innovation in defence and aerospace, especially to start-ups and MSMEs  MUST READ: PSLV-C52 Mission SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indian Gray Wolf Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Indian grey wolf was sighted in the confines of the National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS). Background:- The National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS) is in Uttar Pradesh. About Indian Gray Wolf:- Scientific Name: Canis lupus pallipes It has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to Israel. There are about 3,000 animals in India, some in captivity. It is a subspecies of grey wolf found from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent. Its size is in the middle between the Himalayan and Arabian wolves, but because it inhabits warmer climates, it lacks the latter’s plush winter coat. It is intermediate in size between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf. They are nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn. The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems. (Blackbuck) Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least Concern Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix 1  MUST READ: Endangered Species in news: Hornbills SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mekong River Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Dam project across Mekong River in Laos raised fears. Background:- Once completed, the project is expected to displace more than 500 families and impact 20 villages. About Mekong River:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Mekong River is a transboundary river in East Asia and Southeast Asia. It is the world’s twelfth-longest river. It is the third-longest in Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam. The extreme seasonal variations in flow and the presence of rapids and waterfalls in the Mekong make navigation difficult. The lower Mekong region holds a rich historical and cultural heritage that has connections with India’s ancient river civilizations. The river is a major trade route between western China and Southeast Asia. The Mekong region offers opportunities for tourism, educational exchanges, and cooperation in sectors like science and technology. MUST READ: Lancang-Mekong Cooperation SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants? (2015) Bangladesh Cambodia China Myanmar Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2 and 5 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RIVER ORIGIN Yamuna Gangotri Narmada Amarkantak Hills Vaigai Chotanagpur plateau How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : International Energy Agency (IEA) was established in 1974. Statement-II : Its Headquarters are in New York. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian Gray Wolf, consider the following statements: It is a subspecies of grey wolf found from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent. They are nocturnal It is under the Appendix II of CITES. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) draft report was approved by the Uttarakhand Cabinet. Background:- It was tabled in the state assembly as a bill for enactment. About Uniform Civil Code (UCC):- UCC is a generic set of governing laws for every citizen without taking into consideration religion. The Constitution in Article 44 requires the State to strive to secure for its citizens a Uniform Civil Code(UCC) throughout India. (Uniform Civil Code) Article 44:According to this article, “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”. Historical Background:- The Supreme Court for the first time directed the Parliament to frame a UCC in the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum in the year 1985. In this case, Shah Bano claimed maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure after she was given triple talaq by him. However, the government overturned the Shah Bano case decision by way of the Muslim Women (Right to Protection on Divorce) Act, 1986 which curtailed the right of a Muslim woman to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Need of UCC:- Gender Justice:– It is commonly observed that personal laws of almost all religions are discriminatory towards women. Men are usually granted upper preferential status in matters of succession and inheritance. Muslim men are allowed to marry multiple wives, but women are forbidden from having multiple husbands. Even after the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, women are still considered part of their husband’s families after marriage. So, in case a Hindu widow dies without any heirs or will, her property will automatically go to her husband’s family. Men (fathers) are also treated as ‘natural guardians’ and are given preference under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act. A uniform civil code will establish gender justice by bringing both men and women to par. Promote national unity: A unified personal law irrespective of gender, caste, creed, etc. will boost national unity and solidarity. Simplification of laws: It will eliminate the overlapping of laws. Different personal laws (Codified and Uncodified) practised in India:- Hindu Personal Law Hindu personal law is codified in four bills: the Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu Succession Act, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act. The term ‘Hindu’ also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws. It was codified by the Parliament in 1956. Muslim personal laws A 1939 Act enacted by the British said that their personal Law (ie, the Shariat) would govern Muslims. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 is a short statute with five provisions. It covers provisions of marriage, divorce, children’s custody or inheritance Intestate succession, dissolution of marriage etc. Secular’ laws:- These laws disregard religion altogether. These include: Special Marriage Act: for Inter-religion marriages and Guardians and Wards Act: establishes the rights and duties of guardians. Other laws:- In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. Apart from it, different personal laws also govern Christians and Jews. Thus, a UCC will simplify these laws into one standard.  MUST READ: Debate over Uniform Civil Code SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) In India, which one of the following (2023) Constitutional Amendments were widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. 1st Amendment 42nd Amendment 44th Amendment 86th Amendment Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Karnataka government suspended five officers for dereliction of duty in the implementation of the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme. Background:- An FIR has been registered against 56 officials of the department and 22 NGOs. About Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme:- Launched: Ministry: Ministry of Education. Objective: To enable all students with disabilities, to pursue further four years of secondary schooling after completing eight years of elementary schooling in an inclusive and enabling environment. Historical Background:- The Scheme of Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) replaces the earlier scheme of Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC) and provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII. This scheme is now subsumed under Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) from 2013. The States/UTs are also in the process of subsuming under RMSA as RMSA subsumed Scheme. Salient Features:- The scheme covers all children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body and Government-aided schools, with one or more disabilities as defined under the Persons with Disabilities Act (1995) and the National Trust Act (1999) in class IX to XII, namely blindness, low vision, leprosy cured, hearing impairment, locomotory disabilities, mental retardation, mental illness, autism, and cerebral palsy and may eventually cover speech impairment, learning disabilities, etc. Girls with disabilities receive special focus to help them gain access to secondary schools, as well as to information and guidance for developing their potential. Setting up of Model inclusive schools in every State is envisaged under the scheme. Components:- Student-oriented components, such as medical and educational assessment, books and stationery, uniforms, transport allowance, reader allowance, stipend for girls, support services, assistive devices, boarding the lodging facility, therapeutic services, teaching-learning materials, etc. Other components include the appointment of special education teachers, allowances for general teachers for teaching such children, teacher training, the orientation of school administrators, establishment of resource room, providing barrier-free environment, etc. Implementing Agency:- The School Education Department of the State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations are the implementing agencies. They may involve NGOs having experience in the field of education of the disabled in the implementation of the scheme. Financial Assistance:- Central assistance for all items covered in the scheme is on a 100 per cent basis. The State governments are only required to make provisions for scholarships of Rs. 600/- per disabled child per annum.  MUST READ:  SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) developed the National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC). Background:- It made the government collect and compile information on terrorists and their associates from various sources. About National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC):- Inaugurated: January 2024. The National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC) will collect data from a variety of sources, including the NIA’s National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS), and the National Integrated Database on Arrested Narco-Offenders, which compiles narcotics offenders’ source of funding, available pictures and info cribbed from the internet. Combined, the various databases will allow Indian intelligence to access subjects’ histories, fingerprints, videos, pictures, social media profiles and information on affiliated terror groups. NAFIS holds 9.2 million biometric records, and data from more than 22,000 terrorism cases is being added from the Integrated Monitoring of Terrorism system. It also includes a facial recognition system to scan CCTV footage for the faces of suspects. It has been modelled along the lines of the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) of the US. Significance:- It will serve as a centralized database and analysis centre for information related to terrorism and terrorists operating in the country.  MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America GHAR - GO Home and Re-Unite Portal Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been launched . Background:- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), has developed and launched a portal namely GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite (Portal for Restoration and Repatriation of Child). About GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal:- It is a portal to digitally monitorand track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and Rules thereof.( The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021) Objective: to digitally monitor and track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocol. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Important Features:- Digital tracking and monitoring of children who are in the Juvenile Justice system and have to be repatriated to another Country/State/District. Digital transfer of cases of children to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare Committee of the State. It will help in speedy repatriation of children. Where there is a requirement for a translator/interpreter/expert, a request will be made to the concerned State Government. Child Welfare Committees and District Child Protection Officers can ensure proper restoration and rehabilitation of children by digitally monitoring the progress of the case of the child. A checklist format will be provided in the forms so that the children who are being hard to repatriate or children who are not getting their entitled compensation or other monetary benefits can be identified. A list of government-implemented schemes will be provided so that at the time of restoration the Child Welfare Committees can link the child with the schemes to strengthen the family and ensure that the child remains with his/her family.  MUST READ: Changes in Juvenile Justice Act SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Q.2) Recognition of the Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. (b)Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. (c)Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. (d)Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Soda Lake Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Scientists have discovered that a shallow “soda lake” in western Canada. Background:- It could be a good match for Darwin’s “warm little ponds” where life got started on the primordial Earth. About Soda Lake:- It is a lake with a pH value usually between 9 and 11. A soda lake or alkaline lake is a lake on the strongly alkaline side of neutrality, typically with a pH value between 9 and 12. High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible for the alkalinity of the water. Geological, climatic, and geographic requirements are required for a lake to become. A topography that limits the outflow of water from the lake is needed. These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide. They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas. These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels of alkalinity. MUST READ: Chilka lake SOURCE: SCIENCE DAILY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 took place. Background:- The Indian Air Force will be conducting it. About Exercise Vayu Shakti-24:- Date: 17 February 2024. Venue: Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer. The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army. This year, the exercise will see participation by 121 aircraft, including the indigenous Tejas, Prachand and Dhruv. Other participating aircrafts: Rafale, Mirage-2000, Sukhoi-30 MKI, Jaguar, Hawk, C-130J, Chinook, Apache and Mi-17. Indigenous Surface to Air Weapon systems Akash and Samar will demonstrate their capability to track and shoot down an intruding aircraft. Exercise Vayu Shakti will be a demonstration of the IAF’s capability to deliver weapons with long range, precision capability as well as conventional weapon accurately, on time and with devastating effect, while operating from multiple air bases. The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large-scale war games namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti. Special operations by the IAF transport and helicopter fleets, involving the Garuds and Indian Army elements will also be on display.  MUST READ: Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES Samudra Shakti India & Indonesia Garuda Exercise India & France Surya Kiran India & Nepal How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been launched by National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR). Statement-II : It will help in speedy repatriation of children. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Soda Lake, consider the following statements: These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide. They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas. These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels of alkalinity. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Digi Yatra Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Digi Yatra Guidelines have been issued by DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation). Background:- These Digi Yatra guidelines provide for a decentralized mobile wallet-based identity management platform. The personal information of the passenger is stored in the mobile wallet of the traveller. About Digi Yatra:- Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation. It is a project conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at Airports, based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT). It will provide a paperless entry at airports using facial recognition software. It provides a decentralized mobile wallet-based identity management platform which is cost-effective and addresses privacy/data protection issues in the implementation of Digi Yatra. The Digi Yatra platform is built on 4 key pillars, like Connected Passengers, Connected Airports, Connected Flying and Connected Systems. Objectives of DIGI YATRA:- Enhance passenger experience and provide a simple and easy experience to all air travellers. Achieve better throughput through existing infrastructure using a “Digital Framework”. Lower-cost operations. Digitize current manual processes and bring better efficiencies Enhance security standards and improve current system performance. Implementation:- The project is being implemented by the DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-venture company whose shareholders are the Airports Authority of India (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport, Delhi Airport, Hyderabad Airport, Mumbai Airport and Cochin International Airport. These five shareholders equally hold the remaining 74% of the shares. In the first phase, Digi Yatra was rolled out at two Airports namely Varanasi and Bengaluru in August 2022 and at five Airports namely Pune, Vijayawada, Kolkata, Delhi and Hyderabad by March of 2023. Significance:- Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports.  MUST READ: Facial Recognition Tech in Indian airports SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following (2022) Aarogya Setu CoWIN Digi Locker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, SC remitted a 20-year sentence of a Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act convict to save marriage with his victim in Tamil Nadu. Background:- A three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud on Monday remitted the 20-year sentence of a man found guilty of the aggravated sexual assault of a 14-year-old girl whom he later married and had children within Tamil Nadu. About Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- Enacted: 2012. (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objectives: to address offences of sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of children, which were either not specifically defined or adequately penalized. Historic Background:- It was enacted as a consequence of India’s ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992. The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to provide a robust legal framework for the protection of children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography while safeguarding the interests of children at every stage of the judicial process. In 2019, the Act was amended to strengthen the penalties for specified offences in order to deter abusers and promote a dignified upbringing. Salient Features:- The Act defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18. ( Mandatory Minimum Sentencing) The Act recognizes that both girls and boys can be victims of sexual abuse. Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate faces punishment. A victim may report an offense at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred. The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act. The new rules include the provision of mandatory police verification of staff in schools and care homes, procedures to report sexual abuse material (pornography), and imparting age-appropriate child rights education among others. For a crackdown on child pornography, any person who has received any pornographic material involving a child or any information regarding such pornographic material shall report the contents to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or police, or the cybercrime portal. Under the rules, the State Governments have been asked to formulate a child protection policy based on the principle of zero-tolerance to violence against children, which shall be adopted by all institutions, organizations, or any other agency working with or coming in contact with children. The Central Government and every State Government shall provide periodic training. The Centre and State Governments have been asked to prepare age-appropriate educational material and curriculum for children, informing them about various aspects of personal safety. According to rules, orientation programmes and intensive courses may also be organized for police personnel and forensic experts.( Age of consent in India) Any institution housing children or coming in regular contact with children, including schools, crèches, sports academies, or any other facility for children must ensure a police verification and background check on a periodic basis of every staff. Challenges:- Low Representation of Women in the Police Force. Lapses in the Investigation. No Conditions to Prove Recent Intercourse. MUST READ: Sexual intent is key to POCSO Act SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Seaweed Cultivation Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the first National Conference on the Promotion of Seaweed Cultivation took place at Koteshwar, Kutch in Gujarat. Background:- It was chaired by Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Shri Parshottam Rupala . Objective: implementing seaweed cultivation on a pan-India basis, emphasizing the promotion of seaweed cultivation to diversify marine production and enhance fish farmer income. Water Hyacinth About of Seaweed Cultivation:- Seaweed is the name given to the many species of marine algae and plants. These species grow in water bodies such as rivers, seas and oceans. They generally grow in the shallow waters in the tidal zone. Some seaweeds are microscopic, such as the phytoplankton that live suspended in the water column. Seaweed is full of vitamins, minerals, & fibre. Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory & anti-microbial agents. They are known to process significant medicinal effects. Certain seaweeds possess powerful cancer-fighting agents. They are used in organic cosmetics & skin-care products. Seaweed Farming:- It is the practice of cultivating and harvesting seaweed. Seaweeds are abundant along the Tamil Nadu and Gujarat coasts and around Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Government Initiatives:- Seaweed Mission: aims to commercialize seaweed farming and processing for value addition. It also aims to increase cultivation along India’s 7,500-kilometer coastline. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR)- Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has successfully commercialized two seaweed-based nutraceutical products, CadalminTM Immunalgin extract (CadalminTM IMe) and CadalminTM Antihypercholesterolemic extract (CadalminTM ACe). Multi-Purpose Seaweed Park in Tamil Nadu.  MUST READ: Seaweeds Mission launched for commercial farming of seaweeds SOURCE: ICAR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist ·group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Fiscal Consolidation Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Fiscal Consolidation was emphasized in the budget. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced during her Budget speech that the Centre would reduce its fiscal deficit to 5.1% of gross domestic product (GDP) in 2024-25. About Fiscal Consolidation:- Fiscal consolidation is a process where government’s fiscal health is getting improved and is indicated by reduced fiscal deficit. As the fiscal deficit falls below a tolerable level, improved tax revenue realization and better directed expenditure are key components of fiscal consolidation. In India, the fiscal deficit is the most important indicator of the government’s financial health. In India, fiscal consolidation or the fiscal roadmap for the centre is expressed in terms of the budgetary targets (fiscal deficit and revenue deficit) to be realized in successive budgets The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act gives the targets for fiscal consolidation in India. According to FRBM, the government should eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit to 3% (medium term) of the GDP. Measures from the expenditure side and revenue side are envisaged by the government to achieve fiscal consolidation:- Improved tax revenue realization: For this, increasing efficiency of tax administration by reducing tax avoidance, eliminating tax evasion, enhancing tax compliance etc. are to be made. Enhancing tax GDP ratio by widening the tax base and minimizing tax concessions and exemptions also improves tax revenues. Better targeting of government subsidies and extending the Direct Benefit Transfer scheme for more subsidies.  MUST READ: Growth & fiscal consolidation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Grammy Awards Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE/AWARDS Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, congratulated musicians Ustad Zakir Hussain, Rakesh Chaurasia, Shankar Mahadevan,  Selvaganesh V and Ganesh Rajagopalan for winning the Grammy award. Background:- He said that their exceptional talent and dedication to music have won hearts worldwide, making India proud. About Grammy Awards:- The Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy of the US. The awards are presented to recognize the works of the music industry. The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959, to honour the musical accomplishments of performers for the year 1958.( Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar) Categories:- The “General Field” are four awards that are not restricted by genre: Album of the Year Record of the Year Song of the Year Best New Artiste Winners are selected from more than 25 fields, which cover such genres as pop, rock, rap, R&B, country, reggae, classical, gospel, and jazz, as well as production and postproduction work, including packaging and album notes. The honorees receive a golden statuette of a gramophone.  MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sphaerotheca varshaabh Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a new species of burrowing frog, Sphaerotheca varshaabhu, has been discovered in Bengaluru.  Background:- Researchers from various national and international organizations have identified and documented a previously unknown species of frog which has been thriving amidst the urban landscape of Bengaluru. About Sphaerotheca varshaabh:- It is a new frog Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain. Sphaerotheca varshaabhu exhibits distinctive characteristics that set it apart from known frog species. It is named after its behaviour of coming out of burrows during early showers, indicating its adaptation to urban surroundings. It has adapted to its urban surroundings displaying behaviours and physical attributes that help it navigate challenges posed by urbanization. Amphibians, like frogs, toads and salamanders, are known as indicator species. MUST READ: Invasive Species SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Organoid neural network Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, researchers connected a brain organoid to microelectrodes to create an ‘organoid neural network’. Background:- Their invention extends neuromorphic computing – the practice of modelling computers after the human brain to a new level by directly including brain tissue in a computer. About Organoid neural network:- It is an innovative computing system that melds brain-like tissue with electronics. It is also called Brainoware integrates brain organoids with microelectrodes, forming an ‘organoid neural network (ONN)’ that directly incorporates living brain tissue into the computing process. Brain organoids are similar to the brain’s cell composition and structure, and can reflect the brain’s developmental process. Advantages:- It has ability to predict complex mathematical functions like the Henon map. The system could identify Japanese vowels pronounced by individuals with a 78% accuracy rate. It achieved comparable accuracy to artificial neural networks with minimal training requirements. Challenges:- It necessitates technical expertise and infrastructure. The fusion of organoids and AI raises ethical questions about consciousness and dignity. Applications:- To learn faster and be more energy-efficient than traditional silicon-based machines. To address current limitations in Artificial intelligence To enable advances in fields such as medical science and treatment.  MUST READ: Deep Brain Stimulation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Malabar Civet Vulnerable Forest Owlet Extinct Pondicherry Shark Critically Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy of the US. Statement-II : The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Sphaerotheca varshaabh, consider the following statements: It has adapted to its rural surroundings. Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain. It is named after its behaviour of coming out of burrows during early showers. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA) – Commonwealth Attorneys and Solicitors General Conference in New Delhi. Background:- The theme of the conference is Cross-Border Challenges in Justice Delivery. About Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA):- It was founded in 1971. HQ: London, UK. The Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA) is dedicated to promoting and sustaining high standards of legal education in the Commonwealth. It is a Commonwealth-wide body with regional Chapters and Committees in Asia, Southern Africa, West Africa, the Caribbean and Europe. The goal of the Association is to raise standards in legal education so that it better serves the public and the legal community. Objectives:- The goal of the Association is to make legal education socially relevant and professionally useful, particularly through: the development of law curricula and teaching methodologies; assisting law schools to prepare themselves for the demands of the profession in the context of the information revolution and other global challenges; and supporting continuing legal education and distance learning programmes. Whilst this goal may be relevant to all jurisdictions across the world, the Association’s focus is on the Nations belonging to the Commonwealth, legal systems based or drawn from the Anglo-American tradition, or the Common law. The Association’s Programme of Action is based on the need to make legal education socially relevant and professionally useful. CLEA activities:- Publications and Research Commonwealth Law Lecture Series: This is a unique series that takes place on a Commonwealth-wide basis. Lectures are given by leading legal academics and judges. Curriculum Development Strengthening Law Schools Strengthening the Harare Commonwealth Principles MUST READ: Commonwealth & Commonwealth Advantage SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is: (2016) a division of World Health Organization a non-governmental international organization an inter-governmental agency sponsored by the European Union a specialized agency of the United Nations Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and the Ministry of Women & Child Development have launched a new survey on “increasing women’s participation in the workforce”. Background:- The EPFO, which is the retirement fund body for organised sector workers under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, has reached out to its subscribers seeking details regarding the facilities available for women workers in companies across the country, including provision of flexibility in working hours for women and ‘equal pay’ for female workers. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- Ministry: Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments.  The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a  minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation. (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), organised a two-day regional workshop. Background:- As many as 17 State Rural Livelihoods Missions (SRLMs) along with other key stakeholders deliberated on the roadmap to improve food, nutrition, health and WASH (FNHW) outcomes for more than 9.98 crore members of Self-Help Groups and their households across India. About Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):- Launched: June 2011. Ministry: Ministry of Rural Development. Objective: to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities resulting in sustainable and diversified livelihood options for the poor. Salient Features:- DAY-NRLM is a flagship poverty alleviation program of the Government of India. It is the world’s largest initiative to improve the livelihoods of the rural poor. Values:- Inclusion of the poorest, and meaningful role to the poorest in all the processes. Transparency and accountability of all processes and institutions Ownership and key role of the poor and their institutions in all stages – planning, implementation, and monitoring Community self-reliance and self-dependence Components of mission:- The Mission seeks to achieve its objective through investing in four core components:- Social mobilization and promotion and strengthening of self-managed and financially sustainable community institutions of the rural poor: At least one woman member from each identified rural poor household, is to be brought under the Self Help Group (SHG) network in a time-bound manner. Financial inclusion of the rural poor:- It works on both the demand and supply sides of financial inclusion. On the demand side, it promotes financial literacy among the poor and provides catalytic capital to the SHGs and their federations. Sustainable livelihoods: NRLM focuses on stabilising and promoting the existing livelihood portfolio of the poor through its three pillars: vulnerability reduction, livelihood enhancement and employment. Social inclusion, social development and convergence:- NRLM places a high emphasis on convergence with other programmes of the MoRD and other Central Ministries. MUST READ: National Creche Scheme (NCS) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (2012) Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level Purchasing power parity at the national level Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hybrid vehicles Syllabus Prelims –ENVIONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent research by HSBC show that the overall carbon emissions are lower in hybrid vehicles  compared to electrics. Background:- India’s electric mobility plan is currently focused on battery electrics. About Hybrid vehicles:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA A HEV uses an internal combustion engine (ICE) (a petrol/diesel engine) and one or more electric motors to run. There are different types of hybrid systems, but the most common ones include: Parallel hybrids: both the engine and electric motor can power the vehicle independently and Series hybrids: only the electric motor drives the wheels, while the engine generates electricity. Advantages:- Fuel efficiency: The design of hybrid vehicles for reduced engine size and car weight as compared to ICE vehicles, translates into increased mileage. More power: With the increase in total power and torque, HEVs can deliver instant torque and provide high torque even at low speeds. Minimum emissions: Better fuel efficiency means less carbon footprint of these vehicles, thus helping move towards the goals set out in Paris Climate Accord. To ensure a positive growth rate towards achieving India’s Net Zero Emissions by 2070, a transportation revolution is required in India. The transition to electric mobility is a promising global strategy for decarbonising the transport sector. Challenges associated with electric vehicles in India: High initial cost Limited charging infrastructure Limited domestic manufacturing capabilities Lack of awareness Limited Government initiatives Government Initiatives to Promote EV Adoption:- Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME) Scheme II National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage Go Electric campaign Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme: Incentives for the manufacturing of EVs and components MUST READ: Flex-Fuel Vehicles SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Armado Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Mahindra Armado Military Vehicle Makes Its Debut At Republic Day Parade. About Armado:- Armado gets a high level of ballistic protection by being up to the B7, Stanag Level II while being protected from all sides. This means that its armour offers protection against armour-piercing rifles. Armado has a 2-litre turbocharged direct-injection diesel powertrain that can also run on multi fuels. There is a good amount of power on tap with 215hp and 500 Nm of torque. It is India’s first Armoured Light Specialist Vehicle (ALSV). It is a fully indigenous vehicle designed and built by the Mahindra Defence Systems (MDS) for the Indian armed forces. An Armored Light Specialist Vehicle (ALSV) is a very important machine and is being used for various purposes. Being a modular vehicle, it can be used by quick response teams, Special Forces, counter-terrorism operations, border patrolling and more. (Submarine Vagir) It has a seating capacity of six passengers, including the driver, and can be configured to seat up to eight. Above the standard 1,000 kg load capacity, the ASLV can carry another 400 kg. MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: ABP LIVE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nano DAP Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Finance Minister while  presenting the interim budget announced the expansion of the application of Nano DAP on various crops in all agro-climatic zones. About Nano DAP:- Developed by: Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO). Nano-DAP (Di-ammonium Phosphate) is an advanced agricultural fertilizers. It is developed to enhance efficiency in nutrient delivery to plants. It is a unique liquid fertilizer product that contains nanoparticles of Diammonium Phosphate (DAP). It is a source of nitrogen and phosphorus – 2 key primary nutrients essential for the growth of crops. It contains 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume. Benefits:-        Increased Surface Area Improved Solubility Targeted Delivery Reduced Leaching Enhanced Nutrient Significance:- The introduction of Nano Urea and Nano DAP is seen as a groundbreaking agricultural experiment, aiming to reduce urea use and promote natural farming.( Fertilizer sector in India)  MUST READ: Reforming the Fertilizer Sector SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements: (2020) At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: AGENCIES HQ Central Bureau of Investigation Mumbai National Crime Records Bureau New Delhi Securities and Exchange Board of India Kolkata How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) was launched in 2015. Statement-II : It is under the Ministry of Rural Development. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Nano-DAP, consider the following statements: It is an advanced agricultural fertilizers. It is developed to enhance efficiency in nutrient delivery to plants. It contains 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here