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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TERRITORIAL ARMY Category: NATIONAL Context: In the midst of tensions with Pakistan, the Government has empowered the Chief of Army Staff to call on officers and personnel of the Territorial Army to provide for “essential guard or to be embodied for the purpose of supporting or supplementing” the regular army. Decoding the context: The genesis of the Territorial Army in India can be traced back to the first war of Independence in 1857, when a Volunteer Force was raised. In 1920, the Indian Territorial Force was established, which is the direct precursor to today’s Territorial Army. After independence in 1947, the ITF was disbanded. The Territorial Army was re-raised on October 9, 1949, under the Territorial Army Act, 1948. Learning Corner: The Territorial Army (TA) is India’s second line of defense after the regular army.  Often called the “Citizen’s Army,” it comprises volunteers who serve part-time while continuing civilian careers, providing a reserve force to support the Indian Army during national emergencies, wars, and internal security crises.  The TA’s motto, Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour), reflects its dual role in defense and nation-building. The TA units were actively involved in 1962, 1965 and 1971 operations. They have also taken part in OP PAWAN in Sri Lanka, OP RAKSHAK in Punjab and J&K, OP RHINO and OP BAJRANG in the North East in a most active manner Legal and Organizational Structure: Governed by the Territorial Army Act, 1948. Comes under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. Headed by the Director General Territorial Army (DGTA). Eligibility and Recruitment (for Officers): Nationality: Must be a citizen of India. Age Limit: 18 to 42 years on the date of application.    Educational Qualification: Graduate from a recognized university.    Employment: Must be gainfully employed in a civil/government profession or self-employed. Serving members of the regular armed forces, police, and paramilitary forces are not eligible. Physical Standards: A candidate must be physically and medically fit in all respects. Composition: Presently, the Territorial Army has a strength of approximately fifty thousand personnel comprising 65 Departmental TA units such as Railway, IOC, ONGC, and Non Departmental TA units of Infantry Battalion (TA) including Home & Hearth Battalions, Ecological Battalion (TA) affiliated to various Infantry Regiments, and Engineer Regiment (TA) for maintenance of Line of Control Fencing. Besides these, a Composite Eco Task Force for the National Mission for Clean Ganga is being raised at Allahabad. Significance : Force Multiplier: The TA acts as a cost-effective force multiplier, providing a pool of trained manpower that can be mobilized quickly without the financial burden of a large standing army.    Strategic Depth: It provides strategic depth to the regular army. Flexibility and Adaptability: TA personnel bring diverse skills and experiences from their civilian professions, which can be valuable. National Integration: It fosters a sense of patriotism and national service among citizens from all walks of life. Supporting Essential Services: Their role in providing essential guard duties can free up regular army personnel for other critical tasks.    Disaster Relief: Historically, TA units have played a crucial role in assisting civil authorities during natural disasters. Source : The Hindu VEMBANAD LAKE Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Over the past century, the Vembanad lake has shrunk significantly due to human-induced interventions, land reclamation, and natural sedimentation. Decoding the context:  According to a recent expert committee report prepared as part of the Vembanad Lake Rejuvenation Project, the lake’s surface area has shrunk mainly due to land encroachment.  Learning Corner: Vembanad Lake, located in Kerala, is India’s longest lake (96.5 km) and largest in the state, spanning Alappuzha, Kottayam, and Ernakulam districts.  Vembanad Lake forms a crucial part of the Kerala Backwaters, a network of brackish lagoons and canals running parallel to the Arabian Sea coast. The lake, also known as Punnamada Lake in Alappuzha and Kochi Lake in Kochi. Geographical and Ecological Significance It forms part of the Vembanad-Kol wetland system, a Ramsar site since 2002, and is the second-largest Ramsar site in India after the Sundarbans.  Rivers and Connectivity: Fed by six major rivers—Periyar, Muvattupuzha, Pamba, Manimala, Meenachil, and Achenkovil—it connects to the Arabian Sea, forming an intricate network of estuaries, lagoons, and canals. National Waterway 3: A significant stretch of this waterway passes through Vembanad Lake. The lake surrounds islands like Pathiramanal, Perumbalam, and Vallarpadam, and is integral to the Kuttanad region, known as “The Rice Bowl of Kerala,” where farming occurs below sea level. Thanneermukkom Barrage: This largest mud regulator in India divides the lake into a freshwater and a brackish water zone. While it protects Kuttanad’s paddy fields from salinity, it also contributes to ecological issues like proliferation of water hyacinth and reduced fish migration. Biodiversity: A hotspot of biodiversity, it hosts over 90 bird species, including migratory ones at Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary, and supported 150-200 fish species in the 1950s, now dwindled to below 100 due to ecological stress. Source : The Hindu IMF BAILOUTS Category: INTERNATIONAL Context:  The International Monetary Fund (IMF) cleared a $1-billion tranche for Pakistan as part of its $7-billion Extended Fund Facility (EFF) lending program and $1.3 billion tranche under the Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) in its board meeting. Decoding the context: India abstained from voting in the meeting as it raised concerns over the efficacy of IMF programmes for Pakistan given its “poor track record” and also on the possibility of “misuse of debt financing funds for state-sponsored cross-border terrorism”. Learning Corner: Established: 1945, headquartered in Washington, D.C. Unlike development banks, the IMF does not lend for specific projects. Instead, the IMF provides financial support to countries hit by crises to create breathing room as they implement policies that restore stability and growth. It also provides precautionary financing to help prevent crises. Board of Governors It is the highest decision-making body of the IMF. It normally meets once a year. It consists of one governor and one alternate governor for each member country. The governor is appointed by the member country and is usually the minister of finance or the governor of the central bank. IMF bailouts Countries seek IMF bailouts when they are facing macroeconomic risks, currency crises and need assistance to meet external debt obligations, to buy essential imports and push the exchange value of their currencies. The lending is done through programs designed according to purpose. These include standby arrangement, standby credit facility, extended fund facility, extended credit facility, rapid financing instrument, rapid credit facility, resilience and sustainability facility etc. Conditions applicable to an IMF bailout Conditions applicable to an IMF bailout could be certain structural reforms, such as fiscal transparency, tax reforms and reforms in state-owned enterprises. Conditions for IMF lending also relate to macroeconomic variables, like monetary and credit aggregates, international reserves, fiscal balances, and external borrowing, as per the IMF. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) An EFF is a financial assistance package offered by the IMF to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems because of structural weaknesses that require time to address. Notably, the assistance under the EFF is in the form of a loan that has to be paid back, and not in the form of a grant or aid.  The term “extended” means that these countries need more time than usual to pay back the money because they need to bring about “structural” changes. Source : Indian Express METHANE EMISSIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: The energy sector contributed around 145 million tonnes (Mt) of methane emissions in 2024, with oil and gas facilities accounting for over 80 million tonnes, according to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) Global Methane Tracker 2025. Decoding the context: Methane is a greenhouse gas responsible for around 30 per cent of the rise in global temperatures since the Industrial Revolution. Its levels in atmosphere are growing faster than other greenhouse gases, with its concentration being two-and-a-half times higher than the preindustrial era.  Learning Corner: What is Methane (CH₄)? A potent greenhouse gas (GHG). Colorless, odorless, and highly flammable. Has a Global Warming Potential (GWP) 84–87 times greater than CO₂ over a 20-year period, and about 28–36 times over a 100-year period. Sources of Methane Emissions Energy Sector (35% of Human-Related Emissions): Oil and Gas: Over 80 Mt in 2024, driven by leaks, venting, and flaring. Coal: Around 40 Mt, primarily from underground mines in China, the top emitter in this category. Abandoned Facilities: Abandoned coal mines and oil/gas wells emitted 8 Mt in 2024, making them the fourth-largest fossil fuel methane source globally. Bioenergy: 10 Mt, largely from incomplete combustion of traditional biomass (e.g., wood for cooking). Agriculture (40%): Enteric fermentation in livestock (e.g., cattle) and rice paddies (anaerobic decomposition) are major sources. Waste (20%): Landfills and wastewater treatment release methane via organic decomposition under anaerobic conditions. Natural Sources: Wetlands contribute significantly, but human activity amplifies emissions. Environmental Impacts Climate Change: Methane’s high global warming potential accelerates near-term warming. Reducing emissions could avert 0.2°C of warming by 2050 (IPCC, 2024). Air Quality: Methane contributes to tropospheric ozone, a harmful pollutant causing 255,000 premature deaths annually (Global Methane Pledge, 2024). India’s Methane Emissions Profile Contribution: India is the third-largest methane emitter globally (after China and the U.S.), with 30 Mt annually, of which 18 Mt comes from agriculture (enteric fermentation, paddy cultivation). Policy Stance: India has not signed the Global Methane Pledge (GMP), launched at COP26 (2021), which aims for a 30% reduction in methane emissions by 2030.  India argues that CO2, with its longer lifespan (100-1000 years), should remain the focus, and methane cuts disproportionately burden developing nations reliant on agriculture. Global Efforts and Initiatives Global Methane Pledge (GMP): 159 countries aim to cut methane emissions by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. Benefits include preventing 255,000 premature deaths and 26 million tonnes of crop losses annually. UNEP’s IMEO: The International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) provides data transparency via satellite monitoring. Source : Down To Earth MANAS NATIONAL PARK Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Three wild elephants were found dead in the Manas National Park in Assam near the India-Bhutan border. Decoding the context: It is suspected that poachers have killed the elephants. Learning Corner: Manas National Park, located in Assam, India, spans the districts of Baksa, Chirang, and Bongaigaon, along the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas.  Named after the Manas River—a major tributary of the Brahmaputra—it was declared a national park in 1990 and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (designated in 1985), a Project Tiger Reserve and an Elephant Reserve. Area: Approx. 950 sq. km (core area); it forms part of a larger biosphere reserve. Linked to the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan, forming a transboundary conservation area. Geographical and Ecological Significance Location and Terrain: Situated at the confluence of the Indian, Indo-Malayan, and Indo-Chinese biogeographical realms, Manas features a diverse landscape of grasslands, tropical semi-evergreen forests, and alluvial floodplains.  It lies at an elevation of 61-110 meters above sea level, with the Manas River flowing through it, shaping its flood-dependent ecology. Biodiversity: Flora: Over 840 plant species, including rare orchids and tropical Sal forests. Grasslands dominate 45% of the park, supporting herbivore populations. Fauna: Hosts 55 mammal species, 450 bird species, 50 reptile species, and 3 amphibian species. Key species include: Endangered Mammals: Bengal tiger, Indian elephant, greater one-horned rhinoceros, pygmy hog, and hispid hare. Birds: Bengal florican, great hornbill, and migratory species like the red-headed vulture. Cultural Significance: The park is sacred to the Bodo community, who revere the Manas River. The annual Manas Festival, held in April (last held April 5-7, 2025), promotes eco-tourism and Bodo culture. Conservation Challenges Poaching and Insurgency: During the Bodo insurgency (1980s-2000s), Manas faced severe poaching, particularly of rhinos. Militants used the park as a hideout, disrupting conservation efforts. UNESCO listed Manas as a World Heritage Site in Danger from 1992 to 2011 due to habitat destruction and wildlife loss. UNESCO Status Restored: Removed from the “in danger” list in 2011 after improved conservation measures. Source : The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Which of the following statements about Manas National Park is/are correct? It is located in Arunachal Pradesh and is part of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot. It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Manas River, a tributary of the Ganga, flows through it. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q2. Which of the following statements regarding methane is/are correct? Methane has a higher Global Warming Potential (GWP) than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. Methane has a longer atmospheric lifespan than carbon dioxide. Methane contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3. Which of the following statements about the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is/are correct? The IMF lends money to member countries only for infrastructure projects. It monitors the global economy and provides policy advice to member countries. Its financial assistance is always in the form of grants. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 9th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DISQUALIFICATION ON CONVICTION Category: POLITY Context: Mining baron and the sitting MLA from Gangavati Gali Janardhana Reddy has been disqualified as a member of the Karnataka Legislative Assembly following his conviction in the Obulapuram Mining Company (OMC) illegal mining case. Decoding the context: Notification issued by the Karnataka Legislative Assembly stated that Reddy’s conviction triggered his immediate disqualification as an MLA under Article 191(1)(e) of the Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Learning Corner: Constitutional Provision: Article 191(1)(e) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the State Legislature if he is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. This clause enables the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to lay down disqualifications. Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 ➤ Section 8(1), 8(2), 8(3): Grounds for Disqualification – Section 8(1): Immediate disqualification for specific offences (e.g., promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, terrorism) regardless of sentence duration. Section 8(2): Disqualification for offences like hoarding, food adulteration, or Dowry Prohibition Act violations, if sentenced to at least six months. Section 8(3): Disqualification for any other offence with a sentence of two years or more, effective from the date of conviction and continuing for six years post-release. Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) Supreme Court struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951. Earlier, Section 8(4) allowed sitting MPs/MLAs 3 months to appeal without disqualification. After the 2013 judgment, disqualification takes effect immediately upon conviction, regardless of appeal. Significance Curbing Criminalization: With 43% of MPs in the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) facing criminal cases (ADR), immediate disqualification deters tainted politicians. Electoral Integrity: Ensures lawmakers adhere to ethical standards, aligning with the RPA’s objective to prevent those who “break the law from making the law”. Public Trust: Strengthens democratic accountability. Source : Deccan Herald CLOUD-SEEDING Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government has approved five Cloud-Seeding Trials at an outlay of three crore 21 lakh rupees to Combat Air Pollution. Decoding the context:  The Delhi government said that after the trials, scientific evaluations will assess the effectiveness and environmental impact of cloud seeding in reducing air pollution. Learning Corner: Cloud Seeding is a weather modification technique that enhances precipitation (rain/snow) from clouds by introducing certain substances (cloud condensation nuclei) to stimulate cloud droplet formation. It involves introducing agents like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into moisture-rich clouds to act as nuclei for water droplet or ice crystal formation, thereby inducing artificial rain. Mechanism Suitable clouds (with sufficient moisture and vertical growth) are identified using meteorological data. Agents like silver iodide are dispersed via aircraft or ground-based generators. These agents mimic ice nuclei, encouraging water droplets to coalesce or freeze, eventually falling as rain or snow when heavy enough. In Delhi’s case, the trials aim to wash away pollutants like PM2.5 and PM10, which contribute to the city’s hazardous Air Quality Index (AQI). Types of Cloud Seeding: Static Cloud Seeding Objective: Enhance rainfall or snowfall by increasing cloud droplet formation. Mechanism: Injects ice-nucleating agents (like silver iodide) into cold clouds. Effect: Promotes formation of ice crystals or raindrops around these particles. Use Case: Light rain enhancement during pre-existing cloud cover. Dynamic Cloud Seeding Objective: Stimulate vertical air movement to increase cloud mass and rainfall intensity. Mechanism: A multi-stage process involving large amounts of seeding material to alter cloud dynamics (lift, condensation, coalescence). Use Case: Drought mitigation or in areas needing intense rainfall. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding Objective: Increase snowfall from supercooled clouds. Mechanism: Encourages ice formation in clouds below freezing using materials like silver iodide or dry ice. Use Case: Used in mountain regions (e.g., Himalayas, Rockies) to boost snowpack for water storage. Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding  Objective: Enhance precipitation from warm clouds. Mechanism: Uses salt particles (e.g., NaCl) as nuclei to attract water vapor, forming larger raindrops. Use Case: Tropical regions, including parts of India and UAE. Source : News On AIR COAL GASIFICATION Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  In a significant step toward advancing cleaner energy technologies, the Ministry of Coal has signed the Coal Gasification Plant Development and Production Agreement (CGPDPA) with selected applicants under Category II of its Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme. Decoding the context: Launched on January 24, 2024, the Financial Incentive Scheme for Coal Gasification has a total outlay of ₹8,500 crore. The initiative aims to achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, leveraging India’s abundant coal reserves to create a cleaner, more sustainable energy future. Learning Corner: Coal gasification is a cleaner conversion process that converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas) — a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), CO₂, methane (CH₄), and water vapor (H₂O). This syngas can be used for: Generating electricity Producing liquid fuels (through Fischer–Tropsch synthesis) Making chemical fertilizers (like urea) As a feedstock in the petrochemical industry How It Works: Coal + controlled oxygen + steam → Syngas (CO + H₂ + other gases) Why is it important for India? Energy Security: India has abundant coal reserves but limited oil and gas. Import Substitution: Reduces dependence on imported crude oil and natural gas. Clean Energy Transition: Emits less particulate matter and SOx/NOx than direct coal combustion. Economic Boost: Supports downstream industries like methanol, ammonia, and DME (dimethyl ether). Government Initiatives National Coal Gasification Mission: Launched in 2021, aiming to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030, reducing carbon emissions by 20% compared to direct combustion (MoC). Policy Push: Revised SHAKTI Policy (May 2025) supports coal allocation for gasification projects, ensuring fuel security. Source : Hans India BRS CONVENTIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: India, at the Conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions (BRS COPs), called for predictable international financing mechanisms and the mobilisation of domestic resources through tools like progressive taxation, carbon levies, and Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) to tackle chemicals and waste better for human health and the environment. Decoding the context: The 2025 BRS COPs (BC COP-17, RC COP-12, and SC COP-1) centred around the theme “Make Visible the Invisible: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”, will conclude today. Learning Corner: The Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are three key international treaties aimed at protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.  The three conventions function under a joint administrative framework and meet jointly as the BRS COPs (Conferences of the Parties). Basel Convention (1989; in force 1992) Focus: Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. Objective: Minimize hazardous waste generation and restrict its transboundary movement, especially from developed to developing countries. India: Party since 1992. Rotterdam Convention (1998; in force 2004) Focus: Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. Objective: Promote shared responsibility in the trade of hazardous chemicals. India: Party since 2005. Mechanism: Exporting countries must get prior informed consent from importing countries before trade. Stockholm Convention (2001; in force 2004) Focus: Elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Objective: Protect human health and the environment from long-lasting toxic substances. India: Ratified in 2006 (but with reservations on certain chemicals). Source : Business Standard MAHARANA PRATAP Category: HISTORY Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, paid rich tributes to the valiant warrior, Maharana Pratap on the occasion of his Jayanti. Decoding the context: Pratap Singh I, popularly known as Maharana Pratap, was king of the Kingdom of Mewar, in north-western India in the present-day state of Rajasthan. Learning Corner: Maharana Pratap, born Pratap Singh I (May 9, 1540 – January 19, 1597), was the 13th ruler of the Kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan, reigning from 1572 to 1597.  A Rajput warrior of the Sisodia dynasty, he is celebrated for his resistance against Mughal Emperor Akbar’s expansionism. Early Life and Ascension Born in Kumbhalgarh Fort to Maharana Udai Singh II and Jaiwanta Bai. In 1567, during the Mughal siege of Chittorgarh, Udai Singh II evacuated the capital, relocating to Gogunda. Upon Udai Singh’s death in 1572, a succession dispute arose. Udai Singh favored Jagmal, his son with Rani Dheer Bai Bhatiyani, but senior nobles, prioritizing Pratap as the eldest, crowned him Maharana on March 1, 1572, in Gogunda. Jagmal, seeking revenge, joined Akbar’s forces and was granted jaguar of Jahazpur. Resistance Against the Mughals Context: Akbar sought to control Mewar to secure a stable route to Gujarat’s ports. While most Rajput rulers submitted, Pratap refused vassalage. Battle of Haldighati (June 18, 1576): Fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber. Location: Haldighati pass in the Aravalli Hills, Rajasthan. Outcome: Inconclusive military victory for the Mughals, but symbolic victory for Maharana Pratap, who escaped and continued guerrilla resistance. Post-Haldighati Resistance Guerrilla Warfare: Post-Haldighati, Pratap retreated to the Aravalli hills, supported by Bhil tribals. He perfected guerrilla tactics, harassing Mughal outposts.  He established a new capital at Chavand, where he reorganized his administration and continued his resistance. Battle of Dewair (1582): Pratap’s decisive victory over the Mughals, reclaiming much of Mewar and reinforcing his resistance. Source : PM INDIA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Maharana Pratap: He was coronated as the ruler of Mewar at Gogunda after a succession dispute following the death of Maharana Udai Singh II. In the Battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap was defeated and captured by the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh I. The Battle of Dewair in 1582 was a significant victory for Maharana Pratap, which led to the closure of several Mughal outposts in Mewar. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3   Q2.With reference to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions, consider the following statements: The Basel Convention primarily deals with the elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The Rotterdam Convention mandates Prior Informed Consent (PIC) before transboundary movement of hazardous chemicals and pesticides. The Stockholm Convention is legally binding on the elimination or restriction of POPs. India is a party to all three conventions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only   Q3.With reference to coal gasification, consider the following statements: Coal gasification primarily produces syngas, which is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Underground coal gasification (UCG) involves gasifying coal in situ without mining it. India aims to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 under the National Coal Gasification Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 50] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DISQUALIFICATION ON CONVICTION Category: POLITY Context: Mining baron and the sitting MLA from Gangavati Gali Janardhana Reddy has been disqualified as a member of the Karnataka Legislative Assembly following his conviction in the Obulapuram Mining Company (OMC) illegal mining case. Decoding the context: Notification issued by the Karnataka Legislative Assembly stated that Reddy’s conviction triggered his immediate disqualification as an MLA under Article 191(1)(e) of the Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Learning Corner: Constitutional Provision: Article 191(1)(e) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the State Legislature if he is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. This clause enables the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to lay down disqualifications. Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 ➤ Section 8(1), 8(2), 8(3): Grounds for Disqualification – Section 8(1): Immediate disqualification for specific offences (e.g., promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, terrorism) regardless of sentence duration. Section 8(2): Disqualification for offences like hoarding, food adulteration, or Dowry Prohibition Act violations, if sentenced to at least six months. Section 8(3): Disqualification for any other offence with a sentence of two years or more, effective from the date of conviction and continuing for six years post-release. Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) Supreme Court struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951. Earlier, Section 8(4) allowed sitting MPs/MLAs 3 months to appeal without disqualification. After the 2013 judgment, disqualification takes effect immediately upon conviction, regardless of appeal. Significance Curbing Criminalization: With 43% of MPs in the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) facing criminal cases (ADR), immediate disqualification deters tainted politicians. Electoral Integrity: Ensures lawmakers adhere to ethical standards, aligning with the RPA’s objective to prevent those who “break the law from making the law”. Public Trust: Strengthens democratic accountability. Source : Deccan Herald CLOUD-SEEDING Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government has approved five Cloud-Seeding Trials at an outlay of three crore 21 lakh rupees to Combat Air Pollution. Decoding the context:  The Delhi government said that after the trials, scientific evaluations will assess the effectiveness and environmental impact of cloud seeding in reducing air pollution. Learning Corner: Cloud Seeding is a weather modification technique that enhances precipitation (rain/snow) from clouds by introducing certain substances (cloud condensation nuclei) to stimulate cloud droplet formation. It involves introducing agents like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into moisture-rich clouds to act as nuclei for water droplet or ice crystal formation, thereby inducing artificial rain. Mechanism Suitable clouds (with sufficient moisture and vertical growth) are identified using meteorological data. Agents like silver iodide are dispersed via aircraft or ground-based generators. These agents mimic ice nuclei, encouraging water droplets to coalesce or freeze, eventually falling as rain or snow when heavy enough. In Delhi’s case, the trials aim to wash away pollutants like PM2.5 and PM10, which contribute to the city’s hazardous Air Quality Index (AQI). Types of Cloud Seeding: Static Cloud Seeding Objective: Enhance rainfall or snowfall by increasing cloud droplet formation. Mechanism: Injects ice-nucleating agents (like silver iodide) into cold clouds. Effect: Promotes formation of ice crystals or raindrops around these particles. Use Case: Light rain enhancement during pre-existing cloud cover. Dynamic Cloud Seeding Objective: Stimulate vertical air movement to increase cloud mass and rainfall intensity. Mechanism: A multi-stage process involving large amounts of seeding material to alter cloud dynamics (lift, condensation, coalescence). Use Case: Drought mitigation or in areas needing intense rainfall. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding Objective: Increase snowfall from supercooled clouds. Mechanism: Encourages ice formation in clouds below freezing using materials like silver iodide or dry ice. Use Case: Used in mountain regions (e.g., Himalayas, Rockies) to boost snowpack for water storage. Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding  Objective: Enhance precipitation from warm clouds. Mechanism: Uses salt particles (e.g., NaCl) as nuclei to attract water vapor, forming larger raindrops. Use Case: Tropical regions, including parts of India and UAE. Source : News On AIR COAL GASIFICATION Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  In a significant step toward advancing cleaner energy technologies, the Ministry of Coal has signed the Coal Gasification Plant Development and Production Agreement (CGPDPA) with selected applicants under Category II of its Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme. Decoding the context: Launched on January 24, 2024, the Financial Incentive Scheme for Coal Gasification has a total outlay of ₹8,500 crore. The initiative aims to achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, leveraging India’s abundant coal reserves to create a cleaner, more sustainable energy future. Learning Corner: Coal gasification is a cleaner conversion process that converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas) — a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), CO₂, methane (CH₄), and water vapor (H₂O). This syngas can be used for: Generating electricity Producing liquid fuels (through Fischer–Tropsch synthesis) Making chemical fertilizers (like urea) As a feedstock in the petrochemical industry How It Works: Coal + controlled oxygen + steam → Syngas (CO + H₂ + other gases) Why is it important for India? Energy Security: India has abundant coal reserves but limited oil and gas. Import Substitution: Reduces dependence on imported crude oil and natural gas. Clean Energy Transition: Emits less particulate matter and SOx/NOx than direct coal combustion. Economic Boost: Supports downstream industries like methanol, ammonia, and DME (dimethyl ether). Government Initiatives National Coal Gasification Mission: Launched in 2021, aiming to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030, reducing carbon emissions by 20% compared to direct combustion (MoC). Policy Push: Revised SHAKTI Policy (May 2025) supports coal allocation for gasification projects, ensuring fuel security. Source : Hans India BRS CONVENTIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: India, at the Conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions (BRS COPs), called for predictable international financing mechanisms and the mobilisation of domestic resources through tools like progressive taxation, carbon levies, and Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) to tackle chemicals and waste better for human health and the environment. Decoding the context: The 2025 BRS COPs (BC COP-17, RC COP-12, and SC COP-1) centred around the theme “Make Visible the Invisible: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”, will conclude today. Learning Corner: The Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are three key international treaties aimed at protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.  The three conventions function under a joint administrative framework and meet jointly as the BRS COPs (Conferences of the Parties). Basel Convention (1989; in force 1992) Focus: Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. Objective: Minimize hazardous waste generation and restrict its transboundary movement, especially from developed to developing countries. India: Party since 1992. Rotterdam Convention (1998; in force 2004) Focus: Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. Objective: Promote shared responsibility in the trade of hazardous chemicals. India: Party since 2005. Mechanism: Exporting countries must get prior informed consent from importing countries before trade. Stockholm Convention (2001; in force 2004) Focus: Elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Objective: Protect human health and the environment from long-lasting toxic substances. India: Ratified in 2006 (but with reservations on certain chemicals). Source : Business Standard MAHARANA PRATAP Category: HISTORY Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, paid rich tributes to the valiant warrior, Maharana Pratap on the occasion of his Jayanti. Decoding the context: Pratap Singh I, popularly known as Maharana Pratap, was king of the Kingdom of Mewar, in north-western India in the present-day state of Rajasthan. Learning Corner: Maharana Pratap, born Pratap Singh I (May 9, 1540 – January 19, 1597), was the 13th ruler of the Kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan, reigning from 1572 to 1597.  A Rajput warrior of the Sisodia dynasty, he is celebrated for his resistance against Mughal Emperor Akbar’s expansionism. Early Life and Ascension Born in Kumbhalgarh Fort to Maharana Udai Singh II and Jaiwanta Bai. In 1567, during the Mughal siege of Chittorgarh, Udai Singh II evacuated the capital, relocating to Gogunda. Upon Udai Singh’s death in 1572, a succession dispute arose. Udai Singh favored Jagmal, his son with Rani Dheer Bai Bhatiyani, but senior nobles, prioritizing Pratap as the eldest, crowned him Maharana on March 1, 1572, in Gogunda. Jagmal, seeking revenge, joined Akbar’s forces and was granted jaguar of Jahazpur. Resistance Against the Mughals Context: Akbar sought to control Mewar to secure a stable route to Gujarat’s ports. While most Rajput rulers submitted, Pratap refused vassalage. Battle of Haldighati (June 18, 1576): Fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber. Location: Haldighati pass in the Aravalli Hills, Rajasthan. Outcome: Inconclusive military victory for the Mughals, but symbolic victory for Maharana Pratap, who escaped and continued guerrilla resistance. Post-Haldighati Resistance Guerrilla Warfare: Post-Haldighati, Pratap retreated to the Aravalli hills, supported by Bhil tribals. He perfected guerrilla tactics, harassing Mughal outposts.  He established a new capital at Chavand, where he reorganized his administration and continued his resistance. Battle of Dewair (1582): Pratap’s decisive victory over the Mughals, reclaiming much of Mewar and reinforcing his resistance. Source : PM INDIA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Maharana Pratap: He was coronated as the ruler of Mewar at Gogunda after a succession dispute following the death of Maharana Udai Singh II. In the Battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap was defeated and captured by the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh I. The Battle of Dewair in 1582 was a significant victory for Maharana Pratap, which led to the closure of several Mughal outposts in Mewar. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3   Q2.With reference to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions, consider the following statements: The Basel Convention primarily deals with the elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The Rotterdam Convention mandates Prior Informed Consent (PIC) before transboundary movement of hazardous chemicals and pesticides. The Stockholm Convention is legally binding on the elimination or restriction of POPs. India is a party to all three conventions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only   Q3.With reference to coal gasification, consider the following statements: Coal gasification primarily produces syngas, which is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Underground coal gasification (UCG) involves gasifying coal in situ without mining it. India aims to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 under the National Coal Gasification Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

[DAY 51] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 49] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here