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UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INDIA AND QATAR Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: As Prime Minister Modi and Amir Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani held talks in New Delhi, India and Qatar decided to elevate their ties to a “strategic partnership”. Background: – Both countries signed two agreements and five MoUs, covering areas like economic cooperation, youth affairs and a double taxation avoidance agreement. Within the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), India has signed strategic partnerships with the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Oman and Kuwait; Qatar is the latest to join that club. Key takeaways Trade between the two countries is $14 billion annually, and they set a target to double it to $28 billion by 2030. Qatar’s sovereign wealth fund has $1.5 billion FDI in India, and the joint statement said that the Qatar side announced a commitment to invest USD 10 billion in India. Bilateral relationship Qatar’s key exports to India include LNG, LPG, chemicals and petrochemicals, plastics and aluminium articles. India’s key exports to Qatar include cereals, copper articles, iron and steel articles, vegetables, fruits, spices, processed food products, electrical and other machinery, plastic products, construction material, textiles and garments, chemicals, precious stones and rubber. Qatar is the largest supplier of LNG to India (10.74 MMT for US$ 8.32 billion in FY 2022-23), accounting for over 48% of India’s global LNG imports. Qatar is also India’s largest supplier of LPG (5.33 MMT for US$ 4.04 billion in FY 2022-23) accounting for 29% of India’s total LPG imports. Defence cooperation forms an important pillar of the bilateral agenda. India offers training slots in its defence institutions to a number of partner countries, including Qatar.  As of 2024, Indian population in Qatar forms approximately 25% of Qatar’s populace, primarily as migrant workers. Source: Indian Express RESILIENT TELECOM INFRASTRUCTURE Syllabus: Mains – GS2 & GS 3 Context: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), a multilateral organisation launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, put out a report earlier this month studying Indian telecom networks’ preparedness in the event of disasters.  Background: – Telecom networks are crucial to handling disasters, because they allow the State and National Disaster Management Authorities to communicate quickly with local municipalities and the State and Union governments Key takeaways Telecom networks are particularly vulnerable, as they comprise cabling that may not be fully underground, towers that may not be able to withstand high wind speeds, and because they rely on a steady flow of electricity, which is frequently disrupted by disasters. Coastal regions face elevated risks, as that is where undersea cables connect India with the global internet. If the landing stations of these cables are impacted, there can be massive network disruptions. What can be done? Since much of the disruption is attributable to power failures, much can be accomplished during a disaster by maintaining or restoring power supply to telecom towers and the network operating centres to which they’re connected.  Telecom operators have typically never deployed towers assuming 24/7 power supply — and have battery as well as fuel backup. The CDRI report recommends a few measures to develop a resilient telecom network. These include greater data collection and more coordination among officials, a more robust power infrastructure, and requiring cell towers to withstand higher wind speeds, especially in districts where hurricanes make landfall.  The CDRI also advocates for a dig-once policy, which recommends building as much underground civil infrastructure, like water and gas supply lines, drainage and fibre optic cables simultaneously, reducing the risk of cables being damaged when other infrastructure is built. The short- to medium-term roadmap suggests the need to update disaster damage and loss data format, mainstream disaster risk modelling into telecommunications infrastructure planning, strengthen telecommunications asset design based on local and regional hazard vulnerability profiles, the report says.  There are also commercial interventions that the report touches on. A key one is parametric insurance, a system where telecom operators are not left to bear the commercial burden of a disaster all by themselves, and are thus financially incentivised to bring networks back online rapidly (and presumably to nudge them to disaster-proof their infrastructure well enough to keep premiums down). Source: The Hindu GLOBAL WARMING EXACERBATING WATER GAPS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Water gaps amounting to nearly 458 billion cubic meters per year already exist. These are projected to increase by 6 per cent under 1.5 degrees Celsius warming and by 15 per cent under 3 degrees Celsius warming according to a new analysis published in Nature Communications.  Background: The study emphasised on developing a more resilient and sustainable water management system to combat scarcity. This could include investing in resilient infrastructure, enhancing storage capabilities, desalination of seawater, reuse of treated wastewater and physical and virtual water transfers to distribute water from areas of abundance to areas of need. Key takeaways Water gaps are defined as the difference between renewable water availability and water consumption while maintaining adequate flows in aquatic environments. Researchers used climate outputs from climate models to quantify water gaps under baseline, 1.5°C, and 3°C warming scenarios. Regions currently experiencing water gaps are expected to face more severe conditions under 1.5°C warming, with even worse outcomes at 3°C warming. This trend is particularly evident in the eastern US, Chile, the Mediterranean region, south and east India, and the North China Plain. Additionally, some regions that were relatively unaffected in the baseline climate, such as Italy, Madagascar, and some US states on the East Coast (North Carolina and Virginia) and in the Great Lakes region (Wisconsin, Minnesota, Illinois), are projected to see worsening conditions. Saudi Arabia is projected to experience decreased water scarcity under the 1.5°C warming scenario, but substantial increases in water gaps under the 3°C warming scenario. Largest water gaps in India The largest water gaps under the baseline climate are found in India, the United States, Pakistan, Iran and China. India is projected to experience the most important increase in water gaps under warming scenarios. In a 1.5°C warmer climate, India will have an additional 11.1 km3/yr water gap. Ganges-Brahmaputra basin imperilled The analysis also looked at water gap trends in major hydrological basins. Under baseline climate conditions, the largest water gaps are found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra, Sabarmati, Tigris-Euphrates, Indus and Nile River basins.   Under 1.5°C warming conditions, water gaps are expected to increase the most in the Ganges-Brahmaputra, Godavari and Mississippi-Missouri river basins, while water gaps are expected to decrease in the Sabarmati, Columbia and northwestern United States and Nile basins. In a 3°C warmer climate, the Ganges-Brahmaputra basin still presents the largest water gap increase compared to baseline conditions, followed by the Indus, Mississippi-Missouri, China Coast, Godavari and Tigris-Euphrates basins. Source: Down To Earth SOIL HEALTH CARD SCHEME Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Soil Health Card Scheme completes 10 years.  Background: – The Soil Health Card Scheme was introduced by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 19th February, 2015 at Suratgarh, Rajasthan. Key takeaways The Soil Health Card (SHC) Scheme is a flagship initiative aimed at promoting sustainable agriculture and enhancing farm productivity. The scheme provides farmers with detailed assessments of their soil’s health, enabling them to make informed decisions regarding nutrient management and crop selection. Key Objectives: Assess Soil Health: Provide farmers with comprehensive information on the nutrient status of their soil. Promote Balanced Fertilization: Encourage the judicious use of fertilizers based on specific soil requirements, thereby reducing input costs and preventing soil degradation. Enhance Crop Productivity: Improve crop yields by recommending appropriate soil amendments and cultivation practices. Features of the Soil Health Card: Parameters Analyzed: Each SHC evaluates 12 soil parameters, including: Macronutrients: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K), Sulfur (S) Micronutrients: Zinc (Zn), Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Manganese (Mn), Boron (Bo) Other Indicators: pH (acidity or alkalinity), Electrical Conductivity (EC), Organic Carbon (OC) Recommendations Provided: Based on the analysis, the SHC offers tailored advice on: Optimal fertilizer types and dosages Necessary soil amendments Suitable crop choices Implementation and Technological Advancements: Sample Collection: Soil samples are typically collected twice a year, post-harvest of Rabi and Kharif crops, ensuring accurate assessments when fields are fallow. The Guideline of Village Level Soil Testing Labs (VLSTLs) was issued in June 2023. VLSTLs can be set up by individual entrepreneurs i.e. rural youth and community based entrepreneurs, including Self Help Groups (SHGs), Schools, Agriculture Universities etc.  Digital Integration: In 2023, the SHC portal was revamped and integrated with Geographic Information System (GIS) technology. This enhancement allows for: Geo-referencing of soil samples Real-time access to soil health data Generation of QR codes linking samples to test results Mobile Application: A robust SHC mobile app has been developed, featuring: Automated location tagging during sample collection User-friendly interfaces for farmers to access their soil health information Graphical representations of soil data Source: PIB CASPIAN PIPELINE CONSORTIUM (CPC) Syllabus: Prelims  – CURRENT EVENT Context: Oil flows through the Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) were reduced by 30-40% after a Ukrainian drone attack on a pumping station. Background: – The attack, which caused no casualties, took place on the eve of talks between the U.S. and Russian officials on ending the war in Ukraine. Following the meeting, from which Kyiv was excluded, Donald Trump’s administration said it had agreed to hold more talks. Key takeaways The Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) is a significant international oil transportation project involving Russia, Kazakhstan, and leading global oil companies.  Established to construct and operate a 1,510-kilometer pipeline, the CPC facilitates the movement of crude oil from Kazakhstan’s Tengiz oil field to the Novorossiysk Marine Terminal on Russia’s Black Sea coast. Key Features of the CPC: Route and Capacity: The pipeline transports oil from western Kazakhstan through Russian territory to the Black Sea port of Novorossiysk. As of 2022, it handled approximately 1.2 million barrels per day, accounting for about 1.2% of global oil demand.  Shareholders: The consortium’s major stakeholders include Transneft (24%), KazMunayGas (19%), Chevron Caspian Pipeline Consortium Co. (15%), and LUKARCO B.V. (12.5%), among others.  Strategic Importance: The CPC pipeline is crucial for exporting oil from Kazakhstan’s significant fields, such as Kashagan and Karachaganak, providing a reliable route to international markets. Source: Reuters Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding India-Qatar relations is correct? (a) Qatar is India’s second-largest supplier of LNG after Saudi Arabia. (b) India and Qatar have elevated their ties to a strategic partnership in 2024. (c) The Indian population in Qatar constitutes less than 10% of its total population. (d) India has no defence cooperation with Qatar.   Q2.) Which of the following are key objectives of the Soil Health Card (SHC) Scheme launched by the Government of India? To provide farmers with soil test-based recommendations for nutrients and fertilizers. To increase chemical fertilizer consumption for higher crop productivity. To promote balanced use of fertilizers and reduce input costs. To assess soil quality every 10 years. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only   Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC): The CPC pipeline transports crude oil from Kazakhstan to the Baltic Sea for export. Russia and Kazakhstan are the key stakeholders in the CPC. The pipeline is strategically important for the transportation of oil from Kazakhstan’s Tengiz oil field. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  19th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DEPOSIT INSURANCE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The government is considering increasing the insurance cover for bank deposits from the current limit of Rs 5 lakh. Background: – Deposit insurance was introduced in India in 1962, and coverage has thus far been enhanced six times – from Rs 1,500 per depositor held in the same right and same capacity at all the branches of the insured bank to Rs 5 lakh now. Key takeaways The deposit insurance cover is offered by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a specialised division of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The objective of the DICGC is to protect “small depositors” from the risk of losing their savings in case of a bank failure.  The insurance cover of Rs 5 lakh per depositor is for all accounts held by the depositor in all branches of the insured bank. DICGC insures all commercial banks, including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks, regional rural banks, and cooperative banks. However, primary co-operative societies are not insured by the DICGC. Savings, fixed, current, and recurring deposits are insured. The DICGC does not provide insurance for deposits by foreign, central, and state governments, and for inter-bank deposits. The premium for deposit insurance is borne by the insured bank. DICGC collects premiums from member financial institutions at a flat or differentiated rate based on the bank’s risk profile. How does the limit for DICGC’s insurance coverage work? In 2021, a new Section 18A was inserted in the DICGC Act, 1961, which enabled depositors to get interim payment and time-bound access to their deposits to the extent of the deposit insurance cover through interim payments by DICGC, in case of imposition of restrictions on banks by the RBI. At present, the DICGC offers insurance cover on bank deposits up to Rs 5 lakh within 90 days of imposition of such restrictions.  Since the DICGC insures both the principal and interest amount held by a depositor in a bank, this is how the cover works: Say, a depositor has Rs 4,99,800 in her account, which includes the principal amount of Rs 4,90,000 and Rs 9,800 as interest accrued on it. In this case, the DICGC will provide insurance for Rs 4,99,800, which essentially means the depositors will get Rs 4,99,800 if their bank fails However, if the principal amount is Rs 5,00,000 (or more), and the interest accrued is Rs 10,000, the interest accrued will not be covered, as the depositor would have exhausted the cover limit of Rs 5 lakh. If the bank goes into liquidation, DICGC is liable to pay to the liquidator the claim amount of each depositor up to Rs 5 lakh within two months from the date of receipt of the claim list from the liquidator. The liquidator will have to disburse the right claim amount to each insured depositor. Source: Indian Express INTERNATIONAL THERMONUCLEAR EXPERIMENTAL REACTOR (ITER) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi, on his visit to France to attend an AI summit, also toured the ambitious International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) in Cadarache, accompanied by French President Emmanuel Macron. Background: – Prime Minister Modi’s visit to the ITER facility marks the first time that a Head of State or Head of Government has visited ITER. Key takeaways ITER is an international collaborative project aimed at building the world’s largest magnetic fusion device, designed to prove the feasibility of fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy. Presently, as many as 33 nations, including India, are collaborating on ITER project. Seven ITER members — China, India, European Union, Japan, Korea, Russia and United States — have been making joint efforts for decades to build and operate the ITER experimental device. ITER is currently under construction in the south of France. According to its current timeline, it is expected to begin deuterium-tritium fusion reactions by 2039, producing 500 MW of fusion power. ITER would not be converting the output heat energy into electricity. But its success is expected to pave the way for other machines to start using fusion energy as a regular source of electricity generation. According to the ITER website, the primary task of ITER is to investigate and demonstrate burning plasmas — “plasmas in which the energy of the helium nuclei produced by the fusion reactions is enough to maintain the temperature of the plasma, thereby reducing or eliminating the need for external heating”. Source: Indian Express EARTHQUAKES IN DELHI Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: Delhi frequently experiences earthquakes, often originating from distant regions. However, the magnitude 4 earthquake that struck before dawn on Monday was distinct, as its epicenter was within Delhi itself, near Dhaula Kuan. Background:  Magnitude 4 earthquakes are not very strong, and do not result in much damage. Key takeaways Delhi lies in a seismically active area. India’s official earthquake hazard map puts Delhi in Zone 4, the second highest classification of areas based on their susceptibility to shaking experienced during an earthquake. Zone 4 in India includes areas that are expected to experience MSK-8-level intensity during an earthquake. The MSK, or Medvedev-Sponheuer-Karnik scale is a measure of intensity, rather than strength, or energy released, which is described by magnitude. Simply put, the MSK scale measures the susceptibility of an area to an earthquake. Based on the local geology and other factors, two places can feel, and be impacted by, a quake very differently, even if they are equidistant from its epicentre. Delhi falls in a region that has high susceptibility to quakes. MSK-8 means the area is vulnerable to major damage being caused to buildings and other infrastructure.  Zone 5, the most vulnerable areas in India, correspond to MSK-9 levels of intensity or higher. Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt Delhi lies in what is known as the Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt, a seismically-active geological belt extending from southern and eastern Rajasthan to Haryana and Delhi. This region is characterised by the presence of deformed layers of rock that have been folded or bent due to geological processes hundreds of millions of years ago. These deformities have created stress which is sometimes released in the form of earthquakes. This is a very different mechanism from the one that triggers earthquakes in the Himalayan region. The Himalayan region has been witnessing the subduction of the Indian tectonic plate under the Eurasian plate — one pushing against the other — which results in a lot of stress building up. The Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt was much more seismically active in the past than it is now. Over the years, the tectonic activity in the region has slowed down considerably, leading to greater geological stability. But some faults still remain, which give rise to occasional mild earthquakes. Source: Indian Express BIANNUAL TRANSPARENCY REPORT (BTR) Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India is in the final stages of preparing its first ever Biannual Transparency Report (BTR), part of its commitment as a signatory to the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change. Background: – The Biennial Transparency Report (BTR) is a reporting mechanism established under the Paris Agreement’s Enhanced Transparency Framework (ETF). Key takeaways The report will be India’s official position on its greenhouse gas emissions inventory, key sectors and sources, and steps taken to improve energy efficiency use, as well as the transition to renewable energy sources and the availability of required resources. While India has been periodically submitting such information in the form of ‘national communications’ and ‘Biannual Update Reports’ (BUR), the BTR is a document that will be subject to technical review by independent, non-Indian, UNFCCC-accredited experts. The reports are part of the commitment made by all signatories at the UNFCCC’s 21st Conference of Parties (COP), held in Paris in 2015, in a bid to increase transparency. However, it was only at the 2024 COP in Baku that countries actually began submitting BTRs that adhered to the prescribed format. While all countries were to have submitted their BTRs by December 2024, several — including India — failed to meet that deadline. Key Components of the BTR: National Inventory Report (NIR): An account of greenhouse gas emissions and removals. Progress on Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs): Updates on efforts and achievements related to emission reduction targets. Policies and Measures: Descriptions of strategies implemented to mitigate climate change. Climate Change Impacts and Adaptation: Information on observed impacts and adaptation actions. Support Provided and Received: Details on financial, technological, and capacity-building assistance. Capacity-Building Needs and Areas for Improvement: Identification of areas requiring enhancement to effectively combat climate change. UNFCCC Source: The Hindu PRADHAN MANTRI ANNADATA AAY SANRAKSHAN ABHIYAN (PM-AASHA) SCHEME Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Government of India approved the continuation of the integrated Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) Scheme during the 15th Finance Commission Cycle up to 2025-26.  Background: – The scheme aims to strengthen the procurement mechanism in coordination with state governments, thereby safeguarding farmers’ income and stabilizing the agricultural market. Key takeaways The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme launched by the Government of India in 2018 to ensure remunerative prices for farmers’ produce.  Key Components of PM-AASHA:- Price Support Scheme (PSS): Objective: Procurement of notified pulses, oilseeds, and copra directly from farmers at Minimum Support Prices (MSP) when market prices fall below MSP. Implementation: Central Nodal Agencies (CNAs) like the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) undertake procurement in collaboration with state-level agencies. Procurement Limit: From the 2024-25 season onwards, procurement is set at 25% of the national production for the notified crops. However, for Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masur, 100% procurement is allowed for the 2024-25 season to encourage domestic production and reduce import dependence. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS): Objective: To compensate farmers for the difference between the MSP and the actual selling price of oilseeds, without physical procurement. Implementation: Farmers receive direct payments of the price difference, with the central government bearing up to 15% of the MSP as compensation. Coverage Expansion: The scheme’s coverage has been enhanced from 25% to 40% of the state’s oilseed production, and the implementation period extended from 3 to 4 months to benefit more farmers. Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): Objective: To involve the private sector in the procurement of oilseeds on a pilot basis in selected districts. Implementation: Private agencies procure oilseeds at MSP in designated markets during the notified period, aiming to increase efficiency and reduce the burden on public procurement systems. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes in Delhi is/are correct? Delhi falls under Seismic Zone 5, the most earthquake-prone classification in India. The recent magnitude 4 earthquake in Delhi had its epicenter within the city, near Dhaula Kuan. The Aravalli-Delhi Fold Belt is a major seismically active zone due to the continuous subduction of tectonic plates. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only   Q2.) Which of the following statements about the Biannual Transparency Report (BTR) is/are correct? The BTR is a part of the Enhanced Transparency Framework (ETF) under the Paris Agreement. India has been submitting BTRs since 2015 as part of its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). The BTR includes details on greenhouse gas emissions, climate change mitigation measures, and financial support received for climate action. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the PM-AASHA scheme: The scheme includes a Price Support Scheme (PSS) under which oilseeds and pulses are procured directly from farmers at Minimum Support Prices (MSP). The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) under PM-AASHA provides direct compensation to farmers without physical procurement of crops. The Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS) allows private players to procure wheat and rice at MSP to reduce government procurement burden. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  18th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TAIWAN Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY, WORLD HISTORY, INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The U.S. State Department’s Taiwan page removed a previous statement about not supporting Taiwan’s independence last week. Background: – The United States has no formal diplomatic ties with Taiwan but is its strongest international backer. About Taiwan Taiwan, officially the Republic of China (RoC), is situated in the western Pacific Ocean and is separated from mainland China by the Taiwan Strait. Taiwan is neighbored by Japan to the northeast, the Philippines to the south, and mainland China to the west. The East China Sea lies to the north of the island, the Philippine Sea to the east, the Luzon Strait directly to the south, and the South China Sea to the southwest. Taiwan is prone to earthquakes as it lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire” — where 90% of the world’s earthquakes take place. History of Taiwan  Taiwan was briefly controlled by the Dutch and Spanish in the 1600s. In 1684, the Qing dynasty incorporated Taiwan as part of Fujian province and later declared it a separate Chinese province in 1885. Following the Qing’s defeat in a war with Japan, it became a Japanese colony in 1895. In 1945, it was handed over to the Republic of China government at the end of World War Two. In 1949 after being defeated by Mao Zedong’s communist forces, the Republic of China government fled and moved its capital to Taiwan, and Republic of China remains the island’s formal name. Mao set up the People’s Republic of China, and claimed it was the only legitimate Chinese government for the whole of China, including Taiwan, as the Republic of China’s successor state. For decades, the Republic of China (ROC) based in Taipei claimed to be the legitimate government of China. However, in 1971, it was expelled from the United Nations in favor of the Beijing government. However, Taiwan is a region where the people elect their own leaders, and it has a defined territory governed by its own military, passport, and currency. As a result, Taiwan functions with de facto independence, even though most countries do not formally recognize it as such. Currently, only 12 countries maintain formal diplomatic ties with Taipei, most of which are small and developing nations. Most major Western countries, along with U.S. allies, maintain close unofficial relations with Taiwan by recognizing its passport and having de facto embassies in each other’s capitals. India does not have formal diplomatic ties with Taiwan yet. India has an office in Taipei for diplomatic functions — India-Taipei Association (ITA) is headed by a senior diplomat. Taiwan has the Taipei Economic and Cultural Center (TECC) in New Delhi. Both were established in 1995. Source: Indian Express ARAVALI SAFARI PARK Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY, ENVIRONMENT Context: The Haryana government’s ambitious 3,858 hectare Aravali safari park project spread across Gurugram and Nuh is envisaged to be the world’s largest safari park. However, the project has faced stiff opposition ever since it was first mooted. Background: – A group of 37 retired Indian Forest Service officers have written a letter to Prime Minister seeking to scrap the project arguing that the project’s aim is to simply increase tourist footfall and not conserve the mountain range. Key takeaways The hills in the southern districts of Gurugram and Nuh are a part of Aravali, the oldest fold mountain range in the world.  Aravali runs diagonally across Rajasthan extending from Champaner in Gujarat in the southwest to near Delhi in the northeast for about 690 km.  It is ecologically significant as it combats desertification by checking the spread of the Thar Desert towards eastern Rajasthan, and performs the role of an aquifer with its highly fractured and weathered quality rocks allowing water to percolate and recharge the groundwater. What are the laws protecting Aravali? Of the approximately 80,000 hectare Aravali hill area in Haryana, a majority is protected under various laws and by orders of the Supreme Court and NGT.  The most widespread protection to the Aravalis comes from the Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA), 1900. The Special Sections 4 and 5 of the Act restrict the breaking of land and hence deforestation in hills for non-agricultural use. Recently around 24,000 hectares has been notified as Protected Forest under the Indian Forest Act, as a proposed offset to forest land diversion in the Nicobar islands. Similarly, the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad judgment (1996) extends legal protection to forests as per dictionary meaning — which should cover the remaining Aravali areas that are not notified as forest. The Regional Plan-2021 for the National Capital Region also offers crucial protection, designating the Aravalis and forest areas as ‘Natural Conservation Zone’ and restricting the maximum construction limit to 0.5%. Source: The Hindu EXPERIMENTAL ADVANCED SUPERCONDUCTING TOKAMAK (EAST) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Chinese scientists reported that they were able to maintain a plasma at a temperature of 100 million degrees C for about 1,066 seconds in a nuclear fusion reactor called the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST). Background: Nuclear fission produces harmful radioactive waste whereas nuclear fusion doesn’t. This is why developing a nuclear fusion reactor has become an important technological goal for the world. Challenges of nuclear fusion The tritium problem The problem is the amount of energy required to start and sustain a fusion reaction. The lightest nucleus in nature is of hydrogen, consisting of a single proton. An isotope of hydrogen called deuterium has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus. The nucleus of another isotope called tritium has one proton and two neutrons.  Deuterium-deuterium fusion requires a higher temperature to begin than deuterium-tritium fusion. This is because the extra neutron in the tritium nucleus helps overcome the repulsion of like-charges between the protons. The fusion of a deuterium and a tritium nucleus creates a non-radioactive helium-4 nucleus, a neutron, and 17.6 MeV of energy, which is significant. While deuterium is abundant in seawater, there are no natural deposits of tritium and it is very hard to produce. At present it is mostly created as a by-product in heavy-water fission reactors in Canada, India, and South Korea. The temperature problem For two nuclei to fuse, two things need to happen: the like-charges in the nuclei (due to the protons) need to be overcome, then the particles need to come within around 1 femtometre (fm) of each other so they can bond with each other using the strong nuclear force. This force is the strongest fundamental force in nature and is responsible for keeping protons and neutrons together in the nuclei of atoms. But on the flip side, it only acts across very short distances. This is why the nuclei need to be heated to such high temperatures: to give them enough energy to overcome their repulsion and get so close to each other. There are different reactor designs to achieve nuclear fusion by meeting these conditions. One set of designs involves the use of a tokamak — a donut-shaped vessel where the nuclei are confined, like in a cage, and made to fuse. Importance of EAST At present, EAST isn’t producing electricity. It is yet to reach a milestone called ignition: meaning it doesn’t produce enough heat for more fusion reactions to occur, a.k.a. become self-sustaining. EAST is a testbed reactor for ITER, an international megaproject in which six countries around the world, including India, and the European Union are working together to build a tokamak that will sustain nuclear fusion that releases more energy than that required to sustain the plasma. Crucially, EAST’s successes are important for ITER’s future because the latter has come under criticism for its delayed timelines and cost overruns. ITER has been called the most expensive science experiment in history. Source: The Hindu RAMAKRISHNA PARAMAHMSA Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – HISTORY, ETHICS Context: February 18, 2025, marks the 189th birth anniversary of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, the revered 19th-century saint. Background: – Born as Gadadhar Chattopadhyay on February 18, 1836, Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was one of the world’s most significant religious figures. Key takeaways Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (1836–1886) was born in Kamarpukur, West Bengal. He underwent profound mystical experiences that led him to explore various religious practices, including Hinduism, Islam, and Christianity. Priest at Dakshineswar Kali Temple: At the age of 20, Ramakrishna became the priest of the Dakshineswar Kali Temple near Kolkata, where he began his intense spiritual practices. Devotion to Goddess Kali: He developed an intense devotion to Goddess Kali, whom he regarded as the Divine Mother. His spiritual practices often involved deep meditation and communion with the Divine. Core Teachings and Impact: Oneness of God: Ramakrishna emphasized that all religions lead to the same ultimate truth, and God can be realized through any sincere spiritual path. Divine Motherhood: He often spoke of God as the Divine Mother, emphasizing love, compassion, and devotion. Renunciation and Detachment: He advocated for detachment from material desires and the importance of leading a simple, spiritual life. Service to Humanity: Ramakrishna believed that serving humanity is a form of worship, as God resides in all beings. Harmony of Religions: His famous saying, “As many faiths, so many paths,” highlights his belief in the unity of all religions. Spiritual Realization Over Rituals: Emphasizing personal, direct experience of the divine, he challenged the orthodox practices of his time, advocating for a more experiential and inclusive spirituality. Historical and Cultural Relevance: Indian Renaissance: His ideas contributed significantly to the 19th-century spiritual and cultural revival in India. By promoting the intrinsic value of Indian spiritual traditions, he played a role in countering the colonial narrative that often undermined indigenous culture. Influence on Modern Thought: His teachings laid the groundwork for later reforms in social and religious spheres. Most notably, his disciple Swami Vivekananda carried forward his message, establishing the Ramakrishna Mission and introducing Indian philosophy to the Western world. Source: News18 PROJECT WATERWORTH Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Meta announced its most ambitious subsea cable endeavour ever – Project Waterworth. Background: – The project will be a multi-billion dollar, multi-year investment to strengthen the scale and reliability of the world’s digital highways. Key takeaways Project Waterworth is an ambitious initiative by Meta to build the world’s longest undersea cable system, spanning over 50,000 kilometers—exceeding Earth’s circumference. The initiative will bring industry-leading connectivity to the US, India, Brazil, South Africa, and other key regions. The cable would be the longest to date that uses a 24 fibre-pair system, giving it a higher capacity, and would help support its AI projects, according to Meta, which owns Facebook, Instagram and WhatsApp. Meta said it would lay its cable system up to 7,000 metres deep and use enhanced burial techniques in high-risk fault areas, such as shallow waters near the coast, to avoid damage from ship anchors and other hazards. Project Waterworth, by leveraging advanced machine learning models, aims to predict and mitigate potential disruptions, enhancing the resilience of subsea networks. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) and nuclear fusion: It is a nuclear fusion reactor designed to generate electricity. EAST aims to achieve self-sustaining nuclear fusion, also known as ignition. Nuclear fission produces harmful radioactive waste whereas nuclear fusion doesn’t. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to Project Waterworth, consider the following statements: It is a multi-billion-dollar initiative by Meta to build the world’s longest undersea cable system. The project aims to support artificial intelligence (AI) infrastructure by enhancing global connectivity. The cable system will exclusively connect North America and Europe. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, consider the following statements: He was born in Tamil Nadu. He served as a priest at the Dakshineswar Kali Temple near Kolkata. He emphasized the harmony of religions and believed that all faiths lead to the same ultimate truth. Swami Dayananda Saraswati was his most prominent disciple who spread his teachings worldwide. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MUNICH SECURITY CONFERENCE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: German Chancellor Olaf Scholz delivered a strong rebuke to U.S. Vice President J.D. Vance’s attack on Europe’s stance toward hate speech and the far right, saying it was not right for others to tell Germany and Europe what to do. Background: – Mr. Vance had lambasted European leaders on the first day of the Munich Security Conference, accusing them of censoring free speech and criticising German mainstream parties’ “firewall” against the far-right Alternative for Germany (AfD). About Munich Security Conference (MSC) The Munich Security Conference (MSC) is an annual forum that brings together global leaders, policymakers, and experts to discuss international security issues. The MSC was founded by a German official and publisher Ewald-Heinrich von Kleist at the peak of the Cold War in 1963. The conference initially focused on military issues and was mainly attended by Western countries, who came together to display a united front against Soviet communism. After the end of the Cold War, the conference expanded its agenda beyond defence and security to include issues like climate change and migration. It also began inviting leaders from eastern nations, including Russia, India and China. Today, the MSC, held in February every year, “seeks to promote trust and contribute to the peaceful resolution of conflicts by facilitating ongoing, curated, yet informal dialogue within the international security community”. Key Takeaways from the Munich Security Conference (MSC) 2025 Shift in the Transatlantic Security Framework The North Atlantic Treaty Organization, has been the cornerstone of European security, ensuring collective defense against external threats. However, recent developments indicate a fundamental shift. While U.S. remains a NATO member, European nations can no longer assume automatic U.S. military support in times of crisis. U.S.-Russia Talks on Ukraine: A Policy Shift The U.S. administration has initiated diplomatic talks with Russia to negotiate an end to the Ukraine war, despite strong opposition from European leaders and Kyiv. Notably, Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelensky has not been invited to these talks, raising concerns about Ukraine’s exclusion from crucial negotiations affecting its sovereignty and security. The move has further strained U.S.-Europe relations. Increased Defense Expenditure for European NATO Members The MSC discussions underscored the necessity for Europe to escalate its defense spending in response to Russia’s growing military assertiveness. The current NATO-mandated minimum of 2% of GDP on defense is now expected to rise to 3%. While the U.S. has historically provided substantial military aid to Ukraine, European nations have now surpassed the U.S. in total financial and humanitarian assistance. U.S. Vice President JD Vance’s Controversial Speech U.S. V.P’s speech was widely perceived as critical of European policies. Instead of reaffirming U.S. support for Ukraine, his remarks focused on Europe’s handling of migration, free speech, and governance issues. His address was met with criticism from European leaders. However, the speech was well-received by certain political factions, including President Trump. This development signals growing ideological divergences between U.S. and Europe. Economic Tensions and U.S.-Europe Trade Disputes Amid the discussions at MSC, Trump announced a 25% tariff on all steel and aluminum imports, effective from March. This decision exacerbates economic tensions between the U.S. and Europe, adding to existing disputes over trade policies and defense commitments. Source: BBC DISTRIBUTED DENIAL OF SERVICE (DDOS) ATTACK Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: In January, web-based portal Kaveri 2.0, which streamlines property registrations in Karnataka, faced sporadic, crippling server outages. On investigating the outage, the Revenue Department and E-Governance Department concluded that it was a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. Background: – DDoS attacks can lead to a service downtime, which is the primary goal of a DDoS attack — to render a service unavailable, leading to a disruption or potential loss of revenue. Key takeaways A DDoS attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a targeted server, service, or network by overwhelming it with a flood of internet traffic.  Unlike a Denial of Service (DoS) attack, which typically involves a single source, a DDoS attack leverages multiple compromised systems, often infected with malware, to generate the traffic. These compromised systems are collectively known as a botnet. Such attacks may be aimed at saturating the bandwidth of a site, exploiting weaknesses in the network protocol stack, or targeting specific weaknesses in applications or services. While DDoS attacks do not directly steal data, they can be used as a distraction while other forms of cyberattacks, such as data breaches, are executed. The Kaveri 2.0 portal, critical for property registrations, experienced performance issues recently. Fake accounts were created, and entries were made into the database using these accounts, overwhelming the system. The attack involved 62 email accounts originating from 14 IP addresses, highlighting the distributed nature of the assault. Ways to mitigate such attacks Organisations implement advanced traffic filtering mechanisms to distinguish between legitimate and malicious traffic. Monitoring tools can help identify unusual traffic patterns and take pre-emptive actions.  Enforcing rate limiting can control the number of requests a user can make in a given time frame, preventing the system from being overwhelmed. Bot detection technologies, such as CAPTCHA challenges and behavioural analysis, can identify and block automated tools or bots.  Robust authentication mechanisms and regular security audits can strengthen the security of online services and prevent unauthorised access. Source: The Hindu PRESIDENT’S RULE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Four days after Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh’s resignation, the Union government announced that President’s rule has been implemented in the violence-hit State.  Background: The violence between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities, ongoing since May 2023, has claimed above 250 lives and displaced over 60,000 people.  The conflict originated from the Meitei demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, which the Kukis opposed, fearing loss of job opportunities and other affirmative actions meant for STs. Key takeaways Emergency provisions, inspired by the German Constitution, protect India’s sovereignty, unity and security. They empower the Central government to address extraordinary crises by temporarily assuming control. The Constitution provides for three types of emergencies — national (Article 352), State (Article 356) and financial (Article 360). In Manipur, the President has proclaimed a “state emergency” — popularly known as “President’s Rule” or “Constitutional Emergency” — by exercising powers under Article 356. This fulfils the Union’s obligation under Article 355 to protect States against ‘external aggression’ and ‘internal disturbance’ and to ensure that State governments operate as per the Constitution.  When a State’s “constitutional machinery” fails due to non-performance or malperformance, Article 356(1) empowers the President to issue a proclamation — if she is satisfied that the State government cannot function constitutionally. This effectively transfers all executive functions of the State to the Centre and legislative functions to Parliament while leaving the High Court’s (HC) powers unaffected.  Additionally, Article 365 provides that if a State fails to comply with any Union directions under constitutional provisions, the President may declare a “Constitutional Emergency.” As per Clause 3 of Article 356, the proclamation must be laid before each House of Parliament, and unless approved by a ‘simple majority’ in both Houses, it ceases after two months. Once approved, it remains effective for six months from the proclamation date, with further six-month extensions requiring additional Parliamentary approval.  Renewal beyond one year is allowed only if two conditions are met — an Emergency has been declared in the country or any part of the State, and if the Election Commission certifies that President’s rule is necessary due to difficulties in conducting State elections. In no case can the proclamation remain effective for more than three years. How is a ‘constitutional emergency’ different from a ‘national emergency’? Article 352 governs the proclamation of a “national emergency,” which has been invoked thrice — during the 1962 India-China war, the 1971-armed conflict with Pakistan, and in 1975 on grounds of “internal disturbance.” Unlike a “State emergency,” proclaiming a “national emergency” requires that the President be satisfied that India’s security — or any part of its territory — is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.  The 44th Constitutional amendment (1978) introduced safeguards against misuse. It replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”, mandated a written recommendation from the Cabinet, and shortened the parliamentary approval window from two months to one month. It clarified that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended, and that the President must revoke the proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving it. The amendment restored judicial review of the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming an emergency, a safeguard removed by the 38th Constitutional amendment (1975). Unlike a “constitutional emergency” (which can last up to three years), a “national emergency” has no time limit.  Additionally, while the President’s rule (Article 356) requires a ‘simple majority’ for parliamentary approval, a national emergency needs a ‘special majority’.  In a national emergency, the State executive and legislature continue to function, whereas under President’s Rule, the State executive is dismissed, and the legislature is suspended or dissolved. President’s rule does not affect citizens’ fundamental rights, unlike a national emergency, where under Article 358, freedoms under Article 19 become inoperative, and the President may suspend other fundamental rights, except Articles 20 and 21. Source: The Hindu THE SCHEDULED TRIBES AND OTHER TRADITIONAL FOREST DWELLERS (RECOGNITION OF FOREST RIGHTS) ACT, 2006 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Sixteen years since The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (also known as FRA) was introduced in January 2008, forest dwellers continue to face significant hurdles.  Background: – Only three states in India have recognised a notable number of Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights, with Maharashtra being the only state where these rights have been operationalised, an analysis has noted. Key takeaways The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), is a significant piece of legislation in India aimed at recognizing and vesting forest rights in forest-dwelling communities. Recognition of Forest Rights: The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFDs) who have been living in forests for generations but lacked legal ownership. It acknowledges both individual rights (e.g., land rights) and community rights (e.g., rights over common resources). Eligibility Criteria: Scheduled Tribes (STs): They must be residing in the forest land before 13th December 2005 and depend on forests for livelihood. Other Traditional Forest Dwellers: Non-tribal communities who have been living in forests for at least three generations (75 years) prior to December 13, 2005, and depend on forests for their livelihood. Land Ceiling: The Act sets a ceiling on the extent of land that can be recognized under individual rights, typically up to 4 hectares, subject to state-specific variations. Types of Rights Recognized: Individual Rights: Rights to land and resources that have been traditionally accessed by individuals or families. Community Rights: Rights over common property resources, including grazing grounds, water bodies, and traditional seasonal resource access. Right to Protect and Conserve: Rights to protect, regenerate, conserve, or manage any community forest resource traditionally protected and conserved by the community. Right to Intellectual Property: Rights over traditional knowledge related to biodiversity and cultural diversity. Right to Rehabilitation: If eviction is required for conservation, proper rehabilitation must be ensured. Gram Sabha’s Role: The Gram Sabha (village assembly) plays a crucial role in initiating the process of determining forest rights. It is responsible for receiving claims, consolidating and verifying them, and then passing resolutions to be forwarded to higher authorities. No forest rights can be acquired or transferred without the consent of the Gram Sabha. Claims Process: Forest-dwelling communities can file claims for recognition of their rights. The claims are verified and approved at various levels, including the Gram Sabha, Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC), and District Level Committee (DLC). Protection from Eviction: The Act provides protection to forest-dwelling communities from eviction or displacement without the recognition and verification of their rights. It ensures that no member of a forest-dwelling community can be evicted until the process of recognition and verification of rights is complete. Source: Down To Earth INDIRECT PROMPT INJECTION ATTACKS Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Indirect prompt injection, a technique that manipulates chatbots into executing malicious commands, has become a significant concern for developers and users alike. Background: – Despite efforts by tech giants like Google and OpenAI to fortify their systems, hackers continue to exploit vulnerabilities, leading to potential data breaches and misinformation. Key takeaways Indirect prompt injection attacks are a significant security concern in the realm of generative AI systems, particularly those utilizing large language models (LLMs).  Unlike direct prompt injections, where attackers input malicious commands directly into the AI system, indirect prompt injections involve embedding harmful instructions within external data sources that the AI system accesses. This can lead the AI to perform unintended actions, potentially compromising data integrity and user trust. Mechanism of Indirect Prompt Injection Attacks: Embedding Malicious Instructions: Attackers insert concealed commands into data sources such as emails, documents, or web content. For instance, a malicious prompt might be hidden within an email that, when processed by an AI assistant, instructs the system to leak sensitive information or perform unauthorized actions.  Exploitation Through Data Access: When the AI system accesses and processes this tainted data, it inadvertently executes the embedded instructions. This occurs because the AI cannot distinguish between legitimate data and malicious commands within the content it processes.  Potential Risks: Data Exfiltration: The AI might be manipulated to extract and transmit confidential information to unauthorized entities. Propagation of Malicious Content: In scenarios where AI systems generate or summarize content, they might unknowingly disseminate harmful instructions embedded within the source material. Unauthorized Actions: AI systems integrated with tools or plugins could be directed to perform actions beyond their intended scope, such as sending unauthorized emails or accessing restricted data.  Mitigation Strategies: Input Validation and Sanitization: Implement rigorous checks to detect and neutralize hidden commands within external data before processing. Contextual Differentiation: Enhance the AI’s ability to distinguish between executable instructions and regular data content, reducing the likelihood of unintended command execution.  Restricting External Data Access: Limit the AI system’s interaction with untrusted or unverified data sources to minimize exposure to potential threats. Human Oversight: Incorporate human review mechanisms for AI outputs, especially when dealing with sensitive information or actions, to catch anomalies. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is/are correct? President’s Rule can be imposed in a state if the constitutional machinery of that state has failed. The proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament within two months. Once approved, President’s Rule can remain in force indefinitely. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, which of the following rights are recognized? Individual forest rights over land for cultivation. Community rights over common property resources such as grazing grounds. Rights to protect and conserve forests and biodiversity. Absolute rights over protected areas granted to individuals. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4   Q3.) Which of the following statements about indirect prompt injection attacks is/are correct? Indirect prompt injection involves embedding malicious commands within external data sources like emails or web content. These attacks can lead to unauthorized actions being executed by AI systems. Restricting external data access and implementing input validation can help mitigate such attacks. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  15 February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) HUMAN-WILDLIFE CONFLICT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: As Kerala’s Wayanad district grapples with the deaths of four people in 48 hours due to elephant attacks, the Union environment ministry has informed the Rajya Sabha that the state recorded 460 deaths and 4,527 injuries due to human-wildlife conflict in the 2020-2024 period. Background: – Kerala MPs have sought amendments to the Wildlife Protection Act to prioritise human safety in light of a spate of attacks. Key takeaways The human-wildlife management issue has also been discussed by the National Board for Wildlife. In the board’s last meeting, Kerala’s chief wildlife warden and officials from other states suggested that a national policy should be developed for managing human-wildlife conflict. A 2018 study by Dehradun’s Wildlife Institute of India and the Periyar Tiger Conservation Foundation in Kerala, has found two major drivers of human-animal conflict in the state. First is the decline in the quality of forest habitats, largely due to the cultivation of alien plants — mainly acacia, mangium and eucalyptus — in forest tracts for commercial purposes. With 30,000 hectares of forest land in Kerala being used for cultivation of these species, animals are deprived of their natural habitat and food sources. Moreover, these water-guzzling species also strain the forest’s natural water resources.  Invasive species such as lantana, mikania and senna, planted by forest department over decades, have also hindered growth of natural vegetation in forests. While the Kerala forest department banned the cultivation of acacia and eucalyptus in forest tracts in 2018, the process of regenerating natural forests, such that animals do not face shortage of food and water, will take time.  So far only 1115 hectors of forest could be reconverted into natural habitats through eco-restoration process. The study also found that changing agri-practices were also responsible for drawing animals. In recent years, owing to poor returns, more farmland is being left unattended. This makes them targets for wildlife looking to snack on bananas and pineapples. Moreover, the increase in wildlife attacks has further pushed people to safer settlements away from their farms. This further entices animals to raid estates neighbouring forests. The crisis in Kerala’s farm sector has also driven many towards animal husbandry. But domesticated animals are also prime targets for tigers and other carnivores. Apart from declining quality of forests and changing agri-practices, a number of other human activities, including waste disposal near forested areas, fragmentation of animal habitats due to wanton construction, and increased human presence in and around animal habitat also contribute to increasing animal-human conflict in Kerala. How Kerala is addressing the issue The state has several initiatives – schemes for the construction of elephant-proof trenches, elephant-proof stone walls, and solar powered electric fencing. To keep animals in forests, Kerala has also undertaken eco-restoration programmes. The state is also running a scheme to acquire land from farmers, to be then converted into forestland. In areas which see the highest incidence of human-animal conflict, Rapid Response Teams have also been established. Source: Indian Express CHOOSING NEXT CHIEF ELECTION COMMISSIONER Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: With Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar set to retire on February 18, a three-member selection committee headed by Prime Minister is set to meet on February 17 to pick his successor. Background: – This is the first time that a CEC will be selected under the provisions of the new law — the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. Before this, Election Commissioners Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu had been selected under the new law. Key takeaways Earlier, Election Commissioners and the Chief Election Commissioner were appointed by the President based on the recommendations of the government. The law came into effect after the Supreme Court, in its ruling in March 2023, mandated a selection panel be formed and said that it should comprise the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India. The court said the order would hold good until a law was made by Parliament. However, when the law was passed, the Centre replaced the CJI with a Union Minister as the third member, giving the government a dominant role in the appointment process. On February 17, the panel will select a name from a list of five prepared by a search committee. The Act says, “A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and comprising two other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, shall prepare a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee, for appointment as the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners”. After Mr. Rajiv Kumar, Mr. Gyanesh Kumar is the senior-most Election Commissioner. The committee is also likely to select an Election Commissioner in case current Mr. Gyanesh Kumar is elevated to the top post. According to the law, the CEC and other ECs will be appointed from among persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of secretary to the government of India and will be persons of integrity with knowledge of and experience in management and conduct of elections. Source: The Hindu DOKRA ARTWORK Syllabus: Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has gifted Dokra artwork to French President Emmanuel Macron. Background: Dhokra (also spelt Dokra) is non–ferrous metal casting using the lost-wax casting technique.  Key takeaways Dhokra Art is an ancient Indian metal casting tradition that has been practiced for over 4,000 years, dating back to the Indus Valley Civilization.  This art form is renowned for its distinctive lost-wax casting technique, producing non-ferrous metal artifacts that are celebrated for their primitive simplicity, enchanting folk motifs, and robust forms. The term “Dhokra” is derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, traditional metalsmiths of West Bengal and Odisha. Their craftsmanship traces back to the Indus Valley Civilization, with the famous “Dancing Girl” bronze statue from Mohenjo-Daro being a prime example of early lost-wax casting. Geographical Spread: Over centuries, Dhokra artisans migrated across India. Today, Dhokra art is practiced nationwide, with each region infusing its unique cultural nuances into the craft. The Lost-Wax Casting Process: Core Creation: Artisans begin by shaping a core from clay, roughly outlining the desired artifact’s form. Wax Modeling: This clay core is enveloped in a layer of beeswax, which is meticulously sculpted to incorporate intricate designs and details. Mold Formation: Multiple layers of fine clay are applied over the wax model to create a sturdy mold. Once dried, the assembly is heated, causing the wax to melt and drain away, leaving a hollow clay mold. Metal Casting: Molten metal, typically brass or bronze, is poured into the vacant mold cavity. After cooling, the clay mold is broken open to reveal the metal artifact, which is then polished and finished. Cultural and Artistic Significance: Product Range: Dhokra artisans craft a diverse array of items, including figurines of deities, animals, and humans, as well as functional objects like lamps, jewelry, and utensils. Design Aesthetics: The art is characterized by its rustic charm, with motifs reflecting tribal folklore, nature, and daily life, often showcasing elongated forms and intricate patterns. Source: NDTV SOVEREIGN GREEN BONDS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: India’s push to fund green investments through Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) is facing muted investor demand, restricting the Union government’s ability to secure a meaningful green premium—lower yields compared to regular bonds—from the debt market. Background: – When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) auctioned two new SGrBs worth Rs 10,000 crore in November and January, bonds valued at Rs 7,443 crore remained unsold and were devolved to primary dealers as investors sought high yields. This came despite a rule change allowing NRIs and foreign portfolio investors to participate without restrictions. Key takeaways Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) are debt instruments issued by governments to finance environmentally sustainable projects. In November 2022, the Indian government approved the Sovereign Green Bonds framework, outlining the deployment of proceeds in public sector projects that aid in decreasing the economy’s emissions intensity. A ‘green project’ classification is based on the following principles:  Encourages energy efficiency in resource utilization  Reduces carbon emissions and greenhouse gases  Promotes climate resilience and/or adaptation  Values and improves natural ecosystems and biodiversity especially in accordance with SDG principles  Government of India will use the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrB) to finance and/or refinance expenditure (in parts or whole) for eligible green projects falling under ‘Eligible Categories’. Excluded Projects :  Projects involving new or existing extraction, production and distribution of fossil fuels, including improvements and upgrades; or where the core energy source is fossil-fuel based  Nuclear power generation  Direct waste incineration  Alcohol, weapons, tobacco, gaming, or palm oil industries  Renewable energy projects generating energy from biomass using feedstock originating from protected areas  Landfill projects  Hydropower plants larger than 25 MW Source: Indian Express CLIMATE RISK INDEX (CRI) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India is among the nations hit hardest by extreme weather over the past 30 years, according to the newly released 2025 Climate Risk Index (CRI). Background: – Between 1993 and 2022, the country endured more than 400 extreme events — including floods, heatwaves, and cyclones — leading to 80,000 fatalities and economic losses nearing $180 billion. Key takeaways The Climate Risk Index (CRI) is an analytical tool developed by the non-governmental organization Germanwatch to assess the impacts of extreme weather events on countries and regions.  It evaluates both economic losses and human fatalities resulting from such events over specific periods, providing insights into countries’ exposure and vulnerability to climate-related hazards. Key Features of the Climate Risk Index: Assessment Parameters: The CRI analyzes data on extreme weather events and their associated impacts. It considers metrics such as the number of fatalities, economic losses (both absolute and relative to GDP), and the frequency of events. Timeframes: The index offers both annual assessments and long-term evaluations, typically spanning 20 to 30 years. Purpose: By highlighting the countries most affected by extreme weather events, the CRI aims to raise awareness about the need for climate adaptation and mitigation strategies. Recent Findings: According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2025, India has shown improvement in its ranking.  In 2019, India was the 7th most affected country globally due to extreme weather events, but by 2022, it improved to the 49th position. However, in the long-term assessment from 1993 to 2022, India remains among the top 10 most affected countries, ranking 6th. Source: Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) With reference to Dokra artwork, consider the following statements: Dokra art is a non-ferrous metal casting technique that uses the lost-wax method. The art form originated during the Mughal period. Dokra artwork is primarily associated with tribal communities in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the Climate Risk Index (CRI), consider the following statements: The CRI is published annually by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It assesses countries based on the impact of extreme weather events, including economic losses and human fatalities. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2025, India ranks among the top 10 most affected countries in the long-term assessment (1993–2022). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs), consider the following statements: These bonds are issued by private corporations to finance environmentally sustainable projects. The Indian government introduced its Sovereign Green Bond framework in 2022. Funds raised through SGrBs can be used for fossil fuel-based energy projects if they promote energy efficiency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here