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Feb 14, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CORRUPTION PERCEPTIONS INDEX Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India ranked 96 out of 180 countries on the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024. Background: – The index ranked Denmark at the top, followed by Finland, and Singapore. Key takeaways The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is a global ranking that measures perceived levels of public sector corruption across countries. It is published annually by Transparency International, a non-governmental organization based in Germany. The index uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is corruption clean. The rank tells the country’s position relative to other countries in the index. The score for each country is derived from a minimum of three data sources, selected from 13 distinct corruption surveys and assessments. These sources are gathered by a range of reputed organisations, such as the World Bank and the World Economic Forum. Transparency International gave India a CPI score of 38. In 2023, India’s overall score was 39 while in 2022, it was 40. There is a decline in the score of India on CPI. The CPI report has also highlighted that corruption is strongly intertwined with climate change. The funds intended to help those suffering from the consequences of global heating are stolen or misused. Corruption also impacts the implementation of policies aimed at addressing climate change leading to further environmental damage. Among India’s neighbors, Bangladesh has received a score of 23, Pakistan 27, and Sri Lanka 32. Bangladesh is one of the largest recipients of climate finance, which is vulnerable to embezzlement and other forms of corruption. Source: Indian Express CONVICTED PERSONS AND ELECTIONS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Supreme Court is hearing petitions filed by Ashwin Upadhyay and others, seeking a life time ban on convicted persons from contesting elections. Background: – A report by ADR states that 251 (46%) of the 543 elected MPs in 2024, have criminal cases against them, and 171 (31%) face serious criminal charges including rape, murder, attempt to murder and kidnapping. It added that chances of winning for a candidate with a criminal background was 15.4% as against just 4.4% for a candidate with a clean background. Key takeaways Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act, 1951), provides for the disqualification of a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years. Such a person is disqualified from contesting elections for a further period of six years from the date of release. Section 8(1) further stipulates that a person convicted under criminal laws for heinous crimes like rape; the Protection of Civil Rights (PCR) act for preaching or practice of untouchability; UAPA for unlawful association; Prevention of Corruption Act etc., will be disqualified irrespective of the period of their sentence and six years after release. What were past judgements? In the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) case (2002), Supreme Court mandated the disclosure of criminal records of all candidates contesting elections. In the CEC vs Jan Chaukidar case (2013), SC upheld the creative interpretation of the provisions of the RP Act, 1951 by the Patna HC. One of the qualifications as per the act to contest elections is that a person should be an ‘elector.’ Section 62(5) stipulates that a person in jail is not eligible to vote in elections. The court interpreted that persons who are under trial prisoners, therefore cease to be ‘electors’ and hence not qualified to contest elections. However, the Parliament amended the act in 2013 to overturn this judgment allowing under trial prisoners to contest elections. In Lily Thomas (2013), the SC struck down section 8(4) of the RP Act, 1951, that allowed a sitting legislator to continue as a member even after being convicted if they filed an appeal. After this judgment, a sitting legislator is disqualified immediately after the sentencing for a conviction. Additional Information Section 11 of the RP Act, 1951 provides that the Election Commission (EC) may remove any disqualification or reduce the period of disqualification of a convicted person. EC utilised this power in September 2019, to reduce the disqualification period of Prem Singh Tamang, incumbent Chief Minister of Sikkim, from six years to 13 months which allowed him to contest and win a byelection. Source: The Hindu MALARIA Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The WHO’s recent declaration of Georgia as the 45th country to eliminate malaria is a significant milestone. Background: Despite decades of global efforts, malaria still causes over 240 million cases and more than 600,000 deaths annually. Key takeaways Malaria is a life-threatening vector-borne disease caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Causative Agent (Plasmodium Parasites) – There are five species of Plasmodium that cause malaria in humans: Plasmodium falciparum – Most severe, responsible for cerebral malaria. Plasmodium vivax – Causes recurring malaria due to dormant liver stage. Plasmodium malariae – Milder infection, can persist for years. Plasmodium ovale – Rare, found mainly in Africa & Asia. Plasmodium knowlesi – Zoonotic malaria, found in Southeast Asia. Transmission Cycle: Infected Anopheles mosquito bites a human. Parasites enter the bloodstream and reach the liver, where they multiply. They re-enter the bloodstream and infect red blood cells (RBCs), causing fever and chills. Some parasites develop into gametocytes, which are taken up by another mosquito, completing the cycle. Malaria Distribution & Impact: Endemic in tropical regions, mainly Africa, South Asia, and South America. India: Malaria cases are declining but still prevalent in tribal areas, Northeast, and forested regions. Vaccination: RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) – First WHO-approved malaria vaccine (2021). R21/Matrix-M – Another promising vaccine candidate. Challenges in Developing a Malaria Vaccine & Why It Is Less Effective Compared to Viral Vaccines Complex Life Cycle of Plasmodium Unlike viruses, the malaria parasite (Plasmodium) has a highly complex life cycle involving multiple stages: Sporozoite stage (Liver stage) → Merozoite stage (Blood stage) → Gametocyte stage (Mosquito stage). Each stage expresses different antigens, making it difficult to target the parasite with a single vaccine. Antigenic Variability & Immune Evasion The malaria parasite has thousands of antigens, while viruses typically have fewer target antigens. Plasmodium can change its surface proteins (antigenic variation) to evade the immune system, making vaccine-induced immunity short-lived. Intracellular Nature of the Parasite After infection, malaria parasites hide inside liver and red blood cells, making them inaccessible to antibodies. The immune system struggles to detect and eliminate them, unlike viruses, which mostly remain extracellular at some stage. Lack of Effective Animal Models Most vaccines are tested in animal models before human trials. Malaria parasites are species-specific, and human malaria does not replicate well in animals, making research challenging. Viral vaccine development benefits from better animal models (e.g., monkeys for polio, mice for influenza). Source: The Hindu OBSCENITY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY ; ETHICS Context: Ranveer Allahbadia, a popular content creator has become the subject of a Mumbai police probe over obscene comments made during a comedy show. Background: – Mumbai police is yet to register an FIR, but the Assam cops have registered a complaint against Allahbadia and others including charges of ‘obscene acts’ under Section 296 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Key takeaways Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. Article 19(2): Imposes reasonable restrictions on free speech in the interest of public decency and morality, allowing for laws against obscenity. Section 294 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita criminalises the creation and sale of obscene materials, including electronic content. It defines obscenity as material that is ‘lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest’—content that is overtly and excessively sexual—or that has the potential to ‘deprave and corrupt’ those who consume it. First-time offenders face up to two years of imprisonment and a fine of up to ₹5,000. History of obscenity rulings in India The most important ruling on obscenity laws involved Lady Chatterley’s Lover — a book by D H Lawrence, which was considered scandalous for its times due to its depictions of sexual encounters. It faced trials in India and the United Kingdom. In 1964, the Supreme Court of India held the book as obscene under Section 292 of the now-overhauled Indian Penal Code (IPC). The top court borrowed from the British case of Queen v. Hicklin (1868) — at which point their legal system adopted the ‘Hicklin test’ to determine if something was obscene or not. The court held the work to be obscene if it had the tendency to “deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences.” However, the standard for obscenity had changed in the west before the SC pronounced this judgement and the Obscene Publications Act 1959 of UK said that a work must be considered ‘as a whole’ before its likely effect on audiences is mulled upon. This case would go on to influence the Indian Supreme Court to adopt ‘community standards’ test to gauge obscenity, as seen in Aveek Sarkar v State of West Bengal (2014). The court quashed obscenity proceedings against magazines which carred a photo of Boris Becker — the tennis player — in the nude with his fiancee. The SC held that applying the Hicklin test would result in the work being judged for “obscenity based on isolated passages of a work considered out of context and judged by their apparent influence on most susceptible readers, such as children or weak-minded adults.” Source: Deccan Herald EINSTEIN RING Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered a rare ring of light, known as an Einstein ring, around a galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth. Background: – Photos, which were taken by Euclid in September 2023 but released recently, of the Einstein ring show a bright ball of light in the centre with a bright, cloudy ring around it. Key takeaways An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing. Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon which occurs when a massive celestial body — such as a galaxy or cluster of galaxies — creates a gravitational field which distorts and amplifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight. The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens. Einstein rings are named after Albert Einstein, whose general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos. The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987, and since then, several more have been discovered. Einstein rings are not visible to the naked eye, and can be observed only through space telescopes such as Euclid. Why do scientists study Einstein rings? These rings help scientists investigate dark matter, which has never been detected but is believed to make up 85% of the total matter in the universe. Dark matter does not interact with light, but it does have a gravitational effect. Gravitational lensing therefore is sensitive to the presence of this dark matter, allowing us to indirectly detect it. Moreover, Einstein rings enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies, which otherwise might not be visible. They can also provide information about the expansion of the universe as the space between the Earth and other galaxies — both in the foreground and the background — is stretching, according to NASA. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding the Einstein Ring is correct? A) It is caused by the refraction of light from distant galaxies due to interstellar dust. B) It is a phenomenon where light bends around a massive object due to gravity, forming a ring-like structure. C) It occurs due to the scattering of light from dark matter particles. D) It is a type of black hole event horizon that emits visible light. Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding malaria: It is caused by a bacterial pathogen transmitted by the Culex mosquito. Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe species and can cause cerebral malaria. Malaria vaccines are highly effective because Plasmodium has a simple life cycle. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is correct? A) It is published annually by the World Bank. B) It ranks countries based on real corruption cases and legal convictions. C) A higher CPI score indicates a higher level of corruption in a country. D) India’s ranking in the 2024 CPI report has declined compared to previous years. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Feb 14, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Feb 13, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SAROJINI NAIDU Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – HISTORY Context: Sarojini Naidu’s enduring legacy as a champion of women’s rights is honoured by celebrating her birth anniversary on February 13 as National Women’s Day in India. Background: – Born to Bengali parents in Hyderabad in 1879, Naidu was a woman of many talents. Key takeaways Sarojini Naidu (1879–1949) was an Indian independence activist, poet, and the first woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress. She played a crucial role in India’s struggle for independence and was known as the Nightingale of India due to her literary contributions. Key Contributions: Role in the Freedom Movement: Joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1905 during the Bengal Partition movement. Advocated for women’s rights, education, and social reforms. Played an active role in the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) and Civil Disobedience Movement (1930). Participated in the Salt Satyagraha (1930) and was arrested for her involvement. Political Achievements: First Woman President of INC (1925) – Advocated for self-rule and equality. First Indian Woman Governor (1947) – Became the Governor of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) post-independence. Member of the Constituent Assembly Literary Contributions: Famous works: The Golden Threshold (1905), The Bird of Time (1912), The Broken Wing (1917). Source: Indian Express IMMIGRATION AND FOREIGNERS BILL, 2025 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, is likely to be introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in the ongoing Budget session of Parliament. Background: – The proposed legislation will replace the existing laws — the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920; the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939; the Foreigners Act, 1946; and the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000. The acts, namely the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the Foreigners Act, 1946, are not only of the pre-Constitution period but also, they were brought into extraordinary times of first and second world wars. While there is an underlying continuity and commonality of objectives among the four Acts, there are some overlapping provisions among the said laws. Key takeaways The Bill will specify the matters relating to foreigners and their registration, the provisions relating to the obligation of universities and educational institutions admitting any foreigner, the obligation of hospitals, nursing homes or any other medical institution admitting foreigners. The bill specifies the role of “every person occupying or having under his control any residential premises” to submit to the registration officer information in respect to any foreigners accommodated in such premises. It mandates every university and educational institution admitting any foreigner to furnish information to the registration officer. Similarly, it specifies the role of “every hospital, nursing home or any other such medical institution providing medical, lodging or sleeping facility in their premises” to inform the authority (registration officer) about “any foreigner taking indoor medical treatment or their attendant for whom such lodging or sleeping facility has been provided”. The Bill obligates the carriers such as airlines and vessels to remove a passenger denied entry by the immigration officer and provide passenger and crew data to the authorities in advance. The bill carries a provision of up to ₹5 lakh in fine for violating carriers. Source: Indian Express NARI ADALATS Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The government has written to states inviting proposals to establish ‘Nari Adalats’, Women and Child Development Minister Annpurna Devi said. Background: The ministry intends to extend the scheme, already running on a pilot basis in Assam and J&K, to other states. Key takeaways Nari Adalats are women-led alternative dispute resolution forums established under the “Sambal” sub-scheme of Mission Shakti by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. These forums aim to provide women with an accessible grievance redressal mechanism at the gram panchayat level, addressing cases of petty nature such as harassment, subversion, or curtailment of rights. Key Features: Structure: Each Nari Adalat comprises 7 to 11 members, known as ‘Nyaya Sakhis,’ who are nominated by the gram panchayat. Functioning: These forums resolve disputes through negotiation, mediation, and reconciliation, ensuring speedy, accessible, and affordable justice for women. Implementation: Initially launched on a pilot basis in 2023 in 50 gram panchayats each in Assam and Jammu & Kashmir, the program has seen success, prompting the Ministry to invite proposals from other states and Union Territories for expansion. Source: Indian Express PRESIDENT’S RULE AMONG OPTIONS FOR MANIPUR Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: A significant temperature drop has been observed across North India due to a western disturbance currently positioned over North Pakistan, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) reported. Background: – After N Biren Singh resigned as Manipur’s Chief Minister, the BJP leadership is exploring its options. If the party fails to find a consensus CM candidate, the state may have to be put under President’s rule. Key takeaways The imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356 effectively transfers all the functions of the state government to the Centre and the function of the state legislature to Parliament during the period when it is in force. The process begins if the President, on receiving a report from the Governor, is “satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”. President will issue a ‘Proclamation’, which can remain in force for up to two months. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha must approve it through a resolution before this period expires for it to remain operative further. If approved, the proclamation of President’s Rule can be extended to six months and Parliament can approve further six-month extensions for up to three years. Certain conditions must be met before a proclamation can be renewed by Parliament beyond a year since it was first issued. Further extensions can only be approved if an Emergency has been declared in the country or that particular state, or if the Election Commission certifies that President’s Rule is necessary due to difficulties in conducting state elections. Since 1950, when the Constitution first came into force, President’s Rule has been imposed a total of 134 times across 29 states and UTs. It has been imposed most frequently in Manipur and Uttar Pradesh, at 10 times each. However, these are not the states (including UTs) that have spent the most time under central control. That distinction is held by Jammu & Kashmir, followed by Punjab and Puducherry. Since 1950, Jammu and Kashmir has spent over 12 years (4,668 days) under President’s Rule and Punjab has been under Central control for over 10 years (3,878 days) in the same period. In both states, this is largely owed to recurring spells of militant and separatist activity, and unstable law and order situations. Source: Indian Express DAYANAND SARASWATI Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY Context: 12th February marked the 201st birth anniversary of Dayanand Saraswati. Background: – In 2023, to commemorate his 200th birth anniversary, a year-long celebration was held across India. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s second President, called Dayanand Saraswati ‘a maker of modern India.’ Key takeaways Dayanand Saraswati was born on February 12, 1824, in Morbi, Kathiawar, Gujarat. In 1875, he founded the Arya Samaj. Arya Samaj played a crucial role in social awakening through its emphasis on social reforms and education. This was a monotheistic Hindu order that rejected the ritualistic excesses and social dogmas of orthodox Hinduism and promoted a united Hindu society on the basis of Vedic teachings. Among his various beliefs included a rejection of idolatry and the overly ritualistic traditions of Hinduism, support for women’s education, denunciation of child marriage, and an opposition to untouchability. His magnum opus, Satyarth Prakash (1875), emphasised the “return to Vedic principles” that Dayanand Saraswati believed “had been lost” over time. The book uses the language of religious revivalism. He advocated for worshipping of one Supreme God and followed simple rituals and recitation of Vedic mantras. All other religions were rejected by him and he wanted Hindus who had converted to other religions to return to Hinduism based on the Vedas. He also emerged as an early proponent of cow protection, who first published Gokarun·aˉnidhi , a pamphlet in 1881, which circulated his concerns against cattle slaughter. He later on went to establish a committee for the protection of cows called Gaurakshini Sabha in 1882. After he died in 1883 his followers established a school in Punjab in his name – Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) School to educate children in modern subjects and at the same time keep them in touch with their religion and culture. Philosophy of Dayanand Saraswati Crucial among his “ten founding principles of Arya Samaj” is the idea that all activities must be done for the benefit of humankind as a whole, rather than individuals or even idols and religious symbols. This universalism was directly antithetical to the caste system. While Dayanand did not fully oppose the institution of caste itself, he advocated for significant reform within it. Citing the Vedas, he claimed that caste is not supposed to be hereditary but rather based on an individual’s talents and disposition. Furthermore, he was against the practice of untouchability, which he believed was an outcome of centuries of Brahmanical domination. Crucially, he advocated Vedic education for all castes. He campaigned for the education of women as well as against ‘regressive practices’ such as child marriage. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Dayanand Saraswati: He founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 to promote Vedic principles. He strongly supported idol worship and ritualistic traditions of Hinduism. He advocated for the education of women and opposed child marriage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to President’s Rule in India, consider the following statements: It is imposed under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution. The initial duration of President’s Rule is two months, extendable up to ten years with parliamentary approval. The Election Commission plays no role in the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements about Sarojini Naidu is NOT correct? (a) She was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress. (b) She actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement and Salt Satyagraha. (c) She was the first Indian woman to be appointed as the Governor of a state post-independence. (d) She was awarded the Bharat Ratna for her contributions to India’s freedom struggle. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 12th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Feb 13, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Feb 12, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Feb 12, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INDIA’S CITIES AS ENGINES OF GROWTH Syllabus: Prelims – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: The Union Budget 2025, emphasised urban development as one of the six domains for transformative reforms. This renewed focus on urban areas points to the government’s commitment to empowering cities as a vital component of India’s development. Background: – By prioritising infrastructure investment, encouraging Urban Local Bodies to diversify their revenue streams, and fostering public-private partnerships, the budget lays the groundwork for greater financial autonomy and sustainable urban development. Key takeaways In the 2025-26 budget, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), has been allocated Rs. 96,777 crore, accounting for 1.91% of the total estimated expenditure. In recent years, budgetary allocation for urban development has seen a steady rise — from 50,000 crore in 2021 to 79,000 crore in 2024 and 96,777 crore in 2025. Several key schemes, such as Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY-Urban), which focuses on affordable urban housing; the Smart Cities Mission, which focuses on creating smart cities; and the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), which focuses on water and sanitation infrastructure, are recipients of these budgetary allocations. In recent years, allocations have also gone to urban transport projects, particularly Metro rail and Mass Rapid Transit projects. Moreover, to boost incomes for the urban poor, a revamp of the Prime Minister Street Vendors AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) – was also announced. The budget also announced “Urban Challenge Fund”. Under this fund, proposals shall be evaluated along three categories: “Cities as growth hubs, creative redevelopment of cities, and water and sanitation projects.” The fund will finance up to 25% of the cost of bankable projects, with a stipulation that at least 50% of the project cost is sourced from bonds, bank loans, or Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs). Structuring the Urban Challenge Fund to include private enterprise participation is a signal to empower Urban Local Bodies to raise their own sources of finance to fund projects. As the analysis by PRS Legislative Research points out, the majority of ULBs’ revenue comes from central and state government grants. Main revenue sources of ULBs The main revenue sources of ULBs can be primarily categorised as tax and non-tax revenues. Tax revenues mainly include property tax, professional tax, and entertainment tax, while non-tax revenues include user fees such as parking fees, water supply fees, license fees, and rental income from municipal property. For example, in the 2021-22 financial year, the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC) had 19% of its revenue from tax, 54% from fees and user charges, and the remaining from other sources of income. In comparison, the Greater Chennai Corporation (GCC) generated 80% of its income from tax sources and the remaining 20% from other sources of income. While large cities have a wider tax base and capacity to generate revenues, smaller cities have to rely on grants from central and state governments. For example, in 2021-22, 57% of Kochi Municipal Corporation’s revenue came from revenue grants, contributions, and subsidies. How urban local bodies raise funds The most prominent example of this is municipal bonds, where ULBs issue bonds. Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation was one of the first ULBs in India to issue a municipal bond to service its water and sanitation projects. ULBs can also raise loans from financial institutions such as HUDCO, the World Bank, etc., for specific projects. A glance at the database of public-private partnership projects in India shows that at least 5-10% of the total projects are urban projects in the fields of water-sanitation and transport. These projects not only bring private finance onboard, but also facilitate expertise and capabilities from the private sector. Source: Indian Express FOR SECOND YEAR, NO DEATH PENALTY PASSES SC TEST Syllabus: Prelims – GS 2 & GS 4 Context: Reflecting a divergence in decision-making on death penalty at different levels in the judiciary, the Supreme Court — for the second consecutive year — did not confirm a single death sentence in 2024 while trial courts awarded 139 such verdicts, according to a report by Project 39A, a criminal justice programme at the National Law University Delhi. Background: – The SC heard six appeals in 2024 — it commuted five death sentences to life imprisonment while one was acquitted. Key takeaways ‘Death Penalty in India: Annual Statistics Report 2024’, states that at the end of 2024, there were 564 death row prisoners in jails across India, the highest number since 2000. In 2024, of the 139 death sentences awarded by trial courts, 87 (62%) were imposed in murder cases and 35 (25%) in cases of murder involving sexual offences. This is a reversal from the previous year, when more death sentences were imposed in cases of murder involving sexual offences (59) than in simple murder cases (40). The total number of death row prisoners (564 in 2024) has risen every year since 2019, when there were 378 inmates on death row. In 2024, 17 women were on death row. The report attributes the high number of death row convicts to a trend of “high imposition of death sentences at trial courts, and the low rates of death penalty appeal disposals at High Courts”. Under Section 366 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, and Section 407 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, death sentence proceedings must be forwarded to the High Court for confirmation before they can be executed. Source: Indian Express SHADOW FLEET BRINGS RISK OF OIL SPILL IN THE BALTIC Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: As ageing and deficient tankers in the “Russian shadow fleet” traffic the shallow waters of the Baltic Sea, a major oil spill disaster looms, experts say. Background: Security analysts say Russia is operating a large “shadow fleet” of hundreds of vessels, seeking to dodge the sanctions Western nations imposed on its oil exports over its full-scale invasion of Ukraine in 2022. Key takeaways A shadow fleet refers to a group of aging or unregistered vessels that operate outside standard maritime regulations to transport goods—especially sanctioned oil, arms, or illicit cargo—while avoiding detection and international trade restrictions. Key Features of the Shadow Fleet: Use of Aging & Decommissioned Ships Many vessels in the shadow fleet are old, poorly maintained, and operate without proper safety inspections. They are often sold by reputable shipping companies to anonymous or shell companies in opaque jurisdictions. Frequent Flag Changes (Flag of Convenience) These vessels frequently change their flag registrations (e.g., from Panama to Liberia) to evade tracking. They operate under the jurisdiction of countries with lax maritime laws. Manipulation of AIS Transponders (Ghost Ships) Ships in the shadow fleet turn off their Automatic Identification System (AIS) to disappear from tracking systems. This practice, known as “going dark,” is a violation of international maritime law. Ship-to-Ship Transfers (STS Transfers) : They transfer cargo mid-sea to disguise the origin of oil or goods, making it difficult for authorities to trace their movements. Ties to Sanctioned Nations & Illicit Trade : Countries like Russia, Iran, North Korea, and Venezuela have been accused of using shadow fleets to bypass U.S. and EU sanctions. Source: Hindu LYMPHATIC FILARIASIS (LF) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare, Shri Jagat Prakash Nadda launched the Annual Nationwide Mass Drug Administration (MDA) Campaign for Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) Elimination. Background: – The campaign covers 111 endemic districts across 13 States with door-to-door administration of filaria prevention medications. Key takeaways Lymphatic Filariasis (Elephantiasis) is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) caused by filarial parasites (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori). LF is commonly known as “Hathi Paon”. It is transmitted by mosquitoes (Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes species). The infection affects the lymphatic system, causing severe swelling (lymphedema), hydrocele (scrotal swelling), and elephantiasis (skin thickening & enlargement of limbs). Acute Symptoms: Fever, pain, swelling of lymph nodes. Inflammation of the skin and lymphatic vessels. Chronic Symptoms: Permanent swelling of limbs, genitals, and breasts (Elephantiasis). India accounts for ~40% of the global LF cases. Government Initiatives to Eliminate LF: The Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaign involves the supervised administration of a combination of anti-filarial medicines to all eligible individuals in LF-endemic areas, regardless of whether they show symptoms. The goal of MDA is to reduce the spread of LF by eliminating the microscopic filarial parasites present in the bloodstream of infected individuals, thus preventing further transmission by mosquitoes. India’s Roadmap for LF Elimination by 2027 Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaigns in endemic districts. Morbidity management and disability prevention (MMDP) for affected individuals. Vector control measures like mosquito habitat management. Source: PIB PM YUVA SCHEME Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Union Minister for Education, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, launched 41 new books under the PM YUVA 2.0 scheme at the New Delhi World Book Fair 2025 today. Background: – The Pradhan Mantri YUVA (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) Scheme is an initiative by the Indian government aimed at nurturing young literary talent. Key takeaways Launched on May 29, 2021, by the Ministry of Education, PM YUVA is designed to mentor young authors below the age of 30. The scheme aims to cultivate a new generation of writers who can contribute to the literary landscape of India. The primary objectives of PM YUVA include: Mentorship: Providing guidance and support to young authors through experienced mentors. Literary Development: Encouraging the creation of high-quality literary works in Indian languages. Cultural Promotion: Highlighting Indian culture, heritage, history, and languages through literature. Global Reach: Expanding the reach of Indian literature to a global audience. Key Features Selection Process: An all-India contest is conducted to select 75 young authors. Participants submit a manuscript based on a specified theme. A committee constituted by the National Book Trust (NBT) evaluates the submissions. Mentorship and Scholarship: Selected authors receive guidance from established mentors to develop their manuscripts into full-fledged books. A consolidated scholarship of ₹50,000 per month is provided for six months to each author. Publication and Royalty: The developed manuscripts are published by the NBT. Authors receive a 10% royalty on the published books. Themes: First Edition (2021): Focused on the “National Movement of India,” highlighting unsung heroes and lesser-known aspects of India’s freedom struggle. Second Edition (2022): Centered on “Democracy (Institutions, Events, People, and Constitutional Values),” aiming to develop writers who can explore various facets of democracy in India. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the “Shadow Fleet”: It consists of vessels that frequently change their flag registration to evade tracking and sanctions. These ships turn off their Automatic Identification System (AIS) to operate undetected, violating international maritime laws. The shadow fleet primarily operates in the Indian Ocean to facilitate illegal fishing activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to Lymphatic Filariasis (LF), consider the following statements: LF is caused by parasitic worms, including Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia species. The primary mode of transmission is through contaminated water and food. India’s strategy to eliminate LF includes Mass Drug Administration (MDA) and vector control measures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri YUVA (Young, Upcoming, and Versatile Authors) scheme is correct? It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education, launched in 2021, to mentor young authors under the age of 30. Selected authors under the scheme receive a monthly scholarship and mentorship. The books developed under this scheme are published internationally, bypassing Indian publishers. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 11th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Feb 11, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BALTIC STATES SWITCH TO EUROPEAN POWER GRID, ENDING RUSSIA TIES Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Three Baltic states disconnected their electricity systems from Russia’s power grid, the region’s operators said, part of a plan designed to integrate the countries more closely with the European Union and boost security. Background: – Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania disconnected from the IPS/UPS joint network and, subject to last-minute tests, they will synchronise with the EU’s grid after operating on their own in the meantime. Key takeaways Plans for the Baltics to decouple from the grid of their former Soviet imperial overlord, debated for decades, gained momentum following Moscow’s annexation of Crimea in 2014. The grid was the final remaining link to Russia for the three countries, which reemerged as independent nations in the early 1990s at the fall of the Soviet Union, and joined the European Union and NATO in 2004. The three staunch supporters of Kyiv stopped purchases of power from Russia following Moscow’s invasion of Ukraine in 2022, but have relied on the Russian grid to control frequencies and stabilise networks to avoid outages. The Baltic Sea region is on high alert after power cable, telecom links and gas pipeline outages between the Baltics and Sweden or Finland. All were believed to have been caused by ships dragging anchors along the seabed following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. Russia has denied any involvement. For Russia, the decoupling means its Kaliningrad exclave, located between Lithuania, Poland and the Baltic Sea, is cut off from Russia’s main grid, leaving it to maintain its power system alone. The Baltic countries spent nearly 1.6 billion euros ($1.66 billion) since 2018 to upgrade grids to prepare, while Moscow has spent 100 billion roubles ($1 billion), including on the building of several gas-fired power plants in Kaliningrad. Source: Indian Express GROSS DOMESTIC KNOWLEDGE PRODUCT Syllabus: Prelims – ECONOMY Context: In a revival of an idea that had been shelved in 2021, the government is looking to capture the knowledge economy as a metric to supplement the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Background: – The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) had a session on “Conceptual Framework of Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP) Measurement”, chaired by Principal Scientific Advisor Ajay Kumar Sood. Key takeaways The Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP) is an innovative metric designed to assess a nation’s economic progress by focusing on its knowledge-based assets and activities. The concept of Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP) is not a standard economic term like Gross Domestic Product (GDP), but it can be understood as a theoretical or emerging framework that measures the economic value generated from knowledge-based activities, innovation, and intellectual capital within a country. Focus: It emphasizes the role of knowledge, information, and creativity as key drivers of economic growth in the modern economy. At present, all expenditures on Intellectual Property Products (IPP) are recorded under Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) — the indicator for capital investments in the GDP dataset for the economy. GDKP was discussed earlier in 2021 when NITI Aayog made a presentation on the concept note. The National Statistical Commission had pointed out then that the concept note did not provide the methodology for capturing the data and computation of GDKP. Source: Indian Express PRADHAN MANTRI ANUSUCHIT JAATI ABHYUDAY YOJANA (PM-AJAY) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: A meeting of the Central Advisory Committee (CAC) for the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) was held under the Chairmanship of Dr. Virendra Kumar, Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment and Chairperson of the CAC. Background: Scheduled Castes (SCs), who constitute 16.6% of our population as per 2011 Census, have historically suffered social and educational disabilities and economic deprivation arising therefrom. Accordingly, special provisions have been enshrined for advancement of their interests. Key takeaways The Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in the fiscal year 2021-22 by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. It was established by merging three existing schemes: Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY) Objectives: Reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation of additional employment opportunities through skill development, income generating schemes and other initiatives. Improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages. Increase literacy and encourage enrolment of SCs in schools and higher educational institutions by providing adequate residential facilities in quality institutions, as well as residential schools where required, especially in the aspirational districts/ SC dominated blocks and elsewhere in India. Key Components: Development of SC-Dominated Villages into “Adarsh Gram”: Transform villages with significant SC populations into model villages with access to basic services and infrastructure necessary for dignified living. As of the latest data, a total of 29,881 villages have been covered under this component, with 6,087 declared as Adarsh Gram. Grants-in-Aid to States/Districts: Provide financial assistance for projects aimed at socio-economic betterment of SC communities, including comprehensive livelihood projects and infrastructure development. Central assistance of ₹3,242.07 crore has been released, benefiting 850,611 individuals. Construction/Repair of Hostels: Build and repair hostels to support SC students, particularly those from rural and remote areas, in accessing quality education. Since 2021-22, 46 hostels have been sanctioned for 5,185 beneficiaries, with an allocation of ₹126.30 crore. The scheme is 100% funded by the Central Government. However, the States/UTs are free to provide additional funds from their own resources if they so desire. Source: PIB AUTONOMOUS DISTRICT COUNCILS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council (KHADC) and the Jaintia Hills Autonomous District Council (JHADC) elections will be held on February 21, 2025. Background: – The KHADC and JHADC cover areas dominated by matrilineal communities — the Khasi and Jaintias respectively — but less than 7% of the candidates contesting the elections to these councils are women. Key takeaways Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in India are administrative bodies established to provide self-governance and preserve the cultural identities of tribal communities, primarily in the northeastern states. Key Features of Autonomous District Councils: Constitutional Basis: The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the creation of ADCs in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. This schedule aims to protect the rights of tribal populations through self-governance. Legislative Powers: ADCs have the authority to legislate on subjects such as land management, forest resources, water resources, agriculture, village administration, public health, and social customs. These laws are applicable within their respective jurisdictions. Judicial Powers: ADCs can establish courts to adjudicate cases involving members of Scheduled Tribes, provided the offenses are minor and the sentences do not exceed five years of imprisonment. These courts function parallel to the regular judicial system. Financial Powers: ADCs are empowered to levy and collect taxes, fees, and tolls on various subjects, including land, buildings, animals, vehicles, and professions. They can also receive grants from the state government for specified projects. As of now, there are 10 ADCs constituted under the Sixth Schedule: Assam: Bodoland Territorial Council, North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council, Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council Meghalaya: Garo Hills Autonomous District Council, Jaintia Hills Autonomous District Council, Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council Mizoram: Chakma Autonomous District Council, Lai Autonomous District Council, Mara Autonomous District Council Tripura: Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council Additionally, several states have established autonomous councils through state legislation to cater to the specific needs of tribal communities. For instance, in Assam, there are councils like the Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council, Mising Autonomous Council, and Tiwa Autonomous Council, among others. Source: The Hindu EXERCISE CYCLONE Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: India- Egypt joint special forces exercise cyclone commences in rajasthan. Background: – Exercise Cyclone is an annual event conducted alternately in India and Egypt. The previous edition was held in Egypt in January 2024. Key takeaways Exercise Cyclone is a joint military exercise between the Special Forces of India and Egypt, aimed at enhancing bilateral military cooperation, interoperability, and the exchange of special operations tactics. The exercise focuses on high levels of physical fitness, joint planning, and tactical drills in desert and semi-desert terrains. Third Edition: The third edition of Exercise Cyclone commenced on February 10, 2025, at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan, India, and is scheduled to conclude on February 23, 2025. Participants: The Indian contingent comprises troops from two Special Forces Battalions, while the Egyptian contingent includes members from the Special Forces Group and Task Force. The exercise aims to: Promote military-to-military relations between India and Egypt. Enhance interoperability and jointness in special operations. Facilitate the mutual exchange of special operations tactics, techniques, and procedures. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Article 371 of the Indian Constitution: Article 371 provides special provisions exclusively for the states of Nagaland and Mizoram. Article 371J accords special status to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region (Kalyana Karnataka). Article 371F deals with the special provisions for Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q2.) Which of the following factors contribute to the extreme aridity of the Atacama Desert? The rain shadow effect of the Andes Mountains The influence of the Humboldt Current The presence of large freshwater lakes The Subtropical High-Pressure Belt Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding Shatavari (Asparagus racemosus): It is primarily cultivated in temperate regions of India. It is widely used in Ayurveda for its role in women’s reproductive health. It is promoted under the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) for commercial cultivation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Feb 11, 2025 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SHIV SHAKTI POINT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: A study by scientists from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has estimated that the region where Chandrayaan-3 landed on the Moon is approximately 3.7 billion years old—coinciding with the period when primitive microbial life first emerged on Earth. Background: – India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission achieved a historic milestone on August 23, 2023, as it landed on the Moon’s south polar region, making India the fourth country to achieve a soft landing on the lunar surface and the first to reach the Moon’s South Pole. Key takeaways A team of scientists from Isro’s Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad, has performed morphological and topographic analysis within the Chandrayaan-3 landing site, now known as the Shiv Shakti point. With the help of data generated by the Pragyan rover housed inside the Vikram lander onboard Chandrayaan-3, Indian scientists have been uncovering new interpretations and insights into the moon’s evolution. The latest study described the regional geography around the Shiv Shakti point. The Chandrayaan-3 landing site is enclosed between multiple large-impact craters: Manzinus (diameter about 96 km, age about 3.9 billion years) to the north, Boguslawsky (diameter about 95 km, age about 4 billion years) to the southeast, and Schomberger (diameter about 86 km, age about 3.7 billion years) to the south. Over the years, images have helped lunar scientists globally to rebuild the history of Manzinus and Boguslawsky, with both craters appearing to have flat crater floors and subdued crater wall structures. Each of these craters is categorised as shallow, with Boguslawsky being hollower than Manzinus and Schomberger. What distinguishes the Schomberger crater is its depth and well-preserved structures — including the central peak, wall terrains, raised crater rim, and steep crater walls — along with an ejecta blanket. Source: Indian Express PLAN TO AMEND NUCLEAR LIABILITY LAW Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Union government’s announcement that it would amend the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010, and the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, is likely to enthuse American and French nuclear power companies, whose projects have been deadlocked due to legal concerns for more than 15 years. Background: – The announcement, which marked a sharp U-turn from the government’s position in 2015, was made in the Budget speech on February 1. In particular, it is meant to help progress the Electricite de France (EDF) MoU to build six EPR1650 reactors at Jaitapur in Maharashtra that was signed in 2009 (with Areva), and American Westinghouse Electric Company’s (WEC) MoU, signed in 2012, to build six AP1000 reactors at Kovvada in Andhra Pradesh. Key takeaways Currently, India has a nuclear power capacity of 6,780 MW from 22 reactors, and the only foreign operator in India is Russia’s Rosatom. The CLNDA has been the biggest impediment to private sector participation due to a provision that pins liabilities on nuclear suppliers in addition to the operator in case of nuclear damage. Western nuclear power companies says that clauses in the CLNDA are unacceptable as they mandate a high degree of liability for suppliers and contradict the international Convention for Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC) which focuses only on the liability of operators of the plant. The clauses were inserted in 2012, where the then-in-Opposition NDA members had accused the government of letting Western companies off from liability, citing the Union Carbide-Bhopal gas leak case that killed thousands in 1984 and the Fukushima nuclear leak in Japan in 2011. Officials aware of discussions on the issue said that while the CLNDA would be amended to separate operator’s liability from supplier’s liability to bring it in line with the CSC, the Atomic Energy Act would liberalise investment in power projects in India. Source: The Hindu ARTICLE 371 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: A regional party in poll-bound Meghalaya has indicated that bringing the State under the purview of Article 371 could help resume rat-hole coal mining, which has been banned since April 2014. Background: Voice of the People Party (VPP) cited the example of Nagaland to seek Article 371 for Meghalaya. Key takeaways Special provisions provided to some States are listed in Articles 371 (A-J) in Part XXI of the Constitution, which deals with “temporary, transitional and special powers for certain States.” While Articles 370 (now abrogated) and 371 have been a part of the Constitution since 1950, Articles 371 (A-J) were incorporated in subsequent years through amendments. Article 371 of the Indian Constitution grants special provisions to Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371A was made in 1962 after a deal was struck between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention creating the State of Nagaland. Under the provision, no Act of Parliament about the religious or social practices of the Nagas, their customary law and procedure, including civil and criminal justice matters, and ownership or transfer of land and resources will apply to Nagaland, unless the State’s Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to do so. Further, non-residents can’t buy land in Nagaland. Article 371B deals with Assam. Article 371C applies to Manipur and was inserted into the Constitution in 1972. Articles 371D and E include special provisions for Andhra Pradesh. Article 371F takes into account the unique status of Sikkim after its merger with India in 1975 and grants protection to existing laws. Only descendants of Sikkim subjects (those who lived in the State before its merger with India) whose names were mentioned in the 1961 register have the right to own land and get State government jobs in Sikkim. Article 371G applies to Mizoram. It includes special provisions to preserve the religious and social practices, customary law, and procedure of Mizos in Mizoram, as well as for the administration of criminal and civil justice, besides ownership and transfer of land. Article 371H confers a special responsibility on the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh concerning law and order. Article 371I relates to Goa. It requires the Legislative Assembly of Goa to consist of not less than 30 members. Article 371J accords special status to the Hyderabad-Karnataka Region (Kalyana Karnataka). Source: The Hindu ATACAMA DESERT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: Astronomers are sounding alarm bells as a precious sky-observing location faces risk of being blinded by light pollution due to a planned renewable energy project. U.S. company AES Energy wants to build a large renewable hydrogen manufacturing complex in Chile, only a few kilometers from the summit of Mount Paranal, the site of the European Southern Observatory’s (ESO) Very Large Telescope (VLT). Background: – Mount Paranal, an 8,740-foot-high (2,664 m) peak in the Atacama Desert of Northern Chile, is one of the last spots on Earth free from urban and industrial light pollution. Key takeaways The Atacama Desert, located in northern Chile, is one of the driest places on Earth and holds significant geographical, climatic, and scientific importance. Location: Western South America, along the Pacific coast, between the Andes Mountains and the Chilean Coastal Range. Climate: Hyper-arid with minimal rainfall due to the rain shadow effect of the Andes and the influence of the Humboldt Current and Subtropical High-Pressure Belt. Temperature: High diurnal temperature variation with hot days and cold nights. Importance The desert contains several salt flats (salares) and high-altitude lagoons, such as the Salar de Atacama, which is rich in lithium deposits. The Salar de Atacama holds one of the largest lithium reserves globally, which is crucial for battery production in electric vehicles and renewable energy storage. The Atacama Desert is rich in mineral resources, particularly copper and lithium. Chile is one of the world’s largest producers of both. Home to unique microbial life, studied for its resemblance to Martian conditions. Ideal for astronomical observations due to its clear skies, low humidity, and high altitude. Hosts world-class observatories like the European Southern Observatory (ESO) and ALMA (Atacama Large Millimeter Array). Source: space.com SHATAVARI Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: In a bid to raise awareness about the health benefits of medicinal plants, a species-specific campaign titled “Shatavari –For Better Health” was launched today by Shri Prataprao Jadhav, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Ayush. Background: – The campaign marks another significant step in the Ministry of Ayush’s continued efforts to promote traditional medicine and medicinal plants for better health and well-being in India. Key takeaways Shatavari is a medicinal herb widely used in Ayurveda for its adaptogenic and rejuvenating properties. Native to India, Sri Lanka, and the Himalayas, it thrives in tropical and subtropical climates. Medicinal & Health Benefits Known as the “Queen of Herbs” in Ayurveda for its role in women’s reproductive health. Used as a galactagogue (enhances breast milk production) and supports hormonal balance. Contains saponins, flavonoids, and alkaloids, which provide anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, and immune-boosting properties. Economic & Agricultural Importance Cultivated in India’s tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Recognized under the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) for commercial cultivation and promotion of medicinal plants. Government Initiatives & Conservation Promoted under AYUSH for herbal medicine development. Encouraged through National Agroforestry Policy and Medicinal Plants Mission for sustainable farming. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Article 371 of the Indian Constitution: Article 371 provides special provisions exclusively for the states of Nagaland and Mizoram. Article 371J accords special status to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region (Kalyana Karnataka). Article 371F deals with the special provisions for Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Q2.) Which of the following factors contribute to the extreme aridity of the Atacama Desert? The rain shadow effect of the Andes Mountains The influence of the Humboldt Current The presence of large freshwater lakes The Subtropical High-Pressure Belt Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding Shatavari (Asparagus racemosus): It is primarily cultivated in temperate regions of India. It is widely used in Ayurveda for its role in women’s reproductive health. It is promoted under the National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) for commercial cultivation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Feb 11, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Feb 10, 2025 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

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