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[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 13] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 13 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Share an experience when you had to make a decision based on ethical considerations. What was the situation, and how did you arrive at your decision? How do you balance personal ethics with societal norms and expectations? Can you give an example of a time when these were in conflict? In what ways do you believe ethical considerations should influence public policy and governance? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad), comprising India, the United States, Japan, and Australia, has emerged as a significant strategic forum. The Quad addresses various issues, ranging from security to economic cooperation, in the Indo-Pacific region. What role should India play within the Quad? How does India’s participation in this strategic alliance align with its foreign policy objectives and its stance on regional and global issues? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, after a record 1,111 NGOs got Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) nod in 2023, 30 get clearance in January. Background:- A Taiwan-headquartered Buddhist monastic order in Delhi has been granted clearance under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, enabling the organisation to receive foreign funds. About Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):- The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs. The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”. The FCRA was amended in 2010 and 2020 by the government to give tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilization of foreign funds by NGOs. FCRA Registration: NGOs that want to receive foreign funds must apply online in a prescribed format with the required documentation. FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs. Following the application by the NGO, the MHA makes inquiries through the Intelligence Bureau into the antecedents of the applicant, and accordingly processes the application. FCRA Requirements: Broadly, the FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be: registered under the Act, to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in State Bank of India, Delhi, and to utilize those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act. They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO. Changes in FCRA Rules: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in 2022 changed FCRA rules and increased the number of compoundable offences under the Act from 7 to 12. The amendment also gave exemption from intimation to the government for contributions less than Rs 10 lakh – the earlier limit was Rs 1 lakh — received from relatives abroad, and increase in time limit for intimation of opening of bank accounts. Validity of FCRA Approval: Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired. Once expired, the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilize its existing funds without permission from the ministry. Challenges of regulating foreign contributions: Administrative Delays. Stringent Compliance Requirements Political Interference Ambiguity in the Law Lack of Clarity  MUST READ: Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) and NGO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Kuki Tribe Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Manipur Chief Minister N Biren Singh has said that the state government may consider setting up a committee to discuss the Scheduled Tribe status of Kukis in the state. Background:- He was responding to questions about a representation made by a Meitei leader seeking that Kukis be removed from the list, while reiterating the long-pending demand of Meiteis for ST status. About Kuki Tribe:- The Kukis are an ethnic group including multiple tribes originally inhabiting the North-Eastern states of India such as Manipur, Mizoram and Assam; parts of Burma (now Myanmar), and Sylhet district and Chittagong hill tracts of Bangladesh. The tribes associated with it came to be generically called Kuki under colonial rule. In Manipur, the various Kuki tribes, living mainly in the hills, currently make up 30% of the total population of the State. They are present in all Northeast Indian states except Arunachal Pradesh. ( Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development) Around fifty tribes of Kuki peoples in India are recognised as scheduled tribes. Traditionally the Kuki lived in small settlements in the jungles, each ruled by its own chief. The Kuki live an isolated existence in the bamboo forests, which provide them with their building and handicraft materials. Normally they do not arrange any marriage alliance outside their community. Traditionally they were not Christian but animist and worshipped different deities and spirits. But for the last 90 years, the majority of them have embraced Christianity as their religion. They have their own customary laws and village council. LAL is a term to denote village chief. The village chief generally looks up all sorts of social and religious disputes Including disputes related to marriage and divorce. MUST READ:  Kuki Insurgency in Manipur SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bitcoin Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, US regulators for the first time approved exchange-traded funds that invest directly in Bitcoin. Background:- This move is heralded as a landmark event for the roughly $1.7 trillion digital-asset sector that will broaden access to the largest cryptocurrency on Wall Street and beyond. About Bitcoin:- Bitcoin is a type of digital currency that enables instant payments to anyone. Bitcoin was introduced in 2009. Bitcoin is based on an open-source protocol and is not issued by any central authority. The origin of Bitcoin is unclear, as is who founded it. A person, or a group of people, who went by the identity of Satoshi Nakamoto are said to have conceptualised an accounting system in the aftermath of the 2008 financial crisis. Bitcoin is the first decentralized digital currency. (Non Fungible Tokens) Bitcoins are digital coins you can send through the Internet. Bitcoins are transferred directly from person to person via the net without going through a bank or clearinghouse. Advantages:- Low transaction cost. Lack of interference from the banking system. Lower Entry Barriers. Disadvantages:- Assets are not backed by tangible entities such as land. Wastes computer power. Enables crime. Encourages anarchy. MUST READ: Cryptocurrency SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2018) Exoplanets Cryptocurrency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q2.  In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? Service providers Intermediaries Corporate bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Bharat Tex 2024 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Textiles, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Commerce and Industry, reviewed progress of Bharat Tex 2024. Background:- The Union Minister also shared his vision and new ideas for branding and promoting Bharat Tex 2024 . About Bharat Tex 2024:- Date: February 26 to February 29, 2024. Venue: New Delhi. The event, taking place at both Bharat Mandapam and the newly constructed Yashobhoomi in New Delhi. India’s textile industry, in collaboration with industry associations, will host “Bharat Tex 2024,”. It is being hailed as the world’s largest textile event. Bharat Tex 2024 represents India’s 5F vision, encapsulating the entire textile journey from Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign. This vision emphasizes India’s readiness to compete globally in the textile sector, producing not only for the domestic market but also for the international audience. The four-day event is expected to attract global CEOs, policymakers, and more than 3,500 exhibitors from around the world. It signifies India’s ambitious aspiration to establish itself as a global textile powerhouse driven by innovation, cooperation, and the “Make in India” ethos. (Atmanirbharta for New India) MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ICD-11, Traditional Medicine Module 2 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the WHO lanuches ICD-11, Traditional Medicine Module 2. Background:- Union Minister of State for Ayush Dr. Munjpara Mahendrabhai launched the Module. About ICD-11, Traditional Medicine Module 2:- WHO has developed a classification series called ICD to classify diseases internationally. The ICD provides information on the worldwide extent, causes and consequences of human disease and death through coded data. The ICD is developed and annually updated by the World Health Organization. The Ministry of AYUSH, in collaboration with WHO, has prepared a classification of data and terminology related to diseases based on AYUSH-ASU systems under the TM2 module of the ICD 11 series. The data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani Medicine have been included in the WHO ICD-11 classification. With this effort, the terminology defining diseases in Ayurveda, Unani and Siddha medicine has been indexed as a code and included in the WHO Disease Classification Series ICD-11. The Ministry of Ayush has already developed the Code for Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani Medicine through the National Ayush Morbidity and Standardized Electronic Portal (NAMSTE). Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is an agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that serves as the WHO Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities. The Ministry of AYUSH has also signed a Donor Agreement with the World Health Organization for the same. Significance:- Inclusion of Morbidity Codes of Ayurveda, Unani and Siddha will give a boost to traditional medicine in a big way. This effort will bring global uniformity in ASU (Ayurveda, Unani and Siddha) medicine in the form of a code of terminology defining diseases. MUST READ: WHO and Traditional Medicine SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Pong dam Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that over 25,000 people displaced by the Pong dam have been waiting to be relocated for over five decades. Background:- Many of them were surviving by farming around the dam region. But a draft policy to declare Pong Dam eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) is likely to impact these oustees again, who are planning to protest against the Union ministry of forest, environment and climate change (MoEFCC ) decision. About Pong dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Kangra District of Himachal Pradesh. It was built on the Beas River. Pong Dam Lake is constructed for generating hydroelectricity and for irrigation purposes. It was constructed in 1975. The dam is based on the foothills of the Shivaliks. The Pong Dam is the highest earth fill dam in India.( Mullaperiyar dam issue) It is also known as the Beas Dam, Maharana Pratap Sagar and Pong Reservoir. The region boasts of rich wildlife and is a breeding ground of commercially viable fish. The reservoir is home to a large number of birds and hence, has been converted into a Bird Sanctuary. Pong Dam Lake was designated a Ramsar site in 2002 under the Ramsar criteria 5 and 8. The reservoir is bounded by the rugged Dhauladhar mountain range, the low foothills of the Himalaya on the northern edge of the Indo-Gangetic plains. MUST READ: National Dam Safety Authority SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs              :     States Ghataprabha :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar :       Andhra Pradesh Maithon :             Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DAM STATE Polavaram Dam Tamil Nadu Mettur Dam Andhra Pradesh Dudhawa Dam Chhattisgarh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Bitcoin is the first decentralized digital currency. Statement-II : Bitcoins are transferred indirectly from person to person. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Kuki tribe, consider the following statements: They are present in all Northeast Indian states except Assam. Around fifty tribes of Kuki peoples in India are recognised as scheduled tribes. LAL is a term to denote village chief. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana (PMJAY) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Home Affairs and Cooperation and the Union Minister of Chemicals and Fertilizers & Health and Family Welfare addressed the National Mega Conclave on “PACS as Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra(provided under Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana (PMJAY)).” Background:- As per the new model bylaws adopted by the Ministry of Cooperation, the scope of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) has been widened beyond their original function of dealing with agricultural credits at the grassroots level. PACS are now empowered to access many other avenues like the opening of Jan Aushadhi Kendras. PACS are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks (SCB) at the state level. About Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana (PMJAY).:- Launched:2008.  Historical Background:- It was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the name Jan Aushadhi Campaign in 2008. 2015: It was re-launched as ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana’ (PMJAY). 2016: it was again renamed “Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana” (PMBJP). Ministry: Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Implementing Agency: the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI). Objectives of PMBJP: to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to people through special Kendras known as Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Kendra. Funding: Financial Support is provided by the government to eligible NGOs/Trusts/agencies/individuals to establish Jan Aushadhi stores. Salient Features of PMBJP:- Ensure access to quality medicines. Create awareness about generic medicinesthrough education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high prices. The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicineto the people in every nook and corner of the country. Create demand for generic medicinesby improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories. Janaushadhi Sugamfacilitates the public by providing a digital platform at the tip of their fingers. Jan Aushadhi Sugam: a mobile app that helps in locating the nearest Janaushadhi Kendra and the availability of medicines with its price. Pharmaceutical & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) has been established for co-coordinating procurement, supply and marketing of generic drugs through the Jan Aushadhi Stores. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) The quality, safety and efficacy of medicinesare ensured to the required standards before the same are supplied to Supers stockists /Jan Aushadhi Stores from the Warehouse.  Benefits of PMBJP:- The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country.  MUST READ: Mission Indradhanush Complete Immunization SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Prime Minister interacted with beneficiaries of the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra. Background:- Thousands of Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra beneficiaries from across the country along with Union Ministers, MPs, MLAs and local-level representatives joined the event. About Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra:- Launched: November 2023. Objectives:- Reaching the unreached. Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes. Learning from the citizens. Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Yatra. Salient Features:- The Yatra launched on the occasion of Janjatiya Gaurav Divas, by flagging off IEC (Information, Education and Communication) Vans which will be initially visiting the districts having significant Scheduled Tribe population and the remaining districts from the third week of November 2023 onwards up to 26 January 2024. Five specially designed IEC (Information, Education and Communication) Vans will carry the message of the Government’s flagship welfare programmes. The schemes that will be publicized through the yatra include Ayushman Bharat; PMJAY PM Garlb Kalyan Anna Yojana;  Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana among others. The target is to cover over 2.55 lakh Gram Panchayats and over 3,600 urban local bodies by 25th January 2024.  MUST READ: One District One Product(ODOP) SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (2012) Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level Purchasing power parity at the national level Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Conducted Raids in Railway Exam Paper Leak Case. Background:- A case was registered on a complaint from Western Railway, against certain Officials of Railways and others unknown employees of a private company on the allegations of leaking question papers. It was alleged that some candidates were allegedly provided the paper through Whatsapp messages and few candidates were physically shown the question papers through mass gathering. About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 1941. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenureby the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committeeconsisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UPand started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. The superintendence of CBIrelated to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agenciesand various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a Statebut only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India. CBI can Suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a Statebut only with the consent of the concerned State Government. The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State.  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/GOVERNANCE Context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has issued notices to 31 coaching institutes for misleading advertisements recently. Background:- The CCPA has observed that some of the coaching institutes mislead consumers by deliberately concealing important information with respect to course opted by successful candidates, duration of the course and the fees paid by the candidates. The authority has also observed that some of the coaching Institutes also indulge in making claims like 100 per cent selection and job guarantees without providing verifiable evidence. About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):- Establishment: 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs. HQ: Delhi. The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns. Objective: to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. Composition:- It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. District Collectors too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements. Functions:- To conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution. Order recall of unsafe goods and services. Order discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements. Impose penalties on manufacturers/ endorsers/ publishers of misleading advertisements.  MUST READ: CCPA: Advertisement Rules & Service Charge SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Laokhowa-Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, rhinos returned to Assam’s  Laokhowa-Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary after 40 yrs. Background:- Until 1983, this protected region, which is a part of “greater” Kaziranga National Park, had 45-50 rhinos but they were wiped out by the poachers. However, since November last year, they have been sighted again. The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two centrally located Protected Areas (PAs) of Assam. In fact, though these two wildlife sanctuaries have two different names, they are ecologically and geographically a singular entity. About Laokhowa-Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: pachydermjournal.org Location: Nagaon district of Assam, India. It lies on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River. Area: approximately 70 square kilometers. Flora: Flora: freshwater mangrove trees, simul, korai, ajar, hijal, etc. are found in the area. There are many species of trees and medicinal plants in the sanctuary. Fauna: Indian one-horned rhinoceros, Bengal tiger, wild buffalo, elephants etc. The highly endangered Gangetic River Dolphins are still seen in the waters of the Brahmaputra River adjacent to these Pas. Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Nagaon district of Assam. Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuary is situated adjacent to the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary. Area: 44 square kilometers. Originally marked as a Reserved Forest in 1974, it officially became a wildlife sanctuary in 1995. It’s a crucial part of the larger Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system . It serves as a buffer for the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve. Vegetation: it consists of a mix of grasslands, wetlands, and riverine habitats, providing a diverse ecosystem. Flora: freshwater mangrove trees, simul, korai, ajar, hijal, etc. are found in the area. There are many species of trees and medicinal plants in the sanctuary. Fauna: elephants, wild buffalo, deer, and various species of primates.  MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhaper Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only NASA's Chandra X-ray Observatory Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: NASA’s Chandra X-ray Observatory recently captured megastar explosions in 30 Doradus B. Background:- The expansive shell of fainter X-rays indicates that another supernova occurred more than 5,000 years prior, and possibly others before that. About NASA’s Chandra X-ray Observatory:- Launch: July 23, 1999. Duration: 23 years The Chandra X-ray Observatory is the world’s most powerful X-ray telescope. It has eight-times greater resolution and is able to detect sources more than 20-times fainter than any previous X-ray telescope. It is part of NASA’s fleet of “Great Observatories” along with the Hubble Space Telescope, the Spitizer Space Telescope and the now deorbited Compton Gamma Ray Observatory. The telescope is named after Indian astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, who won the Nobel Prize in physics. It examines the X-rays emitted by some of the universe’s strangest objects, including quasars, immense clouds of gas and dust and particles sucked into black holes. About30 Doradus B:- 30 Doradus B, is a supernova remnant that is part of a vibrant region of space where stars have been forming for millions of years. A supernova is a catastrophic event that occurs at the end of a massive star’s life cycle. This celestial spectacle, is located some 160,000 light-years from Earth. It is a complex landscape of dark clouds of gas, young stars, high-energy shocks, and superheated gas. The largest and brightest region of star formation in the Local Group of galaxies, including the Milky Way, is called 30 Doradus (or, informally, the Tarantula Nebula). It is located in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a small neighbour galaxy to the Milky Way. 30 Doradus has long been studied by astronomers who want to better understand how stars like the Sun are born and evolve. It is a testament to the violent and beautiful life cycles of stars.  MUST READ: The North Star SOURCE: INDIA TODAY  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June Second half of the month of June First half of the month of July Second half of the month of July Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Bobbili Veena Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recent reports show that Bobbilli Veena craftsmen are struggling for livelihood. Background:- Much like Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu, the town of Bobbili in the Vizianagaram district is renowned for producing high-quality veenas. About Bobbili Veena:- Location: The home of the Bobbili veena is the town of Bobbili, about 120km from Vishakapatnam in Andhra Pradesh. It is also known as ‘Saraswati veena’. It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic classical music. The making of the veena began in the 17th century during the reign of Pedda Rayudu, the king of Bobbili Samsthanam who was a great patron of music. It is typically crafted from seasoned wood, including jackwood, teak, or mahogany. It typically comprises a resonator, neck, and strings, with meticulous carvings and traditional craftsmanship. The central part has a lion’s head carved at the tapering end. The frets of this veena are made of bell metal. These Veenas are also remarkable for the exquisite designs etched on the body, making each piece exclusive. It is not just a musical instrument but a symbol of cultural heritage, representing the artistic legacy of Bobbili and the Vizianagaram district. (Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar) In 2011, it received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the Government of India, recognizing its unique association with its place of origin  MUST READ: Sangeet Natak Akademi SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SCHEMES MINISTRY Intensified Mission Indradhanush 3.0 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare STARS Project Ministry of Education Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) Scheme Ministry of Rural Development How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State without the consent of the concerned State Government. Statement-II : The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Bobbili Veena, consider the following statements: In 2001, it received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag from the Government of India. It is also known as ‘Saraswati veena’. It is a large plucked string instrument used in Hindustani classical music. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 12] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 12 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. How do you define your purpose in life? Has this definition evolved over the years, and if so, how? Think of a moment when you felt your life had clear purpose or meaning. What were you doing, and what insights did you gain about yourself from this experience? Describe how your personal purpose aligns or conflicts with your professional goals. How do you manage this alignment or conflict? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The global economy is a complex, interconnected system, and India plays a significant role in it. With rapid changes in technology, trade dynamics, and geopolitical shifts, India’s economic performance is under continual scrutiny and adaptation. How should India navigate its economic path in the context of the global economy? Consider factors like trade policies, technological advancements, and geopolitical relationships. What steps can India take to enhance its economic resilience and growth while dealing with global economic challenges? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Inland Waterways Development Council Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The maiden edition of the Inland Waterways Development Council (IWDC) in Kolkata culminated recently. Background:- The meet, chaired by the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal was attended by key stakeholders including ministerial representations from states as well as prominent stakeholders including policy makers and industry leaders. About Inland Waterways Development Council:- Established:1986. Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. HQ: Noida, UP. Objective: development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a statutory body established by the Government of India in 1986, r The Authority primarily undertakes projects for the development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grants received from the Ministry of Shipping. The inaugural IWDC meeting boasts a packed agenda with consecutive sessions addressing vital issues in the development of inland waterways in India. The sessions encompass topics such as fairway development, private sector engagement and best practices, optimizing cargo transport efficiency in Inland Water Transport (IWT), fostering the promotion and development of eco-friendly vessels for passenger transportation, exploring the economic advantages of river cruise tourism, and emphasizing sustainable practices, among others.( India’s Waterways and its Potential) Significance:- The establishment of the Inland Waterways Development Council in October 2023 by the Government of India underscores its commitment to the comprehensive development of inland waterways and the associated Inland Water Transport (IWT) ecosystem for improved cargo efficiency, passenger movement, and river cruise tourism, with active participation from States and Union Territories.  MUST READ: Scope and Status of Inland Waterways and Tourism SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) and the Quality Council of India (QCI)  signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU). Background:- The collaboration between the two organizations is aimed at creating ‘World Class Khadi Products’ as per the vision of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi. About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):- Establishment: 1957. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, of 1956. Objectives of KVIC:- To boost employment in the country. (Project Re-Hab) To promote the promotion and sale of Khadi articles. Function:- It is charged with the planning, promotion, organization, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas. It coordinates with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. It provides employment in rural areas. It provides saleable articles. It creates self-reliance amongst people and builds up a strong rural community spirit.  MUST READ: Rural Manufacturing SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 UN Statistical Commission Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India started its four-year term as a member of the United Nations Statistical Commission. Background:- The country had won the election to the global statistics body in April after a gap of nearly two decades. About UN Statistical Commission:- Established: 1946. HQ: New York. The United Nations Statistical Commission is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world. It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities. It is responsible for setting statistical standards. It is responsible for the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international level. The Statistical Commission oversees the work of the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD). It is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council.(Need for Reforms in UN) The 55th session of the United Nations Statistical Commission is scheduled to be held in New York from 27 February – 1 March 2024. Composition:- The officers of the Commission, also referred to as the Bureau, are the Chairman, 3 Vice-chairmen and the Rapporteur. Membership:- The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council on the basis of an equitable geographical distribution according to the following pattern: Five members from African States Four members from Asia-Pacific States Four members from the Eastern European States Four members from Latin American and Caribbean States Seven members from Western Europe and other States The term of office of members is four years. India was a member of the Statistical Commission last in 2004 and the country is returning to the UN agency after a gap of two decades.  MUST READ:  National Statistical Commission (NSC) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kavaratti Islands Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE/GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of development projects worth more than Rs 1150 crores in Kavaratti Islands, Lakshadweep. Background:- The development projects of today cover a wide range of sectors including technology, energy, water resources, healthcare and education. About Kavaratti Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: kscl.utl.gov.in Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep, the smallest Union Territory in India, stands as its most developed island. It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east. Area: 4.22 sq km. The island encompasses 12 atolls, five submerged banks, and three coral reefs. An atoll is a ring of land surrounding a pool of water called a lagoon. Kavaratti surprises with a small inland lake at its northern tip. Kavaratti town is renowned for the intricately carved wooden pillars and roofs of its mosques, along with the carved stones adorning its graveyards. With a significant percentage of non-islanders as residents, the spoken languages are Malayalam and Mahl. Moreover, Kavaratti has been chosen as one of the hundred Indian cities earmarked for development as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission.  MUST READ: Solomon Islands SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)Consider the following countries: Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? (2022) 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Thanjavur doll Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recent reports suggest that the Thanjavur dolls are facing stiff competition from electronic toys and e-commerce platforms, besides a severe labour crunch and shortage of clay. About Thanjavur doll:- It was introduced by Raja Serfoji (Maratha ruler) in 19th Century. Other name for them is Thalaiyatti and Uruttu Dolls. They are of 2 Types :- Bobble-head version Tilting doll (roly-poly) version The centre of gravity and total weight of the doll is concentrated at its bottom-most point, generating a dance-like continuous movement with slow oscillations. These toys are traditionally handmade, finished with detailed, painted exteriors. Traditionally, these dolls are made from terracotta clay. Skilled artisans shape the clay into various forms, primarily depicting mythological characters, deities, and cultural motifs. The dancing doll has four sections (including the arms that are individually glued to the torso), each balancing on the other with the help of inner metal loop hooks that create the light bobbing movement. It earned the Geographical Indication tag in 2009. MUST READ: 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles by UNESCO SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom             Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh Terracotta art Ganeshwar             Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Hattee community Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Himachal Pradesh state government finally issued the notification to give Scheduled Tribe (ST) status to the Hattee community. Background:- The implementation of the decision was delayed in Himachal Pradesh as the state government had sought some clarification on some points of the August 4, 2023, notification of the Constitution (Schedule Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Act, 2023, in the gazette after consulting the law department. About Hattee community:- The Hattis are a close-knit community that got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat, wool, etc. at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns. They follow a Rigid Caste System. The Bhat and Khash are upper castes, and the Badhois are below them, and they discouraged inter-caste marriages. The Hattis are governed by a traditional council called Khumbli, which like the Khaps of Haryana, decide community matters. The Khumbli’s power has remained unchallenged despite the establishment of the Panchayati Raj System. Hatti men traditionally don a distinctive white headgear on ceremonial occasions.  MUST READ: Addition of Tribes in ST List SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: TRIBE STATE Chakma Assam Agariya Chhattisgarh Gaddis Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Kavaratti town is renowned for the intricately carved wooden pillars. Statement-II : The spoken languages of Kavaratti are English, Tamil and Malayalam only. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Hattee community, consider the following statements: Hatti men traditionally don a distinctive white headgear on ceremonial occasions. They follow a loose Caste System. Bhat and Khash are lower castes. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Tapioca plants Syllabus Prelims –AGRICULTURE Context: Recently, the Central Tuber Crops Research Institute issued an advisory on using parts of tapioca plants to feed cattle. Background:- The ICAR-Central Tuber Crops Research Institute (CTCRI) here has issued an advisory on feeding animals with parts of cassava (tapioca) in view of the incident in Idukki where 13 cows died in a farm recently. About Tapioca plants:- Family: Euphorbiaceae. Climate: It thrives best in tropical, warm humid climates. Rainfall: over 100 cm per annum. Altitude: This crop can be cultivated up to an elevation of 1000 m. Soil: Any well-drained soil preferably red lateritic loam with a pH range of 5.5 -7.0 is best suited for tapioca cultivation. It is cultivated throughout the tropical world for its tuberous roots, from which cassava flour, bread, tapioca, laundry starch, and an alcoholic beverage are derived. Cassava, also known as Tapioca, production in India is estimated to be 4.98 million tonnes. Tamil Nadu, followed by Kerala accounts for a major amount of production. Its cultivation is also extending towards non-traditional areas like Maharashtra. Uses:- Cassava has a high starch content and ability to grow under low management conditions due to which it has been globally recognized as a potential candidate for bioethanol production. (National Bioenergy Programme) Side Effects:- There are no significant side effects associated with tapioca consumption. However, any cassava-based product can pose the risk of cyanide poisoning.  MUST READ: Invasive Species SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None India Meteorological Department (IMD)  Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the India Meteorological Department (IMD)  issued an orange alert for Punjab, Haryana, and parts of Rajasthan and western Uttar Pradesh for heavy fog and cold day conditions. Background:- The western disturbance will help cut the chill for the first half of the next week, weather scientists said. A western disturbance is a stormy system that originates in the Mediterranean Sea before sweeping towards the east and halting at the Himalayan ranges. In the northern plains, it brings rain and causes a change in wind direction. But in the mountains, it triggers snowfall. About India Meteorological Department (IMD) :- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses four colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued.  MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Cabinet approved overarching scheme “PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI)”. Background:- The Union Cabinet Chaired by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has approved the overarching scheme “PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI)” of Ministry of Earth Sciences, for implementation during the period from 2021-26 at an overall cost of Rs. 4,797 crore. About PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) SCHEME:- Implementation period: from 2021-2026. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. Objectives:- Augmentation and sustainance of long-term observations of the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere and solid earth to record the vital signs of the Earth System and change. Development of modelling systems for understanding and predicting weather, ocean and climate hazards and understanding the science of climate change. Exploration polar and high seas regions of the Earth towards discovery of new phenomena and resources. Development of technology for exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications. Translation of knowledge and insights from Earth systems science into services for societal, environmental and economic benefit. Salient Features:- The scheme encompasses five ongoing sub-schemes namely “Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS)”, “Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART)”, “Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER)”, “Seismology and Geosciences (SAGE)” and “Research, Education, Training and Outreach (REACHOUT)”. Various components of the PRITHVI scheme are interdependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through combined efforts of the concerned Institutes under MoES. It will help in taking up cross-disciplinary projects and even use funds allocated for the separate verticals together. Thus, it will also facilitate ease of doing research. The overarching scheme of Prithvi Vigyan will enable the development of integrated multi-disciplinary earth science research and innovative programs across different MoES institutes. These integrated R&D efforts will help in addressing the grand challenges of weather and climate, ocean, cryosphere, seismological science, and services and explore the living and non-living resources for their sustainable harnessing. Significance:- Earth System Sciences deal with all the five components of the earth system: atmosphere, hydrosphere, geosphere, cryosphere, and biosphere, and their complex interactions.  MUST READ: Deep Ocean Mission SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : Database created by a coalition of research organisations. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank. New norms for politically exposed persons (PEPs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has updated Know Your Customer (KYC) norms for politically exposed persons (PEPs). Background:- This change was to comply with the recommendations of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). (FATF & Pakistan) About New norms for politically exposed persons (PEPs):- PEPs are individuals entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country, including the heads of states/governments, senior politicians, senior government or judicial or military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations and important political party officials. Regulated entities (REs) have the option of establishing a relationship with PEPs (whether as customers or beneficial owners). REs have to perform regular customer due diligence and also follow additional conditions prescribed by the RBI to transact with PEPs. Some additional conditions include establishing an appropriate risk management system to determine whether the customer or the beneficial owner is a PEP. REs have to take reasonable measures to establish the source of funds/ wealth. They also need to get approval from senior management to open an account for a PEP. Significance:- This change is expected to provide more clarity to undertake Customer Due Diligence (CDD). MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing  Following an expansionary monetary policy Srimukhalingam temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, ASI assured to send a note to UNESCO over the inclusion of the Srimukhalingam temple in Andhra Pradesh in the World Heritage Structures’ list. Background:- Srimukhalingam temple’s chief priest Naidugari Rajasekhar says the architecture of the temple is similar to Lingaraja temple located in Bhubaneswar of Odisha. About Srimukhalingam temple:- It was constructed in the 9th century CE. It was built by kings of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. Eastern Ganga Dynasty also known as Chodagangas ruled Kalinga (consisting of present-day Odisha, parts of West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh) from the 11th – 15th century. It is located on the Vamsadhara River. It is dedicated to Lord Srimukha Lingeswara (a form of Shiva). The Shivalinga here has a mukha or facial representation of Lord Shiva. It contains exquisite sculptures from that period. It is built in the Kalinga architectural style similar to that of the Lingaraja temple located in Bhubaneswar of Odisha. The Nagara style of northern India and the Dravida style of south India were combined to create the Kalinga architecture.  MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 INS Chennai Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Navy responded to a hijacking attempt on vessel MV Lila Norfolk by engaging its mission-deployed platforms, including its maritime patrol aircraft (MPA) P8I and INS Chennai. Background:- Foiling a hijacking attempt in the north Arabian Sea, Indian Navy’s marine commandos (MARCOS) boarded a Liberia-flagged vessel and rescued its crew of 21, including 15 Indians, after carrying out “sanitisation” operations. About INS Chennai:- Constructed by: the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) at Mumbai. Commissioned into the Indian Navy: November 21, 2016. Displacement: Over 7,500 tons. Top Speed: 30 knots (approx 55 KM/hour) INS Chennai is the Indian Navy’s indigenously designed and constructed guided missile destroyer. It is the third and last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers (Project 15A). It measures 163 meters in length and has a beam of 17.4 meters. It is powered by four reversible gas turbine engines. It can carry 350 to 400 people. The ship is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions. It is fitted with a modern Surveillance Radar.  MUST READ: Project-15B stealth guided missile destroyers SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSILES TYPE Astra surface-to-surface missile Barak 8 Air-to-Air Missiles Agni-III anti-tank missile How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : INS Chennai is the Indian Navy’s indigenously designed and constructed guided missile destroyer. Statement-II : It is the third and last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers (Project 15B). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Srimukhalingam temple, consider the following statements: It was constructed in the 19th century CE. It is located on the Vamsadhara River. It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here