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[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 15] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 15 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on the role your family has played in shaping your values and life choices. How has this influence manifested in your decisions? Think about a significant lesson you learned from a family member. What was the lesson, and why has it stayed with you? How do you balance your personal ambitions and goals with your responsibilities and commitments to your family? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  India is currently experiencing a significant push in infrastructure development, aiming to modernize cities, improve connectivity, and boost the economy. This initiative includes various projects, from transportation networks to smart cities. Let’s explore this – What are the potential impacts of this massive infrastructural development on India’s socio-economic landscape? Consider the challenges and opportunities of such large-scale projects, including aspects like sustainability, urban planning, and the displacement of communities. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   India-Maldives Bilateral Relation Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, the Maldivian delegation proposed the removal of Indian troops by March 15, 2024, at the first India-Maldives High-Level Core Group meeting. Background:- The deadline was not find a mention in the official statements by the foreign offices of the two countries. About India-Maldives Bilateral Relation:- IMAGE SOURCE: worldatlas.com India and Maldives share ethnic,  linguistic,  cultural,  religious and commercial links steeped in antiquity. The relations have been close, cordial and multi‐dimensional. India was among the first to recognize Maldives after its independence in 1965 and to establish diplomatic relations with the country. Maldives’ proximity to the west coast of India (barely 70 nautical miles away from Minicoy and 300 nautical miles away from India’s West coast), and its situation at the hub of commercial sea lanes running through the Indian Ocean (particularly the 8° N and 1½° N channels) imbues it with significant strategic importance to India. India has a pre‐eminent position in the  Maldives,  with relations extending to virtually most areas. The importance of India’s strategic role in Maldives is well‐recognized,  with  India being seen as a  net security provider. ‘India  First’  has been a stated policy of the Government of Maldives (GoM). Recent high-level exchanges:- Prime Minister Modi attended the inauguration ceremony of President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih on 17 Nov 2018 as the only HoS/HoG. Foreign Minister Abdulla Shahid paid an Official Visit to India in Nov 2018. Trade:- India and Maldives signed a trade agreement in 1981, which provides for the export of essential commodities. Growing from modest beginnings, India-Maldives bilateral trade in 2020 stood at US$ 213.91 million with trade balance heavily in favour of India. Defence Cooperation:- India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF), meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. (India-Maldives Defence Relation) A Comprehensive Action Plan for Defence was also signed in April 2016. Tourism:- India remained the top market for Maldives tourism in 2022 dominating over 14% with 240,000 arrivals. Operations in Maldives:- Operation Cactus 1988: Under Operation Cactus the Indian Armed Forces have helped the government of Maldives in the neutralization of the coup attempt. Operation Neer 2014: Under Operation Neer India supplied drinking water to Maldives to deal with the drinking water crisis. Operation Sanjeevani: India supplied 6.2 tonnes of essential medicines to Maldives, under Operation Sanjeevani as assistance in the fight against COVID-19.  MUST READ: India-Maldives relations SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2016) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 One Vehicle One FASTag Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, NHAI took the ‘One Vehicle One FASTag’ Initiative to Enhance the National Highway Experience. Background:- NHAI is encouraging FASTag users to complete ‘Know Your Customer’ (KYC) process of their latest FASTag by updating KYC as per RBI guidelines. FASTags with valid balances but with incomplete KYC will get deactivated/blacklisted by banks post 31st January 2024. NHAI has taken this initiative after the recent reports of multiple FASTags being issued for a particular vehicle and FASTags being issued without KYC in violation of RBI’s mandate. About One Vehicle One FASTag:- Launched: December 1, 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport & Highways. Objective: To enhance the efficiency of the Electronic Toll Collection system and provide seamless movement at the Toll Plazas. Salient Features:- The scheme is a unified electronic system across the country. It ensures that all the vehicles will be able to travel across the nation without worrying about paying cash at the toll plazas. FASTag is a reloadable tag that allows automatic deduction of toll without having to stop. The tag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted The tag uses radio frequency identification(RFID) technology and is fixed on the windscreen of the vehicle once active. The main aim of the FASTag scheme is to digitally integrate the collection of toll plazas and provide the seamless mobility of vehicles across India. The government initiated this FASTag scheme to overcome the current challenges in the imprint and track mechanism for the GST E-Way Bill system (EWB), which enhances the efficiency of its monitoring. Benefits:- It reduces air pollution and will also reduce the use of paper. ( National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)) It will also reduce the toll payment hassles and provide analytics for better highway management. It will also provide ease of payment as there will be no need to carry cash for the toll transactions.  MUST READ: FASTag Mandatory For All Vehicles SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure India Post Payments Bank Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, India Post Payments Bank Celebrated a Milestone Achievement of Eight Crore Customers. Background:- Since its inception, the IPPB has been dedicated to providing accessible and affordable banking solutions to every corner of the nation. This remarkable achievement of reaching eight crore customers reflects the trust and confidence placed in IPPB by the people of India. About India Post Payments Bank:- Launched: 2018. Governed by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It was launched with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. It is a payments bank of the Indian postal department. It works through a network of post offices and nearly 4 lakh postmen. Objective: to build the most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for the common man in India. Focus group: While its services are available to all citizens, the IPPB is primarily focusing on serving social sector beneficiaries, migrant laborers, un-organized sector, Micro Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Panchayats, low-income households, in rural areas and the unbanked and under-banked segments in both the rural and urban areas. IPPB offers services through a mix of physical and digital platforms. Functions of IPPB:- It accepts deposits and offers remittance services, mobile banking, and third-party fund transfers. It offers 3 types of saving accounts: Regular Account – Safal, Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) – Sugam and BSBDA Small – Saral The maximum limit on deposits for current and savings accounts is Rs 1 lakh. The bank offers a 4% interest rate on savings accounts. They can issue debit cards and ATM cards. It cannot issue credit cards. It cannot loan money. It provides social security payments like MNREGA wages, and direct benefit transfer and gives access to third-party services insurance, and mutual funds. IPPB account holders will be issued a QR code-based biometric card with a unique QR code. Significance:- IPPB is committed to providing a fillip to a less cash economy and contributing to the vision of Digital India.  MUST READ: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Pongal Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has extended his best wishes on the occasion of Pongal. Background:- Cultural celebrations are held across many states of India under different names – Makar Sankranti, Pongal, Magh Bihu, etc. on January 14. Unlike many Hindu festivals, the date for these festivals is largely fixed. This year it is being celebrated on January 15 in some parts of India, as 2024 is a leap year. About Pongal:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Pongal is celebrated with the distribution of new crop “Shankarai Pongal” which is basically rice cooked in milk and jiggery distributed as a The day is a marker for a change of season – warmer months are close and we are moving away from winter, which is seen as a period of inactivity in many ways. It is said that the northward journey of the sun (Uttarayan) begins on this day. In the Hindu belief system, the end of January heralds the beginning of longer days. It marks the Sun changing directions and shifting its trajectory towards the north, therefore, entering the Makara or Capricorn zodiac sign. Rituals associated with Makar Sankranti or Pongal:- Sankranti activities, like taking a bath, offering Naivedhya (food offered to the deity) to the Sun god Lord Surya, offering charity or Dakshina, performing Shraddha rituals and breaking fast should be done during Punya Kaal. Worshippers usually bathe in sacred rivers such as the Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery. To celebrate the day, they wake up early in the morning at the time of sunrise. For believers, taking a dip absolves them of their sins; it is also seen as a time of peace and prosperity, and spiritual deeds are performed on this day. There are some regional variations in celebrations. The four-day Pongal festival in Tamil Nadu begins with bhogi, the day marked for cleaning the house and decorating its entrances with rice powder kolam or rangoli made with dried and coloured vegetables and grains. The main festival is celebrated on the second day; the third day is celebrated as Mattu Pongal. With mattu meaning bull in Tamil and ponga meaning the abundance of rice. The festival honours the toil of bulls in ensuring a good harvest. Every year, farmers assemble at the temple to offer prayers and seek blessings from Goddess Parvati, Lord Shiva, Lord Ganesha and Lord Krishna. Pongal, a dish of rice mixed with boiled milk and sugar is a treat prepared by all during this festival. Other festive dishes include lemon and tamarind rice, vadas, vegetable gravies and Payasam (a sweet rice pudding). Different names of the same festival:- Makar Sankranti – Odisha, Maharashtra-Goa, Andhra-Telengana, Kerala and most of north India.( Makar Sankranti being celebrated all over India) Paush Parbon – Bengal Pongal – Tamil Nadu Bhogali Bihu – Assam Lohri – Punjab and Jammu Maghi – Haryana and Himachal Khichdi Parwa – parts of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh  MUST READ: Attukal Pongala SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Conjoined silverline Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new butterfly species , conjoined silverline was discovered in Karnataka. Background:- The species was first sighted in 2008, followed by an extensive research in 2021. About Conjoined silverline:- Scientific Name: Cigaritis conjuncta. It is endemic to mid-elevation evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. Conjoined Silverline, distinguished by its shiny wing patterns. It has been identified in Karnataka’s Kodagu district ,the first such find in India’s Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot since the 1970s. ( Atapaka Bird Sanctuary) Specifically, the name refers to the fused spots and bands observed on the undersides of the wings, which are intersected by eye-catching silvery lines running through the middle of these bands. The new butterfly is the size of a one-rupee coin but is invaluable to conservationists.  MUST READ: White Tufted Royal Butterfly SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Similipal Kai chutney Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Similipal Kai chutney got the GI Tag. About Similipal Kai chutney:- The chutney made with red weaver ants is a traditional delicacy of the tribals in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district. The ants are found in the forests of Mayurbhanj, including in the Similipal forests – Asia’s second-largest biosphere. It is rich in medicinal and nutritional value. The chutney is believed to be a good source of nutrients like protein, calcium, zinc, vitamin B-12, iron, magnesium, potassium, etc. The tribals prepare the Kai chutney by grinding the ants manually on a Sil Batta or the grinding stone. Mayurbhanj’s tribals also earn their livelihood by selling the red ants and the chutney made from the ants. They believe that its consumption helps boost immunity and prevents diseases.  MUST READ: Similipal National Park SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PM-eBus Sewa Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, tenders for e-buses have been floated under PM-eBus Sewa scheme. Background:- Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep Singh Puri on Friday said that the Ministry has floated tenders for procuring buses under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme and the bidding process would be completed by the end of this month. About PM-eBus Sewa:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport. Under the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country. It will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States’. Segments of the scheme:- There are two segments of the scheme: Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure, and Green Urban Mobility initiatives. Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure: Under this segment, the scheme will augment city electric bus operations by extending Central Assistance (CA) for 10,000 electric bus operation on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model, bus depots and behind-the-meter power infrastructure. Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): Under this segment, the scheme will support the implementation of GUMI projects for complementing bus services and demonstrating a reduction in Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions in urban areas. Operation Model:- City bus operations managed through a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Bus services supported for 10 years, with states/cities responsible for operations and payments to operators. Benefits of PM e-bus Sewa scheme:- The scheme will promote e-mobility. (Challenges of Electric Vehicles) Cities will be supported for the development of charging infrastructure under Green Urban Mobility Initiatives. Adoption of Electric mobility will reduce noise and air pollution and curb carbon emission.  MUST READ: Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEV) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GI TAG STATE Anardana Assam Wancho Wooden Craft Mizoram Kachchhi Kharek Gujarat How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Under the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10 lakh e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country. Statement-II : It will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the FASTag , consider the following statements: FASTag is a reloadable tag that allows automatic deduction of toll without having to stop. The tag is linked to a prepaid account from which the applicable toll amount is deducted The tag uses radio frequency identification(RFID) technology. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Udupi station has been included in the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) for redevelopment. Background:- The railway station is under the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) network and was in dire need of attention. About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):- Launched: August,2023. Ministry: Ministry of Railways. Objectives:- The preparation and implementation of master plans for railway stations to enhance the facilities beyond the minimum essential amenities and creating roof plazas and city centres at the station premises in the long term Meet the needs of all stakeholders based on the funding availability and inter-se priority The scheme will cater to the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities as well as the introduction of new amenities Salient Features:- The Amrit Bharat Station scheme envisages to take up 76 railway stations over Central Railway for upgradation/modernisation and out of that, the foundation stone will be laid at 38 stations. It involves the preparation of Master Plans and their implementation in phases to improve the amenities at the stations like improvement of station access, circulating areas, waiting halls, landscaping etc. keeping in view the necessity at each station. The scheme also envisages improvement of the building, integrating the station with both sides of the city, multimodal integration, amenities for Divyangjans, sustainable and environment-friendly solutions, provision of ballastless tracks, ‘Roof Plazas’ as per necessity, phasing and feasibility and creation of city centres at the station in the long term. It will cover stations that have undergone detailed techno-economic feasibility studies. However, the roof plazas in these stations will not be constructed in the near term as reallocation of structures and utilities is given higher priority. The scheme will be implemented based on the needs and patronage of the railway stations. Infrastructural development will be ensured for more than 1,000 stations under this scheme. Benefits:- Modern passenger amenities. Improved traffic circulation. Inter-modal integration. Sustainability and Eco-friendliness. MUST READ: Restructuring of Railways SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the  Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) for MSMEs hit 1 lakh certification milestone. Background:- At the time of filing this report, 1,02,642 MSMEs were certified, of which 1,01,962 were bronze-level certified, 339 units received silver certification and 341 had gold certification, as per data from the scheme’s portal. The cumulative financial support extended to MSMEs under the scheme stood at Rs 134.57 crore. About Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED):- Launched: October 2016. Ministry: Ministry of Micro,Small & Medium Enterprises. Objective: to achieve a twin goal of production of high quality products with clean technology. Salient Features:- The ZED Scheme aims to rate and handhold all MSMEs to deliver top-quality products using clean technology. It will have sector-specific parameters for each industry. Zero defects will provide with high-quality products for consumers and zero effect provides with minimal pollution of the environment. Thus scripting a new role for MSMEs according to changing socio-economic scenario. Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only. MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification can be attained in three levels after registering and taking the ZED Pledge: Certification Level 1: BRONZE Certification Level 2: SILVER Certification Level 3: GOLD Benefits:- ZED will act as a catalyst to accomplish the goals under Make in India. i.e. increasing the contribution of the manufacturing sector to 25% of the GDP and creating 100 million employment. ZED will enhance the productivity and efficiency of MSMEs. ZED will also aid in attracting investments. Enhancing the global and domestic competitiveness of the manufacturing sector so has to broaden the customer base. MUST READ: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only PRASADAM Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated the country’s 1st Healthy & Hygienic Food Street, ‘PRASADAM,’. Background:- It was inaugurated at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. About PRASADAM:- Launched: January, 2024. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. PRASADAM will connect common citizens in every corner of the country with pure and safe local and traditional food. This endeavour will align common people and tourists to safe and healthy eating habits. It is the country’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”. It is spread over 939 square metres with 19 shops. Prasadam offers convenient and culturally rich dining options for the 1-1.5 lakh devotees who visit the Mahakaleshwar Temple daily.( Nagara style of temples) The food street is designed to provide various facilities, including a kids’ play area, drinking water facility, CCTV surveillance, parking, public conveniences, and seating spaces. MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate raided several premises linked to an arrested TMC leader and his associates in connection with its probe into the alleged ration distribution scam in West Bengal. Background:- ED teams went to four premises in central Kolkata and the office of a chartered accountant in Salk Lake on the eastern fringes of the city to carry out search operations, officials of the central agency said. According to them, all these locations where searches were being conducted were linked to TMC leader and Bongaon Municipality’s former chairman Shankar Adhya. About Enforcement Directorate:- The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organizationfounded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters:New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) ( Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government.  Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central governmenton the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure:up to 5 years.  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Koraput Kala Jeera Rice Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Koraput Kala Jeera Rice got GI Tag. About Koraput Kala Jeera Rice:- From: Koraput district in Odisha. The rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. It is called the ‘Prince of Rice’. It is an aromatic variety of rice. (Basmati Rice) It is popular for its black colour, good aroma, taste, and texture. (Basmati Rice) The black-coloured rice variety, is famous for its aroma, taste, texture and nutritional value. Tribal farmers of the Koraput region have preserved the rice variety for around 1,000 years. As the rice grains resemble cumin seeds, it is also called Kala Jeera. Consumption of the rice variety helps in increasing haemoglobin levels and improves metabolism in the body. This fragrant grain has antispasmodic, stomachic, carminative, antibacterial, astringent, and sedative.  MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Einstein Probe Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, China sent a new astronomical satellite called the Einstein Probe into space to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe that flicker like fireworks. Background:- It is a probe designed to scour the sky for bursts of X-rays that could help illuminate mysterious phenomena linked to black holes and merging stars, took flight this week. About Einstein Probe:- Launched from: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in Sichuan Province of China. Weight: approximately 1.45 tonnes. The EP utilizes cutting-edge X-ray detection technology. The lotus-inspired design incorporates 12 ‘petals’ housing wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and two ‘stamens’ containing follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT). (IN-SPACe) The two ‘stamens’ consist of follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT), designed for in-depth observation and the discovery of transient celestial objects. Together, these components form a space observatory with the primary objective of capturing the initial light emitted during supernova explosions and exploring the nature of transient celestial objects at the outer reaches of the universe. Designed with a lifespan of five years, the Einstein Probe employs the astronomical time-domain observation method, conducting a high-sensitivity real-time dynamic sky survey in the soft X-ray band. Named after Albert Einstein, the EP mission pays homage to the great scientist, particularly focusing on predictions from his theory of general relativity related to black holes and gravitational waves. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE:  CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SCHEMES MINISTRY Kala Utsav Ministry of  Culture Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna Ministry of Women and Child Development Rashtriya Swachhta Kendra Ministry of Jal Shakti How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Koraput Kala Jeera Rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. Statement-II : It is a non- aromatic variety of rice. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Einstein Probe, consider the following statements: It was launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in Cambodia. It weighs approximately 1.45 tonnes. The EP utilizes cutting-edge UV ray detection technology. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 14] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 14 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Describe a core belief you hold. How has this belief influenced your life decisions and actions? Have you ever questioned or reconsidered a long-held belief? What prompted this, and what was the outcome? How do you reconcile differences in belief systems when interacting with others, especially in situations where beliefs strongly differ? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  India’s electoral politics are vibrant and dynamic, reflecting the diverse opinions and aspirations of its population. The political discourse is an essential part of India’s democracy, influencing policies and the direction of the nation. Let’s delve into this – How has the nature of India’s electoral political discourse evolved in recent years? What are its implications for democracy and governance? Consider the impact of factors like media, technology, and public engagement. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   ANUBHAV Awards Scheme, 2024 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Government has notified the ANUBHAV Awards Scheme 2024. Background:- The Last Date for submissions on the ANUBHAV portal will be 31 March 2024, all Line Ministries/ Departments will reach out to Pensioners to make submissions on the ANUBHAV Portal. About ANUBHAV Awards Scheme, 2024:- Launched: 2015. Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions. Objective: to incentivize and encourage more retiring employees to submit their write-ups. It recognises the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India through written narratives. To date 54 ANUBHAV Awards conferred by the Department of Pension and Pensioners Welfare. On the directions of the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India, DOPPW launched an online platform entitled ‘Anubhav Portal’ in March 2015 for sharing experiences of retiring/retired Central Government employees while working with the Government. It is envisaged that this culture of leaving notes by retirees will become the foundation stone of good governance and administrative reforms in future. To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement. Thereafter, the write-ups will be published after assessment by concerned Ministries/Departments. The published write-ups will be shortlisted for Anubhav Awards and Jury Certificates. To encourage broader participation in the Anubhav Awards Scheme, 2024, the DOPPW has undertaken an Outreach Campaign to reach out to every pensioner to submit his ANUBHAV experience. In this regard, meetings have been held with Nodal Officers of Ministries/ Departments and CAPFs. Ministries/Departments have been requested to reach out to Pensioners for timely submission of ANUBHAV experiences. Knowledge-sharing sessions on the format of documentation of award-winning nominations have also been convened.( Padma awards)) The ANUBHAV Awardees share their experiences in a national forum under the ANUBHAV Awardees Speak Webinar Series. MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand:       For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the   last four years. Arjuna Award:                   For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award:       To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel:                 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the 17th Report on States/Union Territories performance on Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) for the month of December 2023 was released. Background:- 58,016 PG cases were received by States/UTs in December 2023. About CPGRAMS:- Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery. It is an online web-enabled system developed by the National Informatics Centre (Ministry of Electronics & IT [MeitY]), in association with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). It was launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions. It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States. Every Ministry and States have role-based access to this system. (Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs)) CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application downloadable through the Google Play store and a mobile application integrated with UMANG. The status of the grievance filed in CPGRAMS can be tracked with the unique registration ID provided at the time of registration of the complainant. CPGRAMS also provides an appeal facility to the citizens if they are not satisfied with the resolution by the Grievance Officer. After the closure of the grievance if the complainant is not satisfied with the resolution, he/she can provide feedback. If the rating is ‘Poor’ the option to file an appeal is enabled. (Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal) The status of the Appeal can also be tracked by the petitioner with the grievance registration number. Issues which are not taken up for redress : RTI Matters Court-related / Subjudice matters Religious matters Suggestions MUST READ: AI Powered Grievance Management Application SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquire by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu in Navi Mumbai. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X: “Delighted to inaugurate Atal Setu, a significant step forward in enhancing the ‘Ease of Living’ for our citizens. This bridge promises to reduce travel time and boost connectivity, making daily commutes smoother.” About Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu:- The foundation stone of the bridge was laid by the Prime Minister in December 2016. Vision: to improve the ‘ease of mobility’ of citizens by strengthening urban transport infrastructure and connectivity. It is about a 21.8 km long 6-lane bridge having about 16.5 km length over the sea and about 5.5 km on the land. It is the longest bridge in India. It is also the longest sea bridge in India. (Urban Mobility Expansion) It will provide faster connectivity to Mumbai International Airport and Navi Mumbai International Airport. It will also reduce the travel time from Mumbai to Pune, Goa and South India. It will also improve connectivity between Mumbai Port & Jawaharlal Nehru Port. It has specially designed lighting poles to withstand high-velocity winds during monsoons. It is also equipped with a Lightning Protection System to safeguard against potential damage caused by lightning. MUST READ: Char Dham Highways SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Swami Vivekananda Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONATLITIES/ HISTORY Context: Recently, Prime Minister paid tributes to Swami Vivekananda on his Jayanti. Background:- The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Swami Vivekananda on his Jayanti and National Youth Day. Shri Modi has also shared a video of his views on Swami Vivekananda. About Swami Vivekananda:- Birth: 12 January 1863. Death: 4 July 1902. His birthday is observed as National Youth Day. (National Youth Festival) Named Narendra Nath Datta, Swami Vivekananda was an Indian monk who is known for his intellectual contributions to the field of religion. A chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhansa, Vivekananda is known to have introduced Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the Western world. He is remembered as the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission and the Ramakrishna Math. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains the one that he gave in Chicago in 1893 (Parliament of the World Religions). In 1984 the Government of India declared that 12 January, the birthday of Swami Vivekananda, will be celebrated as National Youth Day. He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.” In 1893, he took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress. Teachings:- Spiritual primacy is the central theme of Vivekananda’s teachings, through which human beings can succeed in every sphere of their lives. Three instruments of knowledge that he propounded are: instincts, reason, and inspiration Vedantic Humanism Religious acceptance was important and not tolerance because tolerance comes out of a superiority complex. The most desirable path for self-realisation was the selfless service of man. Divinity within ourselves Karma Yoga, Bhakti Yoga, Raja Yoga. Books:- Raja Yoga Karma Yoga Meditation and Its Methods Vedanta: Voice of Freedom Lectures on Bhagavad Gita My India: The India Eternal Powers of The Mind My Master Essentials of Hinduism among many others.  MUST READ: Dayanand Saraswati SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (2018) Institution                                     Founder Sanskrit college at Benaras    William Jones Calcutta Madarsa                     Warren Hastings Fort William college                 Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Diabetes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently a breakthrough in Diabetes was seen with a study using FDA-Approved Drugs to show regeneration of Insulin Production in 48 Hours. Background:- A new study showed how insulin-producing cells could be regenerated in the pancreas. Researchers, led by a team from the Baker Heart and Diabetes Institute in Australia, investigated a new use for drugs already approved by the FDA that target the EZH2 enzyme in human tissue. About Diabetes:- Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring.  (Disease Surveillance System) Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Karnataka Forest Department started collecting green tax, from vehicles entering BR Hills through Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve. Background:- The Karnataka Forest Department recently started collecting green tax, Rs 10 from two-wheelers and Rs 20 from four-wheelers, entering BR Hills through BRT Tiger Reserve. About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Karnataka. Area: 574.82 Km². It derives its name BILIGIRI from the white rocky cliff on the top of which is a temple of Lord VISHNU locally known as Rangaswamy. It is also believed that the hill range gets its name by white mist and silver clouds that cover these lofty hills for a greater part of the year. In Kannada, Biligiri means white hills – hence the name. It is situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve) This unique sanctuary exhibits scrub, dry deciduous, moist deciduous, evergreen, semi evergreen and shola forests. It was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974. BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2011. Flora: Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, among others. It is widely known for its many endemic species of plants including valuable medicinal ones. Fauna: tigers, elephants, leopards, wild dogs, bison, sambars, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bears, wild boars, etc.  MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest hunting is not allowed in such area people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: NATIONAL PARKS STATE Hemis National Park Himachal Pradesh Keibul Lamjao National Park Assam South Button Island National Park Goa How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu is the longest bridge in the World. Statement-II : It is the longest sea bridge in India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Swami Vivekananda, consider the following statements: Mahatma Gandhi had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.” In 1893, he took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Subhash Chandra Bose requested him to do so. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Odisha’s Debrigarh, Khinda was included in the Ministry of Tourism’s Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme. Background:- Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary and Khinda Village will be developed under the scheme as sustainable and responsible destinations with a tourist and destination-centric approach. About Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme:- Ministry: Ministry of Tourism. Objective: to realize India’s full potential as a tourist destination and promote “vocal for local” as its guiding principle. Salient Features:- The redesigned program known as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 aims to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with a tourist and destination-centric approach and has shared the guidelines for the SD2.0 scheme. The Scheme is 100% centrally funded. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to the availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilisation of funds released earlier etc. Swadesh Darshan 2.0 is a generational shift to transform the Swadesh Darshan Scheme into a holistic mission to create sustainable and responsible tourism destinations. It is not an incremental change. With a focus on tourists and destinations, it will aid in the creation of sustainable and responsible destinations. It will encourage the creation of generic and theme-specific benchmarks and standards for the development of tourism destinations, and states will adhere to those benchmarks and standards when planning and developing projects. Some of the prominent places identified are Jhansi and Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, Gwalior, Chitrakoot and Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh and Ajanta and Ellora in Maharashtra. The Scheme has identified the following significant tourism themes: Tourism of Culture and Heritage Adventure Tourism Eco-Tourism Wellness Tourism MICE Tourism Rural Tourism Beach Tourism Cruises – Inland and Ocean Significance:- The revamped scheme seeks to enhance the contribution of tourism to local economies.  MUST READ: Promotion of Buddhist Sites under Swadesh Darshan & PRASHAD SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act, 1996) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj organized a “Two-Day Regional Conference on Strengthening of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996” (PESA Act, 1996). Background:- The conference will commence with an ‘Inaugural Session’ in the presence of Shri Vivek Bharadwaj, Additional Secretary, Dr. Chandra Shekhar Kumar, Joint Secretary, Smt. Mamta Varma, Principal Secretary, Rural Development & Panchayati Raj Department, Government of Maharashtra Shri Eknath Dawale. About Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996” (PESA Act, 1996):- Enacted: 1996. Objective: to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas. It is an Act to provide for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas. The Part IX of the Constitution, which consists of Articles 243-243ZT, covers legislation related to municipalities and cooperative societies in addition to Panchayats. The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act 1996 came into existence after the Bhuria Committee’s recommendations in 1995. The PESA Act acknowledges the right of tribal communities, who live in Scheduled Areas, to rule themselves using their own systems of self-government. The Act gives Gram Sabhas the authority to play an important part in approving development plans and managing all social sectors. Under the PESA Act, Scheduled Areas are those referred to in Article 244(1), which says that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Role of State Government:- PESA, was enacted by the Centre to ensure self-governance through gram sabhas (village assemblies) for people living in scheduled areas. State governments were required to amend their respective Panchayat Raj Acts without making any law that would be inconsistent with the mandate of PESA. To legally recognize the right of tribal communities, and residents of the scheduled areas, to govern themselves through their own systems of self-government. It acknowledges their traditional rights over natural resources. Powers and functions provided to the Gram Sabhas:- Right to mandatory consultation in land acquisition, resettlement and rehabilitation of displaced persons. Protection of traditional beliefs, the culture of the tribal communities. Ownership of minor forest products. Resolution of the local disputes. Prevention of land alienation. Management of village markets. Right to control production, distillation, and prohibition of liquor. Exercise of control over money-lending. Any other rights involving the Scheduled Tribes.  MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (2013) To provide self-governance To recognize traditional rights To create autonomous regions in tribal areas To free tribal people from exploitation Cyber kidnapping Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, a Chinese student who was a victim of ‘cyber kidnapping’ has been found in rural Utah, unharmed. Background:- The 17-year-old, Kai Zhuang, was reported missing on December 28. By the time the police traced him, his parents back in China had paid $80,000 in ransom. About cyber kidnapping:- Cyber kidnapping refers to a crime where the ‘kidnappers’ convince their victim to hide, and then contact their loved ones for ransom. The victim is also made to send pictures that make it look like they are being held captive and showing them bound or gagged. These are then shared with the family. Both parties believe their loved ones will be harmed if they don’t do as the kidnappers ask. The ‘kidnappers’, though not physically present, monitor the victim online through video-call platforms. Unlike traditional kidnaps virtual kidnappers have not actually kidnapped the victim.(Cybercrime) Instead, through the deceptions and threats the kidnapers coerce victims to pay a quick ransom before the scheme falls apart. Perpetrators coerce victims into hiding or simulating situations of captivity. Scammers exploit psychological vulnerabilities, leveraging personal information gathered from social media or other sources to make their demands appear credible. Criminals may use video-call platforms to monitor victims online, creating a façade of constant surveillance. Prevention:- Limit Online Sharing. Caller Vigilance. Emergency Contacts. Law Enforcement Involvement. (India’s National Cyber Security Strategy)  MUST READ: Cyberattacks SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proven so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for the sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) announced bringing easier norms for companies going public. Background:- As per current norms, company promoters need to contribute 20 per cent of the post-offer, paid-up equity share capital for meeting the minimum promoters’ contribution (MPC) on listing. An expert committee set up by the regulator has now proposed that equity shares from the conversion of compulsorily convertible securities held for a year before filing the DRHP be considered for meeting this requirement. The regulator has proposed that non-individual shareholders holding 5-10 per cent of the post-offer equity share capital be permitted to contribute towards MPC without being identified as a promoter. About the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):- Establishment: 1992. Historical Background:- The Securities and Exchange Board of India was constituted as a non-statutory body in 1988 through a resolution of the Government of India. It was established as a statutory body in the year 1992 under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Structure of SEBI:- The chairman is nominated by the Union Government of India. Two members,e., Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One member from the Reserve Bank of India. The remaining five members are nominated by the Union Government of India, out of them at least three shall be whole-time members. (SEBI) extends trading ban on Agri commodities A Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision. Powers and Functions of SEBI:- SEBI is a quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial body. It can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, pass rulings and impose penalties. It functions to fulfil the requirements of three categories – Issuers: By providing a marketplace in which the issuers can increase their finance. Investors: By ensuring the safety and supply of precise and accurate information. Intermediaries: By enabling a competitive professional market for intermediaries. By the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, SEBI is now able to regulate any money pooling scheme worth Rs. 100 cr. or more and attach assets in cases of non-compliance. SEBI Chairman has the authority to order “search and seizure operations“. SEBI board can also seek information, such as telephone call data records, from any persons or entities with respect to any securities transaction being investigated by it. SEBI perform the function of registration and regulation of the working of venture capital funds and collective investment schemes including mutual funds. Venture capital funds: these are pooled investment funds that manage the money of investors who seek private equity stakes in startups and small- to medium-sized enterprises with strong growth potential. Collective investment schemes: it is an investment scheme where investors come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole collection in a particular asset. It also works for promoting and regulating self-regulatory organizations. It works for prohibiting fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets.  MUST READ: (SEBI) extends trading ban on Agri commodities SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Budget session Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The upcoming budget session will start with an address by President Droupadi Murmu to the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. Background:- The Budget Session of Parliament will commence on the 31st of January,2024. About budget session:- The President from time to time summons each House of the Parliament to meet as per Article 85.  But the maximum gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot be more than six months. The Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of a session is completed.( Joint Parliamentary Committee) Types of sessions:- There are usually three sessions in a year. Budget Session Monsoon Session Winter Session Budget Session:- The budget session takes place from February to May every year. The Budget is generally presented on the last working day of the month of February. In this session, the Members of the Parliament (MP) discuss the various provisions of the budget and matters concerning taxation, after the Finance Minister presents the budget. The budget session is usually split into two periods with a gap of one month between them. The session starts with the President’s Address to both Houses. Monsoon Session:- The monsoon session takes place from July to September every year In this session, matters of public interest are to be discussed. Winter Session:- The winter session takes place from mid-November to mid-December every year. It is the shortest session of all the sessions. About Joint Session/Sitting of Parliament:- Article 108 of the Constitution of India deals with the joint sitting of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is could have taken place under any one of the following three: if the bill is rejected other House if the Houses finally disagreed on the amendments made to the bill if more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it In order to break any deadlock, the President can summon both Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. Such session is presided over by the Speaker, and in his/her absence, by the Deputy Speaker.  If both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent then, it is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If any of the above is not present, any other member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of both Houses. Money Bill and Constitution Amendment Bill are the exceptions to Joint Sittings because there are no provisions for Joint Sittings of Parliament for these bills.  MUST READ: Parliamentary Committees SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Kapdaganda shawl Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Kapdaganda shawl from Odisha bagged GI tag. Background:- Seven products from Odisha, ranging from the Similipal Kai chutney made with red weaver ants to the embroidered Kapdaganda shawl, have bagged the coveted Geographical Indication (GI) tag in recognition of their exclusivity to the state. About Kapdaganda shawl:- Origin: Odisha. It is woven and embroidered by the women of the Dongria Kondh tribe. It is a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in the Niyamgiri hills in Odisha’s Rayagada and Kalahandi districts. The shawl reflects the rich tribal heritage of the Dongria Kondhs. It is embroidered on an off-white coarse cloth with red, yellow and green coloured threads, with each colour holding significance. Green symbolises the mountains and hills. Yellow stands for peace and happiness. Red stands as the symbol of blood. The motifs in the shawls are mostly lines and triangles, believed to be a reflection of the importance of mountains for the community. The shawl is worn by both men and women. The Dongrias gift it to their family members as a token of love and affection.  MUST READ: (Pashmina Shawls) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) has summoned National Conference (NC) president Farooq Abdullah for questioning in a money laundering case under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act(PMLA). Background:- The 86-year-old politician is understood to have been called in connection with the federal agency’s investigation into alleged irregularities in the Jammu and Kashmir Cricket Association (JKCA). About Prevention of Money Laundering Act(PMLA):- Enforced: 2005. It is a criminal law of the Parliament of India passed by the NDA government in 2002. PMLA became law and came into force on July 1, 2005. It has blanket powers assigned to the Enforcement Directorate (ED) under PMLA for seizing, investing, searching and attaching assets. It was introduced due to India’s commitment at the Vienna Convention to combat money laundering. (Supreme Court verdict on PMLA) The PMLA is applicable to all persons which include individuals, companies, firms, partnership firms, associations of persons or incorporations and any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by any of the above-mentioned persons. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND), under the Department of Revenue is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions. Penalties:- Actions that can be initiated against the person involved in money laundering are:- Seizure/freezing of property and records and attachment of property obtained with the proceeds of crime. Any person who commits the offence of money laundering shall be punishable with – Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum term of three years and this may extend up to seven years. Fine (without any limit).  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), consider the following statements: (2017) A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GI TAG product STATE Lanjia Saura paintings Odisha Wancho Wooden Craft Tripura Anardana Gujarat How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme aims to realize India’s full potential as a tourist destination and promote “vocal for local” as its guiding principle. Statement-II : It is under the Ministry of Culture. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to cyber kidnapping, consider the following statements: The ‘kidnappers’ monitor the victim by being physically present. Scammers exploit psychological vulnerabilities. Criminals may use video-call platforms to monitor victims online. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here