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[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 11] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 11 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a moment when you felt truly happy. What were you doing, who were you with, and what do you think were the key factors contributing to your happiness? How do you define happiness in your life? Do you see it as a state of mind, a series of moments, or something else? How do you pursue it in your daily life? Think about a time when you brought happiness to someone else. What did you do, and how did their happiness impact your own feelings and perspective? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Ram Mandir in Ayodhya has been a focal point of political and social discourse in India for decades. The issue intertwines religious beliefs, historical narratives, and political agendas, making it one of the most sensitive topics in contemporary Indian politics. In the context of India’s secular framework, how should the political discourse surrounding the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya be approached? What are the challenges in ensuring that such discussions remain inclusive and respectful of India’s diverse religious and cultural fabric? Consider the impact of this issue on communal harmony and national unity. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Veer Gatha Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The 3rd edition of Project ‘Veer Gatha’, witnessed an overwhelming response pan India recently. Background:- As per the Defense Ministry, around 1.37 crore students from around 2.43 lakh schools participated in the initiative. About Veer Gatha:- Launched:2021. Ministry: The Ministry of Defence (MoD) in collaboration with the Ministry of Education (MoE) The Government had launched Project ‘Veer Gatha’ as part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’ to celebrate 75th year of Independence. Objective: to disseminate the details of acts of bravery of the Gallantry Awardees and the life stories of these brave hearts among the students to raise the spirit of patriotism and instil amongst them values of civic consciousness. Project Veer Gatha deepened this noble aim by providing a platform for the school students to do creative projects/activities based on gallantry award winners. As part of this, the students framed different projects through various media like art, poems, essays and multimedia on these gallantry award winners and the best projects were awarded at the national level by the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Education. The project has been coterminous with Republic Day Celebrations each year. Two editions of the Veer Gatha Project (i.e., Edition-I and Edition-II) have been conducted in 2021 and 2022 respectively. In the current edition, Veer Gatha Project 3.0, 100 winners known as the “Super 100” will be selected at the national level. They will be jointly felicitated by the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Defence in New Delhi and will each receive a cash prize of Rs. 10,000. In addition to the national-level winners, there will also be winners at the district level (04 winners) and State/UT level (08 winners). MUST READ: Veer Baal Diwas SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters (2023) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Statistical Office (NSO) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the National Statistical Office (NSO)  said that the Indian economy will grow by a robust 7.3 per cent in the Financial Year 2023-24 over . Background:- The growth is above the provisional growth rate of 7.2 per cent during the last financial year. About National Statistical Office (NSO):- Establishment: 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) was merged with the Central Statistical Office to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) in 2019. National Sample Survey Office (NSSO):formerly called the National Sample Survey Organization was the largest organization in India conducting periodic socio-economic surveys. Central Statistics Organization of India:was responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in India, and evolving and maintaining statistical standards. NSO was first envisaged by the Rangarajan Commission to implement and maintain statistical standards and coordinate statistical activities of Central and State agencies as laid down by the National Statistical Commission (NSC). Functions:- It acts as the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in the country. It lays down and maintains norms and standards in the field of statistics. It prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, estimates of capital stock and consumption of fixed capital. It Compiles and releases the Consumer Price Index (CPI).  It maintains liaison with international statistical organizations. It compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month. It conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI). It organizes and conducts periodic all-India Economic Censuses and follow-up enterprise surveys.  MUST READ: Growth & fiscal consolidation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) . Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PRERANA program Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, PRERANA program was launched. Background:- Online Registration portal of the experiential learning program has been launched. About PRERANA program:- Launched:2024. Ministry: Ministry of Education. Objective: to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring experience to all participants, thereby empowering them with leadership qualities. Salient Features:- Prerana is driven by a strong commitment to integrate principles of Indian education system and the philosophy of value-based education which is a cornerstone of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. Prerana is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII. It is an experiential and inspirational learning program for students with the best-in-class technology where heritage meets innovation. A batch of 20 selected students (10 boys and 10 girls) will attend the program, every week from various parts of the country. The curriculum of Prerana School prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar. It is rooted in nine value-based themes: Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parishram and Samarpan, Karuna and Sewa, Vividhta and Ekta, Satyanishtha and Shuchita, Navachar and Jigyasa, Shraddha aur Vishwas, and Swatantrata and Kartavya. The day-wise program schedule will feature yoga, mindfulness, and meditation sessions, followed by experiential learning, thematic sessions, and hands-on interesting learning activities. Evening activities will include visits to ancient and heritage sites, inspirational film screenings, mission life creative activities, talent shows etc. ensuring a holistic learning approach. Apart from this, students will engage in diverse activities, embracing indigenous knowledge systems, the latest State-of-the-art technologies, and learning from inspirational personalities. The Prerana program will run from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities of India, Vadnagar, district Mehsana, Gujarat. The school stands as a tribute to Vadnagar’s indomitable spirit, a living city that has triumphed over challenges like earthquakes and natural calamities and is home to ancient heritage sites and monuments inhabited since the early historic period and in the modern day. Benefits:- Holistic Learning Approach: Participants engage in diverse activities, embracing indigenous knowledge systems, state-of-the-art technologies, and insights from inspirational personalities.  MUST READ: National Education Policy 2020 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Uttar Purvi Mahotsav 2024 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Uttar Purvi Mahotsav 2024 was celebrated. Background:- Shri Chanchal Kumar, Secretary, Ministry of Development of North East Region briefed the media about the first edition of Uttar Purvi Mahotsav. About Uttar Purvi Mahotsav 2024:- Date: from the 13thto 17th January, 2024. Venue: at Bharat Mandapam at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Organized by: Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region. It is managed through its CPSE, North Eastern Handicrafts & Handlooms Development Corporation Limited (NEHHDC) is organizing Uttar Purvi Mahotsav 2024 a five-day cultural program. It will showcase the rich diversity of North East India. Around 250 artisans, weavers, farmers and entrepreneurs from the North-East will participate in the event. A Focused panel discussions on women empowerment and the youth workforce along with buyer-seller meetings have also been organized. (NITI Aayog Releases North Eastern Region District SDGIndex) The main attraction will be lively performances of traditional dance forms from different states. Benefits:- It will provide a conducive platform for significant buyer-seller meets, fostering valuable interactions across various sectors. It promises an enchanting journey through traditional dances, mesmerizing performances, and a showcase of the region’s rich cultural heritage. MUST READ: Integration of North-Eastern India and its Significance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Eurasian Otter Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Eurasian Otter was spotted in Kerala. Background:- A team of researchers from Kerala has claimed to have spotted the presence of Eurasian Otter in the state for the first time. About Eurasian Otter:- Scientific Name: Lutra lutra. Distribution: It is found throughout Europe, North Africa, and Asia. (Blackbuck) In India, it inhabits northern, northeastern, and southern regions. It thrives in diverse environments, including streams, rivers, lakes, freshwater and peat swamp forests, ocean shores, rice fields, fjords, caves, and terrestrial areas near waterways. In the Indian subcontinent, specifically found in cold hills and mountain streams. It is a semi-aquatic mammal. It is commonly native to Eurasia. It has a diet mainly of fish and is strongly territorial. Conservation Status:- IUCN Status: Near Threatened. CITES : Appendix I. WPA: Schedule II. MUST READ: Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Exoplanet WASP-121 b Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, astronomers have made a groundbreaking discovery using Nasa’s Hubble Space Telescope, revealing massive cyclones and dynamic weather activity on the distant exoplanet WASP-121 b, located 880 light-years from Earth. Background:- An international team of astronomers meticulously analysed Hubble data from 2016, 2018, and 2019 to study these phenomena. About WASP-121 b:- WASP-121 b is located 880 light-years from Earth. This gas giant, similar in size to Jupiter . It has an atmosphere far too hostile for life as we know it. It has become a focal point for understanding atmospheric dynamics on alien worlds. WASP-121 b is tidally locked with its star, meaning one hemisphere perpetually faces the heat, reaching scorching temperatures of around 3,450 degrees Fahrenheit. This extreme environment creates a stark temperature contrast between the planet’s day and night sides, leading to tumultuous weather patterns including fierce storms and colossal cyclones. About Hubble Space Telescope:- Launched: April 24, 1990. Launched by: Discovery. Hubble Space Telescope is a large, space-based observatory by NASA/ESA.  (NASA’s DART mission) It has been deployed since 1990. National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA): is an independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research. European Space Agency(ESA): is an independent space agency. The Hubble Space Telescope is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning the ultraviolet to near-infrared. Hubble orbits roughly 340 miles (547 km) above Earth’s surface. Hubble is the first space-based observatory specifically designed for servicing while in orbit. Hubble was designed as a general-purpose observatory, meant to explore the universe in visible, ultraviolet, and infrared wavelengths. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Somalia Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Indian Navy rescued 21 crew members from hijacked cargo ship off Somalia coast. Background:- The Navy rushed its warship INS Chennai and deployed maritime operations after a distress signal from the cargo ship signalled the hijacking. About Somalia:- IMAGE SOURCE: WORLD ATLAS Location: on the easternmost tip of Africa. Somalia occupies an area of 637,657 sq. km. Mogadishu is the capital and largest city in Somalia. It borders the three nations of, Kenya, Ethiopia, and Djibouti. It sits along the Horn of Africa, this region is known for being particularly hilly and mountainous. To the extreme north, a narrow semidesert coastal plain that varies in width from around 12 km in the west to only 2 km in the east, borders the Gulf of Aden. It is called Guban. Beyond this plain is the maritime mountain range of the Karkaar Mountains (marked on the map) hosting the highest point in the country. Broad plateaus can be found in the south. (Himalayan River System) The Indian Ocean lies to the east of Somalia. The Equator passes through southern Somalia. It has land borders with only two countries; Kenya to the southwest and Ethiopia to the west. The Gulf of Aden forms Somalia’s northern borders and the Somali Sea and Guardafui Channel bound it to the east. Somalia experiences a predominantly arid to semi-arid climate with hot temperatures and limited rainfall. MUST READ: Horn of Africa SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPACE MISSION Agency Psyche probe ESA Mars Orbiter Mission ISRO VIPER NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Somalia experiences a predominantly arid to semi-arid climate. Statement-II : The Gulf of Aden forms Somalia’s northern borders. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Eurasian Otter, consider the following statements: It thrives only in rivers. It is found only in Europe. It is under Appendix II of CITES . How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Open Acreage Licensing Policy Bid Round-IX was launched. Background:- Contracts signed for 3 Coal Bed Methane Blocks awarded under Special CBM Bid Round- 2022. Contracts also signed for 10 blocks awarded under OALP Bid Round-VIII. About Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP):- Launched: June 2017 Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) Objective: to accelerate the Exploration and Production (E&P) activities in India. Salient Features:- Under HELP, Open Acreage Licensing (OALP) mechanism has been launched which allows the investors to carve out blocks of their choice by assessing E&P data available at NDR & by submitting an Expression of Interest (EoI). The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) replaced the erstwhile New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP) in March 2016. EOI can be submitted throughout the year without waiting for a formal bid round from the government. These blocks would be subsequently offered through a biannual formal bidding process. OALP would be manifested through the National Data Repository which will provide a rapid jumpstart to E&P activities by providing seamless access to the country’s entire G&G data for interpretation and analysis. NDR is a government-sponsored E&P data bank with state-of-the-art facilities and infrastructure for the preservation, upkeep and dissemination of data to enable its systematic use for future exploration and development. Benefits:- The OALP has helped remove red-tapism. It brought in a quantum jump in the Exploration and production sector.( India’s Transation away from Coal) MUST READ: Green Hydrogen SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fud cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Divya Kala Shakti Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE/ GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities presented the spectacular cultural event, “Divya Kala Shakti,” in Ahmedabad. Background:- The event brought together participants from across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu, totaling 100 divyang individuals who took centre stage in mesmerizing performances. About Divya Kala Shakti:- Began:2019. Organized by: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Divya Kala Shakti is a cultural event which provides a wider and unique platform to showcase the potential of Persons with Differently Abled in the field of performing art, music, dance, acrobatics etc. It is an innovative platform to showcase Divyangjan’s innate talents. It has been organized in various parts of the country since 2019. It is organized at the national level and in other regions of the country. Significance:- It aims at developing confidence among persons with disabilities. MUST READ: Draft National Policy on Persons with Disabilities (PwD) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Rani Velu Nachiyar Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi paid tributes to Rani Velu Nachiyar on her Jayanti. Background:- The Prime Minister also shared some excerpts from Mann Ki Baat where he expressed his views about Rani Velu Nachiyar. About Rani Velu Nachiyar:- Born on: January 3, 1730. Died on: December 25, 1796. Rani Velu Nachiyar is the 18th century queen from Sivagangai district in Tamil Nadu. She held the title of queen in the Sivaganga estate from around 1780 to 1790. She made history as the first Indian queen to stand up against the East India Company through armed conflict. Among the Tamil people, she is affectionately remembered as Veeramangai, meaning “Brave Woman.” She was trained in war match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari, Silambam (fighting using the stick), horse riding and archery. She was a scholar in many languages and she had proficiency with languages like French, English and Urdu. She married the king of Sivagangai named Muthuvaduganathaperiya Udaiyathevar. She proudly ruled Sivagangai for more than 10 years. During her reign, the queen also created a women’s only army called Udaiyaal. The war against the British:- In collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala Nayaker, she waged a war against the British and emerged victoriously She granted powers to the Marudu brothers to administer the country in 1780. MUST READ: Rani Lakshmibai – Her Jayanti SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around Women’s right to gain education Age of consent Restitution of conjugal rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : (2020) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy Quit India Movement launched Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (2017) 1-2-3 2-1-3 3-2-1 3-1-2 Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE/IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: As per recent announcements by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), it  conducted 5,745 surveillance activities in 2023. Background:- These surveillances include four thousand 39 planned surveillance, and one thousand 706 spot checks and night surveillance. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed) It aims to regulate civil aviation in India. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Investigating accidents/incidents. Taking accident prevention measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ:  International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 EPFO (Employees' Provident Fund Organisation) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, EPFO (Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation) extended deadline to upload wage details for higher pension options till May 31,2024. Background:- Earlier, the deadline for employers to upload wage details for those opting for higher pension on higher contribution was December 31, 2023. About EPFO (Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation):- Establishment: 1952. Ministry: Ministry of Labour & Employment. HQ: New Delhi. It is a government organizationthat manages the provident fund (PF) and pension accounts of member employees. Provident fund (PF): it is an investment fund contributed to by employees, employers, and (sometimes) the state, out of which a lump sum is provided to each employee on retirement. Functions: It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Historical Background:- The Employees’ Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance in 1951. It was later replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952. It is managed by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO). Objectives:- To meet the evolving needs of comprehensive social securityin a transparent, contactless, faceless and paperless manner. To ensure ease of living for members and pensionersand ease of doing business for employers by leveraging the Government of India’s technology platforms for reaching out to millions. EPF Scheme of 1952 It is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. It covers every establishment in which 20 or more personsare employed. It also covers certainother establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each. The employee has to pay a certain contribution towardsthe provident fund (PF) and the employer on a monthly basis pays the same amount. The employee and the employer contribute to the EPF India scheme on monthly basis in equal proportions of 12% of the basic salary and dearness allowance. At the end ofretirement or during the service (under some circumstances), the employee gets the lump sum amount including the interest on the PF contributed. EPF is a tax-saving instrument that offers relatively higher interest rates on investments.(  EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started) Partial withdrawals:allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction.  MUST READ: National Pension System (NPS) SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 International Court of Justice (ICJ) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Background:- Amid international criticism of Israel for its continued bombing of Gaza, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention. About International Court of Justice (ICJ):- Establishment: 1945. HQ: the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The ICJ is a United Nations platform for resolving disputes between states. ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946. Unlike the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (USA). (Need for Reforms in UN) Composition:- The Court consists of fifteen judges. And not more than one judge shall be elected from one state, for the Court at a given time. Qualifications: – The candidate for the office of judge in the Court shall possess the following qualifications: He should be independent. He should be a person of high moral character. He must be qualified for the appointment of the highest judicial offices in his country The nature of the office of judge for the Court is elective. General Assembly and Security Council shall conduct the election of the judges of the Court independently, but simultaneously. The term of the office for the judge of the Court is nine years. Jurisdiction and power:- ICJ acts as a world court with two fold jurisdictione. legal disputes between States submitted to it by them (contentious cases) and requests for advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by United Nations organs and specialized agencies (advisory proceedings). Only States which are members of the United Nations and which have become parties to the Statute of the Court or which have accepted its jurisdiction under certain conditions, are parties to contentious cases. The judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal. Functioning:- The ICJ decides disputes in accordance with international law as reflected in international conventions, international custom, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations, judicial decisions, and writings of the most highly qualified experts on international law MUST READ: Rohingya & ICC SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ISRO's POEM Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Indian Space start-ups recently reported success of in-orbit tests aboard ISRO’s POEM. Background:- Dhurva Space, Bellatrix Aerospace successfully test solutions onboard ISRO’s PSLV Orbital Experimental Module. About ISRO’s POEM:- By : ISRO POEM stands for PSLV Orbital Experimental Module. It is a platform that will help perform in-orbit experiments using the final, and otherwise discarded, stage of ISRO’s workhorse rocket, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). PSLV is a four-stage rocket where the first three spent stages fall back into the ocean, and the final stage (PS4) after launching the satellite into orbit and ends up as space junk. However, in PSLV-C53 mission, the spent final stage will be utilised as a “stabilised platform” to perform experiments. POEM is carrying six payloads, including two from Indian space start-ups Digantara (for making the map of space radiations, debris, and orbits) and Dhruva Space (for full-stack satellite development, launch, deployment, operation and maintenance services) According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilization, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy. POEM will derive its power from solar panels mounted around the PS4 tank, and a Li-Ion battery. It will navigate using “four sun sensors, a magnetometer, gyros & NavIC”. It carries dedicated control thrusters using Helium gas storage. It is enabled with a telecommand feature. (Gaganyaan) MUST READ:  Space Economy of India SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ISRO MISSION YEAR Chandrayaan-1 2005 Astrosat 2017 Chandrayaan-2 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : ICJ headquarters are located in New York. Statement-II : Its judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar , consider the following statements: She is the 18th century queen from Tamil Nadu. She made history as the first Indian queen to stand up against the East India Company through armed conflict. Among the Tamil people, she is affectionately remembered as Veeramangai, meaning “Brave Woman.” How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   New law against hit-and-run Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the truck driver’s strike was called off after the government assured to keep the new law against hit and run on hold. Background:- Truck drivers’ associations have called off the three-day strike after the government assured to hold the new Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replacing the Indian Penal Code. About the New law against hit-and-run:- The new law in Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) under Section 106(2) replaces IPC Section 304A (causing death by negligence). It has more Severe Penalties. The Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) was passed by Parliament in December 2023 and will replace the IPC. Under it, if a driver causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and then leaves without informing the police or any official, they could be punished with up to 10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh. The BNS has established two distinct categories under the umbrella of “causing death by negligence.” First category: addresses causing death through any rash or negligent act that does not amount to culpable homicide. Offenders in this category may face imprisonment for up to five years and a fine. Second category: deals with causing death through rash and negligent driving, not amounting to culpable homicide. If the individual escapes without promptly reporting the incident to a police officer or magistrate, they could be subjected to up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine. Need: According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, India recorded 1.51 lakh road deaths in 2019, of which 50,000 were due to hit-and-run incidents. Currently, the accused in hit-and-run cases are tried under Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which provides for penalties of up to two years in jail. Argument against it: Transport operators argue that the law may unfairly penalize drivers and could expose them to mob violence, especially when attempting to transport the injured to hospitals.  MUST READ: Road to Safety SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: India, and Pakistan exchange a list of nuclear installations as per the Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities recently. Background:- It was done simultaneously through diplomatic channels in New Delhi and Islamabad. About Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities:- The agreement was signed on December 31, 1988, and came into force on January 27, 1991. The pact mandates the two countries to inform each other of nuclear installations and facilities to be covered under the agreement on January 1 of every calendar year. This is the 33rd consecutive exchange of such lists between the two countries. The agreement’s definition of ‘nuclear installation or facility’ is comprehensive, encompassing a broad range of facilities, including nuclear power and research reactors, fuel fabrication, uranium enrichment, isotope separation, reprocessing facilities, and establishments storing significant quantities of radioactive materials in various forms. Significance:- The Agreement stands as a pivotal diplomatic tool, fostering transparency, confidence, and a secure environment in the realm of nuclear capabilities between India and Pakistan. It reinforces stability and trust between the two nations. Current Issues in India-Pakistan Relations:- Cross Border Terrorism Indus Water Treaty Siachen Glacier(Challenges to secure India’s Land Borders) Sir Creek Reorganization of Jammu & Kashmir (Manasbal Lake, Kashmir)  MUST READ: The status of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:     Country Anatolia                                                     Turkey Amhara                                                      Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                             Spain Catalonia                                                     Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) When you travel in the Himalayas, you will see the following: (2012) Deep gorges U-turn river courses Parallel mountain ranges Steep gradients causing land sliding Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 World Braille Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: World Braille Day was celebrated across globe recently. Background:- On this occasion, National Institutes and Composite Regional Centres under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities are organizing several programs in the country. About World Braille Day:- This day marks the birthday of Louis Braille, the visionary inventor of the Braille script. He was born in France in 1809. The day also recognizes that people with visual impairments should have the same access to human rights as everyone else. The United Nations has designated 4 January every year as World Braille Day. The United Nations General Assembly declared World Braille Day an international day in late 2018. The first celebration was on January 4, 2019. Braille, a universal code rather than a language, serves as a tool to write and read in various languages, including Sanskrit, Arabic, Chinese, Hebrew, Spanish, and many others. It is a system of reading and writing by touch used by the blind. It consists of arrangements of dots that make up letters of the alphabet, numbers, and punctuation marks. The first Braille system was published in 1829 and was adopted by the National Institute for Blind Youth. (Building Disabled Friendly Infrastructure) Significance:- Braille has a day designated to it because of the impact it has had on human rights for people with blindness  MUST READ: Enable The Disabled SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, SEBI has ordered the attachment of bank accounts as well as shares and mutual fund holdings of Arun Panchariya to recover dues totalling over ₹26 crore. Background:- In an attachment notice ,the markets watchdog has ordered attachment of bank as well as demat accounts of Panchariya to recover the pending dues. About SEBI:- Establishment: 1992. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Historical Background:- It was established as a statutory bodyin the year 1992 under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Structure of SEBI:- The chairman is nominatedby the Union Government of India. Two members,, Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One memberfrom the Reserve Bank of India. The remaining five membersare nominated by the Union Government of India, out of them at least three shall be whole-time members. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) A Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision. It is a statutory bodyestablished under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Powers and Functions of SEBI:- SEBI can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, pass rulings and impose penalties. It functions to fulfil the requirements of three categories – Issuers: By providing a marketplace in which the issuers can increase their finance. Investors: By ensuring the safety and supply of precise and accurate information. Intermediaries: By enabling a competitive professional market for intermediaries. By the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, SEBI is now able to regulate any money pooling scheme worth Rs. 100 cr. or more and attach assets in cases of non-compliance. SEBI Chairman has the authority to order “search and seizure operations“. SEBI board can also seek information, such as telephone call data records, from any persons or entities with respect to any securities transaction being investigated by it. SEBI perform the function of registration and regulation of the working of venture capital funds and collective investment schemes including mutual funds. It also works for promoting and regulating self-regulatory organizations. It works to prohibit fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets.  MUST READ: Sweat Equity Rules: SEBI SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Savitribai Phule Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: Recently, Prime Minister paid tributes to Savitribai Phule on her Jayanti. About Savitribai Phule:- Born on: January 3, 1831. Born at: Naigaon village of Maharashtra’s Satara district. Savitribai Phule, the social reformer who is considered to be one of India’s first modern feminists. Both Savitribai Phule & her husband Jyotirao Phule went on to found India’s first school for girls called Bhide Wada in Pune in 1848. The Phules started the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society for Truth-Seeking), through which they wanted to initiate the practice of Satyashodhak marriage, in which no dowry was taken. Social Work:- In 1852, Savitribai started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She campaigned against child marriage, while supporting widow remarriage. She initiated the first Satyashodhak marriage—a marriage without a dowry, Brahmin priests or Brahminical rituals in 1873. In 1853, they opened a care centre for pregnant widows to have safe deliveries and to end the practice of infanticide owing to social norms. Literary works:- She published Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. She published Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar (‘The Ocean of Pure Gems’), in 1892. Matushri Savitribai Phlenchi Bhashane va Gaani (S’avitribai Phule’s speeches and songs), and her letters to her husband have also been published. MUST READ: Veer Savarkar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only SMART 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the SMART 2.0 was launched. Background:- According to Prof (Vd) Rabinarayan Acharya, DG, CCRAS, the study aims at safety, tolerability and adherence to Ayurveda formulations in the priority research areas of Bal Kasa, Malnutrition, Insufficient lactation, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding, Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women and Diabetes Mellitus (DM) II. About SMART 2.0:- ‘SMART 2.0’ stands for Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals program. Launched on: January 3rd, 2024. Launched by: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM). Ministry : Ministry of Ayush. Objective: to promote robust clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across the country through mutual collaboration. Salient Features:- The objective of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate a tangible evidence to demonstrate efficacy and safety of Ayurveda interventions using interdisciplinary research methods and translating it into public health care. Under the ‘SMART 1.0’, around 10 diseases were covered with the active participation of teaching professionals from 38 colleges. Under it, the CCRAS and NCISM invite expressions of interest from Ayurveda colleges, hospitals and universities to jointly undertake robust studies demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurveda formulations targeting key healthcare challenges. Areas of Focus: Initial research span pediatrics, women’s health, malnutrition and lifestyle diseases:- Childhood Nutrition: Wasting, lactation issues Menstrual issues: Abnormal uterine bleeding Nutrition: Malnutrition, calcium deficiencies Lifestyle Diseases: Diabetes mellitus, osteoporosis CCRAS will provide scientific inputs and project monitoring during the multi-center trials. Significance:- The SMART initiatives therefore facilitate generating tangible validation on Ayurvedic therapies through interdisciplinary methods involving ministry bodies and academicians.  MUST READ: WHO and Traditional Medicine SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATION HQ NIA Hyderabad RBI New Delhi SEBI Mumbai How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The first celebration was on January 4, 2018. Statement-II : The first Braille system was published in 1829. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Savitribai Phule , consider the following statements: She published Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. In 1852, Savitribai started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She published Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, CJI announced the launch of the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project. Background:- In another step towards digitalization, Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud announced the launch of the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project to provide free access to its about 34,000 judgements to lawyers, law students and the common public. About the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project:- The e-SCR Project is an initiative that will provide the digital version of the Supreme Court’s judgments in the manner as they are reported in the official law report – ‘Supreme Court Reports’. Objective: to bring in a positive change for the benefit of all the stakeholders of justice, primarily litigants and members of the Bar as well as the High Courts, National Law University, Judicial Academies, etc. The e-SCR project will showcase replica soft copies of SCRS by utilizing the verifiable authentic soft copies as available in the PF format. This project will take a step forward toward fulfilling the objective of digitization of the Indian Judiciary. The Supreme Court has developed a search engine with the help of the National Informatics Centre (NIC), which uses elastic search techniques in the database of e-SCR. The search facility in e-SCR provides several options, including free text search, search within search, case type and case year search, judge search, year and volume search, and bench strength search. These initiatives will provide easy access to the judgments of the apex court and facilitate research and understanding of legal matters. The deadline for head-noted judgments of 2022 to be made available online will provide greater transparency and accessibility to the Supreme Court’s work and decisions. With the launch of the e-SCR project, all judgments of the Supreme Court will be made available online within 24 hours. These judgments will be accessible on the Supreme Court’s mobile app and on the National Judicial Data Grid’s judgment portal. The NJDG portal is a national repository of data relating to cases instituted, pending, and disposed of by the courts across the length and breadth of the country. Advantages:- Reduction in the burden of travelling. Browsing through huge volumes of journals in libraries Enhancing its accessibility to those with visual disabilities.  MUST READ: Delegated Legislation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sagar Parikrama Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the 10th phase of Sagar Parikrama began from Chennai Port. Background:- The tenth phase of Sagar Parikrama began from Chennai Port today. Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Parshottam Rupala and Union Minister of State Dr L. Murugan jointly inaugurated the mission which will travel through Nellore, Visakhapatnam and Srikakulam. About Sagar Parikrama:- Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. First phase Began :5th March 2022 . First phase location: Mandvi, Gujarat. Organized by: Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and National Fisheries Development Board along with- Department of Fisheries, Government of Gujarat, Indian Coast Guard, Fishery Survey of India, Gujarat Maritime Board and Fishermen representatives. Objective: to address the challenges faced by fishers and stakeholders while uplifting their economic prospects through various fisheries schemes and programs, such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) & and Kisan Credit Cards (KCC). Sagar Parikrama is a navigation journey to be conducted in all coastal states/UTs through a pre-decided sea route to demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. It is envisioned as a part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava’ saluting our great freedom fighters, sailors, and fishers. The Parikrama shall be accompanied by the State Fisheries officials, Fishermen representatives, Fish-Farmers entrepreneurs, stakeholders, professionals, officials, and Scientists from across the nation. It is to be celebrated through a pre-decided sea route down right from Gujarat, Diu, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The Sagar Parikrama Program is to have an interaction with fishermen, fisher communities, and stakeholders in these locations and districts. (Conserving Marine Resources) Significance:- The Sagar Parikrama Program is being celebrated as a part of the 75th “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava”. It is an initiative to know the problems of Coastal Fisherfolk. It will demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders  MUST READ:  Marine Spatial Planning Framework SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Income Tax Returns Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: A Record 8.18 crore Income Tax Returns filed so far in current financial year according to Central Board of Direct Taxes. Background:- Around 7.5 crore ITRs were filed last year during the same period. About Income Tax Returns:- The Income Tax Act of 1961 mandates that the federal government collect this tax for the state. Income Tax Returns, often known as ITRs, are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Individuals who make a specific amount of money are required to file IT returns. Income Tax Return Forms are notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):- Establishment: 1963. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: New Delhi. Administered by: Department of Revenue. It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1963. The Central Board of Revenue is the apex body of the Department of Revenue. It is charged with the administration of taxes. It came into existence as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1924. It is India’s official financial action task force unit. Historical Background of CBDT:- Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.  (Increase in Direct Tax Collections) However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs with effect from 1964. Functions of CBDT:- Making Policies regarding the discharge of statutory functions of the Board and of the Union Govt. under the various laws relating to direct taxes.  ( CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms) General Policy relating to:- Organization of the set-up and structure of the Income-tax Department. Methods and procedures of work of the Board. Measures for disposal of assessments, collection of taxes, prevention, and detection of tax evasion and tax avoidance. Recruitment, training, and all other matters relating to service conditions and career prospects of the personnel of the Income-tax Department. Laying down targets and fixing priorities for disposal of assessments and collection of taxes and other related matters. Write off of tax demands exceeding Rs. 25 lakhs in each case. Making Policy regarding grant of rewards and appreciation certificates. Any other matter which the Chairman or any Member of the Board, with the approval of the Chairman, may refer for joint consideration of the Board.  MUST READ: One Nation, One ITR Form SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India has donated $2.5 million to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA) for humanitarian assistance in Gaza. Background:- In a social media post, the Prime Minister asked the people to share their feedback directly with him using the hashtag #JanManSurvey. About United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA):- Establishment:1950. HQ: It was originally headquartered in Beirut, Lebanon, but was moved to Vienna, Austria, in 1978. Following the 1948 War, UNRWA was established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 302 (IV) of 8 December 1949. The Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.( Violence between Israel- Palestine) In the absence of a solution to the Palestine refugee problem, the UNGA Assembly has repeatedly renewed UNRWA’s mandate, most recently extending it until 30 June 2023. Objective: to carry out direct relief and work programmes for Palestine refugees. The Agency’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and improvement, microfinance and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict. It is a UN agency that supports the relief and human development of Palestinian refugees. It provides services in its five fields of operations: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including the East of Jerusalem. The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA) is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.  MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Desert Cyclone 2024 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Joint Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ between India and UAE began recently. Background:- Ministry of External Affairs said, potential areas of bilateral cooperation in the defence field are the production and development of defence equipment; joint exercises of armed forces, particularly naval exercises; sharing of information on strategy and doctrines; technical cooperation in respect of Intermediate Jet Trainer etc. About Desert Cyclone 2024:- Date from 2nd to 15th January 2024. Venue: : Mahajan, Rajasthan. Objective: to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations between two friendly nations. This exercise is being organized to promote exchange of best practices with special focus on urban governance. The two-week long program is designed to facilitate learning and sharing of best practices in urban operations. The exercise aims to strengthen relations between the Indian and UAE armed forces. The UAE contingent is being represented by troops from the Zayed First Brigade. The Indian Army contingent comprising 45 personnel is being represented mainly by a Battalion from the Mechanised Infantry Regiment. Exercise signifies further strengthening of bonds of friendship and trust between India and the UAE. (CEPA between India and the UAE)  MUST READ: India-UAE relations SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants? (2015) Bangladesh Cambodia China Myanmar Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2 and 5 Gaucher disease Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the treatment of children suffering from lysosomal storage disorders like Gaucher disease has been stopped. Background:- Children suffering from lysosomal storage disorders like Gaucher disease are facing a bleak future as their treatment has been stopped due to the exhaustion of one-time support from the Union health ministry. About Gaucher disease:- Gaucher disease is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD). It is a type of disease that causes fatty substances (sphingolipids) to build up in bone marrow, liver and spleen. The sphingolipids weaken bones and enlarge organs. It is caused by a mutation in the GBA gene, which leads to a deficiency of an enzyme called glucocerebrosidase (GCase). This enzyme is responsible for breaking down fatty substances called sphingolipids, which are normally found in the cell membranes. Symptoms: Enlarged spleen, liver, eye movement disorders and yellow spots in the eyes etc. There are three types of Gaucher disease:- Type1: It affects your spleen, liver, blood and bones. It doesn’t affect your brain or spinal cord. Gaucher disease type 1 is treatable, but there’s no cure. Type 2: A rare form of the disorder appears in babies younger than 6 months old. It causes an enlarged spleen, movement problems and severe brain damage. There’s no treatment for Gaucher disease type 2. Type 3: It is the most common form which appears before age 10 and causes bone and organ abnormalities and neurological (brain) problems. There’s no cure for Gaucher disease, but treatments can relieve symptoms and greatly improve quality of life.  MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Warli Paintings Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, an exhibition of Warli painting  took place by the Inherited Arts Forum. Background:- It traced the artistic journey of the celebrated Mashe family and their effort in reviving the Warli painting. About Warli Paintings:- Warli art is a folk painting of It dates back to the 10th century AD. The Word Warli is inspired by the largest tribe, which is found in the Northern outskirts of Mumbai, Maharashtra. This art of painting is mainly practiced by the tribes inhabiting the North Sahyadri range in Maharashtra. This tribal art originated in Maharashtra, where it has still maintained its presence. It was traditionally practised by women of the Warli tribe called Suvasinis, who decorated the Lagn Chowk or the wedding square. These paintings are distinctive with their vivid contrast expressions. These paintings are mainly dominated by basic geometric shapes like circles, triangles and squares. Theme:Warli represents the daily routine of rural life, the relationship of the tribal people with nature, their gods, myths, traditions, customs, and festivities.  MUST READ: Mural Art SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’? (2020) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: PAINTINGS STATE Ajanta paintings Maharashtra Kishangarh paintings Rajasthan Warli paintings Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : There’s no cure for Gaucher disease. Statement-II : It  is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Warli Paintings , consider the following statements: This tribal art originated in Karnataka. It was traditionally practiced by women. These paintings are mainly dominated by basic geometric shapes like circles, triangles and squares. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 10] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 10 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Recall an instance when you had to rely on someone else’s help. What did this experience teach you about interdependence and asking for help? Think about a time when you experienced a significant cultural or societal change. How did you adapt to this change, and what did you learn from it? Reflect on a moment of quiet introspection that led to a significant insight about yourself. What was the insight, and how has it influenced your subsequent actions or decisions? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Urbanization is a global phenomenon, bringing with it challenges like congestion, pollution, and housing shortages. Sustainable urban development is crucial for creating livable, efficient, and inclusive cities. Let’s delve into this – How can cities in India evolve to become more sustainable and livable? What are the key factors to consider in urban planning, and how can cities balance growth with environmental and social sustainability? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba