[DAY 02] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!
Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 25 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 You can post your comments in the given format (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score Your score Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements with regard to the Fundamental Right provided under Part III of the Indian Constitution: All Fundamental rights are provided to citizens only. Some fundamental rights provide protections against the private persons. Constitution does not allow the Parliament to make any changes to the fundamental rights. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Certain Fundamental Rights are also provided to foreigners (except enemy aliens). Article 14, Article 20, Article 21, Article 21A, Article 22, Article 23, Article 24, Article 25, Article 26, Article 27 & Article 28. Certain fundamental rights provide protection against private citizens. Example – Article 15 (2), Article 17, Article 23, Article 24 The Supreme Court’s position on constitutional amendments laid out in its judgment of Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) is that Parliament can amend Part III of the Constitution under article 386 but cannot destroy its ‘basic structure’. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Certain Fundamental Rights are also provided to foreigners (except enemy aliens). Article 14, Article 20, Article 21, Article 21A, Article 22, Article 23, Article 24, Article 25, Article 26, Article 27 & Article 28. Certain fundamental rights provide protection against private citizens. Example – Article 15 (2), Article 17, Article 23, Article 24 The Supreme Court’s position on constitutional amendments laid out in its judgment of Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) is that Parliament can amend Part III of the Constitution under article 386 but cannot destroy its ‘basic structure’. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statement regarding Equality of Opportunity as enshrined in Indian Constitution: It provides for equality of opportunity for all the residents in the country in matters of employment to any office under the State. Government can implement special schemes and measures for improving the conditions of certain sections of society. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens and not resident (resident could be foreigner) in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the state. The Constitution clarifies that the government can implement special schemes and measures for improving the conditions of certain sections of society: children, women, and the socially and educationally backward classes. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens and not resident (resident could be foreigner) in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the state. The Constitution clarifies that the government can implement special schemes and measures for improving the conditions of certain sections of society: children, women, and the socially and educationally backward classes. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Right to Freedom as mentioned under Article 19-22? No citizen can be denied his or her life except by procedure as laid down under the law. It protects freedom of speech and expression. It makes elementary education a Fundamental Right. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct According to Article 21: “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” This fundamental right is available to every person, citizens and foreigners alike. There is Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19). The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct According to Article 21: “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” This fundamental right is available to every person, citizens and foreigners alike. There is Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19). The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which among the following statement is/are correct regarding protection offered under Article 22 if a person is arrested under ordinary law? Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours including the journey time. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Any person who is in custody has to be informed as to why he has been arrested. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner. These safeguards are, however, not applicable to Enemy aliens People arrested under preventive detention law. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours excluding the journey time. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Any person who is in custody has to be informed as to why he has been arrested. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner. These safeguards are, however, not applicable to Enemy aliens People arrested under preventive detention law. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours excluding the journey time. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which of the following rights emanate from Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution? Right to Privacy Right to Livelihood Right to Clean Environment Right against Public Hanging How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Judicial intervention has ensured that the scope of Article 21 is not narrow and restricted. It has been widening by several landmark judgements. After Maneka Gandhi Case the scope of article 21 has been ever widening. Statement Analysis: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Right to privacy Right to livelihood Right to clean environment Right against public hanging Incorrect Solution (d) Judicial intervention has ensured that the scope of Article 21 is not narrow and restricted. It has been widening by several landmark judgements. After Maneka Gandhi Case the scope of article 21 has been ever widening. Statement Analysis: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Right to privacy Right to livelihood Right to clean environment Right against public hanging Question 6 of 35 6. Question The ‘86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002’ added articles to which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? Fundamental Duties Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the eleventh Fundamental duty to Part IV-A of the constitution under article 51-A. It says ‘To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years’. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act also added the ‘Right to Education as a fundamental right to Part III of the constitution under Article 21A. It says ‘The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine’. It also added new article 45 to the constitution under Directive Principles of State Policy. It says ‘The state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.’ Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the eleventh Fundamental duty to Part IV-A of the constitution under article 51-A. It says ‘To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years’. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act also added the ‘Right to Education as a fundamental right to Part III of the constitution under Article 21A. It says ‘The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine’. It also added new article 45 to the constitution under Directive Principles of State Policy. It says ‘The state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.’ Question 7 of 35 7. Question Over the years Supreme Courts and High Courts have given a wide interpretation to the Fundamental Rights. In this context which of the following are Fundamental Rights? Right to Shelter Right to Apply for Bail Right to not mention the name of one’s father. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) RIGHT TO SHELTER In 2022, in Samarpal versus Union of India, the Delhi high court held that the right to shelter was a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. Right to Shelter is a Fundamental Right and Even an Encroacher Can’t be Removed Without Adopting Procedure Establish by Law: Jharkhand HC. High Court stated that “in a country like India which professes high democratic values, the Constitution of India stands like a lighthouse illuminating life aspirations of the people of India that every State action must follow the procedure established by law. RMC being an instrumentality of the State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India is governed by the rule of law in a welfare State and cannot arrogate to itself a status beyond what is provided by the Constitution.” The fundamental right to shelter was declared by the court not as a ‘systemic right’ but as a ‘conditional right’. A claim under the right to shelter would stand conditional upon the existence of a particular policy/statute which must provide for the means to facilitate exercising the right. Allahabad HC also held that Right to shelter is a fundamental right, a right to all infrastructure necessary to live and develop as a human being in Rajesh Yadav v. State of UP. Right to Apply for Bail is an Individual Fundamental Right implicit in Articles 14, 21, and 19: Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court has ruled that citizens have the fundamental right to not mention the name of their father in documents needed to prove identity. Incorrect Solution (c) RIGHT TO SHELTER In 2022, in Samarpal versus Union of India, the Delhi high court held that the right to shelter was a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. Right to Shelter is a Fundamental Right and Even an Encroacher Can’t be Removed Without Adopting Procedure Establish by Law: Jharkhand HC. High Court stated that “in a country like India which professes high democratic values, the Constitution of India stands like a lighthouse illuminating life aspirations of the people of India that every State action must follow the procedure established by law. RMC being an instrumentality of the State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India is governed by the rule of law in a welfare State and cannot arrogate to itself a status beyond what is provided by the Constitution.” The fundamental right to shelter was declared by the court not as a ‘systemic right’ but as a ‘conditional right’. A claim under the right to shelter would stand conditional upon the existence of a particular policy/statute which must provide for the means to facilitate exercising the right. Allahabad HC also held that Right to shelter is a fundamental right, a right to all infrastructure necessary to live and develop as a human being in Rajesh Yadav v. State of UP. Right to Apply for Bail is an Individual Fundamental Right implicit in Articles 14, 21, and 19: Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court has ruled that citizens have the fundamental right to not mention the name of their father in documents needed to prove identity. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to the Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements regarding Articles 15 and 16: Under both the articles, the state cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, descent, sex, or place of birth. Under both the articles, it is mentioned that the state is permitted to make any special provision for women and children. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect While Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, Article 16 states that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. Article 15 states that nothing in this Article shall prevent the state from making any special provision for women and children. There is no such provision in Article 16. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect While Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, Article 16 states that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. Article 15 states that nothing in this Article shall prevent the state from making any special provision for women and children. There is no such provision in Article 16. Question 9 of 35 9. Question The Doctrine of Essentiality was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in the context of: a) Religious Rights b) Right to Vote c) Right to Travel Abroad d) Right to Life Correct Solution (a) Essential religious practice test is a doctrine evolved by the supreme court (SC) to protect only such religious practices under fundamental rights, which are essential and integral to religion. The doctrine of “essentiality” was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the SC in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The court then took the responsibility of determining the essential practices of a religion upon itself. When the exercise of religious practices came in conflict with other fundamental rights guaranteed under the constitution. The doctrine of essentiality was utilized to decide on the constitutionality of such practices. Incorrect Solution (a) Essential religious practice test is a doctrine evolved by the supreme court (SC) to protect only such religious practices under fundamental rights, which are essential and integral to religion. The doctrine of “essentiality” was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the SC in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The court then took the responsibility of determining the essential practices of a religion upon itself. When the exercise of religious practices came in conflict with other fundamental rights guaranteed under the constitution. The doctrine of essentiality was utilized to decide on the constitutionality of such practices. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements regarding Cultural and Educational Rights: All religious minorities can set up their own educational institutions but this right is not extended to linguistic minorities. The Government cannot discriminate any educational institution on the basis that it is under the management of minority community while granting aid. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Article 30(1): All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 30(2): The State shall not, when granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Article 30(1): All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 30(2): The State shall not, when granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following are Constitutional Rights? No tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of law. No person shall be deprived of his property except by the authority of law. Right to vote in elections. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Article 265 provides that – No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. Right to Property is no longer a fundamental right, rather it is a Constitutional Right and now exists in Article 300A. Article 300A states that – No person shall be deprived of his property saved by the authority of law. Therefore, the article protects an individual from interference by the State and dispossesses a person of the property unless it is in accordance with the procedure established by law. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for- The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Article 265 provides that – No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. Right to Property is no longer a fundamental right, rather it is a Constitutional Right and now exists in Article 300A. Article 300A states that – No person shall be deprived of his property saved by the authority of law. Therefore, the article protects an individual from interference by the State and dispossesses a person of the property unless it is in accordance with the procedure established by law. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for- The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage. Question 12 of 35 12. Question With regard to Martial Law, consider the following statements: It has been borrowed in India from the English common law. It has no specific provision in the Constitution and is implicit in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. The expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It means ‘military rule’. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. There is no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare martial law. However, it is implicit in Article 34 under which martial law can be declared in any area within the territory of India. The martial law is imposed under the extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law. Its justification is to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in the society. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. The expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It means ‘military rule’. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. There is no specific or express provision in the Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare martial law. However, it is implicit in Article 34 under which martial law can be declared in any area within the territory of India. The martial law is imposed under the extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law. Its justification is to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in the society. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Which of the following statements regarding ‘Minorities’ is/are correct: The term ‘minority’ has not been defined in the Indian Constitution. Linguistic minorities are identified on state to state basis. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in some articles but does not define it anywhere. Article 29 has the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading but speaks of any section of citizens having a distinct language script and culture. Article 30 speaks specifically of two categories of minorities — religious and linguistic. A linguistic minority is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state. Currently, the linguistic minorities are identified on a state-wise basis thus determined by the state government. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in some articles but does not define it anywhere. Article 29 has the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading but speaks of any section of citizens having a distinct language script and culture. Article 30 speaks specifically of two categories of minorities — religious and linguistic. A linguistic minority is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state. Currently, the linguistic minorities are identified on a state-wise basis thus determined by the state government. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following Articles was introduced in the Constitution of India by the Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1971? a) Article 31A b) Article 31B c) Article 31C d) Article 31D Correct Solution (c) The Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1971 – Curtailed the fundamental right to property. Inserted new Article 31C: Provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31. Incorrect Solution (c) The Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1971 – Curtailed the fundamental right to property. Inserted new Article 31C: Provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements: Article 25 forms the foundation of the Indian secularism. Indian secularism allows the state to regulate secular activities associated with a religious practice. Article 25 forbids imparting of religious instructions from an institution wholly funded by the state. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Article 25 is the foundation of the Indian secularism, not only because it guarantees religious freedom of individuals and equality of all religions, it also makes a clear distinction of religious affairs of the people and the secular activities of the state. Indian secularism allows for the state to regulate secular activities associated with a religious practice. The state is entitled to regulate the secular activities, including economic, financial and political. The state is entitled to undertake social welfare and social reform of all sections of the people. Article 28 forbids the imparting of religious instructions from an institution wholly funded by the state. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Article 25 is the foundation of the Indian secularism, not only because it guarantees religious freedom of individuals and equality of all religions, it also makes a clear distinction of religious affairs of the people and the secular activities of the state. Indian secularism allows for the state to regulate secular activities associated with a religious practice. The state is entitled to regulate the secular activities, including economic, financial and political. The state is entitled to undertake social welfare and social reform of all sections of the people. Article 28 forbids the imparting of religious instructions from an institution wholly funded by the state. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: Article 29 holds that no citizens shall be denied admission into a school, maintained or aided by the state on the ground of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. Article 30 holds that only the religious minorities have the right to set up or maintain educational institutions of their own choice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect No citizens shall be denied admission into a school, maintained or aided by the state on the ground of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them (Article 29). All religious or linguistic minorities have the right to set up or maintain educational institutions of their own choice. The state, while making grants to the educational institutions, shall not discriminate against a religious or linguistic minority (Article 30). Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect No citizens shall be denied admission into a school, maintained or aided by the state on the ground of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them (Article 29). All religious or linguistic minorities have the right to set up or maintain educational institutions of their own choice. The state, while making grants to the educational institutions, shall not discriminate against a religious or linguistic minority (Article 30). Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following pairs: Article-Description Article 42 – Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Article 43 – Living wages for the workers. Article 43A – Promotion of the co-operative societies. Article 43B – Participation of the workers in the management of the industries. How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All four pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Article 42 – Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Article 43 – Living wages for the workers. Article 43A – Participation of the workers in the management of the Industries. Article 43B – Promotion of the co-operative societies. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Article 42 – Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Article 43 – Living wages for the workers. Article 43A – Participation of the workers in the management of the Industries. Article 43B – Promotion of the co-operative societies. Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution, consider the following pairs: Directive Principles pf State Policy (DPSP) – Category To secure the participation of workers – Liberal Intellectual. in the management of industries. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks – Socialist To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code – Gandhian How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) None of the pairs Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect To secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) – Socialist To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks (Article 47) – Gandhian To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code (Article 44) – Liberal Intellectual Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect To secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) – Socialist To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks (Article 47) – Gandhian To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code (Article 44) – Liberal Intellectual Question 19 of 35 19. Question Since independence, many laws have been enacted by the state to give effect to the various Directive Principles under part IV of the Constitution. In this context consider the following statements: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, enactments give effect to Article 50. Khadi and Village Industries Board gives effect to Article 43. 73rd Constitutional amendment Act gives effect to Article 40. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Article 48A seeks to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, have been enacted to give effect to Article 48A, not Article 50. Article 43 seeks to promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas. Khadi and Village Industries Board gives effect to Article 43. Article 40 seeks to organize village panchayats and endow them with the necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act gives effect to Article 40. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Article 48A seeks to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, have been enacted to give effect to Article 48A, not Article 50. Article 43 seeks to promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas. Khadi and Village Industries Board gives effect to Article 43. Article 40 seeks to organize village panchayats and endow them with the necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act gives effect to Article 40. Question 20 of 35 20. Question In which of the following landmark cases, Supreme Court described that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy? a) Champakam Dorairajan vs State of Madras b) Minerva Mills vs Union of India c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala d) Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India Correct Solution (b) In Minerva Mills case, 1980, the Supreme Court described that ‘The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution. Incorrect Solution (b) In Minerva Mills case, 1980, the Supreme Court described that ‘The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about the PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother Earth (PM-PRANAM) Scheme: Its objective is to encourage the balanced use of fertilizers inconjunction with biofertilizers and organic fertilizers. It will be financed by the savings of existing fertilizer subsidiesunder schemes run by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. The reduction in urea consumption by a state will be compared to its average consumption of urea over the previous ten years. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother Earth (PM-PRANAM) Scheme’s objective is to encourage the balanced use of fertilizers inconjunction with biofertilizers and organic fertilizers and to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilizers, which was around Rs 2.25 lakh crores in 2022-2023. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will be financed by the savings of existing fertilizer subsidiesunder schemes run by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Centre will provide 50% of the subsidy savings to the states as a grant. Out of the grant, 70% can be used to create assets related to the technological adoption of alternative fertilizers and production units at various levels. The remaining 30% can be used to reward and encourage farmers, panchayats, and other stakeholders involved in fertilizer reduction and awareness generation. The reduction in urea consumption by a state will be compared to its average consumption of urea over the previous three years. This calculation will determine the eligibility for subsidy savings and grants. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Biofertilizer consists of a carrier medium rich in live microorganisms. When applied to seed, soil, or living plants, it increases soil nutrients or makes them biologically available. Biofertilizers contain different types of fungi, root bacteria, or other microorganisms. They form a mutually beneficial or symbiotic relationship with host plants as they grow in the soil. Incorrect Solution (b) The PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother Earth (PM-PRANAM) Scheme’s objective is to encourage the balanced use of fertilizers inconjunction with biofertilizers and organic fertilizers and to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilizers, which was around Rs 2.25 lakh crores in 2022-2023. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will be financed by the savings of existing fertilizer subsidiesunder schemes run by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Centre will provide 50% of the subsidy savings to the states as a grant. Out of the grant, 70% can be used to create assets related to the technological adoption of alternative fertilizers and production units at various levels. The remaining 30% can be used to reward and encourage farmers, panchayats, and other stakeholders involved in fertilizer reduction and awareness generation. The reduction in urea consumption by a state will be compared to its average consumption of urea over the previous three years. This calculation will determine the eligibility for subsidy savings and grants. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Biofertilizer consists of a carrier medium rich in live microorganisms. When applied to seed, soil, or living plants, it increases soil nutrients or makes them biologically available. Biofertilizers contain different types of fungi, root bacteria, or other microorganisms. They form a mutually beneficial or symbiotic relationship with host plants as they grow in the soil. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: It aims to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem in India by the year 2035. It is implemented in all the states and union territories across the country. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a chronic single-gene disorder causing a debilitating systemic syndrome characterized by chronic anemia, acute painful episodes, organ infarction, and chronic organ damage and by a significant reduction in life expectancy. The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to improve the care of all sickle cell disease patients for a better future and to lower the prevalence of the disease through a multi-faced coordinated approach towards screening and awareness strategies. It aims to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem in India by 2047. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is implemented in 17 high-focus states across the country, this program aims to improve the care and prospects of all sickle cell disease patients while reducing the prevalence of the disease. The 17 states are- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, and Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a chronic single-gene disorder causing a debilitating systemic syndrome characterized by chronic anemia, acute painful episodes, organ infarction, and chronic organ damage and by a significant reduction in life expectancy. The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to improve the care of all sickle cell disease patients for a better future and to lower the prevalence of the disease through a multi-faced coordinated approach towards screening and awareness strategies. It aims to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem in India by 2047. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is implemented in 17 high-focus states across the country, this program aims to improve the care and prospects of all sickle cell disease patients while reducing the prevalence of the disease. The 17 states are- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, and Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: The Sanskrit language is included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. Viswa Samskrita Dinam is an annual event celebrated on22nd August. Sudharma is the only Sanskrit newspaper in the world. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Sanskrit is one of the oldest languages in the world. It belongs to the Indo-Aryan language group and was used to write Vedas. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Part XVII, Articles 343 to 351 of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages. There are 22 scheduled languages in the Eighth Schedule. They are – Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri. The Sanskrit language is included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct. Viswa Samskrita Dinam is an annual event celebrated on22nd August. Its objective is to promote the revival and maintenance of the Sanskrit language. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is celebrated for the first time in the year 1969. It is celebrated on Poornima day of the Shraavana monthin the Hindu calendar. Sudharma is the only Sanskrit newspaper in the world. It is published since 1970 from Mysore in Karnataka. It is also available in online mode. Hence statement 3 is correct. Mattur, a village in the Shimoga district of Karnataka is believed to have preserved the Sanskrit language. Incorrect Solution (c) Sanskrit is one of the oldest languages in the world. It belongs to the Indo-Aryan language group and was used to write Vedas. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Part XVII, Articles 343 to 351 of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages. There are 22 scheduled languages in the Eighth Schedule. They are – Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri. The Sanskrit language is included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct. Viswa Samskrita Dinam is an annual event celebrated on22nd August. Its objective is to promote the revival and maintenance of the Sanskrit language. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is celebrated for the first time in the year 1969. It is celebrated on Poornima day of the Shraavana monthin the Hindu calendar. Sudharma is the only Sanskrit newspaper in the world. It is published since 1970 from Mysore in Karnataka. It is also available in online mode. Hence statement 3 is correct. Mattur, a village in the Shimoga district of Karnataka is believed to have preserved the Sanskrit language. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Which of the following cases can be taken up by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): Abuse of the legal system in the trafficking of girls Rape of a visually impaired girl Death of a boy in the observation home How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The National Human Right Commission was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA) of 1993. A few major issues which are taken up by NHRC are: Custodial Torture Right to Work and Labour Rights Arbitrary Arrest and Detention Excessive Powers of the Armed Forces and the Police Sexual Violence Child Labour Violence and discrimination against Women, Children Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender Rights Incorrect Solution (c) The National Human Right Commission was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA) of 1993. A few major issues which are taken up by NHRC are: Custodial Torture Right to Work and Labour Rights Arbitrary Arrest and Detention Excessive Powers of the Armed Forces and the Police Sexual Violence Child Labour Violence and discrimination against Women, Children Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender Rights Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Places of Worship Act of 1991: It declares that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it existed on August 15, 1947. It does not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. It prescribes a punishment of a maximum of three years imprisonment along with a fine for contravening the provisions of the Act. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Places of Worship Act of 1991 was enacted to prohibit conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th of August 1947. Its major provisions are: Section 3 of the Act bars the conversion, in full or part, of a place of worship of any religious denomination into a place of worship of a different religious denomination, or even a different segment of the same religious denomination. Section 4(1) of the Act declares that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it existed on August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is correct. Section 5 of the Act shall not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Section 6 of the Act prescribes a punishment of a maximum of three years imprisonment along with a fine for contravening the provisions of the Act. Hence statement 3 is correct. Section 4(2) of the Act declares any suit or legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. Incorrect Solution (c) The Places of Worship Act of 1991 was enacted to prohibit conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th of August 1947. Its major provisions are: Section 3 of the Act bars the conversion, in full or part, of a place of worship of any religious denomination into a place of worship of a different religious denomination, or even a different segment of the same religious denomination. Section 4(1) of the Act declares that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it existed on August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is correct. Section 5 of the Act shall not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Section 6 of the Act prescribes a punishment of a maximum of three years imprisonment along with a fine for contravening the provisions of the Act. Hence statement 3 is correct. Section 4(2) of the Act declares any suit or legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about Alluri Sitarama Raju: He is considered as Manyam Veerudufor his bravery and sacrifice. He led a guerrilla campaign in the Eastern Ghats regionof Andhra Pradesh. He opposed the British in response to the Madras Forest Act of 1882 in the backdrop of the Swadeshi movement. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) 125th Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju. Alluri Sitarama Raju is considered as Manyam Veerudufor his bravery and sacrifice. Hence statement 1 is correct. He led a guerrilla campaign in the Eastern Ghats regionof Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct. He opposed the British in response to the Madras Forest Act of 1882 in the backdrop of the Non-cooperation movement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Madras Forest Act of 1882 effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing their traditional form of agriculture called ‘podu’, which threatened their very way of life. It led to the Rampa rebellion (1922-1924) in which Alluri Sitarama Raju played the major role as its leader. Incorrect Solution (b) 125th Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju. Alluri Sitarama Raju is considered as Manyam Veerudufor his bravery and sacrifice. Hence statement 1 is correct. He led a guerrilla campaign in the Eastern Ghats regionof Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct. He opposed the British in response to the Madras Forest Act of 1882 in the backdrop of the Non-cooperation movement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Madras Forest Act of 1882 effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing their traditional form of agriculture called ‘podu’, which threatened their very way of life. It led to the Rampa rebellion (1922-1924) in which Alluri Sitarama Raju played the major role as its leader. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD): It is a statutory body formed in 1982 under the Reserve Bank of India of 1934 Act. It deals with the operations of giving credit foragriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is a statutory body formed in 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act of 1981. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is fully owned by the Government of India and is headquartered in Mumbai. It deals with the operations of giving credit foragriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. Incorrect Solution (b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is a statutory body formed in 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act of 1981. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is fully owned by the Government of India and is headquartered in Mumbai. It deals with the operations of giving credit foragriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): They are assets in the digital worldthat can be bought and sold like any other piece of property. They can be tweets, drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, and selfies. They are backed by blockchain technology and can have multiple owners at a time. They can be bought by anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are assets in the digital worldthat can be bought and sold like any other piece of property. Hence statement 1 is correct. They can be tweets, drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, and selfies. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are backed by blockchain technology and can have only one owner at a time. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs’ metadata. This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. They can be bought by anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are assets in the digital worldthat can be bought and sold like any other piece of property. Hence statement 1 is correct. They can be tweets, drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, and selfies. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are backed by blockchain technology and can have only one owner at a time. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs’ metadata. This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. They can be bought by anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence: It is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, Wildlife Act, and Antiquities Act. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct. DRI undertakes the collection, collation, analysis, and dissemination of intelligence relating to smuggling, carries out investigations, adjudication of cases, and prosecution of the arrested persons. Incorrect Solution (b) The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct. DRI undertakes the collection, collation, analysis, and dissemination of intelligence relating to smuggling, carries out investigations, adjudication of cases, and prosecution of the arrested persons. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2): It is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It causes air pollution, water pollution, and acid rain. It does not occur naturally but can be produced industrially. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It is a highly reactive gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. It causes air pollution, water pollution, and acid rain. Hence statement 2 is correct. It occurs naturally and industrially. It forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment. It is created by natural sources that include volcanoes and microbes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It is a highly reactive gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. It causes air pollution, water pollution, and acid rain. Hence statement 2 is correct. It occurs naturally and industrially. It forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment. It is created by natural sources that include volcanoes and microbes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 31 of 35 31. Question If every alternative letter of English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how will the first month of the second half of the year be written? a) JuLY b) jULy c) jUly d) jUlY Correct Solution (d) According to the question, every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case and the remaining letters are capitalized. A b C d E f G h I j K l M n O p Q r S t U v W x Y z First month of second half of the year is July. As per the given pattern it will be written as : jUlY Hence, jUlY is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (d) According to the question, every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case and the remaining letters are capitalized. A b C d E f G h I j K l M n O p Q r S t U v W x Y z First month of second half of the year is July. As per the given pattern it will be written as : jUlY Hence, jUlY is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question A bus travels at 54km/h while moving but after accounting for stopping time, to let passengers on and off the coach, it averages a speed of 45km/h. How many minutes does the bus stop for each hour? a) 9 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 11 minutes d) 12 minutes Correct Solution (b) In one hour without stopping, the bus would have travelled 54km. Once stopping is factored in, the bus actually travels 45km. So it travels 9km less far as a consequence. Distance/Speed = Time 9km/54kmph = 0.16 hours 0.16 x 60 = 10 minutes So the bus stops for 10 minutes in every hour on average. Incorrect Solution (b) In one hour without stopping, the bus would have travelled 54km. Once stopping is factored in, the bus actually travels 45km. So it travels 9km less far as a consequence. Distance/Speed = Time 9km/54kmph = 0.16 hours 0.16 x 60 = 10 minutes So the bus stops for 10 minutes in every hour on average. Question 33 of 35 33. Question The product of two positive consecutive odd integers is 1 less than six times their sum. One of the integers is a) 7 b) 9 c) 15 d) 13 Correct Solution (d) Product of two positive consecutive odd integers = (6 * sum of two positive consecutive odd integers ) – 1 Calculation Let the two positive consecutive odd integers be x and (x+2) Therefore, we have x * (x+2) = [6*[x + x + 2]-1 x^2 + 2x = 12x + 12 -1 x^2-10x-11 = 0 x^2 + x – 11x – 11=0 x(x + 1) – 11(x + 1) = 0 x+1 = 0 or x-11 = 0 x – 11 = 0 , x = 11 Hence, positive integers are ( x, x+2) = (11,13) 13 is the answer Incorrect Solution (d) Product of two positive consecutive odd integers = (6 * sum of two positive consecutive odd integers ) – 1 Calculation Let the two positive consecutive odd integers be x and (x+2) Therefore, we have x * (x+2) = [6*[x + x + 2]-1 x^2 + 2x = 12x + 12 -1 x^2-10x-11 = 0 x^2 + x – 11x – 11=0 x(x + 1) – 11(x + 1) = 0 x+1 = 0 or x-11 = 0 x – 11 = 0 , x = 11 Hence, positive integers are ( x, x+2) = (11,13) 13 is the answer Question 34 of 35 34. Question Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 6, 7, 10, 13, 16, 21, 24, 31, 36, 43, 46 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern. a) 13 b) 16 c) 34 d) 43 Correct Solution (c) On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern: ODD SERIES EVEN SERIES 3 3 + 4 =7 6 7 + 6 =13 6+4 = 10 13 + 8=21 10+6 =16 21 +10=31 16+8=24 31 +12=43 24+10=34 34+12=46 On observing the given two series, we observe that the fifth term in EVEN SERIES should be replaced by 34. Incorrect Solution (c) On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern: ODD SERIES EVEN SERIES 3 3 + 4 =7 6 7 + 6 =13 6+4 = 10 13 + 8=21 10+6 =16 21 +10=31 16+8=24 31 +12=43 24+10=34 34+12=46 On observing the given two series, we observe that the fifth term in EVEN SERIES should be replaced by 34. Question 35 of 35 35. Question What is X in the sequence. 153, 146, 137, 126, 113, 98, 81, X a) 60 b) 61 c) 62 d) 60 Correct Solution (c) 153, 146, 137, 126, 113, 98, 81, X 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 – > difference between the numbers So ,subtracting 19 from 81 gives the answer, which is 62. Incorrect Solution (c) 153, 146, 137, 126, 113, 98, 81, X 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 – > difference between the numbers So ,subtracting 19 from 81 gives the answer, which is 62. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3500', init: { quizId: 3500, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"29472":{"type":"single","id":29472,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"29473":{"type":"single","id":29473,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29475":{"type":"single","id":29475,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29477":{"type":"single","id":29477,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29478":{"type":"single","id":29478,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29480":{"type":"single","id":29480,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29483":{"type":"single","id":29483,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29485":{"type":"single","id":29485,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29487":{"type":"single","id":29487,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"29488":{"type":"single","id":29488,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29489":{"type":"single","id":29489,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29490":{"type":"single","id":29490,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29493":{"type":"single","id":29493,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29494":{"type":"single","id":29494,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29497":{"type":"single","id":29497,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29499":{"type":"single","id":29499,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29501":{"type":"single","id":29501,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29503":{"type":"single","id":29503,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29505":{"type":"single","id":29505,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29508":{"type":"single","id":29508,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29511":{"type":"single","id":29511,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29514":{"type":"single","id":29514,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29515":{"type":"single","id":29515,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29516":{"type":"single","id":29516,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29519":{"type":"single","id":29519,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29521":{"type":"single","id":29521,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29524":{"type":"single","id":29524,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29527":{"type":"single","id":29527,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29529":{"type":"single","id":29529,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29530":{"type":"single","id":29530,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29533":{"type":"single","id":29533,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29536":{"type":"single","id":29536,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"29539":{"type":"single","id":29539,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"29541":{"type":"single","id":29541,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"29544":{"type":"single","id":29544,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba