Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ambaji temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister will offer prayers at the famous Ambaji temple in Banaskantha during his visit to Gujarat. About Ambaji temple:- Location: Ambaji in Gujarat, India. Time period: 8th century A.D. Administration: The temple is under the administrative control of a temple trust. Shri Ambaji Mata Temple, is considered one of the major Shakti Peethas in Hinduism. (Kalika Mata temple) This temple honours Ambaji, an incarnation of Amba Mataji. It is one of the fifty-two Shakti Peeths. It is best known for its festivals like Navratri and Diwali, celebrated with joyous ceremonies and poojas. The main temple complex houses the revered Shree Visa Yantra, which many believe symbolizes divine power and grace. The whole of Ambaji town is surrounded by many temples near Ambaji temple and pilgrim spots, attracting thousands of tourists from around the country and even overseas annually. MUST READ: Somnath Temple SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Asian Para Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated India’s para-athletes for their outstanding achievements at the Asian Para Games 2023. About Asian Para Games 2023:- Time period: 22 to 28 October 2023. Venue: Hangzhou, China. The last edition of the Asian Games in Jakarta, Indonesia in 2018. India dispatched its largest-ever contingent to the fourth edition of the Asian Para Games. It consisted of 303 athletes, including 191 men and 112 women. This marks a notable increase from the 190 athletes India sent to the 2018 Asian Para Games, where they delivered their best-ever performance, clinching 72 medals, including 15 gold. (Indian Olympic Association) India finished with 111 medals at the Asian Para Games:- 29 gold 31 silver and 51 bronze The Asian Para rich haul is also a hat-tip to the parents, coaches and administrators who spotted and nurtured the sporting passion in the hearts and minds of children with physical disabilities. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The air quality in Delhi continued to be hazardous as the overall Air Quality Index (AQI) in the city stood at 322 recently. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- IMAGE SOURCE: aqi. in Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh will address the Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 recently. Background:- A multinational platform for collaborating collective wisdom on maritime security, this Indian Navy initiative aims to Harness the Maritime Thoughts of Security partners in the Indian Ocean Region. About Goa Maritime Conclave 2023:- Date:29 to 31 October 2023. Organized by: Indian Navy. Venue: Goa. Theme: Maritime Security in the Indian Ocean Region: Converting Common Maritime Priorities into Collaborative Mitigating Frameworks. Previous editions of the were held in 2017, 2019, and 2021. It is a biennial event. It is the 4th edition of Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) It will be hosting representatives from 12 Indian Ocean littorals, including Bangladesh, Comoros, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Myanmar, Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. It is the Indian Navy’s outreach Initiative providing a multinational platform to harness the collective wisdom of practitioners of maritime security and academia towards garnering outcome-oriented maritime thought. It provides a forum for the exchange of views by the Chiefs of the Navy/ Heads of Maritime Agencies on dealing with contemporary and future maritime challenges, as well as presenting cooperative strategies for enhancing interoperability amongst partner maritime agencies. Topic of discussion:- Identifying Gaps in Regulatory and Legal Frameworks for Achieving Maritime Security in the IOR. Formulation of a Common Multi-lateral Maritime Strategy and Operating Protocols for GMC Nations for Collective Mitigation of Maritime Threats and Challenges. (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) Identification and Establishment of Collaborative Training Programmes with Center of Excellence across the IOR. Leveraging Activities Pursued Through Existing Multilateral Organizations in the IOR towards Generating Collective Maritime Competencies. (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) As part of the conclave, visiting dignitaries would also be afforded an opportunity to witness India’s Indigenous shipbuilding industry at the “Make in India Exhibition” and witness the indigenous warships as also capabilities of the Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV). MUST READ: Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will participate in the programme marking the culmination of the Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign’s Amrit Kalash Yatra at Kartavya Path. About Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign:- Amrit Kalash Yatra: 1st September to 31stOctober 2023. The Union government has launched the ‘Meri Maati Mera Desh’ campaign as a grand culmination of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav,’ celebrating 75 years of Indian Independence. Under this campaign soil collected from different parts of the country in August will be used to develop a garden along the Kartavya Path in Delhi. The ‘Mitti Kalash’ are to be brought ceremoniously to the larger municipalities/corporations and transported to Kartavya Path This initiative aims to honour and commemorate the sacrifices of martyrs. It includes freedom fighters, defence personnel, and members of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and State Police, who laid down their lives in the line of duty. (Self-reliance in defence) Five-Point Agenda:- Shilaphalakam Installation: Memorials will be erected, adorned with the names of those who made the supreme sacrifice for the nation. Pledge of Commitment: A solemn pledge will be taken by people at the memorial sites. Vasudha Vandhan: Every gram panchayat or village will participate in ‘Vasudha Vandhan’ by planting 75 saplings of indigenous species. Veeron Ka Vandan: Freedom fighters and the families of deceased freedom fighters will be honoured and felicitated. National Flag Hoisting: The National Flag will be proudly hoisted, and the National Anthem will resonate in unison.  MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDIES Syllabus GS III – AGRICULTURE Context: Recently, the union cabinet has approved Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) rates for the various nutrients of Rabi and Kharif Season for 2022-23. ABOUT NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDY REGIME Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers. For Rabi Season 2022-23: NBS approved for various nutrients i.e. Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S). For Kharif Season 2023: NBS rates approved for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) Fertilizers. Fertilizers containing secondary and micronutrients, like molybdenum (Mo) and zinc, receive extra subsidies. The government announces subsidy rates for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers annually, considering factors like international and domestic prices, exchange rates, and inventory levels. NBS aims to achieve an optimal balance (N:P:K = 4:2:1) in fertilization, improving soil health and crop yields. Administered by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers since April 2010. ADVANTAGES OF NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDY Increased Agricultural Productivity: Nutrient-based subsidies encourage farmers to use fertilizers that provide essential nutrients to crops. This can lead to increased crop yields and improved agricultural productivity. By targeting specific nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, these subsidies can help address nutrient deficiencies in the soil, which can limit crop growth. Balanced Nutrient Use: Nutrient-based subsidies promote the balanced use of fertilizers. By providing incentives for the use of fertilizers containing multiple nutrients, they discourage overreliance on a single nutrient. This helps maintain soil fertility and prevents nutrient imbalances that can harm crops and the environment. Affordability for Farmers: Fertilizers can be a significant cost for farmers, especially smallholder farmers. Nutrient-based subsidies reduce the financial burden on farmers by making fertilizers more affordable. This enables a wider range of farmers to access and use fertilizers to improve their yields. Enhanced Food Security: Higher crop yields resulting from nutrient-based subsidies contribute to increased food production. This can help enhance food security at the national and household levels, ensuring a stable and sufficient food supply. Reduced Import Dependency: Improved agricultural productivity through nutrient-based subsidies can reduce a country’s dependence on food imports. This can have economic benefits by saving foreign exchange and promoting self-sufficiency in food production. ISSUES RELATED TO NBS Economic and Environmental Costs: High subsidy burden strains the economy, leading to imbalanced fertilizer use and environmental issues. Black Marketing and Diversion: Subsidized urea faces illegal sale and smuggling to non-agricultural users. Leakage and Misuse: Inefficient distribution can lead to fertilizer misuse or non-delivery to intended farmers. Regional Disparities: Uniform policy may not cater to diverse regional needs, impacting nutrient application and productivity. WAY FORWARD A uniform policy for all fertilizers is necessary, as nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K) are crucial for crop yields and quality. In the long term, NBS could be replaced by a flat per-acre cash subsidy that allows farmers to purchase any fertilizer. This subsidy should encompass value-added and customized products that provide efficient nitrogen delivery and other essential nutrients. It is crucial to strike a balance between price control, affordability, and sustainable nutrient management to achieve the desired outcomes of the NBS regime. BHUTAN CHINA BORDER TALKS Syllabus GS II – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: In Beijing, the 25th round of Bhutan-China Border Talks culminated with the signing of a significant Cooperation Agreement. This historic agreement reflects the progress made in their quest for border resolution, carrying forward the 3-Step Roadmap initiated in 2021. Amid the backdrop of a seven-year gap in talks, these recent developments bear immense significance. OVERVIEW OF BOUNDARY DISPUTE BETWEEN CHINA AND BHUTAN The boundary dispute between Bhutan and China has its roots in historical claims and traditions. Both countries have historically maintained different perceptions of their border in the Doklam Plateau. The dispute has its origins in the 19th century when British India and China signed the 1890 Convention, known as the Sikkim-Tibet Convention. This agreement delineated the border between Sikkim (then a British protectorate) and Tibet (which was under Chinese influence), passing through the Doklam Plateau. Bhutan claims the Doklam Plateau as part of its territory. China, on the other hand, claims that the Doklam Plateau falls within its territory based on its interpretation of the 1890 Convention. The dispute gained international attention in 2017 when a border standoff occurred between Indian and Chinese troops in the Doklam area. This standoff was triggered when Chinese troops attempted to construct a road in the region. India intervened in support of Bhutan’s territorial claims, as it has a special relationship with Bhutan and is responsible for its defense and foreign affairs. BHUTAN- CHINA BORDER TALKS Bhutan and the Tibetan Autonomous Region share an extensive contiguous border, spanning approximately 470 km. prior to 2016, the two nations engaged in 24 rounds of talks to address border disputes. Talks had been stalled due to the Doklam Standoff in 2017 and the subsequent COVID-19 pandemic. However, this interlude witnessed discussions at other levels, especially after China raised concerns about a border dispute to Bhutan’s east. After a prolonged pause in boundary talks lasting seven years, the resumption of discussions signals substantial headway. The 3-Step roadmap, established through a MoU in 2021 and facilitated by the Joint Technical Team (JTT), aims to delineate the Bhutanese and Chinese territories conclusively. Despite the absence of diplomatic ties, Bhutan and China seek to formalize their border. Steps in the Roadmap Agreement on the border “on the table.” On-ground inspections of the border. Formal demarcation of the boundary. INDIA’S CONCERNS India’s Security Concerns: The India-Bhutan-China border issue is directly linked to India’s national security. India is concerned about Chinese encroachments in the region, which could alter the strategic balance and threaten Indian security interests. Strategic Importance: Doklam is strategically significant for India as it overlooks the narrow Siliguri Corridor, also known as the “Chicken’s Neck.” The corridor is a narrow strip of land that connects mainland India with the northeastern states. Any Chinese presence in Doklam could potentially pose a security threat to India’s northeastern region. Strained Sino-Indian Relations: In the context of deteriorating relations between India and China since the 2020 Line of Actual Control standoff, any warming of ties between China and one of India’s closest neighbors` raises concerns in New Delhi. Implications for the Region: The outcome of the border dispute between Bhutan and China has broader regional implications, especially in the context of India-China relations. A peaceful resolution is in the interest of stability and peace in the region CONCLUSION The Bhutan-China boundary dispute is a complex issue with historical, political, and strategic implications. It remains unresolved, and the parties involved continue to engage in diplomatic negotiations to find a mutually acceptable solution. The resolution of this dispute is important not only for Bhutan and China but also for the broader regional stability in South Asia. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercise Countries 1.Vajra Prahar India & US 2.Garuda Shakti India & France 3.Konkan India & Oman How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 will host Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand only. Statement-II: It is a biennial event. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Ambaji temple, consider the following statements: The main temple complex houses the revered Shree Visa Yantra. This temple honours Ambaji, an incarnation of Amba Mataji. It is not one of the fifty-two Shakti Peeths. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri - Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recent reports show that 26 crore Ayushman Cards have been created under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY) so far. About Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY):- IMAGE SOURCE: NHA Launched:2018. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (PMBJP) Implementing Agency: National Health Authority. Objectives: to meet Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and its underlining commitment, which is to “leave no one behind.” Historical Background: Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of the Government of India, was launched as recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). Salient Features:- This scheme aims to undertake path-breaking interventions to holistically address the healthcare system (covering prevention, promotion and ambulatory care) at the primary, secondary and tertiary levels. (Ayushman Bharat PMJAY) Ayushman Bharat comprises two inter-related components:- Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs):– In February 2018, the Government of India announced the creation of 1,50,000 Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) by transforming the existing Sub Centres and Primary Health Centres. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) These centres are to deliver Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) bringing healthcare closer to the homes of people. They cover both, maternal and child health services and non-communicable diseases, including free essential drugs and diagnostic services. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY):- This scheme was launched on 23rd September, 2018. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is the largest health assurance scheme in the world. It provides health cover of five lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to twelve crore beneficiary families. The households included being based on the deprivation and occupational criteria of the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011) for rural and urban areas respectively. PM-JAY was earlier known as the National Health Protection Scheme (NHPS) before being rechristened. It subsumed the then-existing Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) which had been launched in 2008. It provides cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at the point of service, that is, the hospital. It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and medicines. There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender. All pre–existing conditions are covered from day one. Benefits:- PM-JAY envisions to help mitigate catastrophic expenditure on medical treatment which pushes nearly 6 crore Indians into poverty each year. Benefits of the scheme are portable across the countrye. a beneficiary can visit any empanelled public or private hospital in India to avail cashless treatment. MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY, AB-PMJAY and COVID treatment. SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Tej Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Extremely severe cyclonic storm Tej has weakened into a very severe cyclonic storm recently. About Tej:- Location: Arabian Sea. Impacts in different regions:- Light to moderate rainfall at most places with isolated heavy rainfall over Mizoram and heavy to very rainfall over Tripura is likely to occur today and tomorrow. Isolated heavy rainfall is likely over the same region on the 25th of this month. Rainfall intensity will decrease on 26th November with light to moderate rainfall at a few places over the region. Light to moderate rainfall is likely at many places over south Assam and eastern Meghalaya with isolated heavy rainfall over south Assam. In coastal Districts of Odisha, light to moderate rainfall is expected to occur in most places. Fishermen have been advised not to venture into the adjoining east-central Bay of Bengal. About Cyclone:- A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is typically associated with wet and stormy weather. (Naming of Cyclone) Classification:- There are two types of cyclones: Tropical cyclones and Extra-tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones) Tropical cyclone:- It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. ( Colour Coded Weather Warning) These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. Temperate cyclones:- It occurs in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions. These are active above the mid-latitudinal region between 35° and 65° latitude in both hemispheres. The direction of movement is from west to east and is more pronounced in the winter seasons. MUST READ: Cyclones forecast SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 India and Oman Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, External Affairs Minister Dr.S.Jaishanka held a conversation with Omani Foreign Minister Badr Albusaidi. About India and Oman:- IMAGE SOURCE: WORLD ATLAS India and Oman are linked by geography, history and culture. They enjoy warm and cordial relations, which are attributed to historical maritime trade linkages. People-to-people contact between India and Oman can be traced back 5,000 years. The diplomatic relations were established in 1955. Gandhi Peace Prize 2019 was conferred on Late HM Sultan Qaboos in recognition of his leadership in strengthening the ties between India & Oman and his efforts to promote peace in the Gulf region. Political Relations:- The historical India-Oman bilateral ties were transformed into a strategic partnership in November 2008. Visits at the highest level have been exchanged frequently between India and Oman. Ministerial-level visits have taken place regularly. The Sultanate of Oman is a strategic partner of India in the Gulf and an important interlocutor at the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), Arab League and Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) fora. Nine areas of cooperation were listed between the two countries, i.e. agriculture, healthcare, infrastructure, tourism, chemicals & fertilizers, education, oil & gas, power and mining. Defence Cooperation:- Oman is the first nation in the Persian Gulf to have formal defence relations with India. Both countries conducted joint military exercises in 2006 and later signed a defence agreement. The Ministries of Defence of both countries review their relations annually under the aegis of a Joint Military Cooperation Committee meeting. India and Oman conduct regular biennial bilateral exercises between all three services. Army exercise: Al Najah Air Force exercise: Eastern Bridge Naval Exercise: Naseem Al Bahr Since 2008, Oman has been extending its support to the Indian Navy’s anti-piracy missions and Indian Naval Ships are regularly welcomed by Oman for Overseas Deployments. Economic & Commercial Relations:- For Oman, India was the 3rd largest (after UAE and China) source for its imports and 3rd largest market (after UAE and Saudi Arabia) for its non-oil exports in 2019. Major Indian financial institutions have a presence in Oman. Indian companies have invested in Oman in sectors like iron and steel, cement, fertilisers, textiles etc. India-Oman Joint Investment Fund (OIJIF), a JV between the State Bank of India and the State General Reserve Fund (SGRF) of Oman, a special purpose vehicle to invest in India, has been operational. MUST READ: Prioritise trade pact with GCC SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Election Commission of India Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Election Commission of India provided an alternative facility of postal ballots to the elderly aged, disabled and Corona-infected. Background:- In the upcoming polls of five States, the Election Commission of India has provided the alternative facility of postal ballot to the elderly aged 80 years and above, the disabled and Corona-infected voters. Postal Voting:- A restricted set of voters can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting. Members of the armed forces like the Army, Navy and Air Force, members of the armed police force of a state (serving outside the state), government employees posted outside India and their spouses are entitled to vote only by post. Voters under preventive detention can also vote only by post. Special voters such as the President of India, Vice President, Governors, Union Cabinet ministers, Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty have the option to vote by post. About the Election Commission of India:- The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25 January 1950. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission. Constitutional Provisions:- Its powers, appointment and duties are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act. Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission. Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. Article 326: Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to legislature. Article 328: Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature. Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. Composition of Election Commission:- Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision-making power by majority vote. Appointment, Tenure and Privileges of Commissioners:- The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. ( Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs) They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament. Removal of Election Commissioners:- They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2017) In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gudavi bird sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Several birds died at the Gudavi bird sanctuary. Background:- In a span of seven days, more than 30 birds, including spoonbills, herons, and black-headed ibis, were found dead. About Gudavi Bird Sanctuary:- Location: Shimoga District, Gudavi Bird Sanctuary is a protected area. This sanctuary is known for its rich avian diversity and is an important habitat for both resident and migratory birds. It is situated around the Gudavi Lake. During the 1960s, the Gudavi Lake and its surrounding wetlands began to gain recognition for their ecological importance as a habitat for various bird species. The Gudavi Bird Sanctuary was initially notified on 10.07.1989 and subsequently it took its birth as an independent Bird Sanctuary upon final notification on 04.09.2000. Flora: consists of aquatic plants, wetland vegetation, and surrounding vegetation that provide a suitable habitat for a diverse range of bird species. Fauna: Jungle Cat, Palm Civet, Spotted Deer, Mongoose, etc. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) Birds: Birds: Grey Heron, Night Heron, Little Cormorant, Junglefowl, Indian Pond Heron, Darter, Indian Shag etc.  MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Bani festival Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, three people lost their lives and more than a hundred were injured in the traditional Banni festival About Bani festival:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. It is celebrated on the night of the Dussehra celebration (Vijaya Dasami) every year. It is a traditional stick-fight. The objective of this event was to snatch the idols from God’s team, leading to a fierce battle known as the Banni Fight. Historical significance: This festival was celebrated by people under the Vijayanagara Empire. At that time, it was even more dangerous; axes and spears were used for the fight. It is celebrated on account of the victory of Lord Mala Malleswara Swamy and Goddess Parvati over demonish Mani and Mallasura, who troubled the people in the Devaragattu region. Process of ritual:- The villages in Kurnool divide themselves into groups and take part in a ritualistic stick fight. After performing prayers and ‘kalyanam’ at the temple, devotees carry the deities inside a thick cloth bag on the shoulders down the hill. A few of the devotees create a ring of security around the idols. As they come down, thousands of lathi-wielding people from the rival group, make a bid to stop the procession from going forward and a bloody battle breaks out. The stick fight between both the groups continues down the hill while these villagers who are generally farmers, walk in a procession with their shirts drenched in blood! The procession continues till dawn with various artistic performances by artists, dancers, singers, and composers happening alongside eventually creating a phenomenal journey. After the procession reaches down, puja is performed and the temple priest slits his thigh to offer a fistful of blood to the deity. Another fierce round of stick fight takes place and the deity of the Lord is then placed at Simhasana katta marking the end of the Bani festival.   MUST READ: Kanwar Yatras SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Mains: INDIA QATAR RELATIONS Context: The recent verdict of the death penalty for eight Indian Navy officials in Qatar has sent shockwaves through diplomatic circles. INDIA-QATAR RELATIONS Historical Relations  India and Qatar have maintained friendly relations for decades. PM Manmohan Singh’s visit to Qatar in 2008 marked a significant turning point, followed by reciprocal visits from the Emir of Qatar and PM Narendra Modi. Economic Relations India is considered to be the fourth largest export destination for the State of Qatar. Qatar’s key exports to India include LNG, LPG, chemicals and petrochemicals, plastics, and aluminum articles. India’s key exports to Qatar include cereals, copper articles, iron and steel articles, vegetables, plastic products, construction material, textiles & garments, etc. Qatar is the largest supplier of liquefied natural gas (LNG) to India. India imports around 70% of its needs for the natural gas from Qatar. Defence Cooperation Defence cooperation is a key component of India-Qatar ties, with the India-Qatar Defence Cooperation Agreement serving as a pivotal milestone. India’s Defence cooperation with Qatar has so far been limited to training, participation in each other’s conferences/events and visits by ships of Indian Navy and Coast Guard. Za’ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) is the naval exercise between Indian and Qatar Navy. Cultural Relations Qatar was a co-sponsor, to India’s Resolution at the United Nations General Assembly, adopted unanimously with a record 177 co-sponsors, declaring 21 June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY). There are 14 Indian schools in Qatar, offering CBSE curricula to over 30,000 students, most of whom are the children of Indian nationals working in Qatar. There is a regular flow of Indian artists performing in Qatar at events organised by community organizations affiliated to the Indian Cultural Centre (ICC). Indian Community Indian community is the largest expatriate group in Qatar which is estimated to be around 700 million people. They are making their contribution in different sectors. Indians are highly respected in Qatar for their sincerity, hard work, technical expertise and law-abiding nature. Indians are employed in almost every local establishment, governmental or private, in various capacities. The remittances which the Indian expatriate community in Qatar send to India are estimated to be around 750 million dollar per annum. The Indian Community Benevolent Forum (ICBF), functioning under the aegis of Embassy of India, Doha – ICBF was awarded Pravasi Bharatiya Samman in January, 2011. IMPORTANCE OF QATAR TO INDIA Expatriate Community: Indians constitute the largest expatriate community in Qatar, with approximately 800,000 individuals working and living there. Remittances: The flow of remittances from Qatar and the safety of Indian citizens make Qatar vital for India’s interests. Energy Security: Qatar is the largest supplier of LNG to India, making it critical for India’s energy security. GCC Membership: Qatar’s membership in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is strategically significant for India, especially concerning issues like Kashmir. UNSC Support: India’s bid for a permanent seat at the United Nations Security Council requires support from countries like Qatar. Business Presence: Several Indian companies, including Tata Consultancy Services Ltd, Wipro, MahindraTech, and Larsen & Toubro Limited, operate in Qatar. Stability in the Gulf: The stability of the Gulf region is of paramount importance to India’s energy and maritime security. CONCLUSION The detention and sentencing of eight Indian nationals in Qatar have posed a complex diplomatic challenge for India. Against the backdrop of India-Qatar relations, this incident underscores the importance of navigating cultural sensitivities and geopolitical dynamics to secure the release of these individuals. AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Syllabus GS III – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Artificial Intelligence (AI) is playing an increasingly significant role in the defense sector, transforming the way military operations are conducted, and improving decision-making, efficiency, and safety. Here are some key areas where AI is being utilized in the defense sector: Autonomous Systems: AI is used to develop autonomous drones, ground vehicles, and maritime vessels for tasks like surveillance, reconnaissance, and logistics. These systems can operate in hazardous environments or carry out repetitive tasks, reducing human risk. Predictive Maintenance: AI is employed to predict equipment failures and conduct preventive maintenance, ensuring that military vehicles and equipment remain operational and reducing downtime. Cybersecurity: AI-powered cyber security tools help defend against cyber threats and attacks. These systems can identify and respond to threats in real-time, protecting sensitive military data and communication. Data Analysis and Intelligence: AI is used for data analysis to sift through vast amounts of information, from satellite imagery to communications intercepts, and extract valuable intelligence. AI can be used to process unused or underused data to provide more actionable intelligence for the Indian armed forces. It will enhance the Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities. Simulation and Training: AI-driven simulations provide realistic training environments for soldiers, pilots, and commanders. These simulations can help personnel develop critical skills in a safe and controlled setting. Biometrics and Identity Verification: AI can be used for biometric identification and verification, helping ensure that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive areas or information. Language Translation and Cross-Cultural Communication: AI-powered translation and communication tools help military personnel interact with foreign populations and allies, aiding in diplomacy and peacekeeping efforts. ADVANTAGES OF AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Safety – Reducing human casualties and risks Adaptability – It can be made adaptable to new threats by constant learning. Improved decision-making – More precise, faster situation assessments and analyses. Emotions – It offsets emotions and prejudices CHALLENGES OF USING AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Prejudices – Prejudices can be inherent through biased algorithms High cost of Implementation – Given the complexity of engineering in building AI technology, these equipment’s are highly expensive. Lack of skill – Requires skilled labour for using the new technologies. Ethical issues- AI can raise questions about the responsibility, accountability, and transparency of military actions and decisions. For example, who is liable if an autonomous weapon causes harm or violates international law? How can we ensure that AI respects human dignity and rights? Cyber-attacks- AI systems are vulnerable to hacking, manipulation, or sabotage by adversaries. Conclusion: It’s worth noting that the adoption of AI in the defense sector raises ethical and legal concerns, such as questions about autonomous weapons, data privacy, and accountability. Many countries and international organizations are working to establish guidelines and regulations for the responsible use of AI in military applications Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISES COUNTRIES 1.Prabal Dostyk India & Kazakhstan 2.Eastern Bridge India & Oman 3.Khanjar India & Kyrgyzstan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Election Commission of India originally had two Chief Election Commissioners. Statement-II: The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the PM-JAY, consider the following statements: It only covers 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and medicines. There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender. All pre–existing conditions are not covered from day one. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Shi Yan 6 Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, a Chinese research ship, Shi Yan 6 docked at Colombo port. Background:- The Chinese research vessel ‘Shi Yan 6’ has stirred concerns due to its visit to Sri Lanka, with both the US and India voicing objections. Shi Yan 6 was given permission to enter the (Colombo) port for replenishment. US Under Secretary Victoria Nuland, who met Sri Lankan Foreign Minister Ali Sabry in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly session, had reportedly raised concerns about the visit of ‘SHI YAN 6’. Reasons behind India’s Object to Chinese Vessels Docking in Sri Lanka:- India’s objection to Chinese vessels docking in Sri Lanka stems from security concerns. (India-Sri Lanka relations) India perceives Chinese ships in close proximity to its mainland as potential security threats, suspecting espionage activities even when their stated purpose is scientific research. This apprehension has led to objections to Chinese vessels docking in Sri Lankan ports. China’s Statement on the matter:- China has maintained that the marine scientific research activities of Yuan Wang 5 and similar vessels align with international law and common practice and do not jeopardize the security or economic interests of any country. Sri Lanka’s Response:- In response to the US’ concerns, the Sri Lankan Foreign Minister emphasized Sri Lanka’s commitment to neutrality. ( Sri Lanka’s India First Policy) About Shi Yan 6:- Shi Yan 6 is a Chinese Research/Survey Vessel. It has a carrying capacity of 1115 DWT (deadweight tonnage). Its current draught is reported to be 5.3 meters. It has an overall length of 90.6 meters and a width of 17 meters. This three-month voyage seeks to gather extensive fundamental data. It aims to study and uncover how dynamic processes impact the biogeochemical cycles, ecosystems, and sedimentary processes in the region. It wants to elucidate the geographical patterns of biodiversity, understand the response of biological communities to physical processes and gain insights into paleoclimate changes. MUST READ: India-Sri Lanka: Colombo Port SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America NASA’s Roman Space Telescope Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that NASA is preparing to embark on a remarkable journey into the depths of our Milky Way Galaxy using the Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope. Background:- It will scan the vast expanse of space, searching for subtle signals and telltale flickers that could unlock secrets about the cosmos . About NASA’s Roman Space Telescope:- Planned launch: 2027. Agency: NASA. Country: USA. The Roman Space Telescope is a NASA observatory designed to unravel the secrets of dark energy and dark matter, search for and image exoplanets, and explore many topics in infrared astrophysics. It has a 2.4m telescope, the same size as Hubble’s, but with a view 100 times greater than Hubble’s. It was the top-ranked large space mission in the 2010 Decadal Survey of Astronomy and Astrophysics. It is slated to launch in the mid-2020s. It has a field of view that is 100 times greater than the Hubble infrared instrument, capturing more of the sky with less observing time. It will have a primary mission lifetime of 5 years, with a potential 5-year extended mission. (Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope)  MUST READ: SARAS radio telescope SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Calixcoca Vaccine Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Brazil scientists developed a new ‘vaccine’ Calixcoca” Vaccine, for cocaine addiction. About“Calixcoca” Vaccine:- Calixcoca’, is a therapeutic vaccine that promises to prevent the addictive effects of cocaine or crack.( Drug Addiction) It is offering new hope to millions battling cocaine addiction worldwide. (mRNA Vaccine) Working:- Calixcoca functions by inducing an immune response that generates antibodies capable of binding to cocaine molecules in the bloodstream. This binding process results in the enlargement of cocaine molecules, rendering them too large to pass into the brain’s “reward centre” or mesolimbic system. This area of the brain is typically stimulated by cocaine to release dopamine, the pleasure-inducing neurotransmitter. Consequently, individuals who receive the vaccine will not experience the desired euphoric effects of cocaine, potentially assisting them in breaking the cycle of addiction. Furthermore, it reduces the risk of overdose as cocaine molecules are retained in the blood, bound to the antibodies, and thus, unable to act on the heart or arteries. Following encouraging results in animal trials, Calixcoca is poised to enter the next phase of development, which involves human trials. Calixcoca is designed for recovering addicts who have already discontinued cocaine use and are seeking assistance in maintaining their sobriety. Significance:- Despite the alarming rise in cocaine and crack addiction, there are no approved medications specifically for treating this problem. The development of the Calixcoca vaccine, therefore, is a beacon of hope for an effective medical intervention.  MUST READ: ‘ZyCov-D’ vaccine SOURCE: BANGALORE MIRROR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Operation Chakra II Syllabus    Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has recently launched , Operation Chakra II. Background:- ‘Operation Chakra-2’, was initiated after the registration of five separate cases of cyber-enabled financial fraud, including a ₹100-crore crypto scam. About Operation Chakra II:- Launched by: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Objective: To fight against transnationally organized cyber-enabled financial crimes in India. It aims to tackle transnational organized cyber-enabled financial crimes within India. (CBI and its troubles) These crimes often involve fraudulent activities conducted online . The CBI has partnered with technology giants Microsoft and Amazon, as well as with national and international law enforcement agencies. Some of the agencies involved include the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) in the United States, INTERPOL’s Cyber Crime Directorate and IFCACC, the National Crime Agency (NCA) in the United Kingdom. These collaborations are aimed at combating and dismantling the infrastructure of illegal call centres involved in these crimes.  MUST READ: Cybercrime SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Infantile Hypophosphatasia Syllabus    Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: A child was diagnosed with the rarest of rare diseases Infantile Hypophosphatasia in India recently. Background:- 16-month-old Sera Nile Fay is India’s only known case of Infantile Hypophosphatasia. About Infantile Hypophosphatasia:- It is a rare genetic disease. (Rare Disease) In which the patient’s bones and teeth demineralize, making her fragile and prone to fractures. It is caused by mutations in the ALPL gene. This is the only gene that causes HPP. Genes provide instructions for making proteins that have an important function in the body. When a mutation occurs, the protein may be faulty, inefficient, or absent, as in HPP. Symptoms:- It may have no noticeable abnormalities at birth, but complications become apparent within the first six months of life. Sometimes the skull bones fuse, called craniosynostosis, which can lead to a deformed head. Affected infants have softened, weakened, and deformed bones consistent with rickets. Treatment:- Asfotase alfa is approved (Europe and USA) for enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) in patients with pediatric-onset hypophosphatasia. It is associated with healing of the skeletal manifestations of hypophosphatasia as well as improved respiratory and motor function. MUST READ: Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Air Quality in India Syllabus    GS-III As per the data released by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in Delhi, the air quality was in the ‘moderate’ category in several areas. Meanwhile, for past few days, the AQI of the financial capital of India remained ‘poor’, according to System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (Safar). Air pollution in India has reached critical levels, posing severe threats to human health and the environment. PRIMARY CAUSESOF AIR POLLUTION IN INDIA Vehicular Emissions: Vehicles are one of the major sources of air pollution in India, especially in urban areas. According to a study by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), vehicles contribute to 40% of PM2.5 emissions in Delhi, 30% in Mumbai, 28% in Kolkata, and 20% in Bengaluru. Industrial Chimney Wastes: Industries are another major contributor to air pollution in India, especially in the northern and eastern regions. These plants emitted sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, lead, mercury, and VOCs, which can cause acid rain, smog, climate change, and health problems. Burning Fossil Fuels: Power plants, factories, and households that use coal, oil, or natural gas as fuel also contribute to air pollution in India by emitting greenhouse gasses. According to the World Bank Group, India is the third-largest emitter of CO2 in the world, after China and the United States. Agricultural Activities: Farming practices such as burning crop residues, using fertilizers and pesticides, and raising livestock also produce air pollution in India. According to a study by the IIT Delhi, crop burning contributed to 44% of Delhi’s PM2.5 concentration during the peak pollution season in November 2019. Burning of Garbage Waste: Many people in India dispose of their household waste by burning it in open spaces. This practice releases toxic chemicals and dioxins into the air, which can cause cancer and other diseases. According to a study by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), waste burning contributed to 29% of Delhi’s PM10 concentration during the winter season in 2018. CHALLENGES IN ADDRESSING AIR POLLUTION Diverse Sources: Air pollution originates from a wide range of sources, including industrial activities, transportation, agriculture, energy production, and natural sources. Coordinating efforts to control and reduce pollution from these diverse sources can be challenging. Urbanization: Rapid urbanization in many parts of the world has led to increased vehicular traffic, industrial activities, and energy consumption, resulting in concentrated sources of air pollution in urban areas. Industrial Growth: Developing economies often experience rapid industrial growth, which can lead to increased emissions of pollutants. Balancing economic development with pollution control is a delicate challenge. Energy Production: The reliance on fossil fuels for energy production is a significant contributor to air pollution. Transitioning to cleaner and more sustainable energy sources presents challenges in terms of infrastructure and policy changes. International Cooperation: Air pollution knows no boundaries, and pollutants can travel across borders. Effective cooperation between countries is necessary to address transboundary pollution and to reduce the global impact of air pollution. Technological Challenges: Developing and implementing advanced pollution control technologies can be costly and technically challenging, especially for older industries and infrastructure. Public Awareness and Behavior: Encouraging individuals to adopt cleaner practices, such as reducing vehicle emissions or using energy-efficient appliances, can be difficult. Public awareness and behavior change campaigns are needed. CONCLUSION The battle against air pollution in India is not just about improving the air quality we breathe, it is a fight for public health, environmental sustainability, and the well-being of future generations. Collaboration at local, national, and international levels is essential to make meaningful progress in reducing air pollution and its associated health and environmental impacts. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Vaccine Diseases 1.Dengue Dengvaxia 2.Tuberclosis Mosquirix 3.Malaria COVAXIN How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Operation Chakra II is launched by NIA. Statement-II : It aims to tackle transnational organized cyber-enabled financial crimes within India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Shi Yan 6 , consider the following statements: It has an overall length of 90.6 meters and a width of 17 meters. It seeks to gather extensive fundamental data. It aims to study and uncover how dynamic processes impact the biogeochemical cycles, ecosystems, and sedimentary processes in the region. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) 37th National Games Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: The 37th National Games will be held in Margao. He will also address athletes taking part in the Games. About 37th  National Games:- Time period: 25 October- 9th November,2023. Venue: Margao, Goa. The National Games are being held in Goa for the first time. The Games will conclude on 9th November. More than 10 thousand athletes from across the country will compete in over 43 sports disciplines across 28 venues. The National Games of India stand as a prestigious multi-sport event. Often referred to as the “Indian Olympics,” these games serve as a dynamic platform for athletes from every corner of India to come together, and compete across various sports disciplines. (Indian Olympic Association) Beyond the medals and accolades, the National Games nurture young talent, promote unity, and instil a sense of pride across the country. Historical Background:- The roots of the National Games trace back to the early 1920s when India sent its first national Olympic team to the 1920 Antwerp Olympics, marking a pivotal moment in the nation’s sporting history. The inaugural Indian Olympic Games took place in February 1924 in Delhi, serving as a crucial event to select athletes for the 1924 Paris Olympics. A provisional Indian Olympic Committee (IOA) was established to oversee this event. The Olympic Games were eventually rechristened as the National Games during the 9th edition, held in Bombay in 1940. The IOA recognized the National Games as a concept to foster sports development and the Olympic movement in India. During the British colonial era, the Indian Olympic Games were held 12 times until 1946. Organizing Authority:- The National Games are a collaborative effort between the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and the respective state governments. Each edition of the games is hosted by a different Indian state. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Hurricane Otis Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Hurricane Otis recently made landfall on the coast of southern Mexico. Background:- In Mexico, Hurricane Otis has made landfall on the coast of southern of the country, bringing wind speeds of up to 270 kilometres per hour. About Hurricane Otis:- Hurricane Otis had strengthened rapidly, going from a tropical storm to a Category 5 hurricane in 12 hours, catching many off guard. Otis also became the first Category 5 landfall for the East Pacific, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s Hurricane Database, surpassing the 2015 Hurricane Patricia, which made landfall as a Category 4 storm. This made Otis the fastest intensifying hurricane in the Eastern Pacific since 1966. (Naming of Cyclone) About Hurricane:- Hurricanes are tropical storms that form in the Atlantic Ocean. Wind speeds: at least 119 kilometres (74 miles) per hour. Hurricanes derive their energy from the heat released when moist air rises and condenses into clouds and rain. Key characteristics of hurricanes:- Hurricanes form over warm ocean waters when the sea surface temperature is typically above 26 degrees Celsius (79 degrees Fahrenheit). Low-Pressure Centre: Hurricanes have a well-defined centre of low atmospheric pressure, known as the eye. Strong Winds: winds can reach sustained speeds of at least 74 miles per hour (119 kilometres per hour) or higher. Heavy Rainfall. MUST READ: Climate Change fuelling Hurricanes SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Curcuma kakchingense Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new flowering plant species Curcuma kakchingense was discovered in Manipur. About Curcuma kakchingense:- Location: Kakching district, Manipur. It was found dwelling along the bank of the Sekmai River of Kakching district. It has been named Curcuma kakchingense, in honour of the place where it was found. The species has a close resemblance to C. phrayawan and C. longa but is distinguished by having lemon-yellow coloured rhizomes with a very bitter taste, and glabrous dark reddish-brown bladeless sheaths. It has reddish-brown petioles fading towards the edges. It has densely pubescent coma and upper fertile bracts on both surfaces with mucronate tips. It is a broadly ovate bracteole, elongated and revolute apex of the middle lobe of the labellum. It has a stigma protruding through the anther lobes. Significance:- Curcuma is important for its use in cuisines, traditional medicines, spices, dyes, perfumes, cosmetics, and as ornamental plants. Therefore, the discovery of a new species of Curcuma will definitely open up new vistas for investigation of their phytochemistry, biological activity and application in the development of new nutraceuticals or pharmaceutical novelties. MUST READ: Lakadong Turmeric SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the meeting of the 43rd edition of Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) recently. About Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI):- Launched: 2015. Designed by: PMO with the National Informatics Centre. PRAGATI is the ICT-based multi-modal platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. (Global Digital Governance) Objectives:- Project implementation Project monitoring Grievance redressal Salient Features:- The PRAGATI system is an interactive and integrated platform chiefly established to consider the grievances of the common man. It is a 3-tier system including PM, Secretaries of the GOI, and State Chief Secretaries. Through this platform, several government projects and programs /schemes will be monitored. Through this platform, different secretaries of the GOI and the States’ Chief Secretaries, along with the Prime Minister discussed several issues. The PM holds monthly meetings with the secretaries and Chief Secretaries through this platform. Through this platform, PM also discusses the issues concerning the projects and is also presented with the ground-level situation.  MUST READ: 34th PRAGATI interaction held SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only Udangudi Panangarupatti Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE/GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Udangudi Panangarupatti got the GI tag. Background:- Udangudi ‘Panangkarupatti’ (palm jaggery/ gur) has been given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. The application for this was filed by Tirunelveli District Palmyrah Products Cooperative Federation Limited and Patent Information Centre, Tamil Nadu State Council for Science and Technology. About Udangudi Panangarupatti:- Location: Udangudi, Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu. The karupatti prepared from the palm sap from the region around Udangudi in Tiruchendur taluk in Thoothukudi district has some uniqueness. Unlike many other areas where chemical additives like triple super phosphate and phosphoric acid are used, Udangudi Panangkarupatti is made without the inclusion of any chemical additives. This is due to the presence of red sand dune soil found in the region. This soil holds less groundwater. (Groundwater extraction) The moisture content in the atmosphere is less because of the dry climatic condition, which leads to high sucrose content, in turn adding taste. The region’s dry climate is suitable for storage of karupatti for a longer duration. The production process involves the collection of palm sap (padhaneer) drop by drop into small earthen pots. This sap is collected during specific months, from March-April to June-July. The collected sap is then boiled in large vessels. Castor seeds are used as an antifoaming agent, and scum is removed during the boiling process. As the temperature reaches a certain range, the jaggery thickens and changes colour, eventually solidifying into ‘Karuppukatti’ in coconut shells. Udangudi jaggery was even exported to foreign countries, including Sri Lanka, Malaysia and Singapore. Moreover, Madurai and Tirunelveli had more than 500 wholesale dealers for Udangudi jaggery.  MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 David's Sling Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Israel recently confirmed using its David’s Sling air-defence system to intercept a Hamas rocket. About David’s Sling:- David’s Sling is a highly sophisticated and state-of-the-art anti-missile defence system. It is also sometimes called Magic Wand. It was developed jointly by Rafael Advanced Defence Systems, an Israeli defence contractor, and Raytheon, an American defence contractor. The system is designed to intercept various types of missiles that may be fired towards Israel by hostile countries. At the core of David’s Sling lies the “Stunner” or “SkyCeptor,” an advanced multi-mission interceptor. This cutting-edge technology is capable of effectively countering a wide array of threats. It makes it lethal, flexible, and affordable for dealing with mass raids of enemy missiles and rockets. David’s Sling achieved operational status in April 2017. It plays a critical role in Israel’s theatre missile defence system. It complements other systems like Arrow 2, Arrow 3, Iron Dome, and Iron Beam. It is aimed to fill an operational gap between Iron Dome, which shoots down short-range rockets, and Arrow, which shoots down long-range ballistic missiles, both are already in use. MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: THE NEW YORK TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Mains: DAM SAFETY IN INDIA Syllabus    GS III – INFRASTRUCTURE CAUSES OF DAM FAILURE Overtopping, usually caused by floods that exceed the capacity of the dam Structural failure of materials used in dam construction Inadequate maintenance and upkeep Movement and/or failure of the foundation supporting the dam Settlement and cracking of concrete or embankment dams Piping and internal erosion of soil in embankment dams Deliberate acts of sabotage DAMS REGULATION IN INDIA Dam Safety Act 2021– It aims to prevent dam failure related disasters and provide for institutional mechanisms for surveillance, inspection, operation and maintenance of the specified dams. Central Water Commission (CWC) – It provides technical expertise and guidance on all matters related to dams. Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP)- It was launched in 2012 with World Bank assistance to improve the safety and operational performance of selected dams, coupled with institutional strengthening through a system wide management approach. National Centre for Earthquake Safety of Dam- Located in Malaviya National Institute of Technology (MNIT), Jaipur, Rajasthan, it is an initiative of Ministry of Jal Shakti towards effective implementation of Dam Safety Act 2021. Efforts of States- Under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution, water and water storage is a state subject. Therefore legislating dam safety is the responsibility of state governments. Bihar was the 1st State to enact the Dam Safety Act in 2006. NEED OF DAM REGULATION Ageing of Dams: As the dams become old, their design and hydrology do not remain at par with the latest understanding and practices. Huge siltation is taking place as a result of which the water holding capacity of dams is getting reduced. Dependent on Dam Managers: The regulation of dams is entirely dependent upon individual dam managers. There is no proper system and understanding in terms of the downstream water requirement. Other factors: Dam safety is dependent upon other factors such as landscape, land-use change, patterns of rainfall, structural features, etc. Failures: In the absence of a proper dam safety framework, shortcomings may get involved in the investigation, design, construction, operation, and maintenance of dams which might lead to serious incidents and sometimes dam failure. CONCLUSION The recent catastrophe in Sikkim have shown how important dam safety regulations are and how it depends on many external factors such as ecology, hydrology, etc. Hence a holistic approach is the need of the hour in which experts from all the concerned areas should be involved. Furthermore, building large dams is proving to be a more environmentally damaging and costly affair than the gains it provides, hence ecological sensitivity should be taken into consideration from now onwards. FEW FACTS ABOUT DAMS Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India built on Bhagirathi River. Hirakud Dam in Odisha built on river Mahanadi is the longest dam of India. Kallanai Dam in Tamil Nadu is the oldest dam of India. It is built on the Kaveri River and is about 2000 years old. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Cyclone Location 1.Biparjoy Arabian Sea 2.Asani Bay of Bengal 3.Hamoon Arabian Sea How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : David’s Sling achieved operational status in April 2017. Statement-II : It replaces other systems like Arrow 2, Arrow 3, Iron Dome, and Iron Beam. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Games, consider the following statements: They identify and nurture exceptional talent for national and international competitions. The 37th National Games are being held in Pune, Maharashtra. They promote physical fitness, healthy competition, and sportsmanship among India’s diverse population. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hunter's Moon Lunar Eclipse Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Hunter’s Moon Lunar Eclipse is predicted to be seen on October 28th,2023. Background:- The “Hunter’s Moon” will officially be 100% illuminated at 3:35 p.m. EST on Saturday, October 28, 2023. About Hunter’s Moon Lunar Eclipse:- The Hunter’s Moon is one of the many names given to the full moons throughout the year. Each of these names have its own unique cultural and historical significance. Historical Significance:- Rooted in Native American, Colonial American, and other traditional North American cultures, the names of these moons were used to track the changing seasons and were adopted by colonial settlers. The Hunter’s Moon follows the Harvest Moon, which is the full moon closest to the autumnal equinox. Naming:- Historically, the Harvest Moon allowed farmers to work late into harvesting their crops by the moon’s light. Once the harvest was completed, the Hunter’s Moon would rise signaling a time when game would be fattened and hunted to store for the winter. This moon was a beacon for hunters to begin stocking up for the colder months ahead. Features:- The Hunter’s Moon can sometimes appear red or orange in color, due to the way that sunlight is scattered by the Earth’s atmosphere. This is especially common when the moon is low in the sky, such as during sunrise and sunset. This year’s Hunter’s Moon” will look both more colorful and larger than it will at any other time of night. It will only for about 15 minutes. It will also be more impactful because it’s being viewed in twilight, not darkness. Europe and Africa will be the best placed to see watch the entire event, but it’s a very slight partial lunar eclipse. At the peak of the event about 6% of the full moon will be inside Earth’s dark central shadow . It may look like a small bite has been taken from it. However, as it drifts through Earth’s lighter, outer penumbral shadow it will mostly just seem less bright than usual. About Lunar Eclipse:- An eclipse happens when a planet or a moon gets in the way of the sun’s light. (Eclipses ) A lunar eclipse occurs when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align so that the Moon passes into Earth’s shadow. In the Lunar Eclipse, the Earth arrives in between the sun and the moon. In this way, the shadow of the earth falls on the moon. The lunar eclipse can only happen during the Full Moon. But, the orbits of the moon and earth are different. That’s why the lunar eclipse happens only up to 3-4 times a year. There are three types of lunar eclipses: Total lunar eclipses, partial lunar eclipses, and penumbral lunar eclipses. Total lunar eclipse: entire Moon falls within the darkest part of Earth’s shadow, called the umbra. When the Moon is within the umbra, it will turn a reddish hue. Lunar eclipses are sometimes called “Blood Moons” because of this phenomenon. Partial lunar eclipse: An imperfect alignment of Sun, Earth and Moon results in the Moon passing through only part of Earth’s umbra. The shadow grows and then recedes without ever entirely covering the Moon. Penumbral eclipse: The Moon travels through Earth’s penumbra, or the faint outer part of its shadow. The Moon dims so slightly that it can be difficult to notice  MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn World Development Information Day Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, the United Nations (UN) celebrated the World Development Information Day. About World Development Information Day:- IMAGE SOURCE: AIR Established :1972. Date: 24th, October. Objective: to draw the attention of the world to development problems and the need to strengthen international cooperation to solve them. Historical Background:- The UN Conference on Trade and Development proposed measures for information dissemination and public opinion mobilization regarding trade and development problems on May 17, 1972. This came to be known as resolution 3038 (XXVII). This Resolution was passed by the UN General Assembly in 1972 to institute World Development Information Day on October 24. Salient Features:- The day also coincides with the adoption of the ‘International Development Strategy’ for the Second United Nations Development Decade in 1970. The purpose of this day is to highlight global development challenges and the importance of international cooperation in addressing these issues. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) believes that by enhancing information dissemination and public opinion mobilization, we can raise greater awareness about development issues, particularly among the younger generation. In this article, we’ll delve into the history and significance of this important day. This day coincides with the United Nations Day, celebrated to commemorate the day UN began operating in 1945. (Need for Reforms in UN) Significance:- The day aims to explain to the general public why it is necessary to strengthen international cooperation to solve development problems.  MUST READ: Right to Information (RTI) Act SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship PM SVANidhi scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government schemes Context: Recent reports suggest that, 75% of beneficiaries of PM SVANidhi scheme come from non-general category with OBCs accounting for 44%. Background:- An SBI research report has praised the Modi government’s micro-credit PM SVANidhi scheme for street vendors for ensuring inclusive entrepreneurship. The report said, that the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes account for 22 percent of the total disbursement of the PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme and 43 percent of the total beneficiaries are women. The SBI report said that female share indicates empowerment of entrepreneurial capabilities of urban females, giving SVANidhi a gender equaliser tag. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- Launched in 2020. (PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. Extension of the scheme:- It has been extended till December 2024. This was done with a focus on enhanced collateral-free affordable loan corpus, increased adoption of digital transactions and holistic socio-economic development of the Street Vendors and their families. Introduction of 3rd loan of upto ₹50,000 in addition to 1st & 2nd loans of ₹10,000 and ₹20,000 respectively was also introduced. Features of the scheme:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000. This loan is repayable in monthly instalments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan, making it more accessible to street vendors. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis. Early repayment: There will be no penalty on early repayment of the loan. Additional benefits: The vendors can avail of the facility of escalation of the credit limit on timely/ early repayment of a loan. Credit limit: the maximum amount of credit a financial institution extends to a client on a credit card or a line of credit. Target beneficiaries under the scheme:- This scheme targets to benefit Street Vendors. A vendor, according to the scheme guidelines is any person engaged in vending of articles, goods, wares, food items in a street, footpath, pavement or moving from place to place. Goods supplied: vegetables, fruits, ready-to-eat street food, tea, pakodas, apparel, artisan products, books/ stationary etc. Services provided: barber shops, cobblers, pan shops, laundry services etc. Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched)  MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)chief Somnath said that the space agency will prefer woman fighter test pilots for its Gaganyaan mission. Background:- He also said ISRO would send a female humanoid – a robot that resembles a human – in its unmanned Gaganyaan spacecraft next year. About Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):- Establishment: 1969. Agency: Department of Space (DOS). HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Objective: to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Historic Background:- ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. Salient Features:- ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of Government of India. The organization is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and the mankind. ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. Functions: Space Science & Exploration Satellites. Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. ISRO Milestones:- The first Indian-made sounding rocket was the RH-75 (Rohini-75). The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. Development of the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into geostationary orbits. (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite) ISRO also launched the first IRS (remote-sensing satellite) in 1988. ISRO launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan I in 2008. In January 2014, ISRO used an indigenously built cryogenic engine for a GSLV-D5 launch of the GSAT-14 satellite making it one of the only six countries in the world to develop a cryogenic technology. It also launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2014. India launched Chandrayaan-2, its second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1 on 22nd July 2019. India launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. MUST READ: Shukrayaan I SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Vaishno Devi shrine Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: As per recent reports, the number of pilgrims visiting Mata Vaishno Devi shrine in J&K this year crosses 80 lakh mark. About Vaishno Devi shrine:- Location: Jammu and Kashmir. The shrine is a religious pilgrimage atop the Trikuta hills in Reasi district of Jammu region. The Vaishno Devi temple is one of the 108 Shakti Peethas dedicated to Durga. Although Vaishno Devi was discovered many centuries ago, but only in 1846 it was founded in the real sense by Maharaja Gulab Singh. It is one of the most visited Hindu pilgrimage sites in India. This temple is popular worldwide as it is believed that “Moonh Maangi Muradein Poori Karne Wali Mata”, the deity here, fulfils whatever her believers wish for. This holy cave is located at an altitude of 5,200 feet . The pilgrims have to undertake a trek of almost 12 km starting from Katra. Upon reaching the Bhawan, pilgrims are blessed with the darshans of the goddess inside the Sanctum Sanctorum, i.e. the Holy Cave. In this cave, the goddess is in the shape of three natural rock formations, also known as “Pindies”. It is important to note here that there are no statues or idols inside the Cave. Darshans to this holy deity are open round the clock throughout the year. (Puri Jagannath Temple)  MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Bishan Singh Bedi Syllabus    Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Bishan Singh Bedi, former India spinner, captain and coach, passed away at 77 years old in Delhi. About Bishan Singh Bedi:- Birth: 25 September 1946. Birth place: Punjab. Death: 23 October 2023. Bedi was one India’s iconic spin bowling combination that also featured BS Chandrasekhar and S Venkataraghavan. He made his debut against West Indies in 1966 and played his last Test against England at The Oval in 1979. Bedi, who represented Delhi in domestic cricket, held the remarkable feat of being the highest wicket-taker among Indian players in First-Class cricket, amassing a staggering 1,560 wickets in 370 matches. He played 67 Tests for India between 1967 and 1979. He took 266 wickets in his illustrious career. He also captained the national side in 22 Test matches. He was central to India’s first ODI win when he registered figures of 12-8-6-1 to restrict East Africa to 120 in a 1975 World Cup match. He was an integral part of a famed quartet of India’s world-beating spin bowlers in the 1960s and 70s, which included Erapalli Prasanna, Bhagwat Chandrasekhar and Srinivas Venkataraghavan. Awards:- In 2021, Bedi was picked by readers for a place in BBC Sport’s all-time India Test XI. He was awarded the Padma Shri award in 1970. He was awarded the K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award in 2004.  MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS   PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023 Syllabus    Prelims –Defence Context: A joint bilateral training exercise “Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023”, between the Indian and Malaysian Armies commenced recently. About Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023:- Venue: Umroi Cantonment, India. It is a joint bilateral training exercise between Indian & Malaysian Armed Forces. Objective: to enhance military capability for conducting of Multi Domain Operations in a sub conventional scenario. The Malaysian Army contingent, comprising troops from the 5th Royal Battalion of the Malaysian Army, joins hands with the Indian contingent represented by a battalion of THE RAJPUT REGIMENT. This exercise is a follow-up to the previous edition held in Pulai, Kluang, Malaysia, in November 2022. Activities:- During the exercise, both contingents will establish a Joint Command Post and an integrated surveillance grid, alongside a Joint Surveillance Centre. The training will focus on coordinated deployment of joint forces in various environments, including jungles, semi-urban, and urban areas. Intelligence collection, collation, and dissemination exercises will also be conducted. The exercise will incorporate modern technology, including Drones/UAVs and Helicopters. Special attention will be given to casualty management and evacuation drills. Logistics management and survival training at the battalion level are crucial components of the training program. Significance:- Exercise Harimau Shakti” represents a significant effort to enhance defense cooperation between the Indian Army and the Malaysian Army. MUST READ: Indian Ocean Naval Symposium SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America POLITICIZATION OF BUREAUCRACY Syllabus    GS II – GOVERNANCE Politicization of bureaucracy refers to the dilution of the principle of non-partisanship and implies politically committed bureaucracy. This is the phenomenon in which government agencies and civil servants become influenced by, or involved in, political activities and decisions to an extent that may compromise their neutrality, objectivity, and effectiveness. While some level of interaction between politics and bureaucracy is inevitable in any democratic system, an excessive or inappropriate politicization of the bureaucracy can lead to several issues. VALUES INVOLVED IN THE CASE Political neutrality and impartiality Integrity and probity Courage of conviction Following the code of conduct Legal responsibility CONSEQUENCES WITH POLITICIZATION OF BUREAUCRACY Compromise with Neutrality and Objectivity: Bureaucracies are expected to be neutral and objective in implementing government policies and programs. When bureaucrats become too politically aligned, it can undermine their ability to act impartially and make decisions in the best interest of the public. Erosion of Merit-Based Hiring: In an ideal bureaucracy, hiring and promotions are based on merit and qualifications rather than political connections. Excessive politicization can lead to the appointment of individuals based on their political loyalties rather than their competency, which can harm the efficiency and effectiveness of the bureaucracy. Inefficient Decision-Making: When political considerations drive bureaucratic decisions, it may lead to policies and actions that are driven by short-term political gains rather than long-term public interests. This can result in inefficient, inconsistent, or contradictory decision-making. Lack of Accountability: Politicization can make it difficult to hold bureaucrats accountable for their actions, as they may be shielded by political allies or supporters. This lack of accountability can undermine transparency and public trust in government institutions. Partisanship: Bureaucratic agencies should ideally serve the interests of the public and not be driven by partisan politics. Excessive politicization can lead to a situation where different administrations or political parties seek to use the bureaucracy to further their own agendas, leading to inconsistency and instability in policies and administration. Public Distrust: When people perceive that bureaucracy is being used for political purposes, it can erode public trust in government institutions. This distrust can have negative consequences for social cohesion and the functioning of a democratic system. WAY FORWARD To make an individual high on integrity, it is necessary to provide him with ethical training that will inspire him to improve governance. The moral education will surely ensure that this takes place A dedicated unit to oversee violations of the Code of Ethics & Code of conduct by government officials be set up both at the state and center level. RESTORING THE ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF THE HIMALAYAS Syllabus         GS III – ENVIRONMENT The environmental devastation caused in the Himalayan States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim has reinvigorated the debate on the “carrying capacity’ of the regions. Carrying capacity refers to the maximum sustainable population size an ecosystem can support without significant harm. It’s crucial for balancing human activities with environmental preservation. IMPORTANCE OF ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF HIMALAYAS Biodiversity Hub: The Himalayas host diverse flora and fauna, making the region crucial for the conservation of numerous endemic and endangered species. Water Source for Asia: As the “Water Tower of Asia,” the Himalayas contribute to major river systems, providing water to millions downstream, emphasizing the importance of ecological health. Climate Regulation: The Himalayas play a pivotal role in global climate regulation, influencing weather patterns, monsoons, and serving as a natural buffer against the impacts of climate change. Energy Security- Almost 33% of the country’s thermal electricity and 52% of its hydro power is dependent on river waters originating in the Himalayas. Cultural and Spiritual Significance: Beyond ecology, the Himalayas hold cultural and spiritual importance, and their ecological well-being is intertwined with the traditional practices and beliefs of local communities. Global Impact: Changes in the Himalayan region, such as glacial melt and altered river flows, can have a global impact. They contribute to rising sea levels, affect regional weather patterns, and have consequences for people and ecosystems far beyond the immediate area. CHALLENGES TO THE ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF HIMALAYAS Climate Change and Glacial Melting- Rising temperatures due to climate change have led to the rapid melting of glaciers triggering Glacial lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) and affected the downstream flow of water. Tectonic activities in the Himalayas- the Himalayas are young, Fold Mountains are prone to tectonic activities. This makes the region prone to natural disasters such as landslides, avalanches, and earthquakes. Soil Erosion and Landslides- Deforestation, construction activities and improper land use practices increase soil erosion and the risk of landslides during heavy rainfall or seismic events. Ex- Recent Landslides in HP during the heavy rainfall. Unsustainable Tourism- Himalayan Mountains are treated only as tourist destinations, ignoring their micro-climate which has led to upset in the natural balance of the Himalayan ecosystem. Ex- Large crowds and jams in Shimla, Manali. Erosion of Cultural Values of Environmental conservation- Traditional Himalayan communities have distinct cultural practices and ways of life closely tied to their natural surroundings. However, Unsustainable urbanisation has been led to the erosion of cultural values of environmental conservation. Ex- Movements like Chipko Movement are no longer observed. Growth of Invasive species- The growth of Invasive species in the Himalayan natural ecosystem has disrupted the delicate balance of ecosystem and threatened the survival of native species. Ex- Clusters of purple flowers (Cirsium arvense), mats of white clover (Trifolium repens) and small tumbleweed mustard with bright yellow flowers (Sisymbrium loeselii) are the threatening invasive species of the Himalayas. Improper Waste Management- The slopes of HimalayanMountains have been dumped with garbage which has affected the natural flora and fauna balance of the Himalayan ecosystem. CONCLUSION The imperative for sustainable development in the Himalayan region requires a comprehensive assessment of carrying capacity. The Supreme Court’s intervention serves as a catalyst for a people-centric, inclusive, and holistic approach, emphasizing long-term environmental health and citizen involvement. With united efforts we will restore Himalayan glory again Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES 1.Dharma Guardian India & Nepal 2.SIMBEX India & Singapore 3.Table Top India & Bangladesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Vaishno Devi shrine is a religious pilgrimage atop the Trikuta hills Statement-II : The Vaishno Devi temple is one of the 108 Shakti Peethas dedicated to Laxmi. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), consider the following statements: It was established in 1969. The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. It launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here