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[DAY 31] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th April 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CHETTUR SANKARAN NAIR Category: HISTORY Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi attacked the Congress for having “abandoned” the memory of Chettur Sankaran Nair, who resigned as the sole Indian on the Viceroy’s Executive Council after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919. Decoding the context: Chettur Sankaran Nair is the subject of an upcoming film called Kesari Chapter 2. The film is an adaptation of the 2019 book, The Case That Shook the Empire: One Man’s Fight for the Truth about the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. Learning Corner: Chettur Sankaran Nair was a prominent Indian jurist, statesman, and nationalist leader during the British Raj, remembered for his bold criticism of British policies and his advocacy for Indian rights. Born on July 11, 1857, in Mankara village, Palakkad district, Malabar (now Kerala), into an aristocratic Chettur family following matrilineal succession. Graduated with an Arts degree (1877) from Presidency College, Madras, and earned a Law degree (1879) from Madras Law College. Served as Public Prosecutor (1899) and Advocate-General of Madras (1906–1908), a rare position for an Indian. Appointed puisne judge at the Madras High Court (1908–1915), contributing landmark judgments: Budasna v. Fatima (1914): Ruled converts to Hinduism cannot be treated as outcastes, promoting social inclusion. Upheld inter-caste and inter-religious marriages, reflecting progressive values. An early member of INC (founded 1885), Nair was elected its President in 1897 at the Amravati session, the youngest ever and the only Malayali to hold the post. Appointed to the Raleigh University Commission (1902) by Lord Curzon, influencing education policy. Viceroy’s Executive Council: Served as Education Member (1915–1919), the only Indian in the council, pushing for constitutional reforms. Supported the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1918), introducing dyarchy for greater Indian participation, though he sought more liberal provisions. Simon Commission (1928): Chaired the Indian Central Committee to cooperate with the Simon Commission, preparing a report reiterating Dominion Status. Role in Jallianwala Bagh Aftermath – Resignation in Protest: As the sole Indian in the Viceroy’s Executive Council, Nair was appalled by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919), where British troops under Reginald Dyer killed hundreds. Resigned in July 1919, protesting the British justification of martial law in Punjab under Michael O’Dwyer, despite advice from Motilal Nehru to stay and reform from within. His resignation shocked the British, leading to the revocation of martial law and amplifying nationalist sentiments. Gandhi and Anarchy (1922): Authored the book, critiquing both Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement (fearing it would lead to disorder) and British repression, especially O’Dwyer’s Punjab policies. Accused O’Dwyer of abetting the massacre, sparking a defamation lawsuit in London (1924). O’Dwyer v. Nair Trial: Sued by O’Dwyer in the King’s Bench, London, Nair faced a biased system.He Lost the case and was ordered to pay £500 in damages; he refused to apologize, choosing principle over compromise. Source : Indian Express ARTICLE 143 Category: POLITY Context: A key takeaway from the Supreme Court’s judgment in the Tamil Nadu Governor case is its observation that when a Governor reserves a Bill for the President’s assent on grounds of perceived unconstitutionality, the President ought to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion. Decoding the context: The Court noted that both the Sarkaria Commission and the Punchhi Commission categorically recommended the President to seek the opinion of this Court under Article 143 in respect of bills that may be apprehended to be patently unconstitutional. Learning Corner: Article 143 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to seek advisory opinions from the Supreme Court on matters of public importance. This advisory jurisdiction allows the President to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact. The April 8, 2025 judgement, says that, invoking Article 143, the President “ought to” seek its opinion where the Governor has reserved the Bill for his/her consideration on the ground of “perceived unconstitutionality.” Acknowledging that it’s not mandatory for the government to accept its opinion, the SC added that the same “holds high persuasive value and should ordinarily be accepted by the legislature and the executive” and “merely because the jurisdiction under Article 143 is not binding does not undermine the principles used by this Court to determine the constitutionality of the bill.” The ruling also spoke of the manner in which the SC would exercise its power in case of such a reference.  Ruling said that the court “in such situations…has to be mindful as to whether the reference received from the President under Article 143 pertains to pure legal questions regarding interpretation of the Constitution or questions that are in the nature of a policy consideration. In case of the latter, the Supreme Court, having regard to the relevant facts and circumstances, can refuse to express its advisory opinion upon being satisfied that the questions presented to it are purely socio-economic or political questions and have no relation to the Constitution.” Source : Indian Express DR. B.R. AMBEDKAR Category: HISTORY Context: April 14 marked the birth anniversary of Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar. Decoding the context: Fondly known as Babasaheb, Ambedkar was the chief architect of the Indian Constitution and is thus also called the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution. Ambedkar was also the first Law and Justice minister of Independent India. Learning Corner: Personal Details Born: April 14, 1891, in Mhow, Central Provinces (now Madhya Pradesh). Born into a Mahar (Dalit) family, faced caste discrimination. Died: December 6, 1956, in Delhi; cremated with Buddhist rites at Chaitya Bhoomi, Mumbai. Bharat Ratna: Awarded posthumously in 1990. Education First Dalit student at Elphinstone High School, Bombay Graduation: B.A. in Economics and Political Science (1912), Elphinstone College, University of Bombay. M.A., Ph.D.: Columbia University, New York, USA (1915, 1916; thesis: National Dividend of India). D.Sc.: London School of Economics (1923; thesis: The Problem of the Rupee). Bar-at-Law: Gray’s Inn, London (1923). Scholarships: Supported by Sayajirao Gaekwad III (Baroda ruler) for foreign education. Key Movements: Mahad Satyagraha (1927): Led for Dalits’ right to access Chavdar Tank water in Mahad, Maharashtra. Kalaram Temple Entry (1930): Protest for Dalits’ temple access in Nashik. Poona Pact (1932): Agreement with Gandhi, replacing separate electorates with reserved seats for Depressed Classes in legislatures. Organizations: Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha (1924): For Dalit education and welfare. Independent Labour Party (1936): Political voice for marginalized. Scheduled Castes Federation (1942): Advocated Dalit rights. Conversion to Buddhism:  Embraced Buddhism on October 14, 1956, in Nagpur with 5 lakh followers, rejecting Hinduism’s caste system. Political Contributions Round Table Conferences: Participated in 1st, 2nd, 3rd RTCs (1930–32, London), advocating for Depressed Classes’ representation. Government Roles: Member, Viceroy’s Executive Council (1942–46), handling Labour portfolio. First Law Minister of independent India (1947–51). Role in Constitution-Making: Chairman, Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly. Literary Works Annihilation of Caste (1936): Critique of caste system, undelivered speech for Jat-Pat Todak Mandal. Who Were the Shudras? (1946): Historical analysis of caste origins. The Buddha and His Dhamma (published posthumously, 1957): Guide to Buddhist principles. The Problem of the Rupee (1923): Economic thesis influencing RBI’s formation. Journals: Mooknayak, Bahishkrit Bharat, Janata, Prabuddha Bharat. Economic Contributions RBI Foundation: His book The Problem of the Rupee influenced the Reserve Bank of India (est. 1935). Labour Reforms: As Labour Member, reduced factory hours to 8 hours/day (1942). Advocated for minimum wages and social security. Pioneered Damodar Valley Project (1940s), India’s first multipurpose river valley project. Source : The Hindu GENOME INDIA PROJECT Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The first part of India’s ambitious programme to map the genetic diversity of its people is now complete, and its data are ready to be used.  Decoding the context: The Genome India Project (GIP) has catalogued entire gene sequences of 10,000 individuals from 83 population groups. This database will eventually be expanded significantly, but it is already a precious set of information with important implications in health and medicine. Learning Corner: Genome India Project (GIP) Flagship initiative of the Government of India to catalogue the genetic diversity of India’s population. Launched in 2020, led by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, in collaboration with 20 academic and research institutions. Inspired by the Human Genome Project (HGP), which mapped the human genome globally but lacked sufficient representation of Indian genetic diversity. Significance of GIP Healthcare and Precision Medicine Enables early detection of disease susceptibility (e.g., diabetes, cancers, rare disorders). Facilitates tailored medical treatments — personalized medicine based on a person’s genetic makeup. Useful in developing population-specific drugs. Public Health Policy Helps in epidemiological planning and creating targeted interventions for specific regions or communities. Key for addressing rare diseases, many of which are unique to certain Indian sub-populations. Population Genomics and Anthropology Traces ancestry, migrations, and evolutionary history of various Indian communities. Useful in understanding genetic adaptations to regional environments. Complements studies on population bottlenecks and founder effects in isolated communities. Scientific and Strategic Importance Establishes India’s leadership in genomic science and research. Makes India self-reliant in genomic databases, reducing dependence on Western datasets which lack Indian representation. Opens up opportunities in biotech, pharma, AI-based genomics, and medical research. Source : Indian Express DIRECTED ENERGY WEAPON (DEW) Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the first successful trial of the Mk-II(A) Laser- Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) system took place in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh. Decoding the context: The laser-based weapon system capable of disabling fixed-wing and swarm drones, place India among a select group of countries — alongside the United States, China, and Russia — that possess such advanced directed-energy weapon technology. Learning Corner: A Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) is a ranged weapon that uses highly focused energy—such as lasers, microwaves, particle beams, or sound beams—to damage or destroy targets without physical projectiles.  DEWs offer precision, speed-of-light engagement, and cost-effectiveness compared to traditional kinetic weapons. The Mk-II(A) is a laser-based DEW. Key Characteristics of DEWs: Precision: Engages targets with pinpoint accuracy, minimizing collateral damage. Speed: Operates at the speed of light (approximately 300,000 km/s), enabling near-instantaneous response. Cost-Effectiveness: Costs per shot are minimal, unlike expensive missiles or ammunition. Versatility: Can be tuned to disable, damage, or destroy targets, including electronics and warheads. Mk-II(A) DEW System: Key Features The Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW is a 30-kilowatt vehicle-mounted system developed by DRDO’s Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS) in Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO labs (LRDE, IRDE, DLRL), academic institutions, and Indian industries. Technical Specifications: Power Output: 30 kilowatts, capable of generating a high-energy laser beam to burn through targets. Range: Effective up to 3.5 km, with potential for enhancement through technological advancements. Target Detection: Uses radar or an inbuilt Electro-Optic (EO) system for precise target acquisition. Capabilities: Destroys fixed-wing unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) and drone swarms by causing structural failure. Disables enemy surveillance sensors and antennae, effectively blinding reconnaissance systems. Fully developed in India, showcasing self-reliance in defense technology under Atmanirbhar Bharat. Source : Hindustan Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, consider the following statements: He was the first Dalit to enroll at Elphinstone College in Bombay. He founded the Scheduled Castes Federation before the Independent Labour Party. He resigned from the Cabinet in 1951 as Law Minister due to strong opposition in Parliament to the Hindu Code Bill, which he had championed. His book The Problem of the Rupee played a role in the formation of the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Q2. With reference to the Genome India Project (GIP), consider the following statements: It is a collaborative initiative led by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, to sequence the genetic data of Indian populations. One of its objectives is to aid in the development of population-specific medicines based on genetic data. It primarily focuses on developing genetically modified crops to enhance agricultural productivity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3.With reference to the Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) developed by India, consider the following statements: The Mk-II(A) Laser-DEW is capable of disabling drones and electronic surveillance systems. It has a power output of 30 kilowatts and is effective up to a range of around 3.5 km. It uses microwave radiation to jam enemy communication networks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  14th April  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th April 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) KOCH RAJBONGSHIS Category: NATIONAL Context: The Assam Cabinet announced the withdrawal of around 28,000 pending cases at the state’s Foreigner Tribunals against members of the Koch Rajbongshi community. Decoding the context: Foreigner Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies are tasked with determining whether individuals fall within the definition of a “foreigner” under the Foreigners Act, 1946. Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma said the decision was taken as the state government considered them an “indigenous community”. Learning Corner: The community traces its lineage to the Koch Dynasty of the Kamata Kingdom, which rose to power in the 16th century. Today, its members are spread across Assam and West Bengal, as well as parts of Bihar, Meghalaya, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan, reflecting the geographical spread of the kingdom. In Assam, the community has a significant presence in the western districts. In 2020, the state government created a Kamatapur Autonomous Council for the advancement of the Koch Rajbongshi community. While the community has OBC status in Assam, it is one of six communities that has long been demanding Scheduled Tribe status.  Another demand that gathered steam in the 1990s, though stronger among West Bengal-based groups, has been for a separate Kamatapur state comprising parts of northern West Bengal and western Assam. Citizenship Concerns and “D-voter” Tag: The transborder nature of the community has played a role in the “D-voter” (Doubtful voter) tag being attached to many Koch Rajbongshis, putting a question mark on their citizenship.  Foreigner Tribunals are tasked with adjudicating whether “suspected foreigners” (D-voters and cases referred to them by the border police) are foreigners, that is, people who entered India after March 25, 1971, according to the 1985 Assam Accord. The selective withdrawal of cases against Koch Rajbongshis has raised questions regarding similar relief for other communities. In 2022, the Assam government identified five Assamese Muslim sub-groups—Goriya, Moriya, Julha, Deshi, and Syed—as “indigenous” but has not extended a similar withdrawal of cases against them. Source : Indian Express INDIA-MIDDLE EAST-EUROPE ECONOMIC CORRIDOR (IMEC) Category: INTERNATIONAL Context: India and Italy recently reiterated their commitment to work jointly on the ambitious India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC or the IMEC). Decoding the context: The project was mentioned during talks between External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Italian Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Foreign Affairs, Antonio Tajani, in New Delhi. Learning Corner: The IMEC is a landmark project announced during the G20 Leaders’ event in New Delhi in 2023.  It is aimed at stimulating economic development through enhanced connectivity and economic integration between Asia, the Middle East, and Europe. It will have two separate corridors, the east corridor connecting India to the Arabian Gulf and the northern corridor connecting the Arabian Gulf to Europe, along with a railway route for supplementing trade exchanges between India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, and Europe. India, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, France, Germany, Italy, the European Union and the United States signed an MoU for its development, linked to the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII).  First announced in 2021 during the G7 (or Group of Seven) summit in the UK, the PGII has been billed as an alternative funding source to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Challenges and progress The October 7, 2023 Hamas attack on Israel, and the ensuing Gaza conflict, cast uncertainty over the viability of IMEEC. Heightened tensions in the Middle East pose risks to infrastructure continuity and cooperation. During Prime Minister Modi’s visit to France earlier this year, he, along with French President Emmanuel Macron, visited the port city of Marseille.  President Macron highlighted Marseille’s strategic potential as a primary entry point into the European market, describing IMEC as a “fabulous catalyst” for “concrete projects and investment.”  Source : Indian Express KATHAK Category: ART & CULTURE Context: Celebrated Kathak dancer Kumudini Lakhia, aged 95, passed away in Ahmedabad weeks after receiving the Padma Vibhushan, India’s second-highest civilian award. Decoding the context: Lakhia was hailed for bringing group performances in Kathak, which was largely associated with solo renditions, to the mainstream. Learning Corner: Derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’ (story), Kathak evolved from the tradition of Kathakars—storytellers who narrated mythological tales, primarily from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas, using music, dance, and mime. Historical Roots: Originated in North India, particularly in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and parts of Madhya Pradesh, during the Bhakti movement (8th-12th centuries CE). Evolution: Mughal Influence (16th-19th centuries): Kathak transitioned from temple to royal courts (e.g., Mughal darbars, Rajput palaces), incorporating Persian elements like intricate footwork and spins, patronized by rulers like Akbar and Wajid Ali Shah (Nawab of Awadh). Colonial Decline: British rule marginalized Kathak, labeling it frivolous, pushing it to private settings or courtesan performances (tawaifs). Post-Independence Revival: Recognized as a classical dance in the 1950s, with institutions like Sangeet Natak Akademi and gurus formalizing its pedagogy. Gharanas: Distinct schools shaping Kathak’s style: Lucknow: Emphasizes grace (nazakat), expression (abhinaya), and storytelling. Jaipur: Focuses on vigorous footwork, complex rhythms (taal), and technical precision. Banaras: Balances footwork and narrative, with unique chakkars (spins). Key Features Structure: Nritta: Pure dance with intricate footwork (tatkar), spins (chakkars), and rhythmic patterns, synchronized with percussion (e.g., tabla, pakhawaj). Nritya: Expressive dance conveying emotions (bhava) and stories through facial expressions (abhinaya), hand gestures (mudras), and body movements. Music: Accompanied by Hindustani classical music (e.g., thumri, dadra, ghazal) and instruments like sitar, sarangi, and harmonium. Performance Elements: Signature moves include rapid spins (chakkars), precise footwork (tatkar), and dynamic pauses (tihai). Major Exponents: Bindadin Maharaj (Lucknow Gharana), Wajid Ali Shah, Birju Maharaj. Source : Hindustan Times PHAWNGPUI NATIONAL PARK Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Forest fires that erupted in several parts of Phawngpui National Park, Mizoram, have affected nearly one-ninth of the park’s total area, according to state forest officials. Decoding the context: The fire originated from slash-and-burn (jhum) cultivation near Archhuang village on March 11, 2025, and spread into forest zones of the park. Learning Corner: Establishment: Notified as a National Park in 1997, though often cited as established in 1992 for conservation planning. Area: Covers 50 sq. km, encompassing Phawngpui Peak, Mizoram’s highest point at 2,157 meters above sea level. Location: Situated in Lawngtlai District, southeastern Mizoram, under the Lai Autonomous District Council, near the India-Myanmar border. Named after Phawngpui Peak, derived from the Lai language: “phong” (meadow) and “pui” (great), reflecting its grassy ridges. Alternatively, means ‘Place of bamboo grass’ in Lai-Pawi dialect. Called Blue Mountain due to clouds veiling the peak, giving it a blue hue from afar. Features steep cliffs (e.g., Thlazuang Khâm, a semi-circular precipice), natural grasslands (e.g., Far Pak), and the Chhimtuipui River (Kalodyne) along its eastern boundary, marking the Myanmar border. Flora: Dominated by sub-tropical broadleaf and tropical evergreen forests, with patches of Himalayan oak, Indian pine, and bamboo groves. Rich in orchids, rhododendrons, daphnia flowers, therapeutic basil, and rare bamboo species (e.g., Eulalia triplicate). Grasslands and wildflowers enhance its scenic beauty. Fauna: Notable Mammals: Clouded leopard, Hoolock gibbon, Slow loris, Malayan sun bear. Birds: Blyth’s tragopan, Mrs. Hume’s pheasant (Mizoram’s state bird), Wreathed hornbill, Fire-tailed sunbird, Grey sibia, Dark-rumped swift, Mt. Victoria babax. Source : Hindustan Times JALLIANWALA BAGH Category: HISTORY Context: The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi paid homage to the martyrs of Jallianwala Bagh. Decoding the context: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab, during the Baisakhi festival. Learning Corner: Occurred during British rule, amidst growing unrest against repressive policies post-World War I (1914–1918). The Rowlatt Act (1919), passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, allowed indefinite detention without trial, sparking nationwide protests. Punjab, under Lieutenant-Governor Michael O’Dwyer, faced severe wartime restrictions, forced recruitment, and economic strain, fueling anti-British sentiment. Immediate Trigger: On April 10, 1919, the arrest and deportation of nationalist leaders Dr. Satyapal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew in Amritsar led to protests, which turned violent after police firing killed several Indians. This prompted a peaceful gathering on April 13 to protest the arrests and Rowlatt Act, coinciding with Baisakhi celebrations. Events of the Massacre Nearly 20,000–25,000 people (including women and children) gathered in Jallianwala Bagh, a walled garden with only one narrow exit. Most were unaware of the martial law prohibiting assemblies, as the notice was poorly publicized. Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer’s Actions: Dyer, the acting military commander of Amritsar, arrived with force.  Without warning, Dyer ordered his troops to fire on the unarmed crowd at 5:30 PM, targeting the densest areas. Casualties: Official British estimates: 379 dead, 1,200 injured. Indian National Congress inquiry (1920): Over 1,000 dead, 1,500+ injured. Consequences Sparked outrage across India, uniting diverse groups against British rule. Amritsar became a focal point of resistance, with protests escalating nationwide. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922), inspired by the massacre’s injustice, marking a shift from moderate to mass-based agitation. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. British Response: The Hunter Commission (1919–1920), set up to investigate, mildly censured Dyer, relieving him of active duty without prosecution. The British House of Lords praised Dyer, while the Commons condemned him; he retired to England, unpunished. Udham Singh’s Retribution: On March 13, 1940, Udham Singh, a survivor, assassinated Michael O’Dwyer (former Lieutenant Governor of Punjab Province, who had backed General Dyer ) in London, seeking justice for Jallianwala. Hanged in 1940, Udham Singh became a martyr. International Impact: Exposed British imperialism’s brutality, weakening its moral legitimacy globally. Investigations and Legacy Hunter Commission (1919–1920): Formed under William Hunter, it included British and Indian members (e.g., Chimanlal Setalvad, Pandit Jagat Narayan). Criticized Dyer for “grave error” in firing without warning but avoided systemic blame. Indian members dissented, demanding stronger accountability. Congress Inquiry (1920): Led by Madan Mohan Malaviya and Motilal Nehru, it estimated higher casualties and condemned British apathy. Source : Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to Kathak, consider the following statements: Kathak originated during the Bhakti movement and was traditionally performed in South Indian temples. Mughal patronage introduced elements like intricate footwork and pirouettes into Kathak. Kumudini Lakhia is credited with transforming Kathak into a group performance. The Jaipur Gharana is known for its emphasis on narrative expression and subtle abhinaya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only Q2.With reference to Phawngpui National Park, consider the following statements: It is located in the Lawngtlai District of Mizoram and shares a border with Bangladesh. It is known as the Blue Mountain due to the bluish appearance of its peak from a distance. The park is home to endangered species like the Clouded Leopard and Hoolock Gibbon. The Chhimtuipui River marks part of its western boundary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only   Q3.With reference to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919, consider the following statements: The massacre occurred in response to violent protests led by Mahatma Gandhi. The Hunter Commission recommended severe legal action against General Dyer. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood as a protest against the massacre. Udham Singh assassinated General Dyer in Caxton Hall, London. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 4 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 and 4 only   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  12th April  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

[DAY 30] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

[DAY 29] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th April 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT Category: POLITY Context: Congress leader Gaurav Gogoi recently criticized the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, calling it “draconian” and expressing concern that it limits access to information. Decoding the context: Other opposition leaders have also urged Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw to repeal Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, arguing that it effectively dilutes the RTI framework. Learning Corner: The DPDP Act propose to amend the Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005. This section prevents a public authority from sharing anyone’s personal information on two main grounds – that the disclosure will have no bearing on any public activity, and that revealing such information would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of an individual, unless such disclosure is justified in larger public interest. According to the proposed DPDP law, the two key grounds, that such information could be disclosed provided it serves a larger public interest, have been done away with.  Union Minister Vaishnav, in response to the opposition claims, underlined that protection of personal information was important as the Supreme Court in the Puttaswamy judgment had held privacy to be an integral part of the Right to Life. About RTI Act The RTI Act came into force in October 2005. Roots: Emerged from grassroots movements, notably the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan, advocating for access to government records in the 1990s. Built on earlier laws like the Freedom of Information Act, 2002 (never implemented) and state-level RTI laws (e.g., Tamil Nadu, 1997; Rajasthan, 2000). Influenced by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution (freedom of speech and expression), which implies the right to know. According to the official site of the Right to Information, “the basic object of the RTI Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in a real sense.” These are the four pillars of the Act. Key Provisions of the RTI Act, 2005 Scope: Applies to all public authorities (Central, State, and local governments, including bodies substantially funded by the government) across India. Process: Application: Citizens submit a written or electronic request to the Public Information Officer (PIO) or Assistant PIO of the concerned authority with a nominal fee (₹10; waived for BPL applicants). Timeline: Information must be provided within 30 days (48 hours for life/liberty matters). Appeals for non-compliance go to a First Appellate Authority (FAA) within the organization, followed by the Information Commission (Central/State). Penalties: PIOs face fines (up to ₹25,000) for delays, refusal, or misinformation (Section 20). Exemptions (Section 8): Information affecting national security, sovereignty, or foreign relations. Trade secrets, intellectual property, or personal privacy (unless public interest overrides). Cabinet papers and ongoing investigations (with caveats). Section 4: Mandates proactive disclosure of information (e.g., budgets, policies) by public authorities to reduce RTI requests. Information Commissions: The RTI Act, 2005, provided for a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions to deal with appeals and complaints against public authorities.  Source : Indian Express DIGITAL THREAT REPORT 2024 Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the Digital Threat Report 2024 for the Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance (BFSI) sector was released by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), the Computer Security Incident Response Team in the Finance sector (CSIRT-Fin), and SISA, a global Cybersecurity company. Decoding the context: The report acknowledged the targeting of crypto exchanges as a new strategy. WazirX, one of India’s major crypto exchanges, was hit by a cyber attack where hackers allegedly stole nearly half of the platform’s crypto reserves worth more than $230 million. More recently, hackers stole digital assets worth over $1.5 billion from Dubai-based crypto exchange Bybit, in what is said to be the largest crypto heist till date. Learning Corner: Deepfakes and AI-generated Content: The report identifies deepfakes and AI-generated content as powerful tools for cyber intrusion, particularly in social engineering attacks. Prompt Hacking Risks: Prompt hacking—manipulating AI models into producing harmful or unintended responses—is more common when LLMs are hosted locally (on company servers or devices), compared to when accessed via secure APIs from providers like OpenAI (ChatGPT) or DeepSeek. Jailbreaking of AI Systems Despite using secure APIs, OpenAI’s ChatGPT has faced successful jailbreak attempts. Jailbraking is the process of removing software restrictions imposed by the device’s manufacturer to install unauthorized software, modify the device’s operating system, and access hidden features.  For instance, in 2023, ChatGPT users discovered that they could bypass the AI chatbot’s safeguards by asking it to pretend to be a dead grandmother. This technique came to be known as the ‘grandma exploit’.  Beyond jailbreaking, the report noted that malicious LLMs such as WormGPT and FraudGPT are capable of writing convincing phishing emails, coding highly effective malware programmes, and automating the development of exploits. The report urges policymakers to: Introduce clear and comprehensive regulations for AI and machine learning use in the BFSI sector. Mandate security testing of APIs used in AI-powered applications to detect and fix hidden vulnerabilities. Source : Indian Express VITAMIN D Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A report by the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER) has sounded the alarm over a worsening public health crisis in India: Vitamin D deficiency.  Decoding the context: With one in five Indians affected, the think tank has called for a national campaign, pricing reforms, food fortification and better diagnostics to tackle what it describes as a “silent epidemic”. Learning Corner: Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin essential for calcium and phosphorus absorption, and thus crucial for bone health. It also plays roles in immune function, cell growth, and inflammation reduction. Type Source D2 (Ergocalciferol) Plant-based sources, fortified foods D3 (Cholecalciferol) Synthesized in human skin on exposure to sunlight; also from animal sources like fish, eggs, liver   ICRIER Report Findings: Prevalence is highest in eastern India (38.81%), with urban areas more affected than rural ones due to lifestyle factors. Despite India’s abundant sunlight, deficiency is widespread due to systemic, cultural, and policy barriers. Causes of Vitamin D Deficiency – The ICRIER report identifies multiple factors driving the crisis Lifestyle Changes: Urbanization: Indoor-centric lifestyles, high-rise buildings, and office work reduce sun exposure, especially in metros (40-60% deficiency). Screen Time: Increased device use among youth limits outdoor activity, particularly affecting adolescents. Environmental Factors: Pollution: High particulate matter in cities blocks UVB rays, hindering Vitamin D synthesis (e.g., Delhi’s air quality index often exceeds 300). Climate: Extreme summers/winters discourage outdoor activity in regions like Rajasthan or Northeast. Dietary Shortfalls: Low Intake: Only 8-14% of Indians meet recommended dairy consumption (rich in Vitamin D). Foods like fish, eggs, and fortified milk are costly or culturally avoided (60% vegetarian population). Lactose Intolerance: Limits milk consumption, especially in southern/eastern India. Unfortified Staples: Wheat, rice, and oils lack mandatory Vitamin D fortification, unlike iodized salt. Biological and Cultural Factors: Skin Tone: Darker skin (high melanin) requires 3-6 times more sun exposure for Vitamin D synthesis, a challenge for most Indians. Clothing Norms: Practices like burqa/purdah or full-body coverage reduce skin exposure, particularly among women. Sunscreen Use: Increasing use in urban areas blocks UVB rays. Socio-Economic Barriers: High Costs: Testing costs ₹1,500+, and supplements range ₹48-130 for 10 tablets, unaffordable for low-income groups. 18% GST on supplements adds burden. Obesity: Impairs Vitamin D metabolism, with India’s obesity rate rising (22% adults, NFHS-5). The ICRIER report underscores Vitamin D deficiency’s far-reaching consequences Skeletal Disorders: 46% of children at risk of rickets; 80-90% of elderly face osteoporosis, increasing fractures and disability. Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs): Linked to cardiovascular diseases (30% higher risk), type 2 diabetes (25% prevalence in adults), and cancers (e.g., breast, prostate). Mental Health: Associated with depression and fatigue, affecting quality of life. Immunity: Weakens resistance to infections (e.g., tuberculosis, COVID-19), straining healthcare systems. Maternal/Child Health: Deficiency in pregnant women correlates with neonatal issues (e.g., low birth weight) Source : Down To Earth BLUE WASHING Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: The Central Pollution Control Board’s 2025 reclassification of waste-to-energy (WTE) incineration from a highly polluting red category to a blue category is criticized as bluewashing, falsely portraying it as an essential environmental service. Decoding the context: Until recently, the waste-to-energy incineration industries were classified by the CPCB as a ‘red category’, a highly polluting industry. Learning Corner: Bluewashing involves organizations making misleading claims about their adherence to social, economic, or ethical standards—such as human rights, labor conditions, or community welfare—to gain public trust, boost brand image, or deflect criticism, without meaningful action. It parallels greenwashing (misleading environmental claims) but focuses on social and economic responsibility rather than ecological concerns. Key Mechanisms Tactics: Vague Claims: Broad statements like “committed to fairness” without measurable outcomes. Selective Disclosure: Highlighting minor initiatives (e.g., a single ethical product) to obscure broader issues (e.g., sweatshops). Symbolic Affiliations: Joining voluntary initiatives (e.g., UNGC) for branding without compliance. Misleading Certifications: Using unverified labels to suggest ethical practices. Recent Example – PepsiCo: Claimed “positive water balance” but criticized by India Resource Center (2022) for incomplete water use accounting in water-stressed Indian regions (e.g., Tamil Nadu). Source : Down To Earth LONG-RANGE GLIDE BOMB ‘GAURAV’ Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the Release Trials of Long-Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) ‘Gaurav’ from the Su-30 MKI aircraft.  Decoding the context: The Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘Gaurav’ enhances the standoff capabilities of the Indian Air Force and reflects India’s commitment to self-reliance under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative in defence manufacturing. Learning Corner: Gaurav is a 1,000 kg class, air-launched, precision-guided glide bomb designed to strike high-value targets at long distances with pinpoint accuracy. Development: Indigenously designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Range: Capable of gliding up to 100 km when launched from high altitudes (e.g., 40,000 feet). Guidance System – Uses a hybrid navigation system combining: Inertial Navigation System (INS): Tracks position via accelerometers and gyroscopes. Global Positioning System (GPS): Ensures precise targeting, with potential integration of NavIC (India’s satellite navigation system) in future iterations. About Glide Bombs A glide bomb is an air-launched, unpowered weapon equipped with aerodynamic surfaces (e.g., wings or fins) that enable it to glide over a long distance toward a target after release from an aircraft.  Unlike traditional free-fall bombs, it uses precision guidance to achieve high accuracy, making it effective for standoff strikes (attacking from a safe distance). Key Characteristics: No Propulsion: Relies on the aircraft’s initial velocity and altitude for range, distinguishing it from missiles (e.g., BrahMos). Guidance Systems: Typically uses Inertial Navigation System (INS), GPS, or laser guidance for precision (e.g., within meters). Range: Varies from 30-100 km, depending on design and release altitude (e.g., Gaurav achieves 100 km). Warheads: Configurable for multiple targets—fragmentation (soft targets like personnel) or penetration (hardened structures like bunkers). Platforms: Deployed from fighter jets (e.g., Su-30 MK-I for Gaurav, Rafale, F-16 globally). How It Works Launch: Dropped from an aircraft at high altitude (e.g., 40,000 feet) and speed (e.g., Mach 0.8). Glide Phase: Aerodynamic wings or fins extend, allowing the bomb to glide, conserving momentum to cover long distances. Guidance: Onboard systems (INS-GPS, laser) track the target, adjusting flight path via control surfaces for accuracy. Impact: Strikes with precision, minimizing collateral damage compared to unguided bombs. Source : PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to Vitamin D deficiency in India, consider the following statements: Urban areas in India show a higher prevalence of Vitamin D deficiency than rural areas. Skin tone has no impact on Vitamin D synthesis from sunlight. Lactose intolerance is one of the factors that limits Vitamin D intake in certain regions. Vitamin D can be synthesized only through dietary intake and not via sunlight. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only   Q2.The term ‘bluewashing’, often seen in the news, refers to: (a) Overuse of water resources by industrial units without accountability. (b) Misrepresentation of social and ethical responsibility by organizations to appear trustworthy. (c) Artificial coloring of water bodies to hide pollution levels. (d) A climate change adaptation practice involving seawater filtration.   Q3.Consider the following statements regarding the Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘Gaurav’: It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It uses propulsion to reach distant targets beyond the line of sight. It is launched from high-altitude aircraft and guided by an INS-GPS hybrid system. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  11th April  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

[DAY 28] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th April 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NILGIRI TAHR Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Kerala and Tamil Nadu will jointly carry out a Nilgiri Tahr census from April 24 to 27. The survey will span 89 census blocks in Kerala and 176 blocks in Tamil Nadu over the four-day period. Decoding the context: Kerala Forest Minister A.K. Sase announced the initiative, stating that the synchronised survey of the mountain ungulate is being conducted to commemorate the 50th anniversary of the establishment of Eravikulam National Park. Learning Corner: Scientific Name: Nilgiritragus hylocrius. Common Name: Nilgiri Tahr (locally called Varayadu in Tamil/Malayalam). Taxonomy: Belongs to the Bovidae family (related to goats and antelopes), it is the only mountain ungulate species in southern India. Status: Classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and population decline. Habitat: Found exclusively in the Western Ghats, primarily in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, at elevations between 1,200 and 2,600 meters. Key Locations: Tamil Nadu: Mukurthi National Park, and Anamalai Hills. Kerala: Eravikulam National Park, Silent Valley National Park and Parambikulam Tiger Reserve. Population: Estimated at around 3,000 individuals (as of recent surveys), with Eravikulam hosting the largest population (~700-800). Geographical Significance: Thrives in montane grasslands and shola forests, a unique ecosystem of the Western Ghats. Physical and Behavioral Characteristics Appearance: Males are larger, with curved horns, darker coats (greyish-brown), and a distinctive saddle-like patch after maturity. Females are smaller, with lighter coats and shorter horns. Adaptations: Agile climbers suited to steep, rocky terrains; grazes on grasses and herbs in montane ecosystems. Behavior: Lives in small herds (10-20 individuals), with males often solitary except during mating season (monsoon, June-August). Ecological Importance Role in Ecosystem: As a herbivore, it maintains grassland ecosystems by grazing, preventing shrub overgrowth and supporting shola forest dynamics. Indicator Species: Its presence reflects the health of high-altitude ecosystems in the Western Ghats, sensitive to climate change and habitat disturbance. Conservation Efforts Project Nilgiri Tahr (2023): Launched by the Tamil Nadu government to protect the species, declared the State Animal of Tamil Nadu. Aims to map habitats, boost populations, and raise awareness. Operation Tahr: Efforts to relocate small populations to new habitats (e.g., Mukurthi) to reduce overcrowding risks. International Frameworks: Covered under CITES Appendix I, restricting trade in its parts. Source : The Hindu ARCTIC BOREAL ZONE (ABZ) Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: According to a new study published in Nature Climate Change, the increasing ferocity of wildfires means that more than 30 % of Arctic Boreal Zone has now stopped capturing carbon and is instead releasing it. Decoding the context: The consequences of these changes creates a dangerous feedback loop. According to the study, as wildfires become more common and more intense, they burn through the natural carbon reservoirs that have historically helped regulate the earth’s climate. The carbon released from these fires further fuels global warming, which in turn creates conditions for more frequent and  intense wildfires. Learning Corner: Location: The ABZ spans the high-latitude Northern Hemisphere, roughly above 50°N, encompassing parts of the Arctic and sub-Arctic (boreal) regions. It includes: Countries: Canada, Russia, United States (Alaska), Nordic countries (Norway, Sweden, Finland), and Greenland (Denmark). Area: Covers approximately 26 million square kilometers, including boreal forests (taiga), treeless tundra, wetlands, and permafrost regions. Physiography: Boreal Forests (Taiga): World’s largest terrestrial biome, dominated by coniferous trees (pines, spruces, firs). Tundra: Treeless areas with low shrubs, grasses, and permafrost (permanently frozen soil). Transition Zone: Gradual shift from forested taiga to barren tundra. Climate: Cold, subarctic, with long winters (-50°C to 0°C) and short summers (0°C to 20°C). Annual precipitation is low (15-100 cm), often as snow. Ecological Significance Flora: Cold-tolerant species like conifers, mosses, lichens, and tundra grasses. Fauna: Polar bears, Arctic foxes, caribou, migratory birds (e.g., ducks), and fish in Arctic rivers. The ABZ is a breeding ground for over half of North America’s migratory birds. Historically, the ABZ acted as a carbon sink, storing vast amounts of carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) in permafrost soils (1,460-1,600 petagrams of organic carbon, nearly twice the atmospheric carbon). Recent studies (e.g., Nature Climate Change, 2025) indicate that 34-40% of the ABZ has become a carbon source, releasing more COâ‚‚ than it absorbs due to permafrost thaw, wildfires, and microbial activity. Arctic Amplification: The ABZ warms 2.5-4 times faster than the global average due to reduced sea ice (albedo effect) and greenhouse gas emissions. Source : The Hindu LORD MAHAVIR Category: ART & CULTURE Context: India celebrated Mahavir Jayanti, a day of deep spiritual significance and profound peace, commemorating the birth of Lord Mahavir, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism. Decoding the context: This year, the spirit of Mahavir Jayanti was powerfully invoked through the inauguration of Navkar Mahamantra Divas by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on April 9. The Navkar Mantra, central to Jain prayer, is more than a collection of sacred syllables, it is a rhythmic flow of energy, stability, and light. Learning Corner: Born as Vardhamana in 599 BCE (traditional date, though some sources suggest 615 BCE) in Kundagrama (modern-day Vaishali, Bihar). Belonged to the Kshatriya clan of the Ikshvaku dynasty, son of King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala of the Licchavi republic. He was spiritual successor of the 23rd Tirthankara Parshvanatha. Title Mahavir (“Great Hero”) reflects his spiritual conquest over worldly attachments. At age 30, after his parents’ death, he renounced royal life to pursue asceticism, seeking liberation from the cycle of birth and death (samsara). Underwent 12 years of intense meditation, austerity, and penance, achieving Kevala Jnana (omniscience) at 42 under a sal tree in Jrimbhikagrama (Bihar). Philosophical Contributions/ Core Teachings: Five Mahavratas (Great Vows) for ascetics (also guiding laypersons): Ahimsa (Non-violence): Absolute respect for all life forms, influencing diet (strict vegetarianism) and behavior. Satya (Truthfulness): Commitment to honesty in thought, word, and deed. Asteya (Non-stealing): Respecting others’ property and rights. Brahmacharya (Celibacy): Chastity for monks; fidelity for householders. Aparigraha (Non-possessiveness): Detachment from material and emotional attachments. Three Jewels (Triratna): Right Faith (Samyak Darshan): Belief in Jain principles. Right Knowledge (Samyak Jnana): Understanding the nature of reality. Right Conduct (Samyak Charitra): Living ethically per the vows. Karma: Emphasized that actions (good or bad) bind the soul to samsara, and liberation (moksha) requires shedding karmic burdens through austerity. Anekantavada: Doctrine of “many-sidedness,” promoting tolerance by acknowledging multiple perspectives of truth. Syadvada: Logical extension of Anekantavada, suggesting conditional truths (e.g., “in some ways, it is”). Role in Jainism 24th Tirthankara: Mahavir is considered the last of the 24 spiritual teachers (Tirthankaras) in Jainism, who revitalized the faith rather than founding it (Rishabhanatha, the 1st Tirthankara, is credited as the founder). Reformer: Systematized Jain doctrines, organized the monastic community (sangha), and simplified teachings for wider acceptance. Fourfold Order (Chaturvidha Sangha): Established a structured community of: Monks (Sadhus), Nuns (Sadhvis), Laymen (Shravakas), Laywomen (Shravikas). Spread of Jainism: Traveled extensively across Magadha, Kosala, and Anga, gaining followers among kings (e.g., Bimbisara, Ajatashatru) and commoners. Social Reforms: Advocated equality, rejecting caste hierarchies, and emphasized individual effort for salvation, challenging Vedic rituals. Encouraged women in spiritual pursuits; the Jain sangha had a significant number of nuns. Jain Texts: Mahavir’s teachings were initially oral, later compiled by his disciples into Agamas (canonical texts). The Jain Agamas and their commentaries were composed mainly in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit as well as in Maharashtri Prakrit. Key Scriptures : Acharanga Sutra: On monastic conduct. Sutra Kritanga: On philosophical debates. Kalpa Sutra: Biographies of Tirthankaras. Source : PIB NIVESHAK DIDI Category: NATIONAL Context: Phase 2 of the “Niveshak Didi” initiative was launched recently. Decoding the context: During Phase 1, more than 55,000 beneficiaries participated in IPPB Financial Literacy Camps across India, with approx. 60% female beneficiaries mostly in the youth & economically active age group. Learning Corner: Phase 1: Initiated in 2022 by the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) in collaboration with the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), with support from the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications. Phase 2 (April 2025): Expanded to deepen outreach, with a Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) signed between IEPFA and India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) to train more women and conduct additional camps. Core Ideology: “By the women, for the women,” recognizing that rural women feel more comfortable discussing financial matters with other women, fostering trust and engagement. Objective: To empower rural and semi-urban women with financial literacy, enabling them to make informed decisions about savings, investments, digital banking, and fraud prevention. Key Features Women-Led Model: Trains women postal workers and community leaders as “Niveshak Didis” (female educators) to deliver financial education in local languages and culturally relatable ways. Leverages the trust and social connect of women like female postwomen (dakiyas) to bridge literacy gaps. Focus Areas: Banking Products: Understanding savings accounts, fixed deposits, and loans. Digital Banking: Promoting UPI, mobile banking, and paperless transactions via IPPB’s platforms. Investment Awareness: Educating on safe investments and risks of unregulated schemes. Fraud Prevention: Teaching how to identify financial scams and protect personal information. Financial Planning: Encouraging responsible money management for household and future security. Delivery Methods: Village-level camps, door-to-door outreach, and interactive sessions. Use of IPPB’s network (1.65 lakh post offices, 3 lakh postal employees) for grassroots penetration. Source : PIB REGIONAL RURAL BANK Category: ECONOMY Context: The Department of Financial Services (DFS) has notified the amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) under the “One State, One RRB” principle. This is the fourth phase of the RRB consolidation process.  Decoding the context: 26 RRBs across 10 states and one Union Territory have been merged, focusing on enhancing scale, efficiency, and cost rationalisation. Currently, 43 RRBs operate across 26 states and two Union Territories. Post-amalgamation, there will be 28 RRBs covering 700 districts with more than 22,000 branches. Around 92 percent of these branches are located in rural and semi-urban areas. Learning Corner: RRBs were created on October 2, 1975, under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976, following recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975) to address credit gaps in rural areas left by commercial banks and cooperatives. Objective: To provide affordable banking and credit facilities to small farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and rural entrepreneurs, fostering rural economic development. First RRB: Prathama Bank, established in Moradabad, Uttar Pradesh, sponsored by Syndicate Bank. RRBs are jointly owned by: Central Government: 50%,  Sponsor Bank (usually a public sector bank): 35%, State Government: 15%. Sponsorship: Each RRB is linked to a sponsor bank (e.g., State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank) for operational and managerial support. Post- the present consolidation, the largest RRB in a state becomes the transferee bank, with its sponsor bank overseeing the amalgamated entity. RRBs are mandated to follow Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets. As of 2025, the PSL target for RRBs is 75% of ANBC, significantly higher than the 40% required for other commercial banks, reflecting their primary role in rural and agricultural credit. Significance of “One State, One RRB” Amalgamation Scale Efficiency: Larger RRBs reduce operational overlap, streamline administration, and lower costs. Financial Stability: Mergers enhance capital base (deposits: ₹6.6 lakh crore; advances: ₹4.7 lakh crore as of March 2024), reducing reliance on government recapitalization. Technology Adoption: Consolidated entities can invest in modern banking tech (e.g., core banking systems), competing with private banks and small finance banks. Uniform Branding: New names reflecting state identity (e.g., Bihar Gramin Bank) strengthen trust and regional connect. Source : Newsonair Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to Lord Mahavir and Jainism, consider the following statements: Lord Mahavir was the founder of Jainism and the first Tirthankara in the Jain tradition. The concept of Anekantavada, attributed to Mahavir, promotes the idea of multiple perspectives or truths. The language used by Lord Mahavir for delivering his teachings was Sanskrit. The Acharanga Sutra is one of the oldest Jain texts and deals with the conduct of monks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only   Q2. Which of the following statements about the “Niveshak Didi” initiative is/are correct? It is a financial literacy program launched by the Reserve Bank of India. The initiative trains women postal workers to act as financial educators in rural areas. The program aims to promote financial literacy among urban youth. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only   Q3. With reference to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India, consider the following statements: RRBs are required to maintain Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) norms as mandated by the RBI. RRBs are exempt from maintaining the Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR). RRBs are regulated by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) alone. RRBs are required to maintain the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) similar to Scheduled Commercial Banks. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 2 and 3 only   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  10th April  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th April 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) REPO RATE Category: ECONOMY Context: The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) on April 9th decided to cut the repo rate by 25 basis points to 6%. Decoding the context: The rate setting panel also changed the monetary policy stance from “neutral” to “accommodative”, signaling further reductions in the repo rate in the near future. Learning Corner: The repo rate is the interest rate at which a central bank (Reserve Bank of India  – RBI), lends money to commercial banks for a short period.  The term “repo” stands for repurchase agreement, which means that banks borrow funds from the RBI by selling securities (usually government bonds) with an agreement to repurchase them at a later date, typically overnight or within a few days. The repo rate essentially represents the cost of borrowing for these banks. When the RBI lowers the repo rate (like reducing it from 6.25% to 6% on April 9, 2025), it becomes cheaper for banks to borrow money. This typically encourages banks to lend more to businesses and individuals, boosting economic activity, increasing money supply, and potentially stimulating growth About Reverse Repo The reverse repo rate is the interest rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. It’s essentially the opposite of the repo rate. When banks deposit their excess funds with the RBI, they earn interest at the reverse repo rate. This rate is typically lower than the repo rate and helps the RBI absorb liquidity from the economy.  If the RBI wants to reduce the amount of money circulating (to control inflation, for example), it might increase the reverse repo rate, incentivizing banks to park more funds with it instead of lending them out. Source : Indian Express PANCHAYAT ADVANCEMENT INDEX (PAI) Category: POLITY Context: In a push for data driven governance, the Department of Panchayati Raj has come up with the first ever Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI).  Decoding the context: There are 2.5 lakh gram panchayats in the country. Out of these, data of around 2.16 lakh gram panchayats from 29 States have been assessed. Learning Corner: The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) is a comprehensive, multi-domain, and multi-sectoral tool introduced by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in India to assess the holistic development, performance, and progress of Gram Panchayats across the country.  The PAI reflects India’s commitment to achieving the SDG 2030 Agenda through participatory, bottom-up development.  The first baseline report, released for FY 2022-23, analyzed data from 2,16,285 panchayats with validated inputs. Purpose of PAI : Measures the overall well-being and development status of local communities under a panchayat’s jurisdiction. Identifies development gaps and supports evidence-based planning and policy-making at the grassroots level. Encourages panchayats to adopt best practices and set local targets to enhance their performance. Indicators: Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) is a composite Index & has been compiled based on 435 unique local Indicators (331 mandatory & 104 optional) consisting of 566 unique data points across 9 themes of LSDGs (Localization of Sustainable Development Goals) aligned with National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Nine Themes of Localized SDGs: Poverty-Free and Enhanced Livelihoods Panchayat Healthy Panchayat Child-Friendly Panchayat Water-Sufficient Panchayat Clean and Green Panchayat Self-Sufficient Infrastructure in Panchayat Socially Just and Socially Secured Panchayat Panchayat with Good Governance Women-Friendly Panchayat Based on the PAI scores & thematic Scores achieved by different Gram Panchayats, these GPs are grouped into one of the five categories Achiever: 90+ score (none achieved this in 2022-23) Front Runner: 75 to <90 (e.g., 699 panchayats, 0.3%) Performer: 60 to <75 (e.g., 77,298 panchayats, 35.8%) Aspirant: 40 to <60 (e.g., 1,32,392 panchayats, 61.2%) Beginner: <40 (e.g., 5,896 panchayats, 2.7%) Source : The Hindu BEAR MARKET Category: ECONOMY Context: The S&P 500 —- a stock market index that tracks the performance of 500 of the largest publicly traded companies in the US — on Monday briefly entered bear market territory for the first time since 2022. Decoding the context: A bear market (or for that matter, all types of market decline) takes place when investors are more motivated to sell than to buy stocks. Learning Corner: A bear market refers to a condition in which a stock index declines by at least 20% from its most recent peak value. This designation lacks an official or standardized determination and serves primarily as an informal term to succinctly indicate a significant downturn in the stock index. A bear market is the opposite of a bull market, which refers to when a stock index has increased at least 20% from its recent low. Note that a bear market is different from a market correction which occurs when there is a decline of at least 10% or more. Why does a bear market occur? There could be a host of different reasons. These include a weak economy, the anticipation of an economic slowdown, or investor sentiment that the market is too hot and prices too high. Events that are not purely economic — such as wars, oil supply shocks, etc — can also spook investors, leading to a dip in the market. A bear market often precedes a recession — a slowdown in economic output and is usually defined as at least two consecutive quarters of decline in gross domestic product (GDP). However, this is not always the case. The Indian stock market has also experienced bear markets over the years. One of the worst bear markets occurred during the 2008 global financial crisis. Between September 8, 2008, and November 6, 2008, the Nifty 50 index had dropped over 35%. Source : Indian Express THAR DESERT Category: GEOGRAPHY Context: The Thar Desert in India saw a striking 38 per cent rise in greening annually over the last two decades, driven by a significant increase in monsoon rainfall and agricultural expansion, a new study showed. Decoding the context: In fact, Thar was the only desert in the world with the highest concurrent increase in population, precipitation and vegetation during the last few decades, scientists from IIT Gandhinagar and Bay Area Environmental Research Institute, NASA Research Park in the US established.  Learning Corner: Location: The Thar Desert is located in northwestern India, primarily in Rajasthan (over 60% of its Indian extent), with parts extending into Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab. It also spills into eastern Pakistan (Sindh and Punjab provinces). Area: Covers approximately 2,00,000 sq. km in India, making it the world’s 17th-largest desert and the 9th-largest hot subtropical desert. Boundaries: North: Punjab plains East: Aravalli Range South: Rann of Kutch West: Indus River valley in Pakistan Physical Features Topography: Characterized by vast stretches of sand dunes (longitudinal and transverse), rocky outcrops, salt lakes, and sparse vegetation. The terrain includes shifting dunes (locally called dhrian) and fixed dunes stabilized by vegetation. Rivers: The Luni River is the only significant seasonal river in the region, flowing southwest into the Rann of Kutch. Most other water bodies are ephemeral. Climate: Arid with extreme temperatures—summers exceeding 45°C and winters dropping to near 0°C. Annual rainfall is low (100-500 mm), mostly during the southwest monsoon, with high variability. Soil: Predominantly sandy and saline, with low organic content, making it less fertile except in areas with irrigation. Ecological Significance Despite its aridity, the Thar supports unique flora and fauna: Flora: Xerophytic plants like khejri (Prosopis cineraria), rohida, and cacti. Fauna: Great Indian Bustard (critically endangered), chinkara, desert fox, and blackbuck. Migratory birds like flamingos visit salt lakes (e.g., Sambhar Lake). National Park: The Desert National Park in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts is a biodiversity hotspot and a conservation area for the Great Indian Bustard. Socio-Economic Aspects Population: Sparsely populated (around 83 persons/sq. km) with communities like Rajputs, Jats, and nomadic tribes (e.g., Banjaras). Livestock rearing (camels, goats, sheep) is a primary livelihood. Agriculture: Limited due to aridity, but irrigation projects like the Indira Gandhi Canal (world’s longest canal, 649 km) have transformed parts of Sri Ganganagar, Bikaner, and Jaisalmer into fertile zones for wheat, cotton, and mustard. Economy: Mineral resources (gypsum, limestone, feldspar) and renewable energy (solar and wind) are emerging sectors. Bikaner and Jodhpur are hubs for solar projects. Culture: Rich heritage with folk music (e.g., Manganiyar tradition), handicrafts, and tourism (e.g., Jaisalmer Fort, camel safaris). Source : Down To Earth CHITTORGARH FORT Category: HISTORY Context: The Rajasthan government informed the Supreme Court that it is “actively considering” a complete ban on mining activities up to 10 kilometres from the outer boundary of the historic Chittorgarh Fort, seeking time to place on record its affidavit. Decoding the context: The matter arises from a long-standing legal battle between Birla Corporation Limited and the State of Rajasthan and others, regarding mining operations near the Fort, a UNESCO World Heritage site.  Learning Corner: Geographical Position: Situated in Chittorgarh (often spelled Chittor Fort), Rajasthan, atop a 180-meter-high hill overlooking the Berach River (a tributary of the Banas River), approximately 112 km from Udaipur. Area: Sprawls over 280 hectares (692 acres), making it one of the largest forts in India and a UNESCO World Heritage Site (listed in 2013 under “Hill Forts of Rajasthan”). Origins: Traditionally dated to the 7th century AD, attributed to Chitrangada Mori of the Mori Kingdom. Rajput Rule: Became the capital of the Mewar kingdom under the Sisodia Rajputs from the 8th century onward. The fort symbolizes Rajput resistance, honor, and sacrifice. Key Events: First Siege (1303): Alauddin Khalji of the Delhi Sultanate attacked. This led to  jauhar (mass self-immolation) by women to avoid capture. Second Siege (1535): Bahadur Shah of Gujarat besieged the fort, leading to another jauhar led by Rani Karnavati. Third Siege (1567-68): Mughal Emperor Akbar captured the fort, marking the decline of Mewar’s dominance. The fort was abandoned as a capital after this—Udaipur became the new capital. Architectural Features Design: A classic example of a hill fort with concentric layers of defense—seven massive gates (e.g., Padan Pol, Bhairon Pol, Ram Pol), thick stone walls, and natural elevation. Monuments Inside: Vijay Stambh (Tower of Victory): Built by Rana Kumbha in 1448 to commemorate his victory over Mahmud Khalji of Malwa. A nine-story, 37-meter-high tower adorned with Jain and Hindu carvings. Kirti Stambh (Tower of Fame): A 22-meter-high, 12th-century Jain tower dedicated to Adinath, showcasing intricate sculptures. Rana Kumbha Palace: The oldest structure, partially in ruins, where Rani Padmini is said to have performed jauhar. Padmini Palace: A picturesque structure near a lotus pool, linked to the legend of Padmini. Temples: Over 20 temples, including the Kumbha Shyam Temple (Vishnu), Meera Temple (dedicated to poet-saint Meerabai), and Kalika Mata Temple (originally a Sun temple from the 8th century, it was later dedicated to Goddess Kali). Water Bodies: 22 surviving reservoirs (e.g., Gaumukh Kund) out of 84 originally built, showcasing advanced water harvesting for self-sufficiency. UNESCO Status: Recognized in 2013 as part of the Hill Forts of Rajasthan (alongside Kumbhalgarh, Ranthambore, etc.) for its architectural grandeur and historical legacy. Source : Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding a Bear Market: A bear market is characterized by a decline of at least 100% in stock prices from recent highs. It generally reflects negative investor sentiment and a pessimistic economic outlook. A bear market is always accompanied by a recession. A bear market is the opposite of a bull market. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Q2. With reference to the Thar Desert, consider the following statements: The Luni River is the only major river flowing through the Thar Desert and it ultimately drains into the Arabian Sea. The Desert National Park located in the Thar region is a critical habitat for the Great Indian Bustard. The Indira Gandhi Canal has contributed significantly to the greening of parts of the desert, especially in Rajasthan. The Aravalli Range forms the western boundary of the Thar Desert. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Q3. With reference to the Chittorgarh Fort, consider the following statements: The fort served as the capital of the Mewar kingdom under the Sisodia Rajputs. The Kirti Stambh in the fort was built by Rana Kumbha to commemorate his victory over the Malwa Sultan. Chittorgarh Fort is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites listed under “Hill Forts of Rajasthan.” The fort witnessed three major sieges, the last one being by Emperor Akbar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  8th April  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b